Class 10

The strategic use of TS 10th Class Maths Model Papers and TS 10th Class Maths Question Paper March 2025 can significantly enhance a student’s problem-solving skills.

TS 10th Class Maths Question Paper March 2025

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. Answer all the questions under Part – A on a separate answer book.
2. Write the answers to the questions under Part – B on the question paper itself and attach it to the answer book of Part – A.

Part – A (60 Marks)
Section – I (6 × 2 = 12 Marks)

Question 1.
Show that the points A(- 6, 10), B(- 4, 6), and C(3, – 8) are collinear.
Solution:

Question 2.
Write a Quadratic equation whose roots are the values of sin 30° and cos 60°.
Solution:
sin 30° = \(\frac{1}{2}\) ; cos 60° = \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Sum of roots = \(\frac{1}{2}\) + \(\frac{1}{2}\) = 1
Product of roots = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × \(\frac{1}{2}\) = \(\frac{1}{4}\)
Quadratic equation
x² – x(sum of roots) + Product of roots = 0
⇒ x² – x(1) + \(\frac{1}{4}\) = 0
∴ 4x² – 4x + \(\frac{1}{4}\) = 0 is the required quadratic
equation.

Question 3.
In an arithmetic progression, first term is T, last term is 20 and the sum of all the terms is 399, then find the number of terms in the progression.
Solution:

Question 4.
“An observer standing at a distance of 50 metre from the foot of a tower observes its top at an angle of elevation of 45°. Draw a suitable diagram for this situation.
Solution:

AB – Tower
C – Position of observer
60° – Angle of elevation

Question 5.
If the pair of linear equations (3k + 1)x + 3y – 2 = 0 and (k² + 1) x + (k – 2) y – 5 = 0 has no solutions, then find the value of k.
Solution:
a₁ = 3k + 1, b₁ = 3, c₁ = -2
a₂ = k² + 1, b₂ = k – 2, c₂ = -5
Given pair of linear equations has no solution

Question 6.
The ratio of radius and slant height of a Right circular cone is 7:25. If its curved surface area is 550 cm², then find its radius.
Solution:

Section – II (6 × 4 = 24 Marks)

Note:

1. Answer ALL the following questions.
2. Each question carries 4 marks.

Question 7.
From the given Venn diagram, find the sets A ∪ B, A ∩ B, A – B and B – A.

Solution:
A = {1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15, 30}
B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24}
A∪B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 10, 12, 15, 24, 30}
A ∩ B = {1, 2, 3, 6}
A – B = {5, 10, 15, 30}
B – A = {4, 8, 12, 24}

Question 8.
From a well-shuffled deck of cards if a card is selected randomly, then find the probability of getting
i) A red coloured king
ii) A black coloured face card
ii) A diamond card with number 11 on it
iv) Queen of clubs
Solution:
i) P(Getting a red coloured King)
\(=\frac{\text { Number of favourable outcomes }}{\text { Number of total outcomes }}\)
= \(\frac{2}{52}\) = \(\frac{1}{26}\)

ii) P (Getting a black coloured face card)
= \(\frac{6}{52}\) = \(\frac{3}{26}\)

iii) P (Getting a diamond card with number 11)
= \(\frac{0}{52}\) = 0 (∵ Impossible event)

iv) P (Getting Queen of clubs) = \(\frac{1}{52}\)

Question 9.
Show that \(\left[\frac{1+\tan ^2 A}{1+\cot ^2 A}\right]\) = \(\left[\frac{1-\tan A}{1-\cot A}\right]^2\) = tan²A
Solution:

Question 10.
In ΔABC, DE || BC
If AD = x – 2, DB = 5, AE = 2x – 1, EC = 2x + 5, then find the value of x.

Solution:

⇒ 2x² + 5x – 4x – 10 = 10x – 5
⇒ 2x² – 9x – 5 = 0
⇒ 2x² – 10x + x – 5 = 0
⇒ 2x(x – 5) + 1 (x – 5) = 0
⇒ (x – 5)(2x + 1) = 0
⇒ x = 5 or x = –\(\frac{1}{2}\)
But x value can’t be –\(\frac{1}{2}\) as length can’t be negative.
So, x – 5 is the required solution.

Question 11.
Write the formula for the sum of first ‘n’ terms of an arithmetic progression and explain each term in it.
Solution:
Sum of first ‘n’ terms of an arithmetic progression
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[2a + (n – 1)d] S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)[a + l]
n = number of terms
a = first term
d = common difference
S_n = sum of first
(or)
n = number of terms
a = first term ‘n’ terms
l = last term
S_n = sum of first ‘n’ terms

Question 12.
Show that the triangle with vertices
A(- 4, 2), B(2, – 4), C(12, 6) forms a Right – angled triangle.
Solution:
A(-4, 2) B(2, -4), C(12, 6)
If (x₁, y₁) (x₂, y₂) are any two points, then the distance between those two points.

Section – III (4 × 6 = 24 Marks)

Note :

1. Answer any 4 questions from the given six following questions.
2. Each question carries 6 marks.

Question 13.
Draw the graph of the polynomial p(x) = x² + 2x – 3 and find zeroes of the polynomial from the graph.
Solution:

Question 14.
Find the mode of the following data :

Solution:

Since the maximum frequency is 20.
the modal class is 40 – 50.
Lower boundary of the modal class ‘l’ = 40
Frequency of the modal class, f₁ = 20
Frequency of the class preceding the modal class, f₀ = 12
Frequency of the class succeeding the modal class, f₂ = 11

Question 15.
Draw a circle of radius 3 cm. Construct a pair of tangents to the circle from an external point which is at a distance of 8 cm from the centre of the circle.
Solution:

Steps of construction

1. Draw a circle from a point ‘O’ with a radius of 3 cm.
2. Now trace a point ‘P’ at a distance of 8 cm from the centre ‘O’, then \(\overline{\mathrm{OP}}\) = 8 cm.
3. Construct perpendicular bisector \(\overline{\mathrm{KL}}\) which meets \(\overline{\mathrm{OP}}\) at ‘M’.
4. Now construct a circle from the point ‘M’ with a radius \(\overline{\mathrm{OM}}\) or \(\overline{\mathrm{MP}}\), which meets the previous circle at the points A, B.
5. Then join \(\overline{\mathrm{PA}}\) and \(\overline{\mathrm{PB}}\) which are required tangents.

Question 16.
If x² + y² = 27xy, then show that 2 log (x – y) = 2 log 5 + log x + log y.
Solution:
x² + y² = 27xy (Given)
Subtracting 2xy on both sides,
x² + y² – 2xy = 27xy – 2xy
(x – y)² = 25xy
Applying ‘log’ on both sides
log (x – y)² = log (25xy)
= log (5² × x × y)
2 log (x + y) = log 5² + log x + log y
= 2 log 5 + log x + log y
Alternative method:
LHS = 2 log (x – y)
= log (x – y)²
= log (x² + y² – 2xy)
= log (27xy – 2xy)
[∵ x² + y² = 27xy (given)]
= log (25 xy)
= log 25 + log x + log y
= log 5² + log x + log y
= 2 log 5 + log x + log y
= RHS.

Question 17.
Find the coordinates of the points which divide the line segment joining the points A(-2, 2) and B(2, 8) into four equal parts.
Solution:
Given, A (-2, 2) and B (2, 8).
Let P, Q and R be the points which divide AB into four equal parts.

Question 18.
A metallic vessel is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted over a hemisphere. The radii of cylinder and hemisphere are same and the height of the cylindrical part is 10 cm. If the outer surface area of the vessel is 748 cm², then find their radii.
Solution:

Part – B (20 Marks)

Note :

1. ALL questions are to be answered.
2. Each question carries 1 mark.
3. Answers are to be written in the Question paper only.
4. Marks will not be given for over – writing, rewriting or erased answers.

I. Write the capital (A, B, C, D) of the correct answer in the brackets provided against each question, 20 × 1 = 20

Question 1.
Set-builder form of the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5} [ ]
A) {x : x ∈ W and 0 < x < 5}
B) {x : x ∈ W and 0 < x ≤ 5}
C) {X : X ∈ W and 0 ≤ x ≤ 5}
D) {x : x ∈ W and 0 ≤ x ≤ 5}
Solution:
B) {x : x ∈ W and 0 < x ≤ 5}

Question 2.
The \(\frac{\mathrm{p}}{\mathrm{q}}\) (q ≠ 0) form of 0.125 is
A) \(\frac{125}{10}\)
B) \(\frac{125}{100}\)
C) \(\frac{125}{1000}\)
D) \(\frac{0.125}{100}\)
Solution:
C) \(\frac{125}{1000}\)

Question 3.
In a random experiment E and \(\overline{\mathbf{E}}\) are complementary events. If P(E) = 0.43, then the value of P(\(\overline{\mathbf{E}}\)) is [ ]
A) 0.53
B) 0.47
C) 0.43
D) 0.57
Solution:
D) 0.57

Question 4.
A = {x : x is a letter of the word “RAMANUJAN”}, then n(A) = ? [ ]
A) 9
B) 8
C) 7
D) 6
Solution:
D) 6

Question 5.
The quadratic equation, whose sum of the roots is 5 and product of the roots is 6, is [ ]
A) x² – 5x + 6 = 0
B) x² + 5x + 6 = 0
C) x² – 6x + 5 = 0
D) x² + 6x + 5 = 0
Solution:
A) x² – 5x + 6 = 0

Question 6.
Centroid of the triangle with vertices A(0, 4), B(4, -2) and C(5, 10) is [ ]
A) (3, 4)
B) (3, 3)
C) (4, 3)
D) (4, 4)
Solution:
A) (3, 4)

Question 7.
If one root of a quadratic equation x² – 5x + k = 0 is 2, then the value of k is [ ]
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) – 6
Solution:
C) 6

Question 8.
The lengths of tangents from an external point P to a circle with centre ‘O’ are 2x² – 3 and x² + 22, then the value of x is

A) 3
B) 5
C) 22
D) 19
Solution:
B) 5

Question 9.
Sum of first 10 terms of arithmetic progression log 3, log 9, log 27, ………… is [ ]
A) 45 log 3
B) 90 log 3
C) 10 log 3
D) 55 log 3
Solution:
D) 55 log 3

Question 10.
Nature of roots of a quadratic equation x² – 4x + 4 = 0 is
A) Real and distinct
B) Real and equal
C) Not Real and distinct
D) Not Real and equal
Solution:
B) Real and equal

Question 11.
The median of factors of 36 is
A) 4
B) 9
C) 6
D) 12
Solution:
C) 6

Question 12.
Among the following, a pair of inconsistent equation is
A) x + 2y = 5, 2x + 4y = 10
B) x + 2y = 5, 2x + 4y = 7
C) x + 2y = 5, 4x + 2y = 8
D) 2x + y = 4, 2x + 4y = 10
Solution:
B) x + 2y = 5, 2x + 4y = 7

Question 13.
If sin α = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) and cos β = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) (0° < α, β < 90°), then the value of tan(α – β) is
A) \(\sqrt{3}\)
B) 0
C) 1
D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
Solution:
D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)

Question 14.
A ladder of length 10m is leaning against a wall. If it touches the wall at height of 5m, then the angle made by the ladder with the ground is
A) 30°
B) 60°
C) 45°
D) 90°
Solution:
A) 30°

Question 15.
The area of one face of a cube is 25cm², then its volume is (in cm³)
A) 150
B) 100
C) 125
D) 200
Solution:
C) 125

Question 16.
If \(\frac{1}{x}\) + \(\frac{1}{x}\) = \(\frac{5}{6}\), and \(\frac{1}{x}\) – \(\frac{1}{y}\) = \(\frac{1}{6}\), then the values of x and y respectively are
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\), \(\frac{1}{3}\)
B) 2, 3
C) \(\frac{1}{3}\), \(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) 3, 2
Solution:
B) 2, 3

Question 17.
The radii of two concentric circles with centre ‘O’ are 8 cm and 10 cm. If the chord AB ol larger circle is a tangent to the smaller circle at P, then the length of chord AB is

A) 12 cm
B) 6 cm
C) 18 cm
D) 9 cm
Solution:
A) 12 cm

Question 18.
Among the following, which is an example for a certain (sure) event ?
A) Getting a black ball when a ball is selected randomly from a bag containing black balls.
B) Getting a white ball when a ball is selected randomly from a bag containing black balls.
C) Getting a black ball when a ball is selected randomly from a bag containing 3 black and 4 white balls.
D) Not getting a white ball when a ball is selected randomly from a bag containing 3 black and 4 white balls.
Solution:
A) Getting a black ball when a ball is selected randomly from a bag containing black balls.

Question 19.
If p(x) = 2x² – 5x + 6, then p(1) + p(-1) = ______.
A) 3
B) 13
C) 16
D) 10
Solution:
C) 16

Question 20.
Among the following, which pair of triangles are not similar ?

Solution:

The strategic use of TS 10th Class Maths Model Papers and TS 10th Class Maths Question Paper June 2025 can significantly enhance a student’s problem-solving skills.

TS 10th Class Maths Question Paper June 2025

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. Answer all the questions under Part – A on a separate answer book.
2. Write the answers to the questions under Part – B on the question paper itself and attach it to the answer book of Part – A.

Part – A (60 Marks)
Section – I (6 × 2 = 12 Marks)

Note :

1. Answer ALL the following questions.
2. Each question carries 2 marks.

Question 1.
Expand : log₁₀\(\left(\frac{405}{32}\right)\).
Solution:

Question 2.
Find the distance of the point (log₁₀ 1000, log₂16) from the origin.
Solution:

Question 3.
“The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground at a distance of 70 m from the foot of the tower is 60°. Draw a suitable diagram for this situation.
Solution:
Tower – BC
Top of tower is ‘C’
Point on the ground is ‘A’.
AB = 70 m,
∠CÄB = ∠BAC = angle of elevation of top = 60°

Question 4.
Is (x + 1)² = 2 (x – 3) a quadratic equation ? Justify.
Solution:
LHS = (x + 1)² = x² + 2x + 1
RHS = 2(x – 3) = 2x – 6
Given is x² + 2x + 1 = 2x – 6
= x² + 2x + 1 – 2x + 6 = 0
x² + 7 = 0 is a quadratic equation
So, given is a quadratic equation.

Question 5.
A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, B= {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}. Find A – B and B – A.
Solution:
Given A = {1, 2, 3, 4},
B = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10}
Then A – B = {x/x ∈ A and x ∉ B}
So A – B = {1, 3}
and B – A = {x/x ∈ B ∧ x ∉ A}
So B – A = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10} – {1, 2, 3, 4}
= {6, 8, 10}

Question 6.
The length of the minute hand of a clock is 3.5 cm. Find the area swept by the minute hand in 30 minutes (π = \(\frac{22}{7}\))
Solution:
Length of a minute hand of a clock 7
OA = r = 3.5 cm \(\frac{7}{2}\) cm
Now, the area swept by minute hand in 30 minutes is the area of sector with OA = OB = \(\frac{7}{2}\) cm and θ = 15°
(∵ angle made by minute hand in one hour is 30°)

Section – II (6 × 4 = 24 Marks)

Note :

1. Answer ALL the following questions.
2. Each question carries 4 marks.

Question 7.
Write the formula for median of a grouped data and explain each term of it.
Solution:
Formula for median of a grouped data is median = l + \(\left(\frac{\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}-\mathrm{cf}}{\mathrm{f}}\right)\) × h
Where.
‘l‘ = lower boundary of median class
n = number of observations
cf = cumulative frequency of class preceding median class
f = frequency of median class
h = size of median class.

Question 8.
ABC is a triangle right – angled at C. P and Q are A points on sides CB and CA respectively. Show that AP² + BQ² = AB² + PQ².

Solution:
Give, in ΔABC, ∠C = 90°
P, Q are two points on CR and CA respectively.
RTP: AP² + BQ² = AB² + PQ²
Construction: Join PQ

Proof: In ΔBCQ, ∠C = 90°
∴ QC² + BC² = QB² …… (1)
(From Pythagorous theorem)
In ΔACP, ∠C = 90°
∴ CP² + AC² = AP² …… (2)
Now adding (1) and (2) we get

We get QC² + BC² + CP² + AC² = QB² + AP² ……. (3)
But from ΔABC, AC² + BC² = AB² …….. (4)
and QCP, QC² + CP² = QP² = PQ² …… (5)
Now adding (4) and (5), we get
AC² + BC² + QC² + CP² = AB² + PQ² ……. (6)
So, from (3) and (6), we get
AB² + PQ² = BQ² + AP²
Hence proved.

