Mahesh

These AP 8th Class Biology Important Questions 10th Lesson Not For Drinking-Not For Breathing will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology 10th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Not For Drinking-Not For Breathing

8th Class Biology 10th Lesson Not For Drinking-Not For Breathing 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which department issues the pollution under control certificate?
Answer:
The pollution check up centre issues the certificate.

Question 2.
For how much time is it valid?
Answer:
It is valid for six months.

Question 3.
For which types of vehicles has it been issued?
Answer:
All types of vehicles like motor bike, scooter, car, bus, lorry etc.

Question 4.
What is emission test?
Answer:
The test conducting of the gases releasing from the vehicle is called emission test.

Question 5.
What components are tested in the pollution check up centre?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, nitrogen, hydrocarbons, sulphur dioxide etc.

Question 6.
What will happen if harmful microorganisms or substances enter your body? How do you feel?
Answer:
If harmful microorganism enter the body the normal functioning of the body will be disrupted or disturbed. We feel sick.

Question 7.
What is the effect of rapid increase in the number of vehicles?
Answer:
With the number of vehicles increase, the pollution also increases, which causes air pollution.

Question 8.
What is pollution?
Answer:
Anything that is harmful to the environment is called pollution.

Question 9.
When do all the living organisms with in the environment will be healthy and thriving?
Answer:
When everything is working the way it should be all the living organisms with the environment including humans are healthy and thriving.

Question 10.
Name the diseases caused by air pollution.
Answer:
Diseases of the respiratory system like lung cancer, Asthma etc.

Question 11.
What do our elders talk about the environment?
Answer:
Our elders talk about the blue sky, clean water and fresh air that was available in their times.

Question 12.
What is our environment made up of?
Answer:
The environment is made up of systems, cycles and specialized relationships between living and non – living elements.

Question 13.
Name some substances which impact the health of our earth.
Answer:
Litter, car exhaust, motor oil, used tires, smoke, chemicals, disposed computer, mobile phone material etc., all of these can have an instant or a gradual impact on the health of our earth.

Question 14.
What are the four major gases in the air?
Answer:
The four major gases are nitrogen, oxygen, argon and carbondioxide.

Question 15.
Which is the essential element for survival of all living organisms?
Answer:
The atmosphere contains 21 % of oxygen which is essential for survival of all living organisms.

Question 16.
How is carbon dioxide important?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide which is 0.033% is essential for the process of photosynthesis in plants.

Question 17.
What is air pollution?
Answer:
The contamination of air by impurities which may have harmful impacts on the living organisms and the non-living components of the environment is called air pollution.

Question 18.
What are pollutants?
Answer:
Pollutants are the substances which contaminate the environment.

Question 19.
Name the main pollutants in the atmosphere.
Answer:
Suspended particulate matter, carbondioxide, carbon monoxide, oxides of sulphur and nitrogen CFCs and heavy metals.

Question 20.
Name the natural disasters in the world.
Answer:
The natural disasters in the world are volcanic eruptions, forest fires and sand storms which leads to air pollution.

Question 21.
What is the problem with airborne pollutants?
Answer:
The problem with airborne – pollutants is the way winds criss – cross the globe, picking up pollutants and carrying them all over the world. Air pollution is not just a local concern.

Question 22.
What pollutants are released by forest fires?
Answer:
Forest fires release carbon particles (ash) into the air and pollute the air.

Question 23.
What gas is released from decay of organic matter?
Answer:
Decay of organic matter releases Ammonia gas into air.

Question 24.
What gas is released from decay of organic matter lying under water?
Answer:
Decay of organic matter lying under water releases Methane gas as air pollution.

Question 25.
How do pollen grains pollute the air?
Answer:
Pollen grains released by plants remain floating in the air and pollute it.

Question 26.
What gases are produced by burning fuels?
Answer:
Burning fuels pollute the air by producing carbon – monoxide, sulphur dioxide, smoke, soot and ash.

Question 27.
What gases are emitted by vehicles?
Answer:
Sulphur dioxide, nitrogen dioxide, carbon monoxide, unburnt hydrocarbons, lead compounds and soot.

Question 28.
Name the polluted areas and the factories present in that area.
Answer:

1. Prakasam district – Granite factory
2. Macharla – Cement factory
3. Piduguralla – Lime stone

Question 29.
Name various industries that pollute the air.
Answer:
Granite, lime, cement factories pollute the air by releasing sulphur dioxide, nitrous oxide, chlorine fly ash, dust, asbestos dust etc.

Question 30.
How local people are suffering living near Parawada and Krishnapatnam Thermal Power Plants?
Answer:
The Thermal power plants release fly ash, sulphur dioxide and radio active substances into air, water and land, local people are suffering from lung cancer and skin allergies.

Question 31.
What are the problems face by the people living near the granite factory?
Answer:
The people living near the granite factory are facing several health problems like respiratory bronchitis and asthma.

Question 32.
How are Nuclear power plants dangerous?
Answer:
The two problems of Nuclear power plants are radio active waste and melt downs.

Question 33.
What are melt downs?
Answer:
Melt downs are caused by too much heat in the power plant. During melt down the power plant makes more Radio active pollution.

Question 34.
How do power plants release power?
Answer:
Power plants produce power by using water, coal and gas.

Question 35.
How do Nuclear power plants produce power?
Answer:
By using Radio active elements like uranium.

Question 36.
How agriculture pollutes land and water?
Answer:
Use of fertilizers and pesticides in agriculture pollutes not only air but also land and water.

Question 37.
What is the result of deforestation?
Answer:
The destruction of forests and woods is called deforestation. It has resulted in the reduction of indigenous forests.

Question 38.
If forests reduce what would happen?
Answer:
If forests reduce the level of carbondioxide increases resulting to global warming.

Question 39.
In which devices chloro flouro carbons are used?
Answer:
Chloro flouro carbons (CFC) are used in refrigerators, Air Conditioners and aerosol sprays. CFC pollutes air by depleting the ozone layer.

Question 40.
How is mining cause pollution?
Answer:
Mining of coal and stone releases coal dust and stone dust that cause air pollution.

Question 41.
Why do the currently cars and buses not allowed to drive to the Taj Mahal?
Answer:
The motor vehicles and the Industries located in and around Agra for rubber processing, chemicals oil refinery of Mathura, iron foundries have been responsible for the colour change of Taj Mahal from white to yellow.

Question 42.
What did the Archeological department of lndia declared towards Taj Mahal?
Answer:
The Archeological department declared that 2\(\frac{1}{2}\) km around Taj Mahal is no drive zone.

Question 43.
What is the unforgettable tragedy of Bhopal?
Answer:
On second December 1984 about 3000 human beings died, about 5000 were paralized in just one night at Bhopal.

Question 44.
What is the reason for the tragedy at Bhopal?
Answer:
The reason for this is the leakage of Methyl isocynate into the air from an insecticide factory managed by union carbide.

Question 45.
What are the affects caused by air pollution?
Answer:
Air pollution causes certain diseases including shortness of breath, sore throat, chest pain, nausea, asthma, bronchitis and lung cancer.

Question 46.
How is like the air pollution?
Answer:
Air pollution is like a slow poison.

Question 47.
How to reduce air pollution from industries?
Answer:
Install electrostatic precipitators in the chimney of industries.

Question 48.
How to reduce pollution from vehicles?
Answer:
Reduce vehicular emission by using non-polluting fuels like CNG.

Question 49.
What is Vanamahotsav?
Answer:
We can protect plants and trees. On the day of Vanamahotsav lakhs of trees are planted in July every year.

Question 50.
Name one of the most polluted area in India.
Answer:
Patancheru, a suburban mandal in Medak district is a major industrial hub of the state is one of the most polluted area in India.

Question 51.
How are the villages badly affected by pollution?
Answer:
They are affected with some diseases like cancer, respiratory diseases and heart diseases by poisons in air, water and on land.

Question 52.
What is water pollution?
Answer:
The contamination of water with unwanted and harmful substances such as sewage, toxic chemicals, industrial waste etc., is called water pollution.

Question 53.
What is the character of normal water?
Answer:
Normal water is colourless without any smell or any unwanted substances. Water which is suitable for drinking is called potable water.

Question 54.
How Musi river got polluted?
Answer:
The people living near Musi throw large quantities of garbage, unwanted sewage, industrial waste, dead bodies, polythene bags, hot water and statues of deities and many other materials and made the river polluted.

Question 55.
What is definite source of pollution?
Answer:
Definite source of pollution is due to discharges from a single source, such as industrial site.

Question 56.
What is Biodegradable waste?
Answer:
Biodegradable waste consists of mainly human and animal waste.

Question 57.
How do plant nutrients pollute water?
Answer:
Phosphates sand nitrates – chemical fertilizers from agriculture run – off due to rain and industrial waste enter into water through sewage and pollute the water.

Question 58.
How is heat polluting water?
Answer:
As water, temperature increases, the amount of dissolved oxygen decreases. So thermal pollution often reduces the aquatic life diversity in water.

Question 59.
How is water polluted by sediment?
Answer:
Sediment pollution is formed by the sources such as constructional, agricultural, logging, flooding and city runoff.

Question 60.
What is Eutrophication?
Answer:
The enrichment of water by nutrients leading to excessive plant growth and duplication of oxygen is known as Eutrophication.

Question 61.
How is fluorine hazardous substance to ground water?
Answer:
Fluorine mixed in ground water cause dangerous disease called fluorosis.

Question 62.
What are 3R’s principles?
Answer:
The 3R’s principles are Reduce the usage of the materials, Reuse them for secondary purpose and Recycle the material again and again.

Question 63.
How should we maintain natural resources?
Answer:
We should keep the natural resources clean and healthy not only for us but also future generations.

8th Class Biology 10th Lesson Not For Drinking-Not For Breathing 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete this flow chart.

Answer:

1. Human activities
2. Volcanic eruptions
3. Forest fires
4. Sand cyclones
5. CFCs
6. Mining
7. Sewage
8. Industrial effluents
9. Toxic chemicals

Question 2.
Complete this flow chart.

Answer:
2) Industrial emissions
3) Atomic power plant radiation
4) Automobile exhausts
5) Fly ash

Question 3.
Heat can be a source of pollution ? How does it effect the aquatic life?
Answer:

1. As the water temperature increases, the amount of dissolved oxygen decreases.
2. Fish and plants require certain temperature and oxygen levels to survive.
3. So, thermal pollution often reduces the aquatic life diversity in the water.

8th Class Biology 10th Lesson Not For Drinking-Not For Breathing 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“It is much better to worship Ganesh Idol made of clay than Idol of Plaster of Paris” – said Kavitha. How do you support her ? How do you appreciate her attitude?
Answer:

1. I appreciate Kavitha’s attitude towards pollution free society.
2. ‘Plaster of Paris’ idol consists of different harmful chemicals. During “Nimajjanam” these are immersed in different water bodies which leads to water pollution.
3. Worshipping idols made with clay is eco-friendly.
4. Hence, I appreciate her environmental concern and eco-friendly nature.

Question 2.
Prepare some slogans which create awareness among people on air pollution.
Answer:

1. Stop pollution – Save life
2. Polluting water – Ending our lives
3. Save the nature – Nature will save you
4. Live and let live.
5. Nature is for humans need – Not for his greed.
6. Solar energy – Forever energy

Question 3.
What are the industries that cause water pollution?
Answer:

1. Textile industries
2. Chemical industries
3. Leather industries
4. Pesticide industries
5. Paint factories
6. Fertilizer industries – are causing water pollution.

8th Class Biology 10th Lesson Not For Drinking-Not For Breathing Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Natural resources are the divine gift for us by nature. We can use these resources in a meaningful way which helps us. If we destroy these resources human life will become an unsolvable puzzle. We should keep these resources clean and healthy not only for us but also for future generation.
Read the above paragraph and answer the questions given below.
a) How should we use our natural resources?
b) What would happen if we use natural resources injudiciously?
Answer:
a) We should use the natural resources discriminately. They are the gifts of nature. For example we should minimise the usage of fossil fuels and encourage the usage of alternative energy sources like solar energy and wind energy. We should use CNG in place of diesel and petrol in vehicles to restore fossil fuels for longer periods.
b) Man’s life on earth turns into a mysterious puzzle. Life is not possible for us.

Question 2.
Observe the above diagram and answer the following questions:

1. What does the diagram represent?
2. Which gas is more in quantity in the given picture?
3. What will happen if the percentage of carbon dioxide will increase in the atmosphere?
4. When can you say that carbon dioxide is not a pollutant?