Question 9.
A strip of width 5 cm is attached to one side of square to form a rectangle. The area of the rectangle formed is 204 cm², then find the length of the side of the square.

Solution:
Let ABCD is a square with a side of ‘x cm.
And ‘BCEF’ is a rectangle strip of width 5 cm.

From given, area of rectangle
AFED = 204 cm²
Now let the side of square AB = BC = x cm
Then length of rectangle (l)
= AF = AB + BF
= (x + 5) cm
and breadth of rectangle (B) = EF = x cm
Then area of rectangle
= l × b
= (x + 5) x = x² + 5x = 204
∴ x² + 5x – 204 = 0
⇒ x² + 17x – 12x – 204 = 0
⇒ x(x + 17) -12(x + 17) = 0
⇒ (x – 12)(x + 17) = 0
So, x – 12 = 0 ⇒ x = 12 or
x + 17 = 0 ⇒ x = -17
But ‘x’ cannot be negative.
Hence side of square = x = 12 cm

Question 10.
Solve following pair of equations :
3x + 4y = 10,
4x – 3y = 5
Solution:
Given equations are
3x + 4y = 10 ……. (1)
4x – 3y = 5 …….. (2)
We solve this by elimination method (3x + 4y = 10) multiply both sides by ’4’
(3x + 4y = 10) multiply both sides by ‘4’
(4x – 3y = 5) multiply both sides by 3, we get, then

Question 11.
Two dice are rolled simultaneously and the sum of the numbers appearing on them is noted. Find the probability of getting the sum.
i) 11
ii) a perfect square.
Solution:
When two dice are rolled simultaneously the possible outcomes are as shown below

Now favourable outcomes for the sum their numbers is 11 are (5, 6) and (6, 5)
So no. of favourable outcomes = 2
no. of total outcomes = 6 × 6 = 36
So, the probability of getting the sum of 11 is \(\frac{2}{36}\) = \(\frac{1}{18}\)
and now, favourable outcomes for sum as perfect square are(1, 3), (2, 2), (3, 1), (3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6, 3).
So the number of favourable outcomes for getting a square number = 7
Hence probability of getting a sum as a square = \(\frac{7}{36}\).

Question 12.
A girl says “The points A(6, 4), B(4, -6) and C(-2, 4) are collinear”. Do you agree with her ? Justify your answer.
Solution:
Let us assume the above given points are not collinear. Then they form a triangle. Then let us find the area of possible triangle.
A(6, 4) so x₁ = 6, y₁ = 4
B(4, -6) so x₂ = 4, y₂ = -6
C(-2, 4) so x₃ = -2, y₃ = y
then formula for area of triangle

Section – III (4 × 6 = 24 Marks)

Note :

1. Answer any 4 questions from the given six questions.
2. Each question carries 6 marks.

Question 13.
Draw the graph of the quadratic polynomial P(x) = x² + x – 6 and find the zeroes of the polynomial from the graph.
Solution:
Given polynomial is
p(x) = y = x² + x – 6
Let us find the co – ordinates of points through which the polynomial passes.

Question 14.
Construct an equilateral triangle ABC with side BC = 6 cm. The construct another triangle similar to ΔABC whose sides are \(\frac{3}{2}\) times of the corresponding sides of ΔABC.
Solution:
Steps of construction :
1) Draw an equilateral triangle ΔABC with sides AB = BC = C A = 6 cm as shown below.
2) Draw a ray \(\overline{\mathrm{BX}}\) making an acute angle with BC on the side opposite to vertex A

3) Mark 3 points B₁, B₂, B₃ such that BB₁ = B₁B₂ = B₂B₃
4) Now join B₂C

5) Now draw a line parallel to B₂C through B₃ meeting BC produced C’.

6)Draw a line parallel to AC through C’ meeting BA produced A’.
7) Now A’BC’ is the required triangle which is similar and sides are \(\frac{3}{2}\) times of ΔABC

Here AB = BC = AC = 6 cm. and A’B’ = BC’ = A’C’ = 9 cm.

Question 15.
Find the Mode for the following data.

Solution:

Since the maximum number (frequency) is 31. Hence the modal class is 30 – 40.
So, the lower boundary of modal class l = 30
Model class size (h) = 10
Frequency of modal class = f₁ = 31
Frequency of class preceding modal class = f₀ = 26
Frequency of class succeeding modal class = f₂ = 16
Now, formula for mode is

Question 16.
The volume of a solid cuboid is 210 cm³ and its lateral surface area is 130 cm². If its height is 5 cm, then find its length and breadth.
Solution:
Let length, breadth and height of given cuboid are l, b, h respectively.
Given that its height (h) = 5 cm
and it volume (y) = lbh = 210 cm³
∴ v = l × b × 5 = 210 cm³
⇒ fb = \(\frac{210}{5}\) = 42 cm²
So lb = 42cm² …….. (1)
and now formula for its lateral surface area = 130 cm²
formula for lateral surface area of cuboid = A = 2h (l + b)
So 2h (l + b) = 130 cm² (given)
⇒ 2(5)(l + b) = 130 cm² (∵ h = 5 cm)
∴ (l + b) = \(\frac{130}{10}\) = 13 cm
∴ l + b = 13 cm ……… (2)
Then b = 13 – l ………. (3)
Now put b = (13 – l) in equation (1)
lb = 42, we get
l(13 – l) = 42
⇒ 13l – l² = 42
⇒ l² – 13l + 42 = 0
⇒ l² – 6l – 7l + 42 = 0
⇒ l(l – 6) -7(l – 6) = 0
⇒ (l – 6)(l – 7) = 0
So, l = 6 or l = 7
If l = 6 then b = 13 – l = 13 – 6 = 7
So, l = 6, b = 7 (or)
If l = 7 then b = 13 – l = 13 – 7 = 6
So, l = 7, b = 6
So, length, breadth of given cuboid or 6, 7 or 7, 6 cm.

Question 17.
Show that \(\frac{\sin \theta}{1-\cos \theta}+\frac{1-\cos \theta}{\sin \theta}\), where ‘θ’ is an acute angle.
Solution:

Question 18.
If the sum of first 8 terms of an arithmetic progression is 64 and the sum of first 17 terms is 289, then find the sum of first 30 terms.
Solution:
Let a, a + d, a + 2d ……. is the given AP.
Then formula for sum of first ‘n’ terms =
S_n = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}\)[2a + (n – 1)d]
So, for n = 8, sum of first ‘8’ terms =
S₈ = \(\frac{8}{2}\)[2a + (8 – 1)d] = 64
⇒ 4(2a + 7d) = 64
⇒ (2a + 7d) = \(\frac{64}{4}\) = 16
∴ 2a + 7d = 6 ….. (1)
and for n = 17, sum of first 17 terms =

So d = 2, then a + 8d = 17.
⇒ a + 8(2) = 17
a + 16 = 17
⇒ a = 1
So, in the given AP, a = 1,d = 2
Now sum of first 30 terms =
S₃₀ = \(\frac{30}{2}\)[2(1) + (30 – 1)2]
(∵ a = 1, d = 2, n = 30)
= 15[2 + (29 × 2)]
= 15(2 + 58) = 15 × 60
= 900
So, sum of first 30 terms of given AP = S₃₀ = 900

Part – B (20 Marks)

Note :

1. ALL question are to be answered.
2. Each questions carries 1 mark.
3. Answers are to be written in the Question paper only.
4. Marks will not be given for over – writing, rewriting or erased answers.

I. Write the capital (A, B, C, D) of the correct answer in the brackets provided against each question, 20 × 1 = 20

Question 1.
If quadratic equation x² – 5x + 6 = 0 and x² – 7x + k = 0 have a common root, then the possible value of k is : [ ]
A) 8, 9
B) 2, 3
C) 10, 12
D) 5, 3
Solution:
C) 10, 12

Question 2.
Which term of the arithmetic progression 24, 21, 18, 15, …….. is zero ? [ ]
A) 10^th term
B) 8^th term
C) 7^th term
D) 9^th term
Solution:
D) 9^th term

Question 3.
If sin A = \(\frac{7}{25}\), then the value of cos A (A is an acute angle) is :
A) \(\frac{7}{24}\)
B) \(\frac{25}{24}\)
C) \(\frac{25}{7}\)
D) \(\frac{24}{25}\)
Solution:
D) \(\frac{24}{25}\)

Question 4.
If x = 3, y = -1 is a solution of the linear equation x + ky = 1 and x – y = 4, then the value of k is : [ ]
A) 2
B) -3
c) 3
D) -1
Solution:
A) 2

Question 5.
If the slope of the line segment joining the points (-1, -1) and (1, x) is 2, then the value of x is : [ ]
A) -2
B) -3
C) 2
D) 3
Solution:
D) 3

Question 6.
If the ratio of surface areas of two spheres is 1 : 4, then the ratio of their volumes is :
A) 1 : 64
B) 2 : 8
C) 1 : 8
D) 1 : 16
Solution:
C) 1 : 8

Question 7.
In ΔABC, DE || BC. \(\frac{\mathrm{AD}}{\mathrm{DB}}\) = \(\frac{4}{3}\) and EC = 4.8 cm, then AE is equal to: [ ]

A) 6.4 cm
B) 4.5 cm
C) 3.6 cm
D) 4.2 cm
Solution:
A) 6.4 cm

Question 8.
At a particular instance, if the length of the shadow of a tower of height 100m is \(\frac{100}{\sqrt{3}}\)m, then the angle made by Sun’s rays with the ground at that time is :
A) 30°
B) 60°
C) 45°
D) 90°
Solution:
B) 60°

Question 9.
If sin θ. cos θ = \(\frac{1}{2}\), then the value of (sin θ + cos θ)² is :
A) 0
B) 4
C) 2
D) 1
Solution:
C) 2

Question 10.
Which of the following is not a rational number ?
A) log₁₀3
B) \(5 . \overline{23}\)
C) 123.123
D) \(\frac{10}{19}\)
Solution:
A) log₁₀3

Question 11.
LCM of least prime number and least composite number is
A) 2
B) 4
C) 1
D) 3
Solution:
A) 2

Question 12.
From the given Venn diagram A ∩ B is :

A) {5, 6}
B) {7, 8}
C) {5, 6, 7, 8}
D) φ
Solution:
D) φ

Question 13.
Set A = {F, W, L, O}, Which of the following is not a set builder form for set A ? [
A) {x : x is a letter of the word FOLLOW}
B) {x : x is a letter of the word FLOW}
C) {x : x is a letter of the word WOLF}
D) {x : x is a letter of the word SLOW}
Solution:
D) {x : x is a letter of the word SLOW}

Question 14.
If P(x) = 3x² – x – 4, then the value of P(-1) is
A) 2
B) 0
C) -2
D) 1
Solution:
B) 0

Question 15.
The \(\frac{P}{Q}\) (Q ≠ 0) form of the decimal 0.125 is
A) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
Solution:
C) \(\frac{1}{8}\)

Question 16.
The formula for the n^th term of a Geometric progression is a_n = a.r^n-1. In this formula ‘r’ represents : [ ]
A) Common ratio
B) Radius
C) First term
D) Common difference
Solution:
A) Common ratio

Question 17.
If (6, k) is one of the solutions of 3x + 2y – 26 = 0, then the value of log₂k is : [ ]
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Solution:
B) 2

Question 18.
The value of log₁₀(sec θ + tan θ) + log₁₀(sec θ – tan θ) is : [ ]
A) 0
B) 1
C) -1
D) 2
Solution:
A) 0

Question 19.
The exponential form logg₁₀ 0.001 = -3 is : [ ]
A) (0.01)¹⁰ = -3
B) (-3)¹⁰ = 0.001
C) 10³ = -0.001
D) 10^-3 = 0.001
Solution:
D) 10^-3 = 0.001

Question 20.
In the given figure AP and AQ are two tangents to a circle with centre O such that ∠PAQ = 60°, then ∠POQ is :

A) 30°
B) 60°
C) 120°
D) 130°
Solution:
C) 120°

Students must rely on TS 10th Class Biology Model Papers TS 10th Class Biology Model Paper June 2023 to gauge their understanding of exam patterns.

TS 10th Class Biology Question Paper June 2023

Parts – A and B

Time : 1:30 hrs.
Max. Marks : 40

Instructions:

1. Read the question paper carefully and understand.
2. Answer the questions under Part – A in the answer sheet provided.
3. Part – A contains three sections : Section – I, II and III.
4. Part – B Answers should be written in the given brackets and attach to the Part – A answer sheet.
5. Write the answers by following the instructions given in the each section.

Part – A
Section – I (3 × 2 = 6 M)

Time: 1 Hour 15 min.
Marks: 30

Instructions :
i) This section contains 3 very short answer questions.
ii) Answer ALL the questions.
iii) Write the answers in 3 – 4 sentences.
iv) Each question carries 2 marks.

Question 1.
Write two chemicals used to conduct anaerobic respiration experiment.
Answer:
The chemicals used to conduct anaerobic respiration experiment are
a) Diazine green (Janus Green B)
b) Bicarbonate or (Lime water)

Question 2.
Write the situations when you observe increase in Blood Pressure in your day to day life.
Answer:
Blood Pressure increases when we are afraid or excited while climbing stairs, running etc.

Question 3.
What will happen if sparrows disappear in an ecosystem?
Answer:
If sparrows were disappear from an ecosystem.
a) It could disrupt the balance from an ecosystem in several ways.
b) Sparrows play a crucial role in controlling insect population by feeding on pests like mosquitoes and caterpillars.

Section – II (3 × 4 = 12 M)

Instructions :
i) This section contains 3 short answer questions.
ii) Answer ALL the questions.
iii) Write the answers in 5 – 6 sentences.
iv) Each question carries 4 marks.

Question 4.
Observe the following table and answer the questions given below :

Tropic Movement	Response
Phototropism	The response of a plant towards light.
Chemotropism	Pollen grains grow due to chemical stimulus.
Thigmotropism	The response to contact or touch.
Geotropism	Plants respond to gravitational force.

i) Write the response for Chemotropism.
Answer:
Pollen grains grow due to chemical stimulus.

ii) Write the name of one plant which show Thigmotropism.
Answer:
Mimosa Pudica (athipathi, touch me not) plant.

iii) Which tropic movement indicates the movement of plantsTowards the Sunlight?
Answer:
Phototropism indicates the movement of plants towards the sunlight.

iv) Which tropic movement indicates the penetration of roots into-the soil?
Answer:
Geotropism indicates the penetration of roots into the soil.

Question 5.
Write any four conservation measures to be followed in daily life to avoid the depletion of fossil fuels.
Answer:
Measures to conserve fossil fuels:
a) Use public transport or carpools to travel.
b) Use air conditioners or heaters only when required.
c) Use alternative sources of energy like solar and wind energy.
d) Consider turning off the car’s engine to save fuel.

Question 6.
Explain the ‘inheritance of acquired characters’ with one example.
Answer:

1. Law of inheritance of acquired characters was proposed by Jean Baptist Lamarck.
2. He thought that the characters acquired by an organism in it’s life time are passed to its offsprings.
3. For example, at same point of time in the history, the size of giraffe was equal to that of deer.
4. Due to shortage of food materials on the ground and lower branches of trees giraffes started stretching their necks.
5. Because of continuous usage of neck, after several generations giraffes obtained longer necks.
6. Such characters that are developed during the lifetime of an organism are called acquired characters.

Section – II (3 × 4 = 12 M)

Instructions :
i) This section contains 3 essay type of questions.
ii) Answer ANY TWO questions.
iii) Write the answer in 8 to 10 sentences.
iv) Each question carries 6 marks.

Question 7.
Describe the process of digestion in human small intestine.
Answer:
The process of digestion in human small intestine :

1. The small intestine is the longest part of the alimentary canal.
2.  It is the site of the complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats-.
3. It receives the secretions of liver and pancreas.
4. Bile juice secreted by liver breaks down fats into small globules like form. This process is called emulsification.
5. Pancreatic juice secreted by pancreas contains enzymes like trypsin, which digests proteins and lipase digests fats.
6. The walls of small intestine secretes intestinal juice, which is also known as succus enteri-
7. The intestinal juice consists of enzymes like enterokinase, peptidase, lipase, sucrase, nu-cleotidase, nucleosidase etc.
8. The enzymes .present in the intestine completely digest the partially digested food.
9. Following digestive processes take place in the intestine.
   • Peptidases convert peptides into amino acids.
   • Lipase digest fats, into fatty acids and glycerol.
   • Enzyme sucrase, maltase, lactase hydrolyse sucrose, maltose and lactose respectively convert them into glucose.
10. Nucleotidase and nucleosidase complete the digestion of nucleic acids.
11. The end products of digestion, Glucose, amino acids, fatty acids and glycerol are absorbed in the walls of small intestine.