Answer:

1. The above diagram tell us about the percentage of different gases present in our atmosphere.
2. Nitrogen.
3. The increase in CO₂ levels results in the increasing temperatures on the earth. As a result the glaciers in the polar region melt and rise in sea levels occur. It leads to submergence of many cities of the shore.
4. If CO₂ levels are below 0.03%, then it is considered as non – pollutant.

Question 3.
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
Here are two main sources of water pollution; definite sources and non-definite sources. Definite source pollution is due to discharges from a single source, such as an industrial site. It includes factories, waste water treatment facilities, septic systems, and other sources that are clearly discharging pollutants into water sources. Non definite-source pollution involves many small sources that combine to cause significant pollution. For instance, the movement of rain or irrigation water over land picks up pollutants such as fertilizers, herbicides and insecticides carries them into rivers, lakes, reservoirs, coastal waters, or groundwater. Non-definite sources are more difficult to identify, as they cannot be traced back to a particular location. Landfills can also be a non-definite source of pollution, if substances leach from the landfill into water supplies.
a) Which sources of water pollution are difficult to identify?
b) What are definite sources of water pollution? Give two examples.
Answer:
a) Non-definite
b) Definite source pollution is due to discharge from a single source such as an industrial site. Examples are factories, waste water treatment plants etc.

These AP 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 11B Lesson National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947 will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social 11B Lesson Important Questions and Answers National Movement: The Last Phase 1919-1947

Question 1.
Do you think it is right to give the police such powers to suppress revolts?
Answer:
Terrorism and showing anger through demonstrations are two delicate issues. The police should recognize the tenderness and difference between these two. Then only it is right to give such powers.

Question 2.
“On August 23rd, 1945, Subhash Chandra Bose is reported to have lost his life in an air crash while going from Bangkok to Tokyo,”
Why is the death of Subhash Chandra Bose not confirmed?
Answer:
The death of Subhash Chandra Bose is a puzzle till today. Many people believe that he died on that day. The Indian government appointed 3 commissions on this issue. But it is not yet decided and confirmed.

Question 3.
Who was Subhash Chandra Bose?
Answer:
He was a Swarajist and a radical nationalist.

Question 4.
What is the meaning of ‘Azad Hind‘?
Answer:
Independent Bharath.

Question 5.
When was the Indian flag hoisted in Kohima?
Answer:
It was hoisted in March, 1944.

Question 6.
What are the names of two cities that affected with Atom Bombs in World War II?
Answer:
Hiroshima and Nagasaki are the two cities that affected with Atom Bombs in World War II.

Question 7.
Why do you think people were so much against such laws during the freedom movement?
Answer:

1. Most of the police and higher officials were Britishers at that time.
2. It was most difficult for the people to been the dictatorship.
3. Introducing such laws at that time was like pouring ghee into the fire.

So they were against such laws.

Question 8.
Describe communalism and secularism.
Answer:
Communalism believes in the promotion of the interest of a particular religious community and not the general interests of all. It also believes that the state and government should be run keeping in mind the interest of that particular religious group. This is in contrast to nationalism which believes that the nation is above individual communities and represents the interests of all people including those who may not have any religion at all. This view is also called ‘Secular’ as it holds that the government should neither interfere in the affairs of a religion nor allow any religion to interfere with the government.

Question 9.
Write about Subhash Chandra Bose and INA.
Answer:
Subhash Chandra Bose had been a Swarajist and a radical nationalist. He organized the Indian National Army (INA) with the cooperation of Rash Bihari Bose in Burma and Andamans. The INA consisted of more than sixty thousand soldiers. He received the help of the Japanese in this fight. On 21 st October 1943, the provisional Government of Independent India (Azad Hind) was set up in Singapore. On March 18th, 1944 the INA crossed the frontiers of Burma and entered India with a slogan “Dilli Chalo” – (on to Delhi).
In March 1944, the Indian Flag was hoisted in Kohima. But with the change of fortunes in the war, the launching of a counter-offensive by the British in the winter of 1944-45 and the final defeat of Japan in the Second World War the INA movement collapsed. On August 23rd, 1945, Subhash Chandra Bose is reported to have lost his life in an air crash while going from Bangkok to Tokyo.

Question 10.
The radicals and radical organizations helped the freedom struggle to attain freedom. Explain it.
Answer:
The period after 1940 was characterised by intensive activities of radical organisations like the Communist party, trade unions, women’s organisations, kisan sabhas and dalit organisations. They mobilised the poor and marginalized peasants and workers, tribals and dalits not only against the British but also against the local exploiters like moneylenders, factory owners and upper caste landlords. They were keen that in the new independent India their interests should be properly represented and their long years of suffering should end and they should get equal rights and opportunities. The national movement which was till then dominated by upper class people gained a new dimension and energy which eventually helped to throw out the British rule.

Question 11.
Read the following passages and answer the questions.
Subhash Chandra Bose and INA
Subhash Chandra Bose had been a Swarajist and a radical nationalist. He organized the Indian National Army (INA) with the cooperation of Rash Bihari Bose in Burma and Andamans. The INA consisted of more than sixty thousand soldiers. He received the help of the Japanese in this fight. On 21st October 1943, the provisional Government of Independent India (Azad Hind) was set up in Singapore. On March 18th 1944 the INA crossed the frontiers of Burma and entered India with a slogan “Dilli Chalo” – (on to Delhi).
In March 1944, the Indian Flag was hoisted in Kohima. But with the change of fortunes in the war, the launching of a counter-offensive by the British in the winter of 1944-45 and the final defeat of Japan in the Second World War the INA movement collapsed.
1. Who was Subhash Chandra Bose?
Answer:
He was a Swarajist and a radical nationalist.

2. Whose cooperation was taken to organise INA?
Answer:
The cooperation of Rash Bihari Bose was taken.

3. Who helped Bose in this fight?
Answer:
Japan helped Bose in this fight.

4. What is the meaning of ‘Azad Hind’?
Answer:
Independent Bharath

5. When was the Indian flag hoisted in Kohima?
Answer:
It was hoisted in March, 1944.

Question 12.
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
Germany led by Hitler and his Nazi party wanted to gain control over the whole world and declared war on Britain, France, USSR, and other countries. USA joined on the side of England, France and USSR (called Allied Countries). Germany was supported by Japan and Italy. One of the worst wars in human history broke out in 1939 and lasted till 1945 when USSR’s armies captured Berlin and the USA dropped atom bomb over Hiroshima and Nagasaki in Japan. Most people who cherished the values of democracy and freedom op-posed Hitler and supported the Allied Countries in the war. However, in India it created a dilemma as Indians were at the same time fighting the British.
1. The party of Hitler was
Answer:
Nazi Party.

2. What were the Allied countries?
Answer:
England, France, Russia and USA.

3. Italy supported to
Answer:
Germany.

4. What are the names of two cities that affected with Atom Bombs?
Answer:
Hiroshima and Nagasaki.

5. Was Hitler a democratic personality or a dictator?
Answer:
Hitler was a dictator.

Question 13.
Collect the details of Bhagat Singh and write an essay on it.
Answer:

Bhagat Singh ….
Born on 28-9-1907
Died on 23-3-1931
He was an Indian Nationalist and influential revolutionist.
He is often referred to as Shaheed. He was born in a Sikh family.
He studied European revolutions, movements and attached to anarchist and Marxist ideologies.
Seeking revenge for the death of Lala Lajapathi Roy at the hands of the police, Singh was involved in the assassination of British police officer John Saunders. Together with Bhatukeshwar Dutt, he undertook a successful effort to throw two bombs and leaflets inside the Central Legislative Assembly while shouting slogans of “Inquilab Zindabad”.

Subsequently, they volunteered to surrender and be arrested. Held on this charge he gained widespread national support. When he underwent a 116 day fast in jail, demanding equal rights for British and Indian political prisoners.
During this time, sufficient evidence was brought against him for a conviction in Saunders case.
A trial was orchestrated by a special tribunal and appeal at the Privy Council in England. He was convicted and subsequently hanged for his participation in the assassination of John Saunders.
He is one of the Heroes of our Nation.

Question 14.
The disparities between Hindu and Muslim ¡n our country were raised in 1906? Were they disappeared after independence? Write the reasons for your answers.
Answer:
No, they were not disappeared even after independence, those the present today also. Pak occupied Kashmir, Kargil war, Parliament attack, Mumbai attacks, Hyderabad attacks — Lumbini park, Gokulchat and Dilsukh Nagar reveal this issue.
Reasons:

1. Because of partition of India associated with Pakistan.
2. There was no way that the communal tensions were going to subside.
3. Sensationalism I vote bank over humanism are also other reasons.

Question 15.
Why did World War — II create a dilemma in Indians?
Answer:
The countries in the world joined the two groups in the war.
The people who supported democratic ideas and opposed dictatorship fought against Hitler and supported the allied countries in war. But at the same time India was against the British n our country. So there was a dilemma.

These AP 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 21st Lesson Performing Arts and Artistes in Modern Times will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social 21st Lesson Important Questions and Answers Performing Arts and Artistes in Modern Times

Question 1.
What was the special role of the nattuvanars?
Answer:
The nattuvanars are the dance masters of devadasis. They were usually male children of devadasis. They maintained these traditions from generation to generation. They also trained the new dancers from other castes.

Question 2.
What changes do you see in the position of the artistes and the subject of their performances since the time of the national movement?
Answer:
After the national movement, their condition became worse. Nobody is there to encourage them. As a result the folk artists are facing a decline and crisis of livelihood.

Question 3.
Is it possible to orient folk arts to new requirements of modern life and revive them?
Answer:
I think it is impossible. Today the life style is very fast. The people who are stuck to the TVs and computers, may not be interested in these arts which are expensive.

Question 4.
Who is Nazar Vali?
Answer:
He was a Burrakatha artist.

Question 5.
Where did Nazar Vali start his profession?
Answer:
He started it with Tenali Balaratna Nataka Samajam.

Question 6.
Do you think it is important to preserve the folk art traditions when TV and films are becoming the dominant forms of entertainment? Give your reasons
Answer:
I think it is important to preserve it. Our customs and traditions are gifts from our ancestors. Mainly folk arts – These are our traditional entertainment. We should preserve them. They are the soul of nation.

Question 7.
Why do you think the nationalists and communists tried to revive and renew folk arts?
Answer:
Nationalists and communists encouraged these folk arts. They opposed the foreign arts and tried to revive and renew our folk arts.

Question 8.
Do you think institutions like Kalakshetra can help to revive folk arts too?
Answer:
Yes, they can help to revive folk arts too.
But they encourage the rich and the interested people only. They cannot render services to the real hires of the arts. Thus there are mixed results with this type of institutions.

These AP 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 20th Lesson Understanding Secularism will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social 20th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Understanding Secularism

Question 1.
In what way is Indian secularism different from that of other democratic countries?
Answer:
The governments of other democratic countries will not interfere in the religions of its people. But the Indian government interferes in the religious matters. Thus it is different from other democratic countries.

Question 2.
Can there be different views within the same religion?
Answer:
Yes. There can be different views within the same religion. Many religions in the world have different views.

Question 3.
Will the government intervene if some religious group says that their religion allows them to practise infanticide? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
The government intervenes in this issue.
Reasons:

1. In Indian secularism the state can intervene in religious affairs.
2. This interference will be according to the ideals of the Constitution.

Question 4.
What are the three main schools of thoughts in Buddhism?
Answer:

1. Theravada
2. Mahayana
3. Vajrayana

Question 5.
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow.
In February 2004, France passed a law banning students from wearing any conspicuous religious or political signs or symbols such as the Islamic headscarf, the Jewish skullcap, or large Christian crosses. This law has encountered a lot of resistance from immigrants who are mainly from the former French colonies of Algeria, Tunisia and Morocco. In the 1960s, France had faced a shortage of workers and, therefore, had provided visas for these immi
grants to come and work in the country. The daughters of these immigrants often wear headscaives while attending school. However, with the passing of this new law, they have been expelled from their schools for wearing headscatves.
1. What was the law?
Answer:
The law was to ban any conspicuous religious or political signs or symbols.

2. Who opposed the law?
Answer:
The immigrants of France opposed this.

3. When was the law passed?
Answer:
In February, 2004.

Question 6.
Read the first two paras and prepare two questions on this.
The most important aspect of secularism is its separation of religion from State power. This is important for a country to function democratically. Almost all the countries of the world will have more than one religious group living in them. Within these religious groups, there will most likely be one group that is in a majority. If this majority religious group has access to State power, then it could quite easily use its power and financial resources to discriminate against and persecute the persons of other religions. This tyranny of the majority could result in the discrimination, coercion and at times, even the killing of religious minorities. The majority could quite easily prevent minorities from practising their religions. Any form of domination based on religion is in violation of the rights that a democratic society guarantees to each and every citizen, irrespective of their religion. Therefore, the tyranny of the majority and the violation of Fundamental Rights that can result from it is one reason why it is important to separate the State and religion in democratic societies.
Another reason that it is important to separate religion from the State in democratic soci-eties is because we also need to protect the freedom of individuals to exit from their religion, embrace another religion or have the freedom to interpret religious teachings differently.
Answer:
1. What is the most important aspect of secularism?
2. Who were in majority in India?

These AP 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 10th Lesson Globalisation will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social 10th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Globalisation

10th Class Social 10th Lesson Globalisation 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand the term I.B.R.D.
Answer:
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development. (OR) World Bank.

Question 2.
Explain SEZ.
Answer:

1. The full form of SEZ is Special Economic Zone.
2. They are meant for free establishment of industries.

Question 3.
What is the difference between foreign trade and foreign investment ?
Answer:
Foreign trade Foreign trade is any kind of trade (exports and imports) with other countries of the world.
Foreign investment: Private capital invest-ment by firms of one country into those of another country is called foreign investment.

Question 4.
Expand WTO.
Answer:
World Trade Organisation.

Question 5.
What is the Arab Spring?
Answer:
In 2013 several nations in Western Asia and Northern Africa like Tunisia, Egypt was influenced by each other’s revolutions and uprooting of dictators. This was called ‘Arab Spring’ in the media.

Question 6.
Mention any two factors which led to Globalisation.
Answer:
Globalization is a process of connecting countries across the globe.
Technology, Liberalisation of foreign trade and investment, foreign investment policy, WTO and other global institutions led to this globalization.

Question 7.
What is an MNC?
Answer:
An MNC is a multinational corporation, owns and controls production in more than one nation.

Question 8.
What do you mean by foreign investment?
Answer:
Investments made by MNCs is called foreign investment.

Question 9.
What is the investment?
Answer:
The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines and other equipment is called investment.

Question 10.
What is foreign trade?
Answer:
Foreign trade is any kind of trade with other countries of the world.

Question 11.
What do you mean by trade barrier?
Answer:
It is called a barrier since some restrictions have been set up by the Indian government on foreign trade and foreign investment. It can be tax on imports.

Question 12.
What is Globalisation?
Answer:
Globalization is a major change that occurred across the globe in the late 20th century. This has political, cultural as well as economic dimensions.

Question 13.
What was called ‘Arab Spring’?
Answer:
In 2013 several nations in Western Asia and Northern Africa like Tunisia, Egypt was influenced by each other’s revolutions and uprooting of dictators. This was called ‘Arab Spring’ in the media.

Question 14.
Where do MNCs set up offices and factories for production? Give reason.
Answer:
MNCs set up offices and factories for production in regions where they can get cheap labour and other resources.
This is done so that cost of production is low and the MNCs can earn greater profits.

Question 15.
Define Economic reforms of NEP 1991.
Answer:
The economic policy adopted by the Government of India since July, 1991 is termed as new economic policy or economic reforms.

Question 16.
What is Privatisation?
Answer:
Privatization means reduced government intervention and increased private investment in production activities.

Question 17.
What is Outsourcing?
Answer:
Outsourcing means going out to a source outside the company to buy regular service.

Question 18.
How many countries are currently members of the WTO?
Answer:
The WTO has 164 member countries as on 29th July 2016.

Question 19.
In which year, the government started to remove barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment?
Answer:
In 1991.

Question 20.
Why are Chinese toys popular in the world?
Answer:
Chinese toys are comparatively cheaper and have new designs. So they are popular in the world.

Question 21.
Why are the MNCs making investments in India?
Answer:
In India labour cost is very low when compared to rest of the world. So, many MNCs are making investments in India.

Question 22.
Which organization lay emphasis on liberalization of foreign trade and foreign investment in India?
Answer:
The WTO.

Question 23.
When was the WTO established?
Answer:
The WTO was established On 01-01-1995.

Question 24.
Where is the main head office of the WTO?
Answer:
It is in Geneva – Switzerland.

Question 25.
What is the purpose of foreign trade?
Answer:
Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets. They can sell their products in other countries also.

Question 26.
State a positive aspect of India’s development strategy prior to 1991.
Answer:
The strategy has helped India in creating a large industrial base and an increase in industrial production.

Question 27.
What do you mean by export quotas?
Answer:
For the protection of local consumers, the government restricts giving limit of export of particular goods. This is called an export quota.

Question 28.
What is an import quota?
Answer:
For the protection of local manufacturers from the competition of producers of another country, the government imposes taxes on imported goods. This is called an import quota.

Question 29.
State any two impacts of liberalization and globalization in India.
Answer:

1. There are better services in the communication sector.
2. Many food processing companies have taken over the market.

Question 30.
State the new strategies of NEP.
Answer:

1. Liberalization
2. Privatization
3. Globalization.

Question 31.
What is meant by modernization of the economy?
Answer:
The NEP accords top priority to modern techniques and technologies. It also promotes computers and electronics industries. It has made the Indian industries dynamic.

Question 32.
What is Joint Venture?
Answer:
At times MNCs set up production jointly with the local companies of the countries where they established their MNC operations.

Question 33.
Expand W.T.O. How does it work?
Answer:

1. WTO-World Trade Organisation. It lays emphasis on the liberalization of foreign trade and foreign investments.
2. It was established in 1995 with headquarters in Geneva – Switzerland.

10th Class Social 10th Lesson Globalisation 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the effects of Globalisation in India.
Answer:

1. The impact of globalization in India is not uniform.
2. It has benefited well-off consumers.
3. It has also benefited the producers with skill, education and huge wealth.
4. Certain services enabled with technology have expanded.
5. Some new jobs are created.
6. Some large Indian companies have grown as M.N.C.s.
7. On the other hand, most of the small producers and workers are not happy with globalization.

Question 2.
Estimate the impact of globalization on local industries of India.
Answer:
Impact of globalization:
Positive effect:

1. Several of the top Indian companies have been able to benefit from the increased competition.
2. They have invested in newer technology and production methods and raised their production standards.
3. Some have gained from a successful collaboration with foreign companies.

Negative effect:

1. Some of the small industries have been hit hard due to competition.
2. Several units have been shut down rendering many workers jobless.

Question 3.
“Globalisation by connecting countries results in greater competition among producers.” Justify the statement.
Answer:

1. Globalization is a major change that occurred across the globe in the late 20th century. This has political, cultural as well as economic dimensions.
2. An MNC does different operations related to its business at different locations across the globe.
3. An MNC is able to take advantage of cost-benefit and also of easier access to important markets.
4. There is a greater choice before the consumers who now enjoy the improved quality and lower prices for several products.
5. Competition held between local producers and foreign companies.

Question 4.
Write about the problems of Urbanization.
Answer:
Problems of urbanization:

1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to the housing problem and thus slums are developed in these places.
2. The decrease in rural population affects agricultural production due to a shortage of work¬ers in rural areas.
3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are increased.
4. Traffic problems will arise.
5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
6. Using of plastic covers are increased.
7. Unemployment increases in urban areas.
8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Question 5.
Give four reasons to the factors that helped Globalisation.
Answer:
Globalization means interconnecting the markets and countries also. Factors that helped globalization are:

1. Technology: The development in Information and Communication Technology have been even more remarkable and rapid.
   Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has stimulated the globalization process.
2. Transportation: As a result, goods are delivered faster across long distances at lower costs. The Internet also allows us to send instant electronic mail and talk across the world at negligible costs.
3. Liberalization of Foreign Trade: With the liberalization of trade, businesses are allowed to make decisions freely about what they wish to import or export.
4. Liberalization of Foreign Investment: Due to this so many companies are going to invest on new products.
5. Political climate: We must remember that political decisions are taken in a particular context, which accounts for the economic and technological change that has already taken place.

Question 6.
How are the Indian companies benefited from Globalisation at present?
Answer:
Benefit for Indian companies with globalization at present

1. Invested in newer technology and production methods
2. Raised their production standards
3. Gained from collaboration with foreign companies

Question 7.
What will be the consequences of Globalisation, if it spreads to all sectors in future?
Answer:
More products will be available if globalization process is continued and spread. Quality of goods will be increased prices come down. Foreign investment is increased. Many new jobs will come up. IT services will be increased. Technology will be more used. Small scale industries will be closed. Culture and nationalism are also affected. Soil lose its fertility.

Question 8.
What do you understand by globalization?
Answer:
Globalization is a process associating with increasing openness, growing economic independence and deepening economic integration with the world economy. In other words, it means opening up of the domestic economy for foreign countries.

Question 9.
What is the role of media in ‘Arab Spring’?
Answer:
Media played a crucial role during the Arab Spring. Television Channels that were owned and run by people from other countries supported such mobilization which resulted in regulating the powers of local leaders. While events like Civil War or natural disasters like Tsunami are discussed within the national boundaries they also receive support and sympathy from around the world.

Question 10.
Give a picture of ‘Production across countries before large MNCs’.
Answer:
Until the middle of the twentieth century, production was largely organized within countries. Raw materials, food grains and finished products only crossed the boundaries of these countries. Colonies such as India exported raw materials and food grains and imported finished goods. Trade was the main channel connecting distant countries. This was before large multinational corporations (MNCs) emerged on the scene.

Question 11.
What is important regarding MNCs?
Answer:
MNCs not only sell their finished products globally but more important, the goods and services are produced globally. As a result, production is organized in increasingly complex ways. The production process is divided into small parts and spread out across the globe.

Question 12.
“Previously important decisions regarding the value of currency were taken by sovereign governments are today made by market player and forces”. Comment with an example.
Answer:

1. Previously important decisions regarding the value of currency were taken by sovereign governments are today made by market players and forces.
2. In fact many of the MNCs have wealth exceeding the entire budgets of the developing country governments.
3. With such enormous wealth, imagine the power and the influence of these MNCs.
4. This is how the decision making powers of sovereign governments are at a risk.

10th Class Social 10th Lesson Globalisation 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the influence of globalization on the Indian economic system? What are the advantages of extending globalization to India? Express your opinion.
Answer:

1. The Globalization has benefited both the customers and the industrialists.
2. There are greater choices for the customers, who now enjoying quality items at lower prices.
3. As such, their standard of living is improved.
4. Among producer and workers, the influence has not been uniform.
5. The MNCs have invested in Indian Companies.
6. New jobs have been created and local companies supplying raw materials etc. to these companies prospered.
7. Top Indian companies have been benefited as new technology is implemented.
8. Some large Indian companies emerged as MNCs.
9. The Globalization has also created new opportunities for companies providing services.
10. Besides, a host of services, such as data entry, accounting, engineering etc. are now done cheaply in India.

Question 2.
Do you support or oppose the setting up of the Special Economic Zones? Why?
Answer:
I strongly oppose the setting up of Special Economic Zones:
The reasons:

1. Accumulation of land for SEZs disturb the livelihood of agricultural dependents.
2. SEZs are not offering as much employment as they have assured.
3. They disturb the ecological balance in certain cases.

(OR)

I support the setting up of Special Economic Zones:
The reasons:

1. They provide more employment opportunities.
2. They provide world-class infrastructural facilities in a particular place.
3. They attract foreign investments and help to the establishment of industries.

Question 3.
“Among producers and workers, the impact of globalisation has not been uniform.” Write your opinions on it.
Answer:

1. The benefits of globalisation have been unevenly distributed.
2. It has benefited the producers with huge wealth and well-off consumers.
3. But the small producers and workers have seen their employment and workers’ rights erode.
4. Globalisation should be fair. It has to create opportunities for all.
5. The government has to play a major role in making this possible.
6. The government has to ensure that labour laws are properly implemented and the workers get their rights.

Question 4.
Explain the factors that have enabled Globalisation.
Answer:

1. Technology has been improved rapidly.
2. Due to this, many revolutionary changes occurred in the fields of production, trade and especially in information and communication.
3. Nowadays computer and internet has made the world a hamlet.
4. After 1991, the barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment were removed to a large extent in India.
5. This had speeded up the process of globalisation in India.
6. The policies implemented by international organisations like WTO, promoted the interests of MNCs, all over the world.

Question 5.
Explain with examples, how small and cottage industries are extinct because of multinational companies.
Answer:
Small and cottage industries are going the extinct because of multinational companies due to the following reasons.

1. Small industries are not having the capacity to compete with M.N.C.’s
2. Imported goods quality is high and the cost is low.
3. People are attracted to machine-made goods. But cottage industries are not following.

Example:
a) Basket making:

1. Small industries did not get good quality of plastic, because its cost is high.
2. Instead of traditional baskets MNC’s imported steel and metal baskets.

b) Weaving:

1. Small and cottage industries using old traditional methods for weaving, only handlooms.
2. MNC’s using power looms for weaving and using machines and imported machine-made cloth.