Question 8.
Explain the procedure and results of experiment to prove root pressure.
Answer:

Procedure:

1. Take a regularly watered potted plant and cut the stem portion 1 cm above the ground level.
2. Then connect a glass tube by means of a | strong rubber tube.
3. The size of the glass tube should b,e equal to the size of the stem.
4. Take care while joining tube and stem being bound tightly, so that water cannot escape from the tube.
5. Now pour some water in the glass tube until water level can be seen above the rubber tube.
6. Mark the level of water as M, in the tube.
7. Keep the arrangement a side for 2 to 3 hours.

Observation:
We observe the water level increased in tube and it is marked as M2.
i) The difference between M2 and Mj indicates the level of water raised in the stem.

Result:
It is Droved that, because of the ROOT PRESSURE the water level increased in the glass tube.

Question 9.
Draw diagrams showing different stages of Mitosis and explain.
Answer:

In the mitotic cell division, the division of nucleus (Karyokinesis) is followed by the division of Cytoplasm (Cytokinesis). Finally brings about formation of two daughter cells. There are four stages in Mitosis division. They are
a) Prophase
b) Metaphase
c) Anaphase
d) Telophase

1) Prophase:
a) Chromosomes condense and get coiled. They become visible even in light microscope and nucleoli becomes smaller.
b) Chromosomes split lengthwise to form chromatids connected by centromeres.
c) Nuclear membrane disappears.
d) Centrosome, containing rod – like centrioles, divide and form ends of spindle (in animal cells nly).

2) Metaphase:
Chromosomes move to spindle equator, spindle fibres attached, to centromeres.

3) Anaphase:
a) Centromeres split, separating the Chromatids.
b) Spindle fibres attached Centromeres contract, pulling Chromatids towards poles.

4) Telophase:
a) Chromatids elongate, become invisible replication at this stage to become chromosomes.
b) Nuclear membrane form round daughter nuclei.
c) Nucleus is resynthesised in each daughter nucleus.

Cytokinesis :
a) Nucleus divides into two and division of cytoplasm starts, two cells are formed.
b) Cell membrane pinches to form daughter cells (animals) or new cell wall material becomes laid down across spindle equator (plants).

Part – B

Time: 15 minutes
Marks: 10

Instructions :
i) Answer all the questions.
ii) Each question carries 1 mark.
iii) Write the capital letter (A, B, C, D) showing the correct answer for the following questions in the brackets provided against them.
iv) Write the answers to the questions under Part-B on the question paper itself and attach it to the answer – book of Part – A.
v) Marks will not be awarded in any case of overwriting, rewritten or erased answers.

Question 1.
Which of the following is controlled by Cerebellum? (  )
A) Respiration
B) Emotions
C) Equilibrium
D) Blood Pressure
Answer:
C) Equilibrium

Question 2.
Identify the Question mark part in the given picture. (  )

A) Medulla
B) Cortex
C) Renal artery
D) Ureter
Answer:
A) Medulla

Question 3.
Identify the INCORRECT pair from the following. (  )
A) Leaves – Bryophyllum
B) Leaves – Turmeric
C) Bulbs – Onion
D) Stolons – Strawberry
Answer:
B) Leaves – Turmeric

Question 4.
Identify the organism without respiratory organ. (  )
A) Cockroach
B) Fish
C) Amoeba
D) Frog
Answer:
C) Amoeba

Question 5.
Match the following and identify the correct option. ( )
Fern ( ) (i) Yeast
Paramoecium ( ) (ii) Planaria
Regeneration ( ) (iii) Spores
Budding ( ) (iv) Fission

A) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i
B) a – i, b – iv, c – iii, d – ii
C) a – iv, b – ii, c – i, d – iii
D) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii
Answer:
A) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i

Question 6.
Which of the following is correct statement? (  )
A) Amoeba is a saprophyte,
B) Cuscuta is an autotrophic plant.
C) Paramoecium shows holozoic nutrition.
D) Hydrilla is a parasitic plant.
Answer:
C) Paramoecium shows holozoic nutrition.

Question 7.
Identify the missing words in the given flow chart. (  )

A) Lactic acid + Energy
B) Ethanol + Energy
C) Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy
D) Ethanol + Carbon dioxide + Energy
Answer:
C) Carbon dioxide + Water + Energy

Question 8.
Identify the function of Bowman’s capsule from the following. (  )
A) Stores urine
B) Micturition
C) Protect the kidneys
D) Filtration of substances in the blood.
Answer:
D) Filtration of substances in the blood.

Question 9.
The chemical required to conduct the experiment to prove action of Saliva on flour (ata). (  )
A) Potassium hydroxide
B) Hydrochloric acid
C) Iodine
D) Methylated spirit
Answer:
C) Iodine

Question 10.
Identify the odd one from the following. (  )
A) Late’x
B) Fats
C) Tannins
D) Resins
Answer:
B) Fats

Students must rely on TS 10th Class Biology Model Papers TS 10th Class Biology Model Paper June 2024 to gauge their understanding of exam patterns.

TS 10th Class Biology Question Paper June 2024

Parts – A and B

Time : 1:30 hrs.
Max. Marks : 40

Instructions :

1. Read the question paper carefully and understand.
2. Answer the questions under Part – A in the answer sheet provided.
3. Part – A contains three sections: Section -I, II and III.
4. Part – B Answers should be written in the given brackets and attach to the Part – A answer sheet.
5. Write the answers by following the instructions given in the each section.

Part – A
Section – I (3 × 2 = 6 M)

Time : 1 Hour 15 min.
Marks: 30

Instructions :
i) This section contains 3 very short answer questions.
ii) Answer ALL the questions.
iii) Write the answers in 3 – 4 sentences.
iv) Each question carries 2 marks.

Question 1.
What are the observations of the experiment conducted to determine the action of saliva on flour?
Answer:
1. Observations:
a) The solution of the test tube to which saliva is added shows colour change as starch is converted to sugar.
b) There is no colour change in the other test tube to which saliva is not added.
The enzyme amylase in the saliva breaks down the starch molecules into smaller sub – units usually into sugars.

Question 2.
What will happen if hormones are not secreted by the Pituitary gland in human body?
Answer:
When the Pituitary gland does not make enough of one or more of the pituitary hormones this is called HYPOPITUITARISM.
This in turn affects hormones produced by other glands in the body. The signs and symptoms can appear very slowly. They also vary from person to person.

Question 3.
Suggest any two measures for the conservation of Kolleru lake.
Answer:
a) A boundary at the five feet contour of Kolleru lake is the best way to ensure optimum holding capacity and minimise the flood impact of India’s biggest fresh water lake.

b) Ensuring inflow into the lake, which have balanced the reservoir’s character, identifying sources of pollution and treat them at entry level.

c) Sluice gates to be constructed across the two outlets to monitor and control sea water inflow during tidal fluctuations and expected rainfall events etc.

Section – II (3 × 4 = 12 M)

Instructions :
i) This section contains 3 short answer questions.
ii) Answer ALL the questions.
iii) Write the answers in 5 – 6 sentences.
iv) Each question carries 4 marks.

Question 4.
Describe any two evidences of Evolutiori with examples.
Answer:
Some of the evidences of evolution are:

1. Homologous and analogous organs.
2. Evidences from embryology and
3. Evidences from fossils.

Evidence from embryology:

1. There are remarkable similariites in the embryos of different animals from fish to man.
2. The resemblance is so close that at an early, stage even an experienced embryologist would find difficulty to distinguish one embryo from the other.
3. This strengthens the view of the existence of a common ancestor from which all these have evolved.

Evidence from fissils:

1. Fossils are evidences of ancient life forms or ancient habitates which have been preserved by natural processes.
2. Palaentologsits determine the age of fossils by using carbon dating method.
3. These fossils provide evidences of presence of extinct animals like dinosaurs and how the evolution occurred on the earth.

Question 5.
Write four daily life situations where changes in blood pressure is observed.
Answer:
Blood pressure changes when
a) we are afraid or excited
b) white climbing stairs
c) running
d) caused by exercises or stress, medication or rarely a medical condition.
e) blood pressure starts to rise a few hours before a person wakes up. Raising during the day, peaking in midday. Blood pressure is usually lower at night while sleeping.

Question 6.
Analyze the information given below.

Enzyme	Digestive gland	Digestive juice	Effect of enzymes on
Ptyalin	Salivary glands	Saliva	Carbohydrates
Pepsin	Gastric glands	Gastric juice	Proteins
–	Liver	Bile juice	Fats
Amylase	Pancreas	Pancreatic juice	Carbohydrates
Trypsin	Pancreas	Pancreatic juice	Proteins
Lipase	Pancreas	Pancreatic juice	Fats

Answer the following questions based on given table.
i) Name any two enzymes secreted by mixed gland.
Answer:
i) Amylase, Trypsin, Lipase.

ii) Which enzymes act on proteins?
Answer:
Pepsin, Trypsin.

iii) Name the process of fat digestion by the bile.
Answer:
Emulsification (breaking down of large fats into small globules.)

iv) Which digestive juice is without enzymes? Which gland it is produced from?
Answer:
Bile juice, secreted by liver.

Section – III (2 × 6 = 12 M)

Instructions :
i) This section contains 3 essay type of questions.
ii) Answer ANY TWO questions.
iii) Write the answer in 8 to 10 sentences.
iv) Each question carries 6 marks.

Question 7.
Explain the human respiratory system with a neat labelled diagram.
Answer:

Nostrils → Nasal cavity → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchus → Bron-chioles → Alveolus (lungs) → Blood.

Nostrils : Air usually enters the body through the nostrils.

Nasal cavity: Air is filtered. The moist surface of the lining of the nasal cavity and the hairs growing from its sides, remove some of the tiny particles of dirt in the air. In addition, as the inhaled air passes through the nasal cavity, its temperature is brought close to that of the body and it takes up water vapour so that it becomes more moist than before.

Pharynx : Warming and moistening goes on in this common passage of digestive and respiratory system. Epiglottis, a flap like muscular valve controls movement of food and air towards their respective passages.

Larynx : This stiff box contains vocal cards. When air passes out of the lungs and over the vocal cords, it causes them to vibrate. This produces sounds on the basis of our speech, song etc.

Trachea : Wind pipe channeling air to lungs.

Bronchus : At its lower end the trachea or the wind pipe divides into two bronchi-one leading to each lung.

Bronchioles : Each bronchi is further divide into smaller and smaller branches called bronchioles.

Alveolus : These finally terminate in clusters of air sacs called alveoli in the lungs. Gaseous exchange takes place here as blood capillaries take up oxygen and expel carbon dioxide.

Blood : Blood-carries oxygen, to each and every cell of the body and collects CO₂ from them.

Question 8.
Explain the stages in the formation of urine and write the composition of urine.
Answer:
Mechanism of urine formation:
Formation of urine involves 4 stages. They are
a) Glomenilar filtration .
h) Tubular re-absorption
c) Tubu1.r secretion and
d) Formation of concentrated urine

1. Glomerular filtration: The blood from renal artery flows into affrent arteriole of glomerulus. This blood is filtered under high pressure. As a result waste materials along with some water and useful substances like glucose, amino acids, proteins, salts are filtered out. They enter into the Bowman’s capsule. This is called glomerular filtration. This filtrate is called Primary urine.

2. Tubular reabsorption : Primary urine which is in glomerulus is almost equal to blood in chemical composition except the presence of blood cells. Peritubular capillaries present around the Henle’s loop reasbosrb essential substances and excess water present in the primary urine.

3. Tubular secretion: After absorption of eesential substances and water, urine travels through the loop of Henle, waste materials left unfiltered in the blood during glomerular filtration are secreted into the loop of Henle.

4. Formation of Concentrated Urine : Urine that reaches into the collecting tubule from the loop of Henle is further concentrated in the presence of hormone vasopressin. Deficiency of vasopressin causes excessive dilute urination. This condition is called “diabetes insipidus”.

5. Composition of urine : Urine contains 96% of water, 2.5 % of organic substances (urea, uric acid, creatinine, water soluble vitamins, hormones and oxalates etc., and 1.5 % of inorganic solutes (sodium, chloride, phosphate, sulphate, magnesium, calcium, iodine etc). It is acidic (pH = 6.0) in the beginning but becomes alkaline on standing due to break down of urea t o form ammonia.

Question 9.
Write the materials required, procedure and observations for preparation of a temporary slide of Rhizopus.
Answer:
Aim : To grow and examine rhizopus or common mold.
Materials required : Bread, plastic bag, plain glass slide, cover slip, water, eye dropper, disposable gloves, compound microscope.
Procedure to grow mold:

1. Take a soft bread and leave it in the open for about an hour so it is exposed to contaminants in the air.
2. Place the bread in a plastic bag, sprinkle water over it, so it is damp and seal the bag leaving some air inside.
3. Check the piece of bread regularly for every few days and add some water if it is becoming dried out.
4. We can find whitish thread like growth with masses of black, grey and green fine dotted structures, the black dotted structure is that of bread mold.
5. A good sample of mold may take up to two weeks to form.
6. Using this mold make a slide and observe under the microscope.

A) Material requried : Mold sample, plain glass slide, cover slip, water, disposable gloves.
B) Procedure:

1. Place a drop of water in the centre ofihe slide, using an eye dropper if you have one, or the tip of a clean finger.
2. Using a tooth pick, scrape some of the mold off, and place it on the drop of water.
3. Take the coverslip and set it at an angle to the slide so that one eduge of it touches the water drop. Then carefully lower it over the drop so that the coverslip covers the speci ment without trapping air bubbles underneath.
4. Use the corner of a tissue paper or blotting paper to blot up any excess water at the edges of the coverslip.
5. View the slide with a compound microscope, starting with a low objective.

1) The common bread mold plant consts of fine thread like projections called hyphae and thin stems having knob like structures called sporangia.
2) Each sporangium contains hundreds of minute spores.

Precautions:

1. This should not be done by those with allergies to mould or with severe asthma.
2. Avoid opening the plastic bag as much as you can.
3. If you touch the bread, be sure to thoroughly wash your hands afterwards.

Part – B

Time: 15 Minutes
Marks: 10

Instructions :
i) Answer all the questions.
ii) Each question carries 1 mark.
iii) Write the capital letter (A, B, C, D) showing the correct answer for the following questions in the brackets provided against them.
iv) Write the answers to the questions under Part-B on the question paper itself and attach it to the answer book of Part – A.
v) Marks will not be awarded in any case of overwriting, rewritten or erased answers.

Question 1.
Arrange the following stages of Mitosis in sequential order. (  )
i) Anaphase
ii) Prophase
iii) Telophase
iv) Metaphase

A) ii, iv, i, iii
B) ii, iv/iii, i
C) ii, iii, i, iv
D) ii, i, iv, iii
Answer:
A) ii, iv, i, iii

Question 2.
Which chemical is used to boil the leaf in a test tube in an experiment conducted to test the presence of starch in leaves? (  )
A) Iodine
B) Methylated spirit
C) Potassium hydroxide
D) Paraffin solution
Answer:
B) Methylated spirit

Question 3.
Identify the INCORRECT pair from the following. (  )
A) Tannins – Acacia
B) Latex – Cassia
C) Resins Pinus
D) Alkaloids – Cinchona
Answer:
B) Latex – Cassia

Question 4.
Identify the CORRECT pair from the following. (  )
A) Producers – Insects
B) Herbivores Fox
C) Carnivores – Rabbit
D) Decomposers – Bacteria
Answer:
D) Decomposers – Bacteria

Question 5.
Identify the INCORRECT sentence from the following. (  )
A) Water is a renewable resource.
B) Coal and petrol are fossil fules.
C) Micro irrigation techniques result in high wastage of water.
D) Environmental conservation can be done by recycling of resources.
Answer:
C) Micro irrigation techniques result in high wastage of water.

Question 6.
The part of the brain which controls hunger pangs is (  )
A) Cerebrum
B) Diencephalon
C) Cerebellum
D) Medulla oblongata
Answer:
B) Diencephalon

Question 7.
Choose the correct word in place of symbol’?’ to complete the following equation. (  )

A) Thrombokinase
B) Prothrombin
C) Fibrin
D) Heparin
Answer:
C) Fibrin

Question 8.
Match the following and identify the correct option.
i) Charles Darwin
ii) Lamarck
iii) Mendel
iv) Charles Lyell

a) Inheritance of acquired characters
b) Origin of Species
c) Principles of Geology
d) Law of dominance

A) i – d, ii – a, iii – c, iv – b
B) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c
C) i – b, ii – c, iii – d, iv – a
D) i – b, ii – c, iii – a, iv – d
Answer:
B) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c

Question 9.
Identify the CORRECT sentence from the following. (  )
A) Cytokinins causes closing of stomata.
B) Testes produces estrogen hormone.
C) Humans have 31 pairs of cranial nerves.
D) Hind brain consists of cerebellum and medulla oblongata.
Answer:
D) Hind brain consists of cerebellum and medulla oblongata.

Question 10.
Identify the X, Y, labelled parts in the following figure. (  )

A) X – Pistil, Y – Sepals
B) X – Stamen, Y – Carpel
C) X – Stigma, Y – Ovary
D) X – Thalamus, Y – Stamen
Answer:
B) X – Stamen, Y – Carpel

Students must rely on TS 10th Class Biology Model Papers TS 10th Class Biology Model Paper March 2024 to gauge their understanding of exam patterns.

TS 10th Class Biology Question Paper March 2024

Parts – A and B

Time : 1:30 hrs.
Max. Marks : 40

Instructions :

1. Read the question paper carefully and understand.
2. Answer the questions under Part – A in the answer sheet provided.
3. Part – A contains three sections: Section -1, II and III.
4. Part – B Answers should be written in the given brackets and attach to the Part – A answer sheet.
5. Write the answers by following the instructions given in the each section.

Part – A
Section – I (3 × 2 = 6 M)

Time : 1 Hour 15 min.
Marks: 30

Instructions :
i) This section contains 3 very short answer questions.
ii) Answer ALL the questions.
iii) Write the answers in 3 – 4 sentences.
iv) Each question carries 2 marks.

Question 1.
Write any two materials required to conduct an experiment to observe the internal structure of the mammalian heart.
Answer:
Materials required:
1. Freshly collected specimen of heart of sheep or goat.
2. Soda straws
3. Sharp and long blade

Question 2.
Write any two biological principles to be followed by the farmers in your surroundings for controlling pests.
Answer:
The biological principles to be followed by the farmers to control pests are :

1. Rotation of crops
2. Studying the life histories of pests
3. Biological control
4. Genetic strains
5. Environmental ethics.

Question 3.
What will happen if moisture and hairs are absent in the nasal cavity of human being?
Answer:
1. The tiny particles of dirt inhaled air is not removed and
2. The temperature of the inhaled air is not corrected to that of the body.

Section – II (3 × 4 = 12 M)

Instructions:
i) This section contains 3 short answer questions.
ii) Answer ALL the questions.
iii) Write the answers in 5 – 6 sentences.
iv) Each question carries 4 marks.

Question 4.
Write four differences between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration.
Answer:

Aerobic respiration	Anaerobic respiration
1. It occurs in the presence of oxygen.	1. It occurs in the absence of oxygen.
2. Complete oxidation of glucose takes place.	2. The glucose molecule is incompletely oxidised.
3. End products are carbondioxide and water.	3. End products are either ethyl alcohol or lactic and CO,.
4. Energy liberated is very high (38 ATP).	4. Very little amount of energy is liberated (2 ATP).
5. It occurs in ‘plants and animals’ cells.	5. Occurs in many anaerobic bacteria and human muscle cells.
6. C8H12O2 + 6O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O + 686K. cal	6. C6H12O6 → 2C2H5OH + 2CO2 + 56 K. cal

Question 5.
Explain any two artificial propagation methods you observed in your daily life with examples.
Answer:
Artificial Propagation methods :
a) Cutting: Some plants can grow individually when a piece of the parent plant having bud is cut off from the existing plant. The lower part of this cutting is buried in moist soil. After few days, the cut parts having buds grow as an individual plant after developing roots. Eg.: Rose, Hibiscus.

b) Layering: A branch of the plant with at least one node is bent towards the ground and a part of it is covered with moist soil leaving the tip of the branch is expose above the ground. After a few days, new roots develop from the part of the branch buried in the soil. The buried branch is then cut off from the parent’plant.
The part which has developed roots grow to become a new plant. Eg: Nerium, Jasmine.

Question 6.
Observe the picture given below and answer the following questions.

i) Name the scientist who conducted the experiment given in the above picture.
Answer:
i) In 1926, the Douch plant physiologist F.W. Went conducted experiment.

ii) Which phytohormone was discovered by the above experiment?
Answer:
The plant hormone Auxine (auxine means to increase).

iii) Write the effect of the phytohormone identified in the above experiment on plants.
Answer:
Within one hour a distinct bending away from the side on which the agar blocked was placed.

iv) In the above experiment, name the material placed on the cut coleoptile tips of the oat seedling.
Answer:
He placed the tips on a slice of agar and left them for about an hour.

Section – III (2 × 6 = 12 M)

Instructions :
i) This section contains 3 essay type of questions.
ii) Answer ANY TWO questions.
iii) Write the answer in 8 to 10 sentences.
iv) Each question carries 6 marks.

Question 7.
Explain the evidences of Evolution with examples.
Answer:
Some of the evidences of evolution are :
i) Homologous and analogous organs.
ii) Evidences from embryology and
iii) Evidences from fossils.

Evidence from embryology:
a) There are remarkable similarities in the embryos of different animals from fish to man.
b) The resemblance is so close that at an early stage even an experienced embryologist would find difficulty to distinguish one embryo from the other.
c) This strengthens the view of the existence of a common ancestor from which all these have evolved.

Question 8.
Draw a labelled diagram of internal structure of human kidney and explain the structure.

Answer:

1. L. S. of kidney shows two distinct regions. Dark coloured outer zone called cortex and pale coloured inner zone called medulla.
2. Each kidney has approximately more than one million (1.3 to 1.8 million) microscopic renal tubules.
3. These functional units are called nephrons or uriniferous tubules.
4. Internally there is a region called renal pelvis. There is a region called hilum of the kidney.
5. The hilum is the concave part of the bean shape where blood vessels and nerves enter and exit the kidney. It is also a point of exit for the ureters.
6. The medulla consists of the renal pyramids. The tips of the pyramid called renal papillae, point towards the renal pelvis.
7. The renal pelvis branches out into calyces.
8. The ureters are urine – bearing tubes that exit the kidney and enter into urinary bladder.

Question 9.
Explain the procedure and precautions of the experiment to prove Oxygen is evolved during Photosynthesis.
Answer:
Aim : To prove that oxygen is produced during photosynthesis by Hydrilla funnel experiment.
Materials required: Beaker, funnel, test tube, Hydrilla a plant, water, incense stick, match box.

Procedure:

1. Make two identical sets with water plant like Hydrilla.
2. Take the whole set under a bucket of water and invert a water filled test tube over the stem of funnel.
3. Take the set up out of the bucket and keep it under sunlight.
4. Arrange the second set in the same way, cover it with black paper / cloth. Keep them under shade observe the water level in the test tube.
5. After sometime it is observed that gas bubbles coming from the Hydrilla plant in the set up kept in sun.
6. These bubbles are collected at the end of the test tube pushing the water into the beaker.
7. After sufficient gas is collected, test – tube is taken out of the beaker carefully by closing it with thumb.

Observation:
a) Test the gas in the test – tube by inserting a glowing match stick or incense stick which would burst into flames. This shows that the gas released from Hydrilla plant is oxygen.
b) We observe that there is no gas in the other set up kept in the dark.
Result : This shows that the gas released from Hydrilla plant is oxygen. So oxygen gas is produced during photosynthesis.

Precautions:
a) Funnel should be smaller than the beaker.
b) Care should be taken while removing test tube from the stem of funnel.

Part – B

Time: 15 Minutes
Marks: 10

Instructions :
i) Answer all the questions.
ii) Each question carries 1 mark. ,
iii) Write the capital letter (A, B, C, D) showing the correct answer for the following questions in the brackets provided against them.
iv) Write the answers to the questions under Part-B on the question paper itself and attach it to the answer book of Part- A.
v) Marks will not be awarded in any case of overwriting, rewritten or erased answers.

Question 1.
Which of the following is used to check the presence of Oxygen in the Glucose solution in anaerobic respiration experiment? ( )
A) Diazene green
B) Iodine
C) Paraffin solution
D) Burning match stick
Answer:
A) Diazene green

Question 2.
Identify the CORRECT pair from the following. (  )
A) Root hair – Photosynthesis.
B) Xylem – Transportation of food material.
C) Phloem – Transportation of water.
D) Stomata – Transpiration.
Answer:
D) Stomata – Transpiration.

Question 3.
Which of the following is NOT a vestigial organ in human beings? (  )
A) Ear pinna
B) Nails
C) Appendix
D) Hair on skin
Answer:
B) Nails

Question 4.
August Weismann through his experiments proved (  )
A) Law of dominance.
B) Bodily changes are not inherited.
C) Inheritance of acquired characters.
D) Natural Selection.
Answer:
B) Bodily changes are not inherited.

Question 5.
Identify the INCORRECT sentence from the following. (  )
A) The transportation system without blood vessels is called closed circulatory system.
B) Circulation of blood twice through the heart is called double circulation.
C) The fluid portion after formation of the clot is called Serum.
D) The liquid portion of the blood with nutrients flows out of the capillaries called tissue fluid.
Answer:
A) The transportation system without blood vessels is called closed circulatory system.

Question 6.
The process of entry of pollutants into a food chain is (  )
A) Bio remediation
B) Bio magnification
C) Bio accumulation
D) Phytoremediation
Answer:
C) Bio accumulation

Question 7.
Identify the INCORRECT pair from the following. (  )
A) Ethylene – ripening of fruit.
B) Cytokinins – delay the ageing in leaves.
C) Gibberellins – seed dormancy.
D) Abscisic acid – closing of stomata.
Answer:
C) Gibberellins – seed dormancy.

Question 8.
Match the following and identify the CORRECT option. (  )
i) Vitamin A
ii) Vitamin C
iii) Vitamin D

a) Ascorbic acid
b) Tocoferol
C) Retinol
d) Calciferol

A) i – b, ii – a, iii – d, iv – c
B) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b
C) i – b, ii – c, iii – d, iv – a
D) i – c, ii – a, iii – b, iv – d
Answer:
B) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b

Question 9.
Find out the missing words in the given flow chart.

A) 1. Decomposers; 2. Producers.
B) 1. Producers; 2. Secondary consumers.
C) 1. Abiotic factors; 2. Producers.
D) 1. Decomposers; 2. Abiotic factors.
Answer:
B) 1. Producers; 2. Secondary consumers.

10. Identify the type of nerve cell in the picture given below.

A) Efferent neuron
B) Associated neuron
C) Sensory neuron
D) Motor neuron
Answer:
C) Sensory neuron

Students must rely on TS 10th Class Biology Model Papers TS 10th Class Biology Model Paper june 2025 to gauge their understanding of exam patterns.

TS 10th Class Biology Question Paper June 2025

Parts – A and B

Time : 1 hour 30 min.
Max. Marks : 40

Instructions :

1. Read the question paper carefully and understand.
2. Answer the questions under Part – A in the answer sheet provided.
3. Part – A contains three sections – Section – I, II and III.
4. Part – B answers should be written in the given brackets and attach to the Part – A answer sheet.
5. Write the answers following the instructions given in each section.

Part – A
Section – I (3 × 2 = 6)

Time : 1.15 hrs.
Marks : 30

Instructions :
i) This section contains 3 very short answer questions.
ii) Anwer ALL the questions.
iii) Write the answers in 3 – 4 sentences.
iv) Each question carries 2 marks.

Question 1.
Write the two chemicals required in the experiment conducted to observe anaerobic respiration by using glucose solution and yeast.
Answer:
1) Diazine Green : To know whether oxygen is present or not in glucose solution.
2) Liquid paraffin : To prevent supply of air to the boiled glucose solution.
3) Lime water: To know the release of CO₂ during the experiment. If CO₂ is released, the lime water will be turned into milky white.

Question 2.
Write any two artificial vegetative propagation methods that would help to produce plants in daily life.
Answer:
Artificial vegetative propagation method that would help to produce a variety of plants are
1) Cuttings : Eg. Rose, Hibiscus
2) Layering : Eg. Nerium, Jasmine . .
3) Grafting : Eg. Mango, Citrus, Apple

Question 3.
What would happen if freshwater lakes are polluted?
Answer:
1) Humanbeings would suffer from scarcity of drinking water.
2) Many communicable diseases would spread in the surrounding villages of the lake.
3) The lake ecosystem would be disturbed, and this leads to the ecological imbalance.

Section – II (3 × 4= 12 M)

Question 4.
Write about the different steps of blood coagulation.
Answer:
Coagulation of blood : Blood forms clots to block the bleeding blood from wounds.

1. When the blood oozes out from the wound, the platelets release an enzyme called thromboki-nase.
2. Thrombokinase acts on another substance present in the blood called prothrombin converting it into thrombin.
3. Thrombin acts on another substance called fibrin, that is present in dissolved state converting it into insoluble fibrin.
4. The blood cells entangle in the fibrin fibers forming the clot.
5. The fibrin fibers are attached to the edges of the wound and pull them together.

Question 5.
Write any four vestigial organs present in your body.
Answer:
1) There are nearly 180 vestigial organs in humanbeings. Some of them are
a) Pinna
b) Hair on skin
c) Mammary glands in male
d) Appendix

2) Hence, human being is said to be “a moving museum of vestigial organs”.

Question 6.
Observe the table and answer, the following questions :
i) What changes does the effect of adrenaline cause in the body?
Answer:
Increase in heart beat rate, dialation of pupil, dialation of coronary artery.

ii) Which endocrine gland is associated with the digestive system?
Answer:
Pancrease

iii) Which hormone deficiency causes dwarfism?
Answer:
Somatotropin

iv) What happes if pituitary gland does not secrete vasopressin?
Answer:
It leads to failure in regulation of absorption of water in kidneys. It results in a disease called ‘diabetes incipidus’in which more frequent diluted urination is occured.

Section – III (2 × 6 = 12 M)

Question 7.
Write about any three secondary metabolites produced in plants and mention their uses.
Answer:
Secondary metabolities that are used in daily life.

1. Alkaloids:
   • Quinine : Used as antimalarial drug
   • Nicotine : Used as insecticide
   • Morphine/Cocaine : Used as pain killer.
   • Reserplne : Used as medicine for high B.P. and snake bite
   • Caffeine : Stimulant of nervous system.
   • Nimbin : Used as antispetic
   • Scopolamine : Used as sedalive
   • Pyrethroids : Used as insecticides
2. Tannins : Used in leather industry and medicines
3. Resins: Used in varnishes
4. Gums : Used as binding agent, medicines and food material
5. Latex : Used in rubber preparation

Question 8.
Draw a labelled diagram of embryo sac in angiosperms and explain the changes that occur in embryo sac after fertilization.
Answer:

Changes after fertilization:

1. Ovary develops into fruit.
2. Ovules develop into seeds.
3. The remaining floral parts may shrivel and fall off.

Question 9.
Explain the experimental procedure of the experiment “action of saliva on starch”. Mention the result.
Answer:
Experiment to understand action of saliva on flour.
Aim : To demonstrate the action of saliva on flour.
Apparatus : Test tubes (2), flour, watch glass, dilute tincture iodine, saliva (1 teaspoonful)

Procedure :

1. Take a test tube half-filled with water and add a pinch of flour to it.
2. Shake the test tube well till the flour gets mixed
3. Take a few drops of this mixture in a watch glass and test for the presence of starch by putting a drop of dilute tincture iodine in it.
4. A bluish black colour confirms the presence of starch.
5. Now again dissolve a pinch of flour into half-filled water in a test tube.
6. Now divide the mixture into two equal halves by transferring it to another test tube.
7. Note that both the test tubes have the same amount of solution.
8. Add a teaspoon of saliva to one of the test tube and mark. it.
9. Do not add anything in the other test tube.
10. After 45 minutes add a drop of dilute tincture iodine solution to test tubes containing the solu-tion.

Observation :

1. The solution of the test tube to which saliva is added shows colour change as starch is converted to sugar.
2. There is no colour change in the other test tube to which saliva is not added.

Inference (or) result:
The enzyme salivary amylase in the saliva breaks down the starch molecules into smaller sub-units of sugars.

Part – B

Time : 15 minutes
Marks : 10

Instructions :
i) Answer ALL the questions.
ii) Each question carries 1 mark.
iii) Each question has four options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for each question. Select the correct option and
write it in the bracket given inffont of the question.
iv) Part-B answer should be written in the question paper and attach it to Part-A answer sheet.
v) Marks will not be given for overwriting rewritten or erased answers.