Question 6.
Write the advantages and disadvantages of Multi-National Companies.
Answer:
Advantages and disadvantages of Multinational Companies :
Advantages:

1. Competition among countries increased.
2. Quality improvement.
3. The decrease in prices.
4. Increase in production.
5. Increase in access of goods and services.
6. Development in research and technology.
7. Increase in employment opportunities.

Disadvantages:

1. The decline in small scale industries.
2. No employment opportunities for unskilled labourers.
3. Agriculture is affected.
4. The environment is affected.
5. The exploitation of natural resources.
6. Value of currency is determined internationally.
7. Indigenous languages and culture is affected.

Question 7.
How can flexibility in labour laws support the present companies?
Answer:

1. Flexibility in labour laws can help the companies to decrease their production cost by employing labourers only for a short period of time when there is need instead of employing them for long period of time or yearly basis.
2. By easing upon labour laws, company heads can negotiate wages and terminate employment, depending on market conditions.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

The developments in information and communication technology have been even more remarkable and rapid. Telecommunication facilities are used to contact one another around the world to access information instantly and to communicate from remote areas.

Answer:
The given paragraph is about developments in technology especially with regard to information and communication technology. It has various effects on society and made the task of many people easy.

In the fast-growing world, every field is being updated and upgraded. There are so many reasons for these changes in technology. Due to globalization, getting and sending information should be fast. Email, Google, Internet, Wikipedia all these made our task easy. People also changed their lifestyles. Even in mobile phones various activities like e-banking, different payments like electricity bill, phone bill are paid. Many of the GOs and Memos are sent by mail.

It has negative effects also. Some youth are attracted by abscence films and pornographic videos are watched. Students can utilise it for their study. The government should take necessary action.

Question 9.
Read the paragraph given below and comment.

The benefits of globalisation have been unevenly distributed. It has benefited well-off consumers and also producers with skill, education and huge wealth. Certain services, enabled with technology, have expanded. On the other hand, thousands of small producers and workers have seen their employment and workers’ rights erode. It is important to understand the two¬sided nature of globalisation.

Answer:

1. The costs and benefits of globalization are unevenly distributed both within and in between cities.
2. Homeless people are living in cardboard boxes on sidewalks of gleaming corporate skyscrapers, whose budgets exceed those of many countries.
3. In many countries real incomes have fallen, the costs of living gone up and the number of poor households has grown, particularly in urban areas.
4. More urban inhabitants live in inadequate housing, mostly in the slums and scattered settlements in developing countries.

Conclusion: Finally developed countries and rich people are benefited and poor people are not benefited.

Question 10.

Read the following paragraph and write whether you agree with this paragraph or not. Mention why/why not.

At times, MNCs set up production jointly with the local companies of these countries. The local company benefits by the additional investments and the latest technology that the MNCs bring.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, it says that the multinational companies invest for the production of goods jointly with the local companies.
2. This additional investment is a sort of benefit for the local companies as they have access to technology.
3. To some extent it is true.
4. When foreign companies want to establish a new factory they bring some new technology and provide job opportunities for the local people.
5. They utilize the local resources along with the human resource.
6. The companies keep the local companies in their grip and gradually they lose their control on their own production.
7. Some people say that multinational companies are helpful to local companies.
8. It is true in the initial stage but in due course, it leads to downfall.
9. So I don’t fully agree with this paragraph.
10. The government should put barriers which are useful for the local companies.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

For a long time trade has been the main channel of connecting countries. In history, you would have read about the trade routes connecting India and South Asia to markets both in the East and West and the extensive trade that took place along these routes. You would also remember that it was trading interests which attracted various trading companies such as the East India Company to India.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, trade is the main channel bringing the nations together.
2. East India Company came to India in such a way. In the name of trade, the Europeans tried to find out new sea routes and in the series of efforts, they explore many countries and estab¬lished markets.
3. The exploration doesn’t stop with spreading the markets.
4. It leads to the exploitation of natural resources.
5. East India Company came to India and looted the country. Trade doesn’t mean exploitation.
6. In conclusion, I would like to say that it is not so easy to decide whether the trade is really linking the markets and leading to exploitation.
7. Every country should think whether foreign companies are useful to their country or not.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments on it.

To put it simply, foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic markets. Similarly, for the buyers, trade expands the choice of goods beyond what is domestically produced. Foreign trade thus results in connecting the markets or integration of markets in different countries.

Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that because of foreign companies opportunities are created and
   the producers send their goods to other markets also.
2. The buyers also have the choice to select the commodities or goods whatever they like.
3. Foreign trade helps in connecting markets of the globe. The international market system will be increased.
4. My comments on this paragraph are that many of the foreign products like Coca-cola, Pepsi and other cool drinks are available in our country.
5. Local coconuts and buttermilk are not being utilized.
6. Though there is a choice for buyers, they should think of their domestic market also.
7. Foreign trade connects the markets in different countries.
8. The integration of the market system doesn’t collapse the domestic economic system.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write’ your opinion on it.

Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor that has stimulated the globalization process. For instance, the past fifty years have seen several improvements in transporta¬tion technology. As a result, goods are delivered faster across long distances at lower costs.

Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph technology is one major factor in the process of globalization.
2. Recently there are many changes in transportation technology.
3. It led to faster movement in reaching the destination.
4. My opinion is that technology is a part of globalization.
5. Many multinational companies use different technology for various purposes.
6. In this paragraph, it is discussed about transportation technology.
7. Improved transportation makes travel easy. Construction and management of roads including vehicle maintenance are to be concentrated.
   8) Better roads help in minimizing the prices because of fuel consumption.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

Let us return to the example of imports of Chinese toys in India. Suppose the Indian government puts a tax on the import of toys. And because of the tax, buyers will have to pay a higher price on imported toys. Chinese toys will no longer be as cheap in the Indian markets and imports from China will automatically reduce. Indian toy-makers will prosper.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, the government has to put barriers on Chinese toys.
2. Thus the prices of the Chinese toys rise.
3. Automatically Indian toys will have positive market. Indian toy makers will get benefits. My comments on this paragraph are as follows. This is only an example.
4. Like Chinese toys, there are so many goods coming from abroad and making good business.
5. They are getting good profits.
6. The same Indian manufacturers face many troubles.
7. In conclusion, I would like to say that the government should take necessary steps to strengthen the Indian companies and small scale industries along with artisans and handicrafts.

Question 15.
Identify these countries on an outline map of world.

1. United States of America
2. China
3. Mexico
4. Eastern European countries
   i) Poland
   ii) Ukraine
   iii) Romania
   iv) Bulgaria
   v) Czech Republic
   vi) Slovakia
5. India

Answer:

These AP 10th Class Biology Important Questions and Answers 1st Lesson Nutrition will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Biology 1st Lesson Important Questions and Answers Nutrition

10th Class Biology 1st Lesson Nutrition 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define photosynthesis. (OR) What is photosynthesis?
Answer:
Photosynthesis is the process by which plants containing the green pigment called chlorophyll which build up complex organic molecules from relatively simple inorganic ones using sun light as an energy source.

Question 2.
What is the balanced equation to show the process of photosynthesis?
Answer:

Question 3.
Bhumika told that “If there were no green plants, all life on the earth would come to an end” Comment.
Answer:
All the living organisms on the earth depends on the plants either directly or indirectly for the food and oxygen.

Question 4.
Which disease occurs in child when there is an immediate second pregnancy or repeated child births in a mother?
Answer:
Marasmus

Question 5.
Give two examples for nutritional deficiency diseases.
Answer:
Nutritional deficiency diseases: Kwashiorkor, Marasmus, Beri-Beri, Glossitis, Pellagra, Anemia, Scurvy, Rickets, etc.

Question 6.
Your neighbour’s children appear with swollen legs, hands and other body parts. They have dry skin and frequently suffering from Diarrhoea. What are the reasons for it ? What suggestions do you give to their parent ?
Answer:
The children appear with swollen legs, hands and other body parts. They have dry skin and suffering from diarrhoea.
The reason for it is malnutrition and they are suffering from Kwashiorkor and Marasmus diseases.
They are advised to take proteins and calorie rich foods like liver, meat, eggs, milk, fruits, cereals and leafy vegetables.

Question 7.
What suggestions do you give to your friend suffering from constipation?
Answer:
Constipation can often be avoided by
a) having plenty of roughages in our daily diet. Ex : Leafy vegetables, beans, cabbage, etc.
b) drink plenty of water daily.
c) avoid junk food,
d) swallow the food only after its thorough mastication.

Question 8.
Which organelle of the leaf absorbs energy from the sunlight for photosynthesis ?
Answer:
Chloroplast.

Question 9.
Which gas is evolved in the diagram experiment? How can this gas be tested for confirmation?

Answer:
i) Oxygen gas is evolved in this experiment.
ii) If the burning splinter is kept near the mouth of the test tube, it burns brightly.

Question 10.
Classify the following vitamins into water soluble and fat soluble
i) Riboflavin ii) Retinol iii) Tocoferol iv) Thiamin
Answer:
Water soluble vitamins : Riboflavin (B₂), Thiamin (B₁)
Fat soluble vitamins : Retinol (A), Tocoferol (E)

Question 11.
Prepare your own tabular column to get information about food deficiency diseases from a doctor.
Answer:

S.No.	Name of the disease	Symptoms	Deficiency due to which nutrient
1.	Kwashiorkor	Hands and legs swollen, fluffy face, loose motions.	Protein deficiency
2.	Marasmus	Lean, weak, swollen joints, no development in muscles, loose motions.	Both proteins and calories deficiency.

Question 12.
Why is KGH used in Mohl’s half leaf experiment? (OR)
Why do we use KOH solution in Mohl’s half-leaf experiment?
Answer:
1) We conducted Mohl’s half leaf experiment to prove CO₂ is essential for photosynthesis.
2) So KOH is used in this experiment to absorb the CO₂ present inside the bottle.

Question 13.
What questions will you ask a doctor to know about malnutrition ?
Answer:

1. What is malnutrition?
2. What are the causes for malnutrition?
3. What are the different types in malnutrition?
4. How can we overcome the malnutrition?
5. What are the reasons for malnutrition in our country?

Question 14.
Name the vitamin which is synthesized by the bacteria present in the human intestine.
Answer:
B₁₂ (Cyanocobalamine) is the vitamin which is synthesized by the bacteria present in the human intestine.

Question 15.
Which digestive juice doesn’t contain enzymes ?
Answer:
Bile juice which is produced by liver doesn’t contain enzymes. But it converts fats into small globules. This process is called emulsification.

Question 16.
One student takes high calorie food. Another student takes less calorie food. But both are affected with diseases. Name the diseases by which they are affected.
Answer:
Student takes high calorie food affected by – Obesity.
Student takes less calorie food affected with – Marasmus.

Question 17.
Mention the two chemicals which you have used in an experiment to test the presence of starch in the leaf.
Answer:
The chemicals used in an experiment to test the presence of starch in the leaf are

1. Methylated spirit
2. Iodine solution.

Question 18.
18. Write two slogans for campaign on Mal-nutrition.
Answer:

1. Be cool and say no to fast food.
2. Be smart – Eat smart
3. Eat healthy – Look healthy – Feel healthy

Question 19.
Identify the two parts A and B indicated in the given figure.

Answer:
A – Stomach
B – Large intestine

Question 20.
Doctors advise not to eat food items at the time of fever. What are the reasons for this ?
Answer:

1. At the time of fever body temparature is high.
2. At that time digestive enzymes do not properly work to digest food.
3. That’s why doctors advise not to eat food items at the time of fever.

Question 21.
If we chew the grains like wheat, jowar, rice we feel sweet. Why?
Answer:

1. The grains like wheat, jowar, rice contain carbohydrates.
2. Ptyalin acts on them and coverts them into sugars. So we feel sweet.

Question 22.
What teeth you use when you eat peas and banana? Why?
Answer:

1. Premolars and molars are used when we eat peas and banana.
2. Their function is to chew and grind the seed and food material.

Question 23.
What is autotrophic nutrition?
Answer:
It is a type of nutrition in which an organism makes its own food from the simple inorganic materials like carbon dioxide and water using light as source of energy.

Question 24.
What is nutrition ?
Answer:
Nutrition: Nutrition is the process of intake or procurement of nutrients.

Question 25.
What are the main modes of nutrition ?
Answer:
Autotrophic nutrition and heterotrophic nutrition are the main modes of nutrition.