Question 1.
Identify the enzyme that acts upon carbohydrates from the following. (  )
1) Lipase
2) Trypsin
3) Pepsin
4) Amylase
Answer:
1) Lipase

Question 2.
Identify the correct words that should be in the blanks shown below in a sequential order

1) Epiglottis, Trachea
2) Trachea, Nasal cavity
3) Nasal cavity, Epiglottis
4) Nasal cavity, Trachea .
Answer:
2) Trachea, Nasal cavity

Question 3.
Identify the structural and functional unit of kidney. (  )
1) Neuron
2) Nephron
3) Alveoli
4) Blood capillary
Answer:
2) Nephron

Question 4.
Identify the incorrect pair from the following. (  )
1) Saprophytic nutrition – Mushroom
2) Parasitic nutrition – Yeast
3) Autotrophic nutrition – Neem
4) Heterotrophic nutrition – Leech
Answer:
4) Heterotrophic nutrition – Leech

Question 5.
Identify the incorrect sentence regarding combusition from the following. (  )
1) Heat energy must be supplied from outside.
2) Combustion occur even in the presence of water.
3) It is an uncontrolled process.
4) If it is happened in our cells, all cells would be burnt.
Answer:
3) It is an uncontrolled process.

Question 6.
Match the following and identify the correct answer from the following. (  )
i) Regeneration
ii) Parthenogenesis
iii) Fission
iv) Fragmentation

a) Honeybee
b) Spirogyra
c) Planaria
d) Paramoecium

1) i, iii, iv, ii
2) ii, iv, i, iii
3) ii, i, iv, iii
4) iv, iii, i, ii
Answer:
2) ii, iv, i, iii

Question 7.
Identify the correct sequence of the steps involved in the process of urine formation. (  )
i) Tubular secretion
ii) Glomerular filtration
iii) Formation of hypertonic urine
iv) Tubular reabsorption
Answer:
iii) Formation of hypertonic urine

Question 8.
Identify the materials required in the experiment to prove root pressure from the following. (  )
1) Mint plant and bell jar
2) Beaker and Hydrilla plant
3) Potted plant and plastic cover
4) Potted plant and glass tube
Answer:
2) Beaker and Hydrilla plant

Question 9.
Identify the odd one from the following based on its origin. (  )
1) Glucagon
2) Ethylene
3) Auxins
4) AbscisicAcid
Answer:
4) AbscisicAcid

Question 10.
Identify the labelled part with question tag. (  )

1) Mitochondria
2) Acrosome
3) Head
4) Nucleus
Answer:
2) Acrosome

The strategic use of TS 10th Class Maths Model Papers and TS 10th Class Maths Question Paper March 2024 can significantly enhance a student’s problem-solving skills.

TS 10th Class Maths Question Paper March 2024

Time: 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

Instructions:

1. Answer all the questions under Part – A on a separate answer book.
2. Write the answers to the questions under Part B on the question paper itself and attach it to the answer book of Part – A.

Part – A (60 Marks)
Section – I (6 × 2 = 12 Marks)

Note :

1. Answer ALL the following questions.
2. Each question carries 2 marks.

Question 1.
Express 360 as a product of prime factors.
Solution:

Question 2.
Is the pair of linear equations 3x – 5y = 7 and 6x – 10y = 13 are inconsistent? Justify your answer.
Solution:

Question 3.
A flag pole stands vertically on the ground. From a point which is 15 metres away from the foot of the tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is 45°. Draw a suitable diagram for the given data.
Solution:

Where AB = Flag pole height
BC = Distance between foot of tower and foot that pole
θ = Angle of elevation

Question 4.
AOB is the diameter of a circle with centre ‘O’ and AC is a tangent to the circle at A. If ∠BOC = 130°, then find ∠ACO.

Solution:

Given that
AOB is a diameter and centre is O
AC is a tangent
∠BOC = 130° and point of contact at A.
We know that
The angle at point of contact is 90°
The angle of straight line is 180°
∠AOC + ∠BOC = 180°
∠AOC + 130° = 180°
∠AOC = 180° – 130°
∠AOC = 50°
In a triangle
The sum of angles = 180°
∠AOC + ∠OAC + ∠ACO = 180°
∠ACO + 90° + 50° = 180°
∠ACO = 180° – 140°
∠ACO = 40°
So, the angle ∠ACO is 40°

Question 5.
Express ‘sin θ’ in terms of ‘tan θ’.
Solution:

Question 6.
Construct a Quadratic equation having the roots log₂8 and log₁₀100 .
Solution:
log₂ 8 = log₂2³ = 3log₂2 = 3 × 1 = 3
l0g₁₀ 100 = log₁₀ 10²
= 2log₁₀ 10 = 2 × 1 =2
So, the roots are 3 and 2.
x² – x (sum of the roots) + (product of the roots) = 0
x² – x(3 + 2) + (3 × 2) = 0
⇒ x² – 5x + 6 = 0
∴ The required quadratic equation
⇒ x² – 5x + 6 = 0

Section – II (6 × 4 = 24 Marks)

Note :

1. Answer ALL the following questions.
2. Each question carries 4 marks.

Question 7.
Write the formula for Mode of a grouped data and explain each term.
Solution:
Mode of a grouped data:
Mode = l + \(\left[\frac{\mathrm{f}_1-\mathrm{f}_0}{2 \mathrm{f}_1-\mathrm{f}_0-\mathrm{f}_2}\right]\) × h
Where,
l – lower boundary of the modal class.
h – size of the modal class interval.
f₁ – frequency of modal class.
f₀ – frequency of the class preceding the modal class.
f₂ – frequency of the class succeeding the modal class.

Question 8.
Prove that \(\frac{\sin \theta}{1+\cos \theta}+\frac{1+\cos \theta}{\sin \theta}\) = 2 cosec θ.
Solution:

Question 9.
From the Venn diagram, find the following sets,

i) X∪Y
ii) X∩Y
iii) X – Y
iv) Y – X
Solution:

Question 10.
In an arithmetic progression, if 4 times of fourth term is equal to 8 times of the eighth term, then prove that twelth term of the progression is zero.
Solution:
Given that
In an AP it 4 times of fourth term is equal to 8 times of the eighth term.
4(4^th term) = 8(8^th term)
4(a + 3d) = 8(a + 7d)
4a + 12d = 8a + 56d
8a – 4a + 56d – 12d = 0
4a + 44 d = 0
4a = – 44d
a = \(\frac{-44}{4}\)
a = -11d
So, 12^th term ⇒ a₁₂ = a + 11d
We know that a = -11d
So, a₁₂ = -11d + 11d
a₁₂ = 0
∴ Hence proved.

Question 11.
In a bag, there are 5 Red balls, 2 Black balls and 3 White balls. If one ball is selected randomly from the bag, then find the probability of
i) getting a Red ball.
ii) getting not a Red ball.
Solution:
Red balls = 5
Blackballs = 2
White balls = 3
Total balls = 5 + 2 + 3 = 10
∴ P(E) \(=\frac{\text { (Number of favourable outcomes }}{\text { Total number of outcomes }}\)

i) P(getting a Red ball) = \(\frac{5}{10}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)

ii) P(Not getting a Red ball)
\(=\frac{\text { (Number of favourable outcomes }}{\text { Total number of outcomes }}\)
= \(\frac{2+3}{10}\) – \(\frac{5}{10}\) = \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 12.
In a rectangle ABCD, AB = 2x – y, BC = 15, CD = 2 and DA = x + 3y, then find the values of x and y.
Solution:
Given that
In a rectangle ABCD

AB = 2x – y
BC = 15; CD = 2; OA = x + 3y
So,
In a rectangle opposite sides are equal

Section – III (4 × 6 = 24 Marks)

Note :

1. Answer any 4 questions from the given 6 questions.
2. Each question carries 6 marks.

Question 13.
Prove that 3 \(\sqrt{5}\) + \(\sqrt{7}\) is an irrational number.
Solution:
We have to prove that 3\(\sqrt{5}\) + \(\sqrt{7}\) is an irrational number. Let us assume that 3\(\sqrt{5}\) + \(\sqrt{7}\) is a rational number.

\(\frac{p^2-38 q^2}{2 p q}\) is a rational number but \(\sqrt{7}\) is an irrational number. This is a contradiction to the fact that \(\sqrt{7}\) is an irrational number. So our assumption is wrong.
So, \(\sqrt{7}\) is an irrational number.

Question 14.
Draw the graph of the Quadratic polynomial p(x) = x² + x -12 and find the zeroes of the polynomial from the graph.
Solution:
Given that
p(x) = x² + x – 12

Question 15.
Find the Arithmetic mean of the following data.

Solution:

Question 16.
Construct a triangle ABC with AB = 5.6 cm, BC = 7.2 cm and CA = 4.8 cm. Construct another triangle similar to ΔABC, whose sides are \(\frac{3}{5}\) times of the corresponding sides of ΔABC.
Solution:

Step of Construction:

1. Construct ΔABC with given measurements.
2. Draw a Ray AX in the downward direction at point A such that ∠BAX is an acute angle.
3. Draw 5 arcs on AX such that AP₁ = P₁P₂ = P₃P₄ = P₄P₅.
4. Joint P₅ and B.
5. Draw a line parallel to P₅B through point P₃ which cuts AB at B¹.
6. Draw a line parallel to BC through point B¹, which cuts AC at C¹.
7. ΔB¹C¹ is required similar triangle.

Question 17.
The three vertices of a parallelogram ABCD are A(- 1, – 2), B(4, – 1) and C(6, 3). Find the coordinates of vertex D and find the area of parallelogram ABCD.
Solution:

Question 18.
Due to heavy floods in the state thousands were rendered homeless. The State Government decided to provide canvas for 1500 tents. The lower part of each tent is cylindrical of base radius 2.8 meters and height 3.5 meters with conical upper part of same base radius but of height 2.1 meters. If the canvas used to make the tent costs Rs. 100 per square meter, find the total cost of canvas to construct the tents.
Solution:

Curved surface area of the cylinder = 2πrh
= 2 × \(\sqrt{7}\) × 2.8 × 3.5 = 61.6 sq.m
= (2.8)² + (2.1)² = 7.84 + 4.41
l = \(\sqrt{12.25}\) = 3.5 m
Curved surface area of the cone = πrl
= \(\frac{22}{7}\) × 2.8 × 3.5 = 30.8m².
The area of the cloth required for one tent = 61.6 + 30.8 = 92.4 m²
Cost of the 1m² cloth = Rs. 1oo
∴ Total cost of 1500 tents
= ₹ 92.4 × 100 × 100
= ₹ 9240 × 1500
= ₹ 1,38,60,000

Part – B (20 Marks)

Note :

1. All questions are to be answered.
2. Each question carries 1 mark.
3. Answers are to be written in the Question paper only.
4. Marks will not be given for over-writing, rewriting or erased answers.

I. Write the CAPITAL LETTERS (A, B, C, D) of the correct answer in the brackets provided against each question, 20 × 1 = 20 M

Question 1.
The perimeter of a triangle, whose vertices are (0, 5), (0, 0) and (12, 0) is …….. ( )
A) 15
B) 13
C) 30
D) 10
Solution:
C) 30

Question 2.
The ten’s digit of the product 6²⁰×5² is …… ( )
A) 0
B) 6
C) 4
D) 5
Solution:
A) 0

Question 3.
If p(x) = 5x⁴ + 6x² + 3x – 7. then p(0) is …… ( )
A) 5
B) 3
C) 6
D) -7
Solution:
D) -7

Question 4.
Which of the following cannot be probability of an event? ( )
A) 0.35
B) 40%
C) 1\(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
Solution:
C) 1\(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 5.
Set A = {x : x is a letter in the word “CHANDRAYAN”}, then n(A) is …….. ( )
A) 10
B) 7
C) 8
D) 6
Solution:
B) 7

Question 6.
The first degree equation in two variables ax – by + c = 0 represents ……..
A) Straight line
B) Parabola
C) Line segment
D) Ray
Solution:
A) Straight line

Question 7.
The Quadratic equation, whose sum of the roots is -3 and product of the roots is 2. ( )
A) x² + 6x + 5 = 0
B) x² – x – 6 = 0
C) x² – 3x + 2 = 0
D) x² + 3x + 2 = 0
Solution:
D) x² + 3x + 2 = 0

Question 8.
The number of terms in the AP; 2, 5, 8,…….., 32 is …….. ( )
A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 32
Solution:
C) 11

Question 9.
In ΔABC, DE || BC, where AD = 2cm, DB = 3 cm and AE = 4 cm, then AC is …….. ( )

A) 5 cm
B) 10 cm
C) 6 cm
D) 9 cm
Solution:
B) 10 cm

Question 10.
In a circle, ‘O’ is the centre, P is the external point and AP is the tangent drawn to the circle from P, OA is the radius. If ∠APO = 30°, then ∠POA = ? ( )
A) 120°
B) 90°
C) 30°
D) 60°
Solution:
D) 60°

Question 11.
The base diameter and height of a Right circular cone are 12 cm and 8 cm, then the slant height is ……. ( )
A) 10 cm
B) 9 cm
C) 20 cm
D) 4 cm
Solution:
A) 10 cm

Question 12.
In ΔABC, ∠H = 90°, then cos(A + C) ?
A) 1
B) 0
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
Solution:
B) 0

Question 13.
If the angle of elevation of Sun increases from 0° to 90°, then the length of the shadow of
the tower is …… ( )
A) No change
B) Increases
C) Decreases
D) Can’t be decided
Solution:
C) Decreases

Question 14.
The probability of an event P(E) is always
A) 0 ≤ P (E) ≤ 1
B) P(E) < 1
C) P(E) ≥ 1
D) P(E) ≤ 0
Solution:
A) 0 ≤ P (E) ≤ 1

Question 15.
The roots of a Quadratic equation 2x² + x + 4 = 0 are …….. ( )
A) One is positive and other is negative.
B) Both are positive.
C) Both are negative.
D) No real roots.
Solution:
D) No real roots.

Question 16.
Which of the following equation has ‘2’ as a root? ( )
A) x² – 4x + 5 = 0
B) x² + 3x – 12 = 0
C) 2x² – 7x + 6 = 0
D) 3x² – 6x – 2 = 0
Solution:
C) 2x² – 7x + 6 = 0

Question 17.
The number of subsets of a set is 16, then the number of elements of the set is …… ( )
A) 8
B) 16
C) 10
D) 4
Solution:
D) 4

Question 18.
‘O’ is the centre. PA and PB are tangents drawn to the circle from point P. If angle between the tangents is 60° and length of the tangent is \(\sqrt{3}\) cm, then the radius of the circle is ……….

A) 2 cm
B) 1 cm
C) 2 \(\sqrt{3}\) cm
D) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
Solution:
B) 1 cm

Question 19.
The number of secants can be drawn to a circle from an external point is ……. ( )
A) Infinite
B) 1
C) 2
D) 0
Solution:
A) Infinite

Question 20.
If the ratio of the height of a pole and the length of it’s shadow is \(\sqrt{3}\) : 1, then the angle of elevation of Sun is …… ( )
A) 30°
B) 60°
C) 45°
D) 90°
Solution:
B) 60°

Students must rely on TS 10th Class Biology Model Papers TS 10th Class Biology Model Paper March 2025 to gauge their understanding of exam patterns.

TS 10th Class Biology Question Paper March 2025

Parts – A and B

Time : 1 hour 30 min.
Max. Marks : 40

Instructions :

1. Read the question paper carefully and understand.
2. Answer the questions under Part – A in the answer sheet provided.
3. Part – A contains three sections – Section -I, II and III.
4. Part – B answers should be written in the given brackets and attach to the Part – A answer sheet.
5. Write the answers following the instructions given in each section.

Part – A
Section – I (3 × 2 = 6)

Time : 1 hour 15 min.
Max. Marks : 30

Instructions :
i) This section contains 3 very short answer questions.
ii) Answer ALL the questions.
iii) Write the answers in 3 – 4 sentences.
iv) Each question carries 2 marks.

Question 1.
Write two chemicals required to conduct an experiment to prove that ‘Carbon dioxide is necessary for photosynthesis’.
Answer:
Chemicals required to conduct an experiment to prove that carbon dioxide is necessary for photosynthesis are

1. Potassium Hydroxide (KOH)
2. Iodine solution / Iodine
3. Methylated spirit

Question 2.
Write two suggestions that you would give to a person whose both the kidneys stop working completely.
Answer:

1. Dialysis / Haemodialysis.
2. Kidney transplantation.
3. Follow any other suggestion given by the doctor.

Question 3.
What will happen if pollutants enter into the lake ecosystem?
Answer:

1. May leads to excessive growth of weeds.
2. May causes eutrophication.
3. Weeds like Pistia, Eichhomia may grow excessively.
4. The nature of lake water may turn more alkaline.
5. The Dissolved Oxygen (DO) in lake water may be decreased.
6. Water borne diseases like Amoebiasis Diarrhoea, Typhoid, etc., may spread.
7. Acquatic animals like fish, prawn may be affected by diseases.
8. Water may not be useful for agriculture
9. Water may not be useful for drinking.
10. May leads to bioaccumulation.