Question 26.
What are different types of heterotrophic nutrition ?
Answer:
Heterotrophic nutrition is of three types. They are:

1. Saprophytic nutrition
2. Parasitic nutrition and
3. Holozoic nutrition.

Question 27.
What are the symptoms of disease pellagra?
Answer:
Dermatitis, diarrhoea, loss of memory and scaly skin are the symptoms of disease pellagra.

Question 28.
Which vitamin deficiency causes Rickets ? What are its symptoms?
Answer:
Vitamin D Calciferol deficiency results in Rickets. The symptoms shown are improper formation of bones, knocknees, swollen wrists, delayed dentition, weak bones, etc.

Question 29.
For proper vision which vitamin is required? What is its chemical name?
Answer:
Vitamin A is required for proper vision. The chemical name of vitamin ‘A’ is Retinol.

Question 30.
What are the complex molecules produced by plants from simple Inorganic substances?
Answer:
Carbohydrates, proteins and lipids are produced from simple inorganic substances like water and CO₂.

Question 31.
What are the essential factors required for photosynthesis?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, water, chlorophyll and sunlight are the essential factors required for photosynthesis.

Question 32.
What is the equation for photosynthesis proposed by C.B.Van Neil in the year 1931?
Answer:

Question 33.
In which form are carbohydrates stored in plants?
Answer:
Carbohydrates are stored in plants in the form of starch.

Question 34.
What is the reagent that is used to test the presence of starch in leaves?
Answer:
The reagent that is used to test the presence of starch in leaves is Iodine solution. The colour of the leaf will turn to blue-black in colour.

Question 35.
Who found that water was essential for the increase of plant mass?
Answer:
Von Helmont found that water was essential for increase of plant mass in the year 1648.

Question 36.
Who performed series of experiments in 1770 to reveal the role of air in growth of green plants?
Answer:
Joseph Priestly performed series of experiments in 1770 to reveal the role of air in growth of green plants.

Question 37.
What is the role of potassium hydroxide solution kept inside the glass bottle in the Mohl’s half leaf experiment?
Answer:
Potassium hydroxide solution kept inside the glass bottle in the Mohl’s half leaf experiment absorbs the carbon dioxide present inside the bottle.

Question 38.
Who found that gas bubbles liberated from hydrilla plant contain the gas oxygen?
Answer:
Jan Ingenhousz in 1779 found that the gas bubbles liberated from hydrilla plant contain the gas oxygen.

Question 39.
Who coined the term chlorophyll for the extract of green coloured substance from the leaf?
Answer:
Pelletier and Caventou in the year 1817 coined the term chlorophyll for the extract of green coloured substance from the leaf.

Question 40.
Chloroplast is formed by how many membranes?
Answer:
Chloroplast is formed by 3 membranes.

Question 41.
What is grana?
Answer:
Grana : The stacked sac like structures formed by the third layer of chloroplasts is called grana.

Question 42.
What is the function of stroma?
Answer:
It is believed to be responsible for enzymatic reactions leading to the synthesis of glucose, which inturn join together to form starch.

Question 43.
What is stroma?
Answer:
Stroma : The fluid filled portion of chloroplast is called as stroma.

Question 44.
What are the two major phases found in photosynthesis?
Answer:
The two major phases found in photosynthesis are:

Question 45.
Why is light reaction phase called photochemical phase?
Answer:
A series of chemical reactions occur in a very quick succession initiated by light and therefore the phase is technically called the photochemical phase.

Question 46.
Where does the light reaction take place?
Answer:
The light reaction takes place in chlorophyll containing thylakoids called grana of Chloroplasts.

Question 47.
What are the end products of light reaction?
Answer:
The end products of light reaction are O₂, ATP and NADPH.

Question 48.
What are called the assimilatory powers?
Answer:
ATP and NADPH formed at the end of the light reaction are called assimilatory powers.

Question 49.
What are dark reactions?
Answer:
Dark reactions: The reactions that occur in both presence or absence of light are called dark reactions. The occurance of dark reaction is independent of light.

Question 50.
Who observed dark reactions?
Answer:

1. The entire series of reactions involved in the conversion of CO₂ to glucose were identified by Melvin Calvin.
2. The dark reactions are also called as Calvin Cycle.

Question 51.
What is Calvin cycle?
Answer:
Calvin cycle: The cycle of reactions in fixation of carbon dioxide to glucose is called Calvin cycle.

Question 52.
How is glucose produced during dark reaction?
Answer:
In the dark reaction, the hydrogen of the NADPH is used to combine with CO₂ by utilizing ATP energy and ultimately produce glucose.

Question 53.
Write some of the events that occur in the chloroplasts during photosynthesis.
Answer:

1. Conversion of light energy to chemical energy.
2. Splitting of water molecule.
3. Reduction of carbon dioxide to carbohydrates.

Question 54.
What is photolysis of water? Which gas is released?
Answer:
Photolysis of water:

1. Photolysis of water Splitting of water molecule by light activated chlorophyll molecule is known as photolysis of water.
2. Oxygen is released during (photosynthesis) photolysis of water.

Question 55.
In which cells of the leaves photosynthesis takes place?
Answer:
The mesophyll cells of leaf containing palisade and spongy tissue photosynthesis takesplace.

Question 56.
What is the ultimate source of energy?
Answer:
The ultimate source of energy is the Sun.

Question 57.
What are guard cells?
Answer:
Guard cells: The two kidney shaped cells which surrounds the stoma are called guard cells.

Question 58.
How does CO₂ enter into leaf?
Answer:
CO₂ present in the atmosphere enters through stomata into the cells of leaf by diffusion.

Question 59.
What is the first stable product formed in dark reaction or photosynthesis?
Answer:
Phosphoglyceric acid or PGA is the first stable product formed in dark reaction or photosynthesis.

Question 60.
Why ATP and NADPH are required in photosynthesis?
Answer:
ATP and NADPH are required for the utilization of carbon dioxide and formation of glucose during photosynthesis.

Question 61.
Why chloroplasts are green in colour?
Answer:
Chloroplasts are green in colour due to the presence of a green colouring pigment called chlorophyll.

Question 62.
What are the examples for parasitic organisms?
Answer:
The examples for parasitic organisms are cuscuta (plant), lice, leeches and tapeworms (animals).

Question 63.
How does amoeba take food into the body?
Answer:
Amoeba takes in food using temporary finger like extensions called pseudopia of the cell surface.

Question 64.
How does paramoecium take food?
Answer:
Food is moved to the cytosome by the movement of cilia which covers the entire surface of the cell where the food is ingested.

Question 65.
What is ingestion?
Answer:
Ingestion : The process of taking food into the body is called ingestion.

Question 66.
Name the three pairs of salivary glands. What is the enzyme secreted by them?
Answer:

1. The three pairs of salivary glands in mouth are :
   i) Parotid glands
   ii) Submandibular glands and
   iii) Sublingual glands.
2. The enzyme secreted by salivary glands is amylase (ptyalin).

Question 67.
What is the role of amylase in digestion of food?
Answer:
Amylase helps in the breakdown of complex carbohydrates to simple ones.

Question 68.
What is digestion?
Answer:
Digestion : The process of breaking down of complex food substances into simple substances so that they can be used by the body with the help of enzyme is called digestion.

Question 69.
How does the food from oesophagus move into the stomach?
Answer:
Food passes through oesophagus by wave like movements called peristaltic movements and reaches the stomach.

Question 70.
What is chyme?
Answer:
Chyme : Chyme is a soft slimy substance of food in which some proteins and carbohydrates have broken down.

Question 71.
What is the function of sphincter muscle present at the exit of stomach?
Answer:

1. The sphincter muscle is responsible for regulating the openings of the stomach into small intestine.
2. So that only small quantities of the food material may be passed into the small intestine from the stomach at a time.

Question 72.
What does the gastric juice contain?
Answer:
The gastric juice secreted by the walls of stomach contains Hydrochloric acid, protein digesting enzyme, pepsin and mucus.

Question 73.
What makes the internal condition of the intestine gradually to a basic or alkaline one?
Answer:
Liver and pancreatic juice make the internal condition of the intestine gradually to a basic or alkaline one.

Question 74.
What is emulsification?
Answer:
Emulsification : Fats are digested by converting them into small globule like forms by the help of bile juice secreted from liver. This process is known as emulsification.

Question 75.
For what intestinal juice secreted by small intestine is responsible?
Answer:
The enzymes present in intestinal juice finally convert the protein to amino acids, complex carbohydrates into glucose and fats into fatty acids and glycerol.

Question 76.
What are the enzymes that act on proteins?
Answer:
Pepsin and Trypsin are the enzymes that act on proteins. Both these enzymes convert proteins to peptones.

Question 77.
What is absorption?
Answer:
Absorption : Transport of the products of digestion from the walls of the intestine into blood is called absorption.

Question 78.
What is defecation?
Answer:
Defecation: The passage of undigested material from the body by the way of anus is called defecation.

Question 79.
What are roughages in the food?
Answer:
Roughages are the fibres of either carbohydrates or fats which help in constipation.

Question 80.
What are the parts of human digestive system?
Answer:
Mouth, buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine, large intestine, rectum and anus.

Question 81.
What is a balanced diet?
Answer:
Balanced diet: Diet containing nutrients in required amounts is known as balanced diet.

Question 82.
What are the nutrients present in balanced diet?
Answer:
Carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins and mineral salts are the nutrients present in balanced diet.

Question 83.
What is malnutrition?
Answer:
Malnutrition : Eating of food that does not have one or more than one nutrients in required amount is known as malnutrition.

Question 84.
What are different types of malnutrition?
Answer:
Malnutrition is of three types. They are:

1. Calorie malnutrition
2. Protein malnutrition and
3. Protein calorie malnutrition.

Question 85.
What are the two sources of vitamins to our body?
Answer:
The two sources of vitamins to our body are one is diet and the other is bacteria present in the intestine synthesise enzymes and supply them to the body.

Question 86.
Vitamins are classified into how many groups?
Answer:
Vitamins are classified into two groups. They are fat soluble (eg : A, D, E and K) and water soluble (eg : B complex, Vitamin C).

Question 87.
What is the chemical name of vitamin B₁₂?
Answer:
The chemical name of vitamin B₁₂ is Cyanocobalamine.

Question 88.
Which vitamin deficiency causes sterility in males?
Answer:
Vitamin E. i.e., tocopherol deficiency causes sterility in males.

Question 89.
What is the name of vitamin ‘C’? Deficiency of vitamin ‘C’ causes which disease?
Answer:
The chemical name of vitamin ‘C’ is Ascorbic acid. Its deficiency results in Scurvy disease.

Question 90.
What are saprophytes?
Answer:
Saprophytes: Saprophytes are the organisms which obtain their food from dead plants, dead and decaying animal bodies and other organic matter. Eg: Fungi, many bacteria.

Question 91.
What is peristaltic movement?
Answer:
Peristaltic movement: The muscles present in the wall of oesophagus rhythmically contracts and relaxes. This produces an wave like movement known as a peristaltic movement.

Question 92.
Name the intestinal enzymes present in small intestine and what are their functions.
Answer:
Peptidases and sucrases are the enzymes present in the intestinal juice. Peptidases converts peptides to amino acids. Sucrase converts sucrose (cane sugar) into glucose.

Question 93.
Name the parts of small intestine.
Answer:
The anterior part of small intestine is called the duodenum, the middle part is the jejunum and the posterior part is called the ileum.

Question 94.
What is the enzyme present only in children?
Answer:
Renin is the enzyme present only in children. It helps in curdling of milk.

Question 95.
How many types of teeth are present in our mouth?
Answer:
Four types of teeth are present in our mouth. They are incisors, canine, premolars and molars.

Question 96.
What is the use of tongue?
Answer:
Tongue is useful for mixing and pushing the food in between teeth and helps to push into oesophagus.

Question 97.
What was the opinion of C.B. Van Neil on the equation for photosynthesis?
Answer:
For each molecule of carbohydrate formed, one molecule of water and one molecule of oxygen is also produced.

Question 98.
“Plants are capable of surviving under a range of situations.” How do you support this statement?
Answer:

1. Plants are capable of surviving under a range of situations.
2. They survive from very hot, dry and brightly lighted conditions to wet, humid and dimly lighted ones.
3. The requirement of light and other factors varies from one plant to other.

Question 99.
From where do we get energy to do work?
Answer:
We get energy to do work from the food we eat.

Question 100.
What did Priestly hypothesize on the experiment he conducted on the role of air in the growth of plants?
Answer:
Priestly hypothesized that plants restore to the air whatever breathing animals and burning candles remove.

Question 101.
How does gaseous exchange occur in plants?
Answer:
Gaseous exchange occurs in plants through the stomata present in leaves and also through the lenticels present on stems.

Question 102.
How do the aquatic plants acquire CO₂ to manufacture food?
Answer:
Aquatic plants utilizes or absorbs the carbon dioxide dissolved in water in the form of bicarbonates to manufacture food.

Question 103.
In the experiment to prove that starch is produced during photosynthesis. Why do we boil the leaf in alcohol?
Answer:
We boil the leaf in alcohol to remove all the chlorophyll present in the leaf. The leaf turns to white in colour.

Question 104.
In the experiment to show that sunlight is necessary for photosynthesis, why do we immerse leaf in boiling water?
Answer:

1. Immersing leaf in boiling water will breakdown the cell membranes of leaf cells.
2. It makes the leaf more permeable to iodine solution, so that it can reach the starch present inside the leaf cells.

Question 105.
Why do we have to destarch the leaf before conducting experiment on photosynthesis?
Answer:
This is because if starch is present it will interfere with the result of the experiment.

Question 106.
Why is a water bath used for heating alcohol in which leaf is kept inside the beaker for testing the presence of starch?
Answer:
A water bath is used here for heating alcohol because alcohol is a highly inflammable liquid. So if alcohol is heated directly over a flame, then it will catch fire at once.

Question 107.
What are the reasons for vomiting?
Answer:
Causes for vomiting :

1. Overeating especially when the food contain a high proportion of fat.
2. When we eat something very indigestible or poisonous.

Question 108.
Why do we feel bilious or liverish?
Answer:
We feel bilious or liverish because of having eaten rich meals for several days.

10th Class Biology 1st Lesson Nutrition 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Vitamin A, D, E and K are fat soluble vitamins. Write the deficiency diseases and resources of these vitamins in a tabular form.
Answer:

Vitamin – A	Night blindness, myopia, dry eyes, scaly skin	Leafy vegetables, Carrot, Tomato, Pumpkin, Fish, Egg, Liver, Cod liver oil, Shark liver oil, Milk.
Vitamin – D	Rickets	Liver, Egg, Butter, Morning sun rays.
Vitamin – E	Fertility disorders	Fruits, Vegetables, Sprouts, Meat, Egg, Sunflower oil.
Vitamin – K	Blood clotting do not occur	Green leafy vegetables, Milk

Question 2.
A doctor visited your school to check up the health of school children. What kind of questions do you ask to know about the pancreas?
Answer:

1. Where is pancreas located?
2. Why pancreas is called as mixed gland?
3. What are the hormones released by the pancreas?
4. What are the enzymes released by the pancreas?
5. What are the disorders occur if pancreas does not work properly?
6. What is the role of pancreas in digestion?

Question 3.
Look at the following equation and answer the questions:
Fats + Bile → Fat globules
a) What is the name of that reaction?
b) Which gland plays major role in this reaction?
Answer:
a) The name of the reaction is Emulsification.
b) The gland LIVER plays major role in this reaction.

Question 4.

We know that food is the main source to maintain biological processes in a perfect manner. Our diet should be a balanced one which contains proper amount of carbohydrates, proteins, vitamins, mineral salts and fats. Two third of world population is affected by food related diseases. Some of them are suffering by consuming high calorific food. Most of them are facing various diseases due to lack of balanced diet. Eating of food that does not have one or more than one nutrients in required amount is known as malnutrition. Poor health, will full starvation, lack of awareness of nutritional habits, socio-economic factors are all the reasons of malnutrition.

i) Define Balanced diet.
ii) What is malnutrition and what could be the possible reasons for it?
Answer:
i) The food containing proper amount of carbohydrates, proteins, vitamins, mineral salts and fats is known as “balanced diet”.

ii) Eating of food that does not have one or more than one nutrients in required amounts is known as “malnutrition”.
Poor health, starvation, lack of awareness of nutritional habits, socio-economic factors are all reasons for malnutrition.

Question 5.
What questions do you ask your teacher to know about the obesity and its consequences?
Answer:

1. What are the reasons for Obesity?
2. How to reduce the body weight?
3. What are the consequences of obesity?
4. What type of food you suggest to people suffering from obesity?

Question 6.
Prepare four questions for the Gastro-enterologist to know the problems that occur in the digestive system.
Answer:

1. Why do the people suffer from indigestion problems?
2. Why do we get vomitings?
3. Why do we get belching?
4. Why do we get ulcers in stomach?
5. What is acidity?

Question 7.
Balance the following equation. Write what you have received through this equation.

Answer:

1. This equation represents the process of photosynthesis. For the photosynthesis to occur, four factors are required. They are carbon dioxide, water, light and chlorophyll.
2. 6 molecules of carbon dioxide and 12 molecules of water in the presence of sun light and chlorophyll forms 1 molecule of glucose, 6 molecules of water and 6 molecules of oxygen.

Question 8.
Pregnant ladies are advised to eat leafy vegetables and take folic acid pills. Why?
Answer:

1. Folic acid is the part of the B – a complex family of vitamins.
2. Dark green leafy vegetables are a good source of folic acid.
3. Folic acid is often prescribed for pregnant women because it is essential for the normal development of the brain and spinal cord of the foetus.
4. It also help in protection against birth defects.
5. It also required for the synthesis of nucleic acids DNA and RNA.
   Hence pregnant ladies are advised to eat leafy vegetables and take folic acid pills.

Question 9.
You want to know about intestinal juice from your nearby doctor. Which questions do you ask him?
Answer:

1. Which part of the small intestine secrete intestinal juice?
2. Intestinal juice contains which enzymes?
3. Intestinal juice converts peptids into?
4. Sucrose present in intestinal juice converts sucrose to?
5. Digestion of which nutrient resumes in small intestine?
6. Which digestive juice involved in the complete digestion of food?

Question 10.
Photosynthesis process provides food for all organisms. It mainly takes place by two phases. Light reaction is first phase.
H₂O → H + OH
Above equation in light reaction shows what?
Answer:

1. The first phase of photosynthesis is light reaction. It occurs in grana of the chloroplast.
2. During this phase light-activated chlorophyll molecule splits water molecule into Hydrogen (H⁺) and Hydroxyl ions (OH^–)
3. This reaction is known as photolysis of water which means splitting by light (photo means light, lysis means breaking). This was discovered by Hill. Hence it is also called Hill’s reaction.

Question 11.
Write names of the given sentences.
i) Organelle in which photosynthesis occurs.
Answer:
Chloroplast

ii) Life process in which complex food is converted into simple substances.
Answer:
Digestive system

iii) The part after large intestine in digestive tract.
Answer:
Anus

iv) Deficiency of Vitamin “K” causing disease.
Answer:
Delay in blood clotting.

Question 12.
Write about the nutrition in Amoeba. (OR)
Observe the below given organism and write its name. How nutrition occurs in this organism ?
Answer:

1. The mode of nutrition in Amoeba is holozoic nutrition.
2. Amoeba takes in food using temporary finger like extensions called pseudopodia.
3. These pseudopodia fuse over the food particle forming food vacuole.
4. Inside the food vacuole, complex substances are broken down into simple ones which then diffuse into the cytoplasm.
5. The remaining undigested material is moved to the surface of the cell and thrown out.

Question 13.
Write a short note on heterotrophic nutrition.
Answer:

1. Heterotrophic nutrition is that mode of nutrition in which an organism cannot make its own food from simple inorganic materials like CO₂ and water and depends on other organisms for food.
2. Examples are all animals, most bacteria and fungi.
3. Heterotrophs depend on others for their food requirement.

Question 14.
How is a more serious form of indigestion caused?
Answer:

1. A more serious form of indigestion is caused by stomach and duodenal ulcers.
2. These conditions occur more often in people who may be described as hurried or worried.
3. The ulcers occur more often in busy people who get into the habit of hurrying over meals and rushing from one activity to another without sufficient rest.

Question 15.
What is parasitic nutrition? Write briefly about it.
Answer:

1. Parasitic nutrition is that nutrition in which an organism derives its food from the body of another living organism without killing it.
2. The organism which obtains the food is called a parasite and the organism from whose body food is obtained is called the host.
3. A parasite usually harms the host.
4. The host may be a plant or an animal.
5. Parasitic mode of nutrition is seen in several fungi, bacteria, a few plants like cuscuta and animals like plasmodium.

Question 16.
Write about holozoic mode of nutrition.
(OR)
What is holozoic nutrition?
Answer:

1. Holozoic nutrition means feeding on solid food.
2. Holozoic nutrition is that nutrition in which an organism takes the complex organic food materials into its body by the process of ingestion.
3. The ingested food is digested and then absorbed into the body cells of the organism.
4. The undigested and unabsorbed part of the food is thrown out of the body of the
   organism by the process of ingestion.
5. The human beings and most of the animals have a holozoic mode of nutritions.

Question 17.
Briefly explain about saprophytic nutrition.
(OR)
What are saprophytes? How does nutrition occur in them?
Answer:

1. Saprophytic nutrition is that nutrition in which an organism obtain its food from dead and decaying plant and animal bodies.
2. Organisms having saprophytic mode of nutrition are called saprophytes.
3. Fungi and bacteria are saprophytes.
4. The saprophytes breakdown the complex organic molecules present in dead and decaying matter and convert them into simple substances outside their body.
5. These simple substances are then absorbed by saprophytes as their food.

Question 18.
What is malnutrition? What are the reasons for it? What are the different types of malnutrition?
Answer:

1. Eating of food that does not have one or more than one nutrients in required amount is known as malnutrition.
2. Reasons for malnutrition: Poor health, will-full starvation, lack of awareness of nutritional habits, socio economic factors are all the reasons for malnutrition.
3. Different types of Malnutrition:
   1. Calorie malnutrition,
   2. Protein malnutrition and
   3. Protein calorie malnutrition.

Question 19.
Write a short note on obesity. (OR)
What are the ill effects of obesity?
Answer:

1. Obesity is due to over eating and excess of energy intake.
2. It is a big health hazard. Obese children when grow, they will be target of many diseases.
3. Obesity children usually suffer from diabetes, cardiovascular, renal, gall bladder problems.
4. Eating junk foods and other food habits lead to obesity.

10th Class Biology 1st Lesson Nutrition 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer the following questions by observing the diagram showing the experiment:
a) What will you prove by this experiment?
Answer:
By this experiment we will going to prove oxygen is released during photosynthesis.

b) What apparatus do you use in this experiment?
Answer:

1. Beaker
2. Test-tube
3. Funnel
4. Hydrilla Plant
5. Burning splinter.

c) What would be the results if the experiment is done in shadow?
Answer:
If we conduct this experiment in shadow no change in the water level of the Test-tube. No photosynthesis occur. No air bubbles are form.

d) What will you do to obtain result from the experiment?
Answer:
If the burning splinter is kept near the mouth of test tube, burns brightly.

Question 2.
Answer the following questions by observing the diagram showing the experiment.
a) What will you prove by this experiment?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is necessary for the photosynthesis.

b) What apparatus do you use in this experiment?
Answer:
Wide mouthed bottle, split cork, KOH solution, Iodine, Potted plant.

c) Why do we use KOH solution in this experiment?
Answer:
KOH is used for the absorption of CO₂ in the bottle.

d) Why did we study two leaves in this experiment?
Answer:
We should test two leaves of which one must be having the availability of CO₂ and other must not be having the availability of CO₂ to prove that CO₂ is essential for photosynthesis.

Question 3.
Describe an experiment conducted by Joseph Priestley which revealed the essential role of air in the growth of green plants.
(OR)
What is the role of air in the growth of green plants?
(OR)
Write the experiment of bell jar and pudina plant, performed by Priestley to prove that air plays key role in Photosynthesis.
Answer:

1. Joseph Priestley in 1770 performed a series of experiments that revealed the essential role of air in the growth of green plants.
2. Priestley discovered oxygen in 1774.
3. Priestley observed that a candle burning in a closed space, a bell jar, soon gets extinguished.
4. Similarly, a mouse would soon suffocate in a closed space of the bell jar.
5. He concluded that a burning candle or an animal, both somehow, damage air.
6. But when he placed a mint plant in the same bell jars, he found that the mouse stayed alive and the candle when lighted from outside continued burning in the presence of the mint plant.
7. Priestly hypothesized as plants restore to the air whatever breathing animals and burning candles remove.

Question 4.
B₁, B₂, B₃, A, C, D, E, K are the symbols of vitamins. Classify these vitamins based on solubility and diseases due to vitamins deficiency.