Section – II (3 × 4= 12 M)

Question 4.
Explain the steps of light dependent reaction in the mechanism of photosynthesis.
Answer:
1) Reaction of photosynthesis that takes place in presence of light are called light reactions or photochemical reactions.

2) The light reaction takes place in chlorophyll containing thylakoids called grana of chloroplasts.

3) Step-1 : Light reaction occurs in several steps. In the first step, the chlorophyll on exposure to light energy becomes activated by absorbing photons. (Photon is a unit of light energy)

4) Step – II: In the second step, the energy is used in splitting the water molecule to release Ov The reaction is known as photolysis (photo means light, lysis means breaking). This was discovered by Robert Hill. Hence it is called Hills reaction.

5) Hydrogen producted in photolysis is immediately picked up by special compound NADP (Nico-tinamide Adenine Dinucleotide Phosphate) to form NADPH (Reduced NADP).

6) Another energy rich compound ATP (Adenosine triphosphate) is also formed at the end of the light reaction.

Question 5.
Write any four non-renewable resources you have observed in your surroundings and write their uses.
Answer:
Non-renew able resources are:

1. Fossil fuels – used as fuels.
2. Coal – used in thermal power generation.
3. Petroleum products – used as fuels in vehicles.
4. Petrol – used as fuel in vehicles.
5. Diesel – used as fuel in vehicles.
6. Natural gas – used as fuel.
7. Minerals – used in the preparation of metals.

Question 6.
Observe the following picture and answer the following questions.

i) What type of cell division does it represent?
Answer:
Reduction division / meiosis.

ii) What is the difference in the number of chromosomes of a parent cell when compared to daughter cells?
Answer:
Daughter cells have half of the chromosomes when compared to the parent cell.

iii) In which cells of the body does the above cell division take place?
Answer:
Germ cells / Sexual reproductive cells / Cells producing the gametes.

iv) How many daughter cells are formed in the above cell division from a single parent cell?
Answer:
Four daughter cells are formed.

Section – III (2 × 6 = 12)

Question 7.
Explain the parts of human brain and their functions.
Answer:
A) Fore brain :

1. Olfactory lobes – Sense of smell
2. Cerebrum
   • Seat of mental abilities / controls thinking / memory / reasoning / perception / emotions and speech.
   • Interprets sensations and responds to cold / heat / pain and pressure.
     
3. Diencephalon
   • Relay centre for sensory impulses, such as pain, temperature and light.
   • Reflex centre for muscular activities.
   • Centre for certain emotions.
   • Centre for water balance, blood pressure, body temperature, sleep and hunger.
   • The hypothalamus controls the pituitary gland.

B) Mid brain : It relays motor impulses from the cerebral cortex to the spinal cord and relays sensory impulses from the spinal cord to the thalamus, reflexes for sight and hearing.

C) Hind brain :

1. Cerebellum : Maintains posture, equilibrium, muscle tone, voluntary movements.
2. Medulla oblongata :
   • Contains centre for cardiac, respiratory, vasomotor activities, B.R (Vasomotor refers to ac¬tions upon a blood vesel which alter its diameter).
   • Coordinates reflexes like swallowing, coughing, sneezing and vomiting.

Question 8.
Explain the experimental procedure followed to observe the internal structure of the mam-malian heart and write the observations.
Answer:

Procedure :

1. Collect the fresh goat / sheep heart from butcher.
2. Wash thoroughly to drain our blood completely.
3. Insert straws into the stumps of the blood vessels.
4. Keep it in the dissection tray.
5. Dissect the heart vertically with the sharp blade (or) dissection scissors.

Observation :

1. The heart is pear shaped structure with triangular in outline.
2. The heart is covered with two layered pericardium.
3. The heart has four chambers. .
4. The upper chambers are smaller, lower chambers are larger.
5. The walls of the lower chamber are relatively thicker.
6. Atria and Ventricles are separated by the septa.
7. The openings between Atria and Ventricles are guarded by Tricuspid and Bicuspid valves.
8. Rigid blood vessel originate from the lower chambers. .
9. Arteries are the blood vessels which originate from the heart and supply blood to various organs in the body. They have thick walls.
10. The veins are the blood vessels which bring blood from all the body parts to the heart. They have thin walls.

Question 9.
Explain the human respiratory system with a labelled diagram.
Answer:

The pathway taken by air in the respiratory system :
Nostrils → Nasal cavity → Pharynx → Larynx → Trachea → Bronchus → Bronchioles → Alveolus → Blood.

1. Air enters the body through the nostrils.
2. Air is filtered in the nasal cavity and its temperature is also brought close to that of the body.
3. Pharynx is the junction of respiratory and digestive system. Epiglottis – a flap – like muscular valve controls movement of air and food towards their respective passages.
4. Larynx is also called sound box. It contains vocal cords is Larynx. When air passes out of the lungs and over the vocal cords, it causes them to vibrate. This produces sounds. Based on this vibrations we are able to speak, sing songs etc.
5. Trachea is also called wind pipe. It channels air into lungs.
6. In thoracic region trachea divides into two bronchi, one leading to each lung.
7. The bronchi further divided into smaller and smaller branches called bronchioles.
8. Bronchioles finally terminate in clusters of air sacs called alveoli in the lungs which are very small and numerous.
9. Gaseous exchange takes place here as blood capillaries take up oxygen and expel carbon dioxide here.
10. Blood carries oxygen to each and every cell of the body and collects CO, from them. The whole passage from nostrils to alveoli is moist and warm.

Part – B

Time : 15 minutes.
Marks : 10

Instructions :
i) Answer ALL the questions.
ii) Each question carries 1 mark.
iii) There are four options (A), (B), (C) and (D) for each question, elect the correct option and write it in
the bracket given infront of the question.
iv) Part-B answer should be written in the question paper and attach it to Part-A answer sheet.
v) Marks will not be given for over-writing re-written or erased answers.

Question 1.
Which of the following is called as the second brain in humans? (  )
1) Enteric Nervous System
2) Central Nervous System
3) Peripheral Nervous System
4) Sympathetic Nervous System
Answer:
1) Enteric Nervous System

Question 2.
Identify the INCORRECT pair from the following. (  )
1) Charles Darwin – Origin of species
2) August Weismann – Inheritance of acquired characters
3) Mendel – Law of dominance
4) Malthus – Principles of population
Answer:
2) August Weismann – Inheritance of acquired characters

Question 3.
Identify the hormone that stimulates the mammary glands to produce milk. (  )
1) Prolactin
2) Adrenaline
3) Progesterone
4) Glucagon
Answer:
2) Adrenaline

Question 4.
Match the following and identify the CORRECT answer. (  )
i) Marcello Malpighi
ii) William Harvey
iii) Girolamo Fabrici
iv) Rene Laennec

a) Valves in the heart
b) Stethoscope
c) Capillaries
d) Valves in the veins

1) i – b, ii – d, iii – a, iv – c
2) i – c, ii – d, iii – a, iv – b
3) i – d, ii – c, iii – a, iv – b
4) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b
Answer:
4) i – c, ii – a, iii – d, iv – b

Question 5.
Identify the INCORRECT pair from the following. (  )
1) Runner – Oxalis
2) Stolons-Jasmine
3) Bulb – Ginger
4) Corm – Colocasia
Answer:
3) Bulb – Ginger

Question 6.
Identify the CORRECT sentence from the following.  (  )
1) Organs which are structurally different but functionally similar are known as homologous or gAnswer:
2) Tadpole of a frog resembles fish more than the frog.
3) Uranium isotopes are used to identify the vestigial organs in the human body.
4) Fossils of ketosaurus dinosaur is collected from the state of Haryana.
Answer:
2) Tadpole of a frog resembles fish more than the frog.

Question 7.
Which of the following in observed in the experiment conducted by using the materials like cycle tube, potatoes, oil? (  )
1) Mucus in the stomach
2) Microvilli in small intestine
3) pH of mouth
4) Peristaltic movement
Answer:
3) pH of mouth

Question 8.
Identify the allosomes present in male humans normally from the ______ following. (  )
1) XX
2) XXY
3) XY
4) XO
Answer:
2) XXY

Question 9.
Identify the INCORRECT pair from _______ the following. (  )
1) Chrysanthemum – Alkaloids
2) Cassia – Tannins
3) Neem – Gums
4) Acacia – Resins
Answer:
4) Acacia – Resins

Question 10.
Identify the type of teeth shown with question mark (?) in the following picture. (  )

1) Incisors
2) Canines
3) Molars
4) Premolars
Answer:
2) Canines

Timed practice with TS 10th Class Physical Science Model Papers and TS 10th Class Physical Science Question Paper June 2023 is crucial for improving speed and efficiency during exams.

TS 10th Class Physical Science Question Paper June 2023

Parts – A and B

Time: 1 Hour 30 min.
Max. Marks: 40

Instructions :

1. Read the question paper and understand every question thoroughly and write answers in given 1 hr. 30 min. time.
2. 3 very short answer questions are there in section -1. Each question carries 2 marks. Answer all the questions. Write answer to each question in 3 to 4 sentences.
3. 3 short answer questions are there in section – II. Each question carries 4 marks. Answer all the questions. Write answer to each question in 5 to 6 sentences.
4. 3 essay type answer questions are there in section – III. Each question carries 6 marks. Answer any two questions. Write answer to each question in 8 to 10 sentences.

Part – A
Section – I (3 × 2 = 6 M)

Time: 1.15 hrs.
Marks: 30

Instructions :
i) Answer all the questions.
ii) Each question carries 2 marks.
iii) Write answer to each question in 3 to 4 sentences

Question 1.
Mention the ohmic and non-ohmic conductors used in day to day life.
Answer:
a. The ohmic conductors like copper and aluminium are used as electric wires,
b. Non-ohmic conductors like silicon and Germanium are used in semi conductors.

Question 2.
Draw the Lewis electron dot structure for the Nitrogen and Chlorine atoms.
Answer:

Question 3.
What would happen if chemical equation is not balanced?
Answer:
If not balanaced chemical reactions are not obey law of conservation of mass. So, the total number of atoms of each element in the reactants not to be equal to the total number of atoms of each element in the products. So, we should have to balance a chemical equation.

Section – II (3 × 4 = 12)

Instructions :
i) Answer ALL the questions.
ii) Each question carries 4 marks.
iii) Write answer to each question in 5 to 6 sentences.

Question 4.
Observe the given electronic configuration of orbital diagrams of elements and answer the following questions.

i) Which of the given electronic configuration of element is violating Hund’s rule?
Answer:
B

ii) Mention the inert gas element from the given configuration.
Answer:
E

iii) Which of the given indicates Oxygen electronic configuration?
Answer:
C

iv) Mention the valence of element ‘A’.
Answer:
3

Question 5.
Complete the following ray diagram and mention the characteristics of the image.

Answer:

Characteristics of the image:
a. The object is in between focus and optic centre.
b. The image is virtual, erect and magnified.

Question 6.
Write the uses of ‘Bleaching powder’ in day to day life.
Answer:
Uses of Bleaching powder:
a. It is used for bleaching cotton and linen in the textile industry, for bleaching wood pulp in paper industry and for bleaching washed clothes in laundry.
b. Used as an oxidizing agent in many chemical industries.
c. Used for disinfecting drinking water to make it free of germs.
d. Used as a reagent in the preparation of chloroform.

Section – III (2 × 6 = 12 m)

Instructions :
i) Answer any two questions.
ii) Each question carries 6 marks.
iii) Write answer to each question in 8 to 10 sentences.

Question 7.
Explain the cleansing action of soap to remove dirt from clothes.
Answer:
a. Soaps and detergents make oil and dirt present on the cloth come out into water, thereby making the cloth clean.
b. Soap has one polar end and non-polar end.

c. The polar end is hydrophilic in nature and this end is attracted towards water.
d. The non- polar end is hydrophobic, in nature and it is attracted towards grease or oil on the cloth, but not attracted towards water.
e. When soap is dissolved in water, its hydrophobic ends attach themselves to dirt and remove it from the cloth.
f. The hydrophobic end of the soap molecules move towards the dirt or grease particles.
g. The hydrophobic ends attach to the dirt particle and try to pull out.

h. The molecules of soap surround the dirt particle at the centre of the cluster and form a spherical structure called micelle.
i. These micelles remain suspended in water like particles in a colloidal solution.
j. The various micelles present in water do not come together to form a precipitate as each micelle repels the other because of the ion-ion repulsion.
k. Thus, the dust particles remain trapped in micelles and are easily rinsed away with water.
l. Hence, soap micelles remove dirt by dissolving in water.

Question 8.
List out the material required to conduct Oersted experiment with precautions and explain the experimehtal procedure.
Answer:
List of material required for Oersted experiment: A thermocol sheet, two small sticks, insulated copper wires, 9V battery, switch, magnetic compass.

Precautions to be taken are
a. Copper wire is made through the slits of the wooden sticks tightly.
b. Arrange / complete the circuit correctly.

Procedure:
a. Take a thermocol sheet and fix two thin wooden sticks of height 1 cm which have small slit at the top of their ends.
b. Arrange a copper wire so that it passes through these slits and make a circuit.
c. This circuit consists of a 9V battery, key and copper wires connected in series.
d. Now, keep a magnetic compass below the wire.
e. Now switch on the circuit and observe the compass needle.
g. Change the directions of current and observe the compass needle.

Observations:
a. When Gurrent is passed through circuit, we observe deflection of compass needle in one direction.
b. When the direction of current is changed, the compass needle deflects in another direction.
c. From the above experiment I understand that a current carrying conductor possesses, magnetic field around it.

Question 9.
Mention the influencing factors of Ionization energy and explain.
Answer:
Influencing factors of Ionization Energy:
a. Nuclear charge
b. Screening effect or shielding effect
c. Penetrating power of the orbitals
d. Stable electronic configuration
e. Atomic radius

a. Nuclear charge : More the nuclear charge, more is the ionization energy.
b. Screening effect or shielding effect: More screening or shield effect, less is the ionization energy.
c. Penetrating power of the orbitals: More penetrating power, more is the ionization energy.
d. Stable electronic configuration : The orbitals of atom are fully or half filled, the ionization energy is high.
e. Atomic radius : More the atomic radius, less is the ionization energy. Ionization energy of elements decreases as we go down in group and generally increases from left to right in a period.

Part – B

Time: 15 Minutes
Marks: 10

Instructions :
i) Answer All the questions.
ii) Each question carries 1 mark.
iii) There are 4 options A, B, C, D for each question. Select the correct option and write it in the bracket given infornt of the question.
iv) Write the answers of Part – B in Part – B only. And tie it to the answer sheet of Part – A.

Question 1.
Which of the following apparatus is not used in the experiment to find focal length of Concave mirror? ( )
A) Candle
B) Meter scale
C) V – stand
D) Prism
Answer:
D) Prism

Question 2.
How many moles of Oxygen will be required to burn 20 moles of Hydrogen according to following question?
2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
A) 10 moles
B) 15 moles
C) 20 moles
D) 25 moles
Answer:
A) 10 moles

Question 3.
Which of the following substance is used in place of HCl in the experiment reaction of carbonates with acids? ( )
A) NaOH
B) H₂O
C) H₂SO₄
D) KOH
Answer:
C) H₂SO₄

Question 4.
Identify Plano Convex lens in the following. ( )

Answer:

Question 5.
In which of the following, Baking soda is used? ( )
A) To remove hardness of water.
B) Glass and paper industry.
C) To prepare cakes.
D) In household detergents.
Answer:
C) To prepare cakes.

Question 6.
Electron configuration of “Cr” atom. ( )
A) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² 3d⁴
B) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹ 3d⁵
C) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² 3d⁵
D) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² 3d⁶
Answer:
B) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹ 3d⁵

Question 7.
Correct reactive series from the following. ( )
A) M > Cu > Ag
B) Cu > Al > Ag
C) Al > Ag > Cu
D) Cu > Ag > Al
Answer:
A) M > Cu > Ag

Question 8.
2Ω, 3Ω, 5Ω resistors are connected in series. The equivalent resistance is ( )
A) 10 Ω.
B) 5Ω
C) 3Ω
D) 2Ω
Answer:
A) 10 Ω.