S.No.	Water soluble	Disease due to deficiency	Fat soluble	Disease due to deficiency

Answer:

S.No.	Water soluble	Disease due to deficiency	Fat soluble	Disease due to deficiency
1.	B1	Beri – Beri	A	Eye, skin diseases
2.	B2	Glossitis	D	Rickets
3.	B3	Pellagra	E	Fertility disorders
4.	C	Scurvy	K	Delay in blood clotting

Question 5.
During Photosynthesis, several events occurs in the chloroplast. Explain the light dependent reactions.
(OR)
Write the mechanism of light dependent reactions in Photosynthesis.
Answer:
Light reaction takes place in grana thylakoids of chloroplast.
The following events occurs in the light dependent reaction.
1. Step -1: The chlorophyll on exposure to light energy becomes activated by absorbing photons of light energy.
2. Step – II: The activated energy is used in splitting the water molecule into hydrogen (H⁺) and hydroxyl ion (OH^–). This reaction is known as photolysis or Hill’s reaction.
H₂O → H + OH
3. Step – III : Water (H₂O) and oxygen (O₂) are produced by the OH^– ions through a series of reaction.
4. Step – IV: H⁺ ions are involved in the synthesis of ATP and NADPH which are the end products of light reaction. These are called assimilatory powers.

Question 6.
You might have conducted and experiment in your school laboratory to prove that CO₂ is essential for Photosynthesis. Raju, who is in 9th class, wanted to perform the same experiment. He had some doubts regarding this experiment. Clarify them.
i) Prior to the experiment, the potted plant was kept in a dark room for a week. Why?
Answer:
To destarch the plant.

ii) KOH pellets were kept in the glass jar. Why?
Answer:
To absorb CO₂

iii) Write the apparatus used to perform this experiment.
Answer:
Potted plant, wide mouthed transparent bottle, splitted cork.

iv) What will be the result, if the same experiment is conducted in dark?
Answer:
Photosynthesis does not take place.

Question 7.
Write the differences between light and dark reactions of photosynthesis.
Answer:

Light reaction	Dark reaction
1. It occurs in the grana of the chloroplast.	1. Occurs in the stroma of the chloroplast.
2. It occurs only in the presence of light.	2. It occurs in the presence or absence of light.
3. Light reaction absorbs oxygen and light energy.	3. Dark reaction absorbs only CO2.
4. End products are O2, ATP and NADPH.	4. End product is Glucose.
5. Photolysis of water occurs.	5. Carbon fixation occurs.
g. First stage of photosynthesis.	6. Second stage of photosynthesis.

Question 8.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of internal structure of leaf. Which mesophyll cells of the leaf consist of chloroplast?
Answer:
Palisade parenchyma and spongy parenchyma consist of chloroplast.

Question 9.
Keep a plant for a week in the dark. Then insert one leaf of this plant into a transparent bottle containing potassium hydroxide solution. Keep the plant in sunlight. Test the leaf in the bottle and any other leaf of the plant with Iodine, after a few hours.
i) What is the aim of this experiment?
ii) What will be observed in the leaf kept in the bottle and a leaf from the plant?
iii) Why was the plant kept in the dark first and then in the sunlight?
Answer:
i) To prove that CO₂ is necessary for photosynthesis.
ii) The leaf part kept in the bottle does not show colour change in iodine test, whereas the leaf exposed to air turns bluish-black in the iodine test.
iii) To remove starch from leaves (destarching).

Question 10.
Analyse the following information and answer the questions.

Vitamins	Resources	Deficiency symptoms
Thiamine	Cereals, oil seeds, vegetables, milk, meat, fish, eggs	Vomitings, fits, loss of appetite, difficulty in breathing, paralysis.
Ascorbic acid	Green leafy vegetables, citrus fruits, sprouts, carrot	Delay in healing of wounds, fractures of bones.
Retinol	Leafy vegetables, carrot, tomato, pumpkin, papaya, mango, meat, fish, egg, liver, milk, cod liver oil, Shark liver oil.	Night blindness, xeropthalmia, cornea failure, scaly skin.
Calciferol	Liver, egg, cod liver oil, Shark liver oil	Improper formation of bones, knock-knees, swollen wrists, delayed dentition, weak bones.
Tocoferol	Fruits, vegetables, sprouts, sunflower oil	Sterility in male, abortions in female.
Phylloquinone	Green leafy vegetables, milk, meat, eggs	Delay in blood clotting, over-bleeding.

i) Which vitamins deficiency causes diseases related to bones?
Answer:
Calciferol – Vitamin – D, deficiency causes diseases related to bones,

ii) Which vitamins we get by eating fruits?
Answer:
Retinol – Vitamin – A, and Tocoferol – Vitamin – E we get them by eating fruits,

iii) Which vitamin deficiency causes Paralysis? To prevent iii), what type of food we have to eat?
Answer:
Paralysis is caused by the Vitamin (B}) Thiamine deficiency.
To prevent this disease, we have to eat cereals, oil seeds, vegetables, milk, meat, fish and eggs.

iv) To avoid vitamin deficiency diseases, what type of food we have to eat?
Answer:
To avoid vitamin deficiency diseases, we have to take proper diet.
Our diet should be a balanced one which contains proper amount of carbohydrates, proteins, vitamins, mineral salts and fats.

Question 11.
What are fat soluble vitamins? Explain the deficiency diseases due to deficiency of fat soluble vitamins and their symptoms.
Answer:
Fat soluble vitamins :

Name of the vitamin	Name of the diseases	Symptoms
Vitamin – A (Retinol)	Night blindness, xerophthalmia	Cornea failure, unable to see during night, scaly skin
Vitamin – D (Calciferol)	Rickets	Improper formation of bones, knock- knees, swollen wrists, delayed in dentition, weak bones
Vitamin – E (Tocoferol)	Sterility	Sterility in males, abortions in females
Vitamin – K (Phylloquinone)	Over-bleeding	Delay in blood clotting

Question 12.
Read the table and answer the following questions.

Sl. No.	Vitamin	Resources	Deficiency disease	Symptoms
1.	Cyanoco- balamine	Synthesised by bacteria present in the intestine.	Pernicious anaemia	Lean and weak, less appetite.
2.	Ascorbic acid	Green leafy vegetables, citrus fruits, sprouts	Scurvy	Delay in healing of wounds, fractures of bones.
3.	Retinol	Leafy vegetables, carrot, tomato, pumpkin, papaya, mango, meat, fish, egg, liver, milk, Cod and Shark liver oil	Eye and skin diseases	Night Blindness, Xeropthalmia, Cornea failure, Scaly skin.
4.	Tocoferol	Fruits, vegetables, sprouts, sunflower oil	Fertility disorders	Sterility in males, abortions in females.
5.	Phylloquinone	Green leafy vegetables, meat, egg and milk	Problems related to blood clotting	Delay in blood clotting, over bleeding.

i) Name the anti-sterility vitamin from the above table.
Answer:
Tocoferol (Vitamin E) is the anti – sterility vitamin.

ii) WTiich vitamin deficiency that causes the gums bleeding?
Answer:
Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C) deficiency causes the gums bleeding.

iii) Name the fat soluble vitamins from the above.
Answer:
Retinol (Vitamin A), Tocoferol (Vitamin E), Phylloquinone (Vitamin K) are fat soluble vitamins.

iv) Name the symptoms that appear due to deficiency of vitamin K.
Answer:
Delay in blood clotting, over bleeding are the symptoms appear due to deficiency of vitamin K.

Question 13.
Mention different modes of nutrition. Explain the mode of nutrition in Cuscuta.
Answer:
There are different modes of nutrition
Parasitic Nutrition in Cuscuta :

1. Cuscuta plant is the best example for parasitic nutrition.
2. It contains no chlorophyll and has root like structures called haustoria.
3. With the help of haustoria, cuscuta absorbs nutrients from it’s host plant.
4. As cuscuta grows on the host plants, its roots gradually degenerated and it establishes firmly on the host plant.
5. Meanwhile, the root rots away after stem contact has been made with a host plant.
6. As dodder grows, it sends out new haustoria and establishes itself very firmly on the host plant.
7. After growing in a few spirals around one host shoot, the dodder finds its way to another.
8. It continues to twine and branch until it resembles a fine densley tangled web of thin stems enveloping the host plant.

Question 14.
Is the malnutrition reason for diseases? Why? Write any of such disease and its characters.
Answer:

1. Yes, malnutrition is the reason for occurrance of diseases.
2. Malnutrition is eating of food that does not have one or more than one nutrients in required amount.
3. This results in scarcity of nutrients for the proper growth and health of the individual.
4. Kwashiorkor disease occurs in children due to the deficiency of proteins in the diet.
5. Characteristic features of kwashiorkor disease :
   1. Body parts becomes swollen due to accumulation of water in the intercellular spaces.
   2. Very poor muscle development, swollen legs, fluffy face, difficult to eat, diarrhoea, dry skin are the symptoms of Kwashiorkor disease.
   3. The child becomes lethargic and shows little interest in its surroundings or in playing and learning.

Question 15.
Which issues do you take into consideration to tell that plants play a key role in animals nutrition?
Answer:

1. Plants play a very important role in nutrition of animals. Actually plants are the producers whereas animals are dependent on plants for their nutrition.
2. Many plants or plants parts are eaten as food. There are around 2000 plant species which are cultivated for food. Nutrients like carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins and minerals are available from these plants.
3. Seeds of plants are good sources of food for animals including humans because they contain many healthful fats.
4. Infact majority of the food consumed by human beings are seed based food. Edible seeds include cereals like wheat, rice, maize etc. and legumes like pea, groundnut and nuts.
5. Oil seeds are often pressed to produce rich oils like sunflower, groundnut, sesame etc.
6. Seeds are typically high in unsaturated fats and considered as a health food.
7. Fruits are the ripened ovaries of plants including the seeds within. Many plants and animals have coevolved such that the fruits of the former are an attractive food source to the later.
8. Vegetables are a second type of plant matter that is commonly eaten as food.
9. Hence all the nutrients required by animals are available to the animals from plants. Hence plants are playing an important role in nutrition of animals including human beings.

Question 16.
Give examples for the vitamin deficiency diseases.
Answer:

S. No.	Vitamin	Deficiency diseases
1.	Thiamine (B1)	Beri beri
2.	Riboflavin (B2)	Glossitis
3.	Niacin (B3)	Pellagra
4.	Pyridoxine (B6	Anaemia
5.	Cyanocobalamine (B12)	Pernicious anaemia
6.	Folic acid (B9)	Anaemia
7.	Pantothenic acid	Burning feet
8.	Biotin	Nerves disorders
9.	Ascorbic acid (Vitamin C)	Scurvy
10.	Retinol (Vitamin A)	Night blindness, Xerophthalmia, Rupture of cornea, Scaly skin
11.	Calciferol (Vitamin D)	Rickets, fragile bones
12.	Tocoferol (Vitamin E)	Fertility disorders, Sterility in males, Abortions in females
13.	Phylloquinone (Vitamin K)	Blood clotting

Question 17.
We know that by taking different types of food materials we will get vitamins. For this what changes shall we take in our food habits?
Answer:

1. Eating of rice polished only for one time gives us vitamin thiamine in abundant amount.
2. We should eat balanced food containing nutrients in equal quantities.
3. Fresh leafy vegetables are rich source of vitamins Riboflavin, Folic acid and Vitamin ‘C’. So our diet should contain these leafy vegetables.
4. Sufficient amount of non-vegetarian foods like meat, poultry, fish, kidney and liver should present in our food.
5. Eating fresh fruits also add number of vitamins to our body.
6. Whole cereals like wheat, rice provide number of vitamins to our body. So we shall eat required quantities of cereals in our food.

Question 18.
Describe what disaster occurs on earth, if photosynthesis life process stops.
Answer:

1. Plants are the universal food providers. If they stop photosynthesis all the animals would die due to starvation.
2. Plants release oxygen during photosynthesis. It is essential for survival of all living beings. If photosynthesis does not take place, there would be no oxygen on the earth and no chance of survival of life on this planet.
3. plants utilise CO₂ for photosynthesis. If it does not occur, CO₂ utilisation is stopped and hence increase in the levels of CO₂ This leads to global warming.

Question 19.
Describe the experiment conducted by Jan Baptist Von Helmont and discuss his results in the growth of plant body mass.
(OR)
How is water required for the growth of plant body mass?
Answer:

1. In the year 1648 a Belgian scientist Jan Baptist Von Helmont conducted an experiment that continued for five years.
2. He took a small willow tree and planted it in a large pot of soil.
3. Before he did the experiment he carefully measured the mass of the dry soil and mass of the tree.
4. He covered the soil with a lid so that nothing could fall on to the surface of the soil and add to its mass.
5. There were holes in the lid so that the tree could grow out of the soil and so that air and water could reach the roots.
6. Von Helmont left the tree for five years giving it only rain water to drink.
7. At the end of five years he measured the mass of the tree and the mass of the dry soil for a second time.
8. The results of this experiment are shown below.
   