Question 9.
Which of the following classification of elements is based on atomic numbers? ( )
A) Mendeleev’s Periodic Table
B) Modern Periodic Table
C) Newland’s law of Octaves
D) Dobereiner’s traids
Answer:
B) Modern Periodic Table

10. Which of the following is used for the correction of Myopia? ( )
A) Convex lens
B) Concave lens
C) Convex Mirror
D) Concave Mirror
Answer:
B) Concave lens

The strategic use of TS 10th Class Maths Model Papers and TS 10th Class Maths Question Paper June 2024 can significantly enhance a student’s problem-solving skills.

TS 10th Class Maths Question Paper June 2024

Time : 3 Hours
Maximum Marks: 80

Instructions:

1. Answer all the questions under Part-A on a separate answer book.
2. Write the answers to the questions under Part-B on the question paper itself and attach it to the answer book of Part-A.

Part – A (60 Marks)
Section – I (6 × 2 = 12 Marks)

Note :

1. Answer ALL the following questions.
2. Each question carries 2 marks.

Question 1.
Expand log \(\frac{243}{32}\).
Solution:
We know that log_a\(\frac{x}{y}\) = log_a x – log_a y
So, log \(\frac{243}{32}\) = log 243 – log 32
= log3⁵ – log2⁵ = 5log 3 – 5 log 2
(Since log_a x^m = nlog_a x)
∴ log \(\frac{243}{32}\) = 5(log3 – log2)

Question 2.
Whether the following pair of linear equations represents parallel lines ? Justify your answer.
2x + 3y = 10 and 6x + 9y = 15.
Solution:
2x + 3y – 10 = 0
6x + 9y – 15 = 0
\(\frac{a_1}{a_2}\) = \(\frac{2}{6}\) = \(\frac{1}{6}\), \(\frac{b_1}{b_2}\) = \(\frac{3}{9}\) = \(\frac{1}{3}\), \(\frac{c_1}{c_2}\) = \(\frac{-10}{-15}\) = \(\frac{2}{3}\)
Since \(\frac{a_1}{a_2}\) = \(\frac{b_1}{b_2}\) = \(\frac{c_1}{c_2}\), the pair of linear equations are inconsistent and parallel.

Question 3.
“The top of the tower is observed at an angle of elevation 45° and the food of the tower is at the distance of 20 meters from the observer”. Draw a suitable diagram for this data.
Solution:
In the above figure, 8 represents the top of the tower and A is its foot. AC represents the distance between the foot of the tower and the observer (C).

Question 4.
Express ‘tanθ’ in terms of ‘sinθ’.
Solution:
We know that, tanθ = \(\frac{\sin \theta}{\cos \theta}\) and sin²θ + cos²θ = 1
sin²θ + cos²θ = 1
∴ tan θ = \(\frac{\sin \theta}{\cos \theta}\) = \(\frac{\sin \theta}{\sqrt{1-\sin ^2 \theta}}\)
(Since, cos²θ = 1 – sin²θ)
∴ cosθ = \(\sqrt{1-\sin ^2 \theta}\)

Question 5.
Construct a Quadratic equation having the roots log₂ 8 and cosec 30°.
Solution:
Given that the roots of the quadratic equation are \(\log _2^8\) and cosec 30°.
\(\log _2^8\) can be written as \(\log _2 2^3\) = 3 log₂ 2
(∵ 8 = 2 × 2 × 2 = 2³)
We know that log₂ 2 = 1
∴ log₂ 8=3log₂ 2 = 3 × 1 = 3
Since sin30° = \(\frac{1}{2}\),
cosec 30° = \(\frac{1}{\sin 30^{\circ}}\) = \(\frac{1}{\frac{1}{2}}\) = 2.
So, the roots of the quadratic equation are 3 and 2.
∴ The required Q.E
= x² – x (Sum of the roots) + Products of the roots = 0
i.e., x² – x(3 + 2) + (3 × 2) = 0
x² – 5x + 6 = 0
The Q.E having roots log₂ 8 and cosec 30° is x² – 5x + 6 = 0.

Question 6.
In the given figure, PQ and PR are tangents to a circle with centre ‘O’. If ∠QOR = 120°, then find the ∠RPO.

Solution:
From the figure, it is clear that PQ and PR are the tangents to the circle with centre ‘O’ from an external point P.
PQ is the tangent and QO’ is the radius drawn through the point of contact Q.

∴ ∠PQO = 90°
Similarly, ∠PRO= 90°.
PQOR is a quadrilateral.
∠PQO + ∠QOR + ∠PRO + ∠PRQ = 360°
(∵ Sum of the interior angles of the quadrilateral is 360°)
90° + 120° + 90° + ∠RPQ = 360°
300° + ∠RPQ = 360°
∴ ∠RPQ = 360° – 300° = 60°
∴ ∠RPQ = \(\frac{60^{\circ}}{2}\) = 30°
Since, ΔPQO and ΔPRO are congruent,
SAS (Property)
OQ = OR (radii)
PQ = PR (tangents from p to the given circle
∠PQO = ∠PRO = 90°
∴ ∠RPO = ∠QPO
i.e., OP bisects ∠RPQ.

Section – II (6 × 4 = 24 Marks)

Note :

1. Answer ALL the following questions.
2. Each question carries 4 marks.

Question 7.
Write the formula for finding the sum of first n terms of an arithmetic progression and explain each term.
Solution:
The sum of the first ‘n’ terms of an AP is given by
S_n = [2a + (n – 1) d] (or) S_n = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}\)(a + l)
[∵ a_n = a + (n – 1)d]
Here, S_n denotes the sum of the first n terms of the AP.
‘a’ denotes the first term of the AP.
‘d’ denotes the common difference.
If the first and last terms of an AP are given and the common difference is not given, then S_n = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}\) (a + l) where ‘a’ is the first term and ‘l’ is the last term.

Question 8.
Prove that \(\frac{1+\sin \theta}{1-\sin \theta}\) = (sec θ + tan θ)².
Solution:
Given, \(\frac{1+\sin \theta}{1-\sin \theta}\)
Divide the numerator and denominator by Cos θ. We get

Question 9.
Cards numbered 1 to 30 are put in a bag. If a card is drawn at randomly, find the probability that the drawn card is …….
Solution:
Number of cards (numbered 1 to 30, put in the bag is 30.

i) Let E be the event of the getting a prime number on the card, then the outcomes favourable to E are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29.
∴ The number of outcomes favourable to E is 10.

ii) Let E be the event of getting a perfect square on the card. Then the outcomes favourable to E are 1, 4, 9, 16, 25.
∴ The number of outcomes favourable to E is 5.
So, P(E) = P (a perfect square below 30)

Question 10.
If A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, B = {2, 4, 6, 8}, then show that n(A∪B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A∩B).
Solution:
A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
B = {2, 4, 6, 8}
Then A∪B
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} ∪ {2, 4, 6, 8}
= {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8}
∴ n(A∪B) = 7 ………. (1)
n(A ∩ B) = 3, n(A) = 6, n(B) = 4
n(A) + n(B) – n(A∩B)
= 6 + 4 – 3 = 7 …….. (2)
From (1) and (2)
n(A∪B) = n(A) + n(B) – n(A ∩ B)

Question 11.
Find the dimensions of a rectangle, whose perimeter is 36 cm and whose area is 65 square centimeters.
Solution:
Let the length of the rectangle be x cm,
Let the breadth of the rectangle be y cm.
∴ The perimeter of the rectangle = 2 (x + y) cm.
Area of the rectangle = x × y = xy sq.cm
By problem,
2(x + y) = 36
⇒ x + y = \(\frac{36}{2}\) = 18 …… (1)
xy = 65 ……… (2)
We know that
(x – y)² = (x + y)² – 4xy ……. (3)
Substituting the above values in (3),
we have (x – y)² = (18)² – (4 × 65)
= 324 – 260 = 64
∴ x – y = \(\sqrt{64}\) = 8 …….. (4)
Solving (1) and (4)

Substituting the value of ‘x’ in (1),
13 + y = 18
i.e., y = 18 – 13 = 5
∴ The dimensions of the rectangle are 13 cm and 5 cm.

Question 12.
Solve the pair of linear equations : 3x + 2y = 11, 2x + 3y = 4.
Solution:
Given : 3x + 2y = 11 …….. (1)
2x + 3y = 4 ……. (2)
Adding (1) and (2),
5x + 5y = 15
⇒ x + y = 3 …….. (3)
Subtracting (2) from (1),
x – y = 7 ………… (4)
Adding (3) and(4), we get
= 2x = 10 ⇒ x = \(\frac{10}{2}\) = 5
Substituting the value of ‘x’ in (1),
we get 5 + y = 3
⇒ y = 3 – 5 = -2
∴ Solution : x = 5 and y = -2

Section – III (4 × 6 = 24 Marks)

Note :

1. Answer any 4 questions from the given six questions.
2. Each question carries 6 marks.

Question 13.
If x² + y² = 34xy, then prove that 2 log (x + y) = 2 log 6 + log x + log y.
Solution:
x² + y² = 34xy (Given)
Adding 2xy on both sides, we get
x² + y² + 2xy = 34xy + 2xy
(x + y)² = 36xy
Taking log both sides,
log(x+y)² = log36xy
2 log (x + y) = log 36 + log x + log y
2 log (x + y) = log6² + log x + log y
∴ 2 log (x + y) = 2 log 6 + log x + log y

Question 14.
Draw the graph of the Quadratic polynomial p(x) = x² + x – 6 and find the zeroes of the polynomial from the graph.
Solution:
The given quadratic polynomial p(x) = x² + x – 6

Locate the points listed above on a graph paper and join the points with a smooth curve. We get a U shaped curve. It intersects the X-axis at two points (2, 0) and (-3, 0).
∴ The zeroes of the polynomial from the graph are 2 and -3.

Question 15.
Find the mode of the following data.

Solution:
The given data is :

Here, the maximum frequency is 20, and the class corresponding to this frequency is 20 – 30. So, the modal class is 20 – 30.
Now, boundary limit (l) of modal class = 20
class size (h) = 10
frequency of the modal class (f₁) = 20 frequency of the class preceding the modal class (f₀) = 8 frequency of the class succeeding the modal class (f₂) = 12 Substituting these values in the formula,

Question 16.
Construct a triangle ABC with AB = 6 cm, AC = 6 cm and BC = 8 cm. Construct another triangle similar to ΔABC, whose sides are \(\frac{2}{3}\) times of the corresponding sides of ΔABC.
Solution:

Steps of construction:

1. Draw a triangle ABC in which BC = 8cm, CA = 6 cm and AB = 6 cm.
2. Draw a ray BX, making an acute angle with BC on the side opposite to vertex A.
3. Locate 3 points B₁, B₂ and B₃ on BX such that BB₁ = B₁B₂ = B₂B₃.
4. Join B₃C and draw a line from B₂ to C’ which is parallel to B₃C and intersection BC at C’.
5. Draw a line through C parallel to CA to intersect AB at A’.
6. Now ΔA’BC’ is the required triangle.

Question 17.
Find the coordinates of the points of trisection of the line segment joining the points A(2, -2) and B(-7, 4).
Solution:

\(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) is divided into three equal parts
(i.e.,) \(\overline{\mathrm{AP}}\) = \(\overline{\mathrm{PQ}}\) = \(\overline{\mathrm{QB}}\).
P divides \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) in the ratio 1 : 2 internally.
Q divides \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) in the ratio 2 : 1 internally.
∴ The co-ordinates of P are

Question 18.
A solid toy is in the form of a right circular cylinder with a hemispherical shape at one end and a cone at the other end. Their common diameter is 4.2 cm and the height of the cylindrical and conical portion are 12 cm and 7 cm respectively. Find the volume of the solid toy. (Take π = \(\frac{22}{7}\)).
Solution:

Volume of the toy = Volume of the hemisphere + Volume of the cylinder + Volume of the cone
Diameter of the solid toy (d) =4.2 cm
∴ radius (r) = \(\frac{d}{2}\) = \(\frac{4.2}{2}\) = 2.1cm = \(\frac{21}{10}\)

Part – B (20 Marks)

Note :

1. All questions are to be answered.
2. Each question carries 1 mark.
3. Answers are to be written in the Question paper only.
4. Marks will not be given for over-writing, rewriting or erased answers.

I. Write the CAPITAL LETTERS (A, B, C, D) of the correct answer in the brackets provided against each question. 20 × 1 = 20 M

Question 1.
The H.C.F. of 12 and 21 is ………..
A) 4
B) 7
C) 3
D) 6
Solution:
C) 3

Question 2.
If A and B are disjoint sets such that n(A) = 5 and n(A∪B) = 8, then n(B) = ………
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 7
Solution:
A) 3

Question 3.
The degree of the polynomial, whose graph is given in adjacent figure ………
A) 1
B) 2
C) 0
D) 3

Solution:
B) 2

Question 4.
The value of k for which the pair of linear equations 2x + 3y = 7 and 4x + ky = 11 has no solution is ……… ( )
A) 8
B) -6
C) 18
D) 6
Solution:
D) 6

Question 5.
If x + \(\frac{1}{x}\) = 2 then x² + \(\frac{1}{x^2}\) = …….. ( )
A) 4
B) 6
C) 2
D) 1
Solution:
C) 2

Question 6.
The 15^th term of the AP; 3, 6, 9, …… ( )
A) 15
B) 45
C) 30
D) 360
Solution:
B) 45

Question 7.
The distance between two points (0, 0) and (sinθ, cosθ), where 0° < θ < 90° is ( )
A) 1/2
B) \(\sqrt{2}\)
C) tanθ
D) 1
Solution:
D) 1

Question 8.
In ΔABC, BC² = AB² + AC², then ……. is the right angle. ( )
A) ∠A
B) ∠B
C) ∠C
D) None
Solution:
A) ∠A

Question 9.
PA and PB are tangents to a circle drawn from the external point P to the circle. If PA = 7 cm, then PB = ……… ( )
A) 7/2 cm
B) 7 cm
C) 14 cm
D) 49 cm
Solution:
B) 7 cm

Question 10.
If the ratio of surface areas of two spheres is 4 : 9, then the ratio of their volumes is ( )
A) 27 : 8
B) 9 : 4
C) 16 : 81
D) 8 : 27
Solution:
D) 8 : 27

Question 11.
If sinθ = \(\frac{4}{5}\), then the value of secθ + tanθ is …….. ( )
A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 9
Solution:
A) 3

Question 12.
In the given figure BC = 20 m, AC = 10 m, then θ = ( )

A) 60°
B) 90°
C) 45°
D) 30°
Solution:
D) 30°

Question 13.
E and \(\overline{\mathrm{E}}\) are complementary events in an experiment. If P(E) = 0.7, then P(\(\overline{\mathrm{E}}\)) = …….. ( )
A) 0.7
B) 1
C) 0.3
D) 0
Solution:
C) 0.3

Question 14.
The mean of first primes is ……….
A) 5.6
B) 8.1
C) 7.3
D) 5
Solution:
A) 5.6

Question 15.
The curved surface area of a right circular cone is πrl, where l is …….. ( )
A) Diameter
B) Radius
C) Height
D) Slant Height
Solution:
D) Slant Height

Question 16.
If A ⊂ B, then A∩B = ( )
A) B
B) A
C) µ
D) φ
Solution:
B) A

Question 17.
Which terms of the AP : 50, 40, 30, ………. is zero ? ( )
A) 6
B) 5
C) 10
D) 7
Solution:
A) 6

Question 18.

A) 0
B) tan²θ
C) cot²θ
D) 1
Solution:
D) 1

Question 19.
The probability of getting 8 as sum of numbers on two dice, when they are rolled is……
A) \(\frac{8}{36}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{12}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{9}\)
D) \(\frac{11}{36}\)
Solution:
Correct answer : \(\frac{5}{36}\)

Question 20.
ΔABC ΔPQR , ∠Q + ∠R = 130°, then ∠A = …….. ( )
A) 60°
B) 150°
C) 50°
D) 130°
Solution:
C) 50°

Timed practice with TS 10th Class Physical Science Model Papers and TS 10th Class Physical Science Question Paper June 2024 is crucial for improving speed and efficiency during exams.

TS 10th Class Physical Science Question Paper June 2024

Parts – A and B

Time: 1 : 30 hrs.
Max. Marks: 40

Instructions :

1. Read the question paper and understand every question thoroughly and write answers in given 1 hr. 30 min. time.
2. 3 very short answer questions are there in section -1. Each question carries 2 marks. Answer all the questions. Write answer to each question in 3 to 4 sentences.
3. 3 short answer questions are there in section – II. Each question carries 4 marks. Answer all the questions. Write answer to each question in 5 to 6 sentences.
4. 3 essay type answer questions are there in section – III. Each question carries 6 marks. Answer any two questions. Write answer to each question in 8 to 10 sentences.

Part – A
Section – I (3 × 2 = 6 M)

Time: 1.15 hrs.
Marks: 30

Instructions :
i) Answer all the questions.
ii) Each question carries 2 marks.
iii) Write answer to each question in 3 to 4 sentences

Question 1.
Write any four daily life applications of Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction.
Answer:
a) Transformers are works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
b) Electrical generators work on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
c) Security check at airports. Railwtay stations.
d) Tape recorders used to record voices or listen to songs work on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
e) ATM cards and swiping machines are also the application of the law of electromagnetic induction.

Question 2.
List out the apparatus used in the experiment to observe types of images and measuring the object distance and image distance from a convex lens.
Answer:
List of apparatus: Convex lens, meter scales, v stand, screen, candle, etc,

Question 3.
What happens, if Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄) is used instead of Hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the experiment of “acids reacts with metals”?
Answer:
When sulphuric acid is used instead of hydrochloric acid in an experiment that reacts metals with acids, the type of salt produced differs :

Sulphuric acid: Produces sulphate salts. For example, when magnesium reacts with sulphuric acid, it produces magnesium sulphate and hydrogen.

Hydrochloric acid: Produces chloride salts.
For example, magnesium reacts with hydrochloric acid and produces magensium chloride and hydrogen.

Section – II (3 × 4 = 12 M)

Instructions :
i) Answer all the questions.
ii) Each question carries 4 marks.
iii) Write answer to each question in 5 to 6 sentences.

Question 4.
Explain Aufbau principle with an example.
Answer:
Aufbau principle : The lowest – energy orbitals are filled first.

In terms of quantum numbers :
a) Electrons are assigned to orbitals in order of increasing value of (n + l),
b) For sub – shells with the same value of (n + l), electrons are assigned first to the sub-shell with lower’n’.

Example:

1. In hydrogen, the first electron enters the lowest energy orbital. H = 1s¹.
2. In potassium, the last electron enters into 4s instead of 3d. Because (n + l) value of 4s is less than (n + l) value of 3d. K – 1s² 2s² 2p⁶⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹
3. In scandium, the last electron enters into 3d instead of 4p. The reason for this is that although the (n + l) values of 4p and 3d are equal, the value of n is minimum for the 3d orbital, so the electron enters into the 3d orbital.
4. Sc = 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² 3d¹

Orbital	n	1	(n + l)
4p	4	1	4 + 1 = 5
3d	3	2	3 + 2 = 5

Question 5.
Write any four daily life uses of lenses.
Answer:
Uses of Convex lens:

1. Convex lens is used in microscopes and magnifying glasses to subject all the light to a specific point.
2. Convex lens is used as a camera lens in cameras as they focus, light for a clear picture.
3. Convex lens is used in the correction of hypermetropia.

Uses of Concave lens :

1. They’re used in binoculars and telescopes.
2. They are used as peepholes in doors.
3. They’re found in flashlights, cameras and other electronic devices.
4. They are used in the correction of Myopia.

Section – III (2 × 6 = 12)

Question 6.
Observe the following table and answer the questions.

Name of the Ore	Formula
1. Bauxite	Al2O3 2H2O
2 Zinc blende	ZnS
3 Epsom salt	MgSO4. 7H2O
4 Cinnabar	HgS
5 Rock salt	NaCl
6 Pyrolusite	MnO2
7 Galena	PbS

i) Which ores are oxides among the table?
Answer:
Bauxite and Pyrolusite.

ii) How many Sulphate ores are there ¡n the given table ? What are they?
Answer:
1 that is Epsom salt.

iii) Which ores are concentrated by froth flotation methbd in the given table?
Answer:
Sulphate ores.

iv) Which ores are extracted by electrolysis method in the given table?
Answer:
Rock salt.

Section – III  (2 × 6 = 12 M)

Instructions :
i) Answer any two questions.
ii) Each question carries 6 marks.
iii) Write answer to each question in 8 to 10 sentences.

Question 7.
Explain the experimental procedure to show \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}}\), is constant for a conductor and mention the precautions.
Answer:
Aim: To show that the ratio \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}}\) is a constant for a conductor.
Materials required: 5 dry cells of 1.5 V each, conducting wires, an ammeter, a volt meter, thin iron spoke of length 10 cm, etc.

Procedure:

1. Connect a circuit as shown in the figure.
2. Solder the conducting wires to the ends of the iron spoke.
3. Close the key. Note the readings of current (I) from ammeter and potential difference (V) from volt meter in table.
4. Now connect two cells in series instead of one cell in the circuit.
5. Note the respective readings of the ammeter and volt meter and record the values in table.
6. Repeat the same for three cells, four cells and five cells respectively.
7. Record the values of potential difference (V) and current (I) corresponding to each case in the table.
   

   Potential difference (v)	Electric Current (I)	V/I

8. Find \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}}\) for each set of values. Draw a graph between V and I taking the current (I) along Y – axis and potential difference (V) along X-axis with appropirate scale.

Result:
• V ∝ I
• The potential difference between the ends of a conductor is di proportional to the electric current passing through it at a constant temperature.

Precautions:
A) Use copper wires as thin as possible for making connections.
B) All the connections should be kept tight.
C) The positive and negative terminals of the voltmeter and the ammeter should be correctly

Question 8.
Draw the diagram which shows Hypermetropia defect in human eye and also draw its correction.
Answer:

Question 9.
Explain how does the periodic properties of elements of ionization energy and atomic size changes in Groups and Periods in the Modern Periodic Table.
Answer:
a) Atomic radius: Atomic radius of an element may be defined as the distance from the centre of the nucleus of the atom to its outermost shell.

1. In Period: The atomic radius of elements decreases across a period from left to right because the nuclear charge increase due to an increase in atomic number.
2. In Group : Atomic radius increases from top to bottom in a group due to the addition of a new shell.

b) Ionization Energy: The energy required to remove an electron from the outermost orbit or shell of a neutral gaseous atom is called ionization energy.

1. In Period: When we move from left to right it does not follow a regular trend but generally increases d.ue to an increase in atomic number.
2. In Group: In a group from top to bottom, the ionization energy decreases due to an increase in atomic size.

Part – B

Time: 15 Minutes
Marks: 10

Instructions :
i) Answer all the questions.
ii) Each question carries 1 mark.
iii) There are 4 options A, B, C, D for each question. Select the correct option and write it in the bracket given infornt of the question.
iv) Write the answers of Part – B in Part – B only. And tie it to the answer sheet of Part – A.

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a balanced- chemical equation? ( )

Answer:

Question 2.
At STP how many litres of Hydrogen (H₂) gas evolved, when “4” moles of Hydrochloric acid
(HCI) used in the following chemical reaction? ( )
(Volume of 1 mole Hydrogen gas at STP = 22.4 L)

A) 22.4 L
B) 44.8 L
C) 67.2 L
D) 89.6 L
Answer:
B) 44.8 L

Question 3.
Which of the following molecular shape is incorrect?

Answer:

Question 4.
How many electrons are needed to get Octet configuration for Oxygen element (atom)?
A) 4
B) 3
C) 2
D) 1
Answer:
C) 2

Question 5.
Which of the following apparatus is not used in the Oersted experiment?
A) 9 V – Battery
B) Magnetic compass
C) 24 – gauge copper wire
D) Resistor
Answer:
D) Resistor

Question 6.
IUPAC name for the following Carbon compound is ________

A) Pent -1 – en – 4- o1
B) Pent – 4 – yn – 2 – ol
C) Pent – 4 – en – 2 – ol
D) Pent -1 – yn – 4 – ol
Answer:
C) Pent – 4 – en – 2 – ol

Question 7.
Which of the following Carbon compound is saturated hydrocarbon ?
A) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₃
B) CH₃ – CH = CH₂
C) CH₃ – C ≡ CH
D)

Answer:
A) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₃

Question 8.
Which of the following salt is obtained, when Acetic aicd (CH₃COOH) reacts with Sodium hydroxide (NaOH)? ( )
A) NaCl
B) Na₂SO₄
C) CH₃COONa
D) CH₃COOK
Answer:
C) CH₃COONa

Question 9.
In a circuit two resistors of 8 ft, 24 0 are connected in parallel, then the resultant resistance is _______ ( )
A) 4 Ω
B) 8 Ω
C) 24 Ω
D) 6 Ω
Answer:
D) 6 Ω

Question 10.
Magnification of an image formed due to Concave mirror is + 2. Height of the object is ‘4’ cm.
Then the hegiht of the image is ______ ( )
A) 2 cm
B) 4 cm
C) 6 cm
D) 8 cm
Answer:
D) 8 cm

Timed practice with TS 10th Class Physical Science Model Papers and TS 10th Class Physical Science Question Paper March 2024 is crucial for improving speed and efficiency during exams.

TS 10th Class Physical Science Question Paper March 2024

Parts – A and B

Time: 1 : 30 hrs.
Max. Marks: 40

Instructions :

1. Read the question paper and understand every question thoroughly and write answers in given 1 hr. 30 min. time.
2. 3 very short answer questions are there in section -1. Each question carries 2 marks. Answer all the questions. Write answer to each question in 3 to 4 sentences.
3. 3 short answer questions are there in section – II. Each question carries 4 marks. Answer all the questions. Write answer to each question in 5 to 6 sentences.
4. 3 essay type answer questions are there in section – III. Each question carries 6 marks. Answer any two questions. Write answer to each question in 8 to 10 sentences.

Part – A
Section – I (3 × 2 = 6 M)

Time: 1.15 hrs.
Marks: 30

Instructions :
i) Answer all the questions.
ii) Each question carries 2 marks.
iii) Write answer to each question in 3 to 4 sentences.

Question 1.
Write any two daily life uses of Baking soda.
Answer:
Uses of Baking soda:

1. Baking soda is added for faster cooking.
2. It is used as an ingredient in antacids.
3. It is also used in soda – acid fire extinguishers.
4. It acts as a mild antiseptic.

Question 2.
Write the required materials, chemicals for “esterification reaction” activity.
Answer:
Materials :
a) Test tube
b) Beaker
c) Tripod
d) Bunsen burner / Spirit lamp / Stove
e) Water
f) Wire guage

Chemicals:
a) Ethanol (Absolute Alcohol)
b) Glacial acetic acid
c) Con. sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄)

Question 3.
Guess and write, what changes may happen to the focal length and position of optic centre of a Convex lens, if it is broken into two pieces?
Answer:

• Situation 1:
  1. If lens is broken into two pieces as given in figure.
  2. No change in focal length.
  3. No change in optic center.
     
• Situation 2:
  • If lens is broken into two pieces as given in figure.
  • Focal length will change.
  • Optic center will also change.
    

Section – II (3 × 4 = 12 M)

Instructions :
i) Answer all the questions.
ii) Each question carries 4 marks.
iii) Write answer to each question in 5 to 6 sentences.

Question 4.
Mention the four physical methods of concentration of the ore and explain any two of them.
Answer:
Methods of dressing or concentration of the ore :
a) Hand picking : If the ore particles and the impurities are different in one of the properties like colour, size, etc. using that property, the ore particles are handpicked separating them from other impurities.

b) Washing : Ore particles are crushed and kept on a slopy surface. They are washed with controlled flow of water. Less densive impurities are carried away by water flow, leaving the more densive particles behind.

c) Froth floatation: This method is mainly useful for sulphide ores. The ore with impurities is finely powdered and kept in water taken in a flotation cell. Air under pressure is blown to produce froth in water. Froth so produced, takes the ore particles to the surface whereas impurities settle at the bottom. Froth is separated and washed to get ore particles.

d) Magnetic separation : If the ore or impurity, one of them is magnetic substance and the other is non-magnetic substance, they are separated using electromagnets.

Question 5.
Write any four applications of Faraday’s “Electromagnetic induction”, and explain any two of them.
Answer:
Applications of Faraday’s lawr of electromagnetic induction:
a) Entrance of security checking
b) Tape recorder / Tape player
c) ATM Card
d) Induction stove
e) A. C. generator/Dynamo
f) D. C. generator/Dynamo

i) Security checking: In the security check entrance, there will be a big coil in the frame. It produce weak AC magnetic field. If we are carrying any significant quantitites of iron, the magnetic flux linked with the large coil changes and the induced current generated in coil triggers and alarm.

ii) Tape recorder/Tape player: The cassete of the tape recorder consists a piece of plastic tape coated with iron oxide and is magnetised more in some parts than in others. When the tape mdves past the small coil of wire the magnetic field produced by the tape changes, which leads to generation of current in the small coil of wire.

iii) ATM Card : ATM card consists a black magnetic strip. When strip is swipped through a scanner there will be change in magnetic flux and leads to produce electric current.

iv) Induction stove : Induction stove consists a coil under its surface. Due to A.C. current it produces magnetic field. When a metal vessel is kept, on the stove, due to change in magnetic flux electric current is produced in the vessel.

v) A. C. generator / D. C. generator: When coil rotates in the magnetic field of generator, due to flux change in the coil electric current will be produced.

Question 6.
Observe the information given in the table. Answer the equations given below.

Element	Electronic configuration
Be	1s2 2s2
Mg	1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
P	1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3
Ne	1s2 2s2 2p6

i) Which of the given are s -block elements?
Answer:
Be, Mg

ii) Which of the given has least valency?
Answer:
Ne.

iii) Which of the given is 15th Group element?
Answer:
p

iv) Which of the given are of same Period?
Answer:
Be, Ne (or) Mg, p

Section – III (2 × 6 = 12M)

Instructions:
i) Answer any two questions.
ii) Each question carries 6 marks.
iii) Write answer to each question in 8 to 10 sentences.

Question 7.
Draw the diagrams showing Myopia and its correction.
Answer:

Question 8.
Write the required material for the experiment to show that the ratio y is a constant for a conductor. Explain the procedure of the experiment.
Answer:
Required Materials:
a) 1.5 v. Batteries – 5
b) Ammeter
c) Voltmeter
d) Conducting wires
e) Iron spoke / Iron rod
f) Switch / Key

procedure:

1. 
2. Connect a circuit as shown in the figure.
3. Switch on the key and observe the readings of ammeter and voltmeter. Note them in the table. Switch off the key immediately.

4. Potential difference (v)	Electric Current (I)	V/I

5. Repeat the experiment by adding batteries two, three, four and five in series connection.
6. Calculate the \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}}\) value in each case.
7. We will find that \(\frac{\mathrm{V}}{\mathrm{I}}\) value is constant.

Question 9.
Hydrogen reacts with Oxygen to produce water. What will be the mass of water produced if 100 grams of Hydrogen participated in the reaction? Calculate the number of molecules of water produced in this reaction. [Atomic masses : H = lu, 0 = 16u]
Answer:

Part – B

Time: 15 Minutes
Marks: 10

Instructions:
i) Answer all the questions.
ii) Each question carries 1 mark.
iii) There are 4 options A, B, C, D for each question. Select the correct option and write it in the bracket given infornt of the question.
iv) Write the answers of Part – B in Part – B only. And tie it to the answer sheet of Part – A. 2 3

Question 1.
Identify the correct shape of water molecule.

Answer:

Question 2.
Number of sub-shells in the main shell ‘M’ …….
A) l
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
C) 3

Question 3.
Which of the following gives the magnification for mirrors?
A) \(-\frac{u}{v}\)
B) \(-\frac{v}{u}\)
C) \(\frac{u}{v}\)
D) \(\frac{v}{u}\)
Answer:
B) \(-\frac{v}{u}\)

Question 4.
Name of the Carbon Compound

A) Ethanoic acid
B) Propanoic acid
C) Acetic acid
D) Propanone
Answer:
B) Propanoic acid

Question 5.
Which of the following element has more Atomic radius?
A) Li
B) Na
C) K
D) Rb
Answer:
D) Rb

Question 6.
Colour of Copper sulphate after removing water of crystallisation.
A) White
B) Blue
C) Green
D) Red
Answer:
A) White

Question 7.
A double convex lens has two surfaces of equal radii 20 cm. Then the focal length is
A) 10 cm
B) 20 cm
C) 40 cm
D) Depends on refractive index
Answer:
D) Depends on refractive index

Question 8.
Example for polar covalent bond.
A) BeCl₂
B) BF₃
C) HCl
D) CH₄
Answer:
C) HCl

Question 9.
Least energy orbital of the following.
A) 4s
B) 4p
C) 4d
D) 3d
Answer:
A) 4s

Question 10.
Characteristics of the image formed by a convex mirror,
i) Diminished
ii) Enlarged
iii) Inverted

A) (i), (iii)
B) (i), (iv)
C) (ii), (iii)
D) (ii), (iv)
Answer:
B) (i), (iv)