   Mass (Kg)
   	At start	After five years	Change in mass (Kg)
   Tree	2.27	76.74	74.47
   Drv soil	90.72	90.66	0.06

9. This experiment changed the belief of hundreds of years. This is because Von Helmont arrived at a result that
   a) The substances needed for the growth of a plant do not come from the soil only.
   b) The plant grow because of the water it gets.

Question 20.
Write an account on the mechanism of dark reaction.
(OR)
Write an account on carbon fixation.
(OR)
Briefly explain the Melvin Calvin cycle.
Answer:

1. The reactions of photosynthesis which do not require light energy are called dark reactions. These reactions occur both in presence and absence of light.
2. Dark reactions occur in the stroma of the chloroplast and these were discovered by American scientist Melvin Calvin.
3. In the first reaction carbon dioxide is accepted by Ribulose 1 – 5 biphosphate, a five carbon sugar to form hexose sugar.
4. It is an unstable compound so it breaks down into two molecules of three carbon compounds called phospho glyceric acid (PGA).
5. 
6. Phospho glyceric acid undergoes a series of reactions and is converted to glyceral- dehyde – 3 phosphate. NADPH and ATP produced in light reactions are used up at this stage.
   
7. Two molecules of glyceraldehyde – 3 phosphate combine together to form glucose molecule.
8. In the end glucose is converted into starch.
   Summary reaction :
   

Question 21.
Describe the buccal cavity of human beings.
(OR)
How is food masticated in buccal cavity?
Answer:

1. The cavity or space in the mouth is called oral cavity or buccal cavity.
2. Teeth, tongue and openings of three salivary glands are present in buccal cavity
3. Incisors, canines, premolars and molars are the different types of teeth present in the mouth.
4. Tongue is muscular and pushes the food on to the teeth during mastication. It also helps in swallowing the food into oesophagus.
5. Three pairs of salivary glands present in the buccal cavity are parotid, sub-lingual and sub-maxillary glands.
6. Parotid glands are present near the ears. The other two pairs of glands open below the tongue through ducts.

Question 22.
What is indigestion? How can we avoid indigestion?
Answer:
Indigestion: Indigestion is a general term when there is difficulty in digesting food. Healthy people can usually avoid problems related to indigestion by:

1. Having simple, well balanced meals.
2. Eating them in a leisurely manner. ,
3. Thoroughly masticating the food.
4. Avoiding taking violent excercises soon after eating food.
5. Drinking plenty of water and having regular bowel movements.

Question 23.
What are vitamins? Why they are called essential nutrients? What is their role in the human body?
Answer:

1. Vitamins are organic substances.
2. They are micro – nutrients required in small quantities.
3. Actually vitamins are not synthesised in the body and therefore they are essential nutrients.
4. Though our body cannot synthesis vitamins we do not generally suffer from vitamin deficiency disease.
5. This is because of two sources of vitamins for our body. Diet is the primary source.
6. In addition, bacteria present in the intestine synthesis vitamins and supply them to us
7. By themselves vitamins cannot generate any energy or carryout any chemical reaction.
8. In the body vitamins combine with some of the enzymes and make the enzymes active.
9. In the absence of vitamins, enzymes become inactive and cannot catalyse the reactions.
10. Vitamins are normally present in all types of natural foods – milk, meat, fruits and vegetables.
11. Vitamins are of two types:
    1. Water soluble vitamins eg: B complex and Vitamin C and
    2. Fat soluble vitamins eg: A, D, E and K.

Question 24.
Give an account of water soluble vitamins, their occurrence, deficiency diseases and symptoms.
Answer:
Vitamins, available sources and deficiency diseases:

Vitamin	Resources	Deficiency diseases	Symptoms
B complex Vitamins: 1) Thiamine (B1)	Cereals, oil seeds, vegetables, milk, meat, fish, eggs.	Beri Beri	Vomitings, fits, loss of appetite, difficulty in breathing, paralvsis.
2) Riboflavin (B2)	Milk, eggs, liver, kidney, green leafy vegetables.	Glossitis	Mouth cracks at corners, red and sore tongue, photophobia, scaly skin.
3) Niacin (B3)	Kidney, liver, meat, egg, fish, oil seeds.	Pellagra	Dermatitis, diarrhoea, loss of memory scalv skin.
4) Pyridoxine (B6)	Cereals, oil seeds, vegetables, milk, meat, fish, eggs, liver.	Anaemia	Hyper irritability, nausea, vomiting, fits.
5) Cyano cobalamine (B12)	Synthesised by bacteria present in the intestine.	Pernicious anaemia	Lean and weak, less appetite.
6) Folic acid	Liver, meat, eggs, milk, fruits, cereals, leafy vegetables.	Anaemia	Diarrhoea, loss of leucocytes, problems related to mucus in the intestines.
7) Pantothenic acid	Sweet potatoes, ground nuts, vegetables, liver, kidney, egg.	Burning feet	Walking problems, sprain.
8) Biotin	Pulses, nuts, vegetables, liver, milk, kidney.	Nerves disorders	Fatigue, mental depression, muscle pains.
9) Vitamin ‘C’ (Ascorbic acid)	Green leafy vegetables, citrus fruits, sprouts.	Scurvy	Delay in healing of wounds, fractures of bones.

Question 25.
a) What apparatus do you use during the conduction of the experiment?
b) Before conducting the experiment, why do you keep the potted plant in dark place for a week?
c) What test do you conduct to know the formation of carbohydrates in leaves?
d) During the test, which part of the leaf turns into blue and which part doesn’t? Why?
Answer:
a) Potted plant, Light screen, Iodine solution, Petridish, Black paper.
b) To destarch the leaves.
c) Iodine Test
d) The part of the leaf exposed to light turn into blue. Unexposed part does not turn into blue.
Reason: Photosynthesis occurs only in the presence of sunlight. The unexposed part does not receive the sunlight.

Question 26.
Draw the diagram of equipment arrangement in Hydrilla experiment. You did to prove that oxygen releases in photosynthesis. Write the reasons why test tube is placed upside down on funnel.
Answer:
Reasons for placing the test tube upside down on funnel:

1. To count the number of bubbles coming out of the hydrilla twigs per minute during photosynthesis.
2. To collect sufficient amount of oxygen at the end of the test tube so that it can be tested with glowing splinter.
3. Amount of oxygen produced in the test tube can be measured by the displacement of water within the test tube.

Question 27.
Describe the internal structure of the leaf.
(OR)
How is the internal structure of leaf modified to prepare starch through the process of photosynthesis?
Answer:

1. A transverse section of a typical leaf shows that it is covered on both sides by epidermis. Epidermal layers are covered on both sides by cuticle.
2. Lower epidermis is interrupted by a large number of openings called stomata. The central opening is called stoma.
   
3. Each stoma is surrounded by two kidney shaped cells called Guard cells.
4. Stomata regulate the exchange of gases and loss of water vapour from the leaves.
5. Mesophyll is the tissue present between two epidermal layers. Upper mesophyll tissue is called palisade parenchyma and lower tissue is known as spongy parenchyma.
6. The cells in the palisade parenchyma are long elongated arranged in rows.
7. The cells in the spongy parenchyma are irregularly arranged cells with large inter cellular spaces.
8. More number of chloroplasts are present in palisade parenchyma than the spongy parenchyma.
9. In the midrib and veins vascular bundles are present with phloem located towards the lower side and xylem towards the upper side.

Question 28.
Write about the parasitic nutrition in cuscuta plant.
Answer:

1. Dodder (genus cuscuta) is a leafless, twining, parasitic plant belongs to family convolvulaceae.
2. The dodder contains no chlorophyll and instead absorbs food through haustoria.
   
3. The dodder’s seed germinates, forming an anchoring root, and then sends up a slender stem that grows in a spiral fashion until it reaches a host plant.
4. It then twines around the stem of the host plant and throws out haustoria, which penetrate it.
5. Water is drawn through the haustoria from the host plant’s stem and xylem, and nutrients are drawn from its phloem.
6. Meanwhile, the root rots away after stem contact has been made with a host plant.
7. As the dodder grows, it sends out new haustoria and establishes itself very firmly on the host plant.
8. After growing in a few spirals around one host shoot, the dodder finds its way to another and it continues to twine and branch until it resembles a fine densley tangled web of thin stems enveloping the host plant.

Question 29.
Describe the digestion of food materials in alimentary canal with the help of a diagram.
(OR)
How is the food digested in your body?
Answer:

1. The alimentary canal is basically a long tube extending from the mouth to the anus.
2. Food is masticated by our teeth in the mouth and mixed with saliva to make it slippery and wet.
3. Saliva which contains amylase helps in the breakdown of carbohydrates into simple ones.
   
4. The soft food mixed with saliva passes through oesophagus or food pipe by wave like movements called peristaltic movements to the stomach.
5. The gastric glands in the stomach secrete gastric juice that contains hydrochloric acid, protein digesting enzyme pepsin and mucus.
6. Partially digested food chyme is released in small amounts by sphincter muscles reach small intestine.
7. Bile juice secreted by liver and pancreatic juice secreted by the pancreas release into the duodenum of small intestine.
8. Emulsification of fats is done by bile juice. Pancreatic juice contains enzyme trypsin for carrying on the process of digestion of proteins and lipase for fats.
9. Complete digestion of carbohydrates, fats and proteins takes place in the small intestine by intestinal juice.
10. Finger-like projections present in the walls of small intestine are called villi. They absorb the digested food into the blood.
11. Rest of the food is sent into the large intestine where most of the water present in it is absorbed from the food.
12. This material is then expelled through the anus which is the last part of the alimentary canal.

Question 30.
Draw a flow chart of human digestive system.
Answer:

Question 31.
Write briefly about nutrition in paramoecium. (OR)
Explain the nutrition process in paramoecium with the help of diagrams.
Answer:
Paramoecium :

1. Paramoecium is a unicellular aquatic organism.
2. The paramoecium has thin, hair like cilia all over its body.
   
3. The cilia move back and forth rapidly in water.
4. When the cilia is present around, the mouth region of paramoecium move, back and forth. They sweep the food particles present in water into the mouth of paramoecium.
   
5. This is the first step in the nutrition of paramoecium which is called ingestion and is followed by digestion, absorption, assimilation and egestion.

Question 32.
Describe the digestion of food in the stomach. (OR)
How is the food digested in your stomach ?
Answer:

1. The stomach is a large organ which expands when food enters it.
2. The muscular walls of the stomach help in mixing the food thoroughly with more digestive juices.
   
3. The gastric glands present in the wall of the stomach secrete gastric juice which contains hydrochloric acid, pepsin and mucus.
4. The hydrochloric acid facilitates the action of the enzyme pepsin and also kills the germs present in the food.
5. The enzyme pepsin digests proteins and mucus protects the inner lining of the stomach from the action of the acid under normal conditions.

Question 33.
Describe the digestion of food in the small intestine. (OR)
What are the changes that you see during the digestion of food in small intenstine?
(OR)
Small intestine is a long coiled tube. How the food is digested in small intestine of human being?
Answer:

1. The small intestine is the longest part of the alimentary canal.
2. It is the site of the complete digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats.
   
3. It receives the secretion of liver and pancreas for this purpose.
4. These juices make the internal condition of the intestine gradually to a basic or alkaline one.
5. Bile juice secreted by liver breaks down fats into small globules like forms. This process is called emulsification.
6. Pancreatic juice contains enzymes like trypsin for carrying on the process of digestion of proteins and lipase for fats.
7. Walls of the small intestine secrete intestinal juice. This is also known as succus entericus.
8. The intestinal juice consists of enzymes like enterokinase, peptidase, lipase, sucrase, nucleotidase, nucleosidase etc.
9. Enzymes present in the intestine completely digest the partially digested food.
10. Following digestive processes take place in the intestine.
    a) Peptidases convert peptides into amino adds.
    b) Intestinal lipase completely digest fats into fatty acids and glycerol.
    c) Enzymes sucrase, maltase, lactase hydrolyse sucrose, maltose and lactose respectively converting them into glucose.
    d) Nucleotidase and nucleosidase complete the digestion of nucleic acids.
11. The end products of digestion are absorbed in the intestine.

Question 34.
What are the health aspects of the alimentary canal?
Answer:

1. The human alimentary canal usually functions remarkably well considering how badly we treat it on occasions.
2. Vomiting is the body’s method of ridding itself unwanted or harmful substances from the stomach.
3. There are many causes of vomiting, but one of the most common is over eating, especially when the food contains a high proportion of fat.
   
4. The liver is unable to cope with the excessive fat and we get a feeling of nausea and sometime headache.
5. Indigestion is a general term used when there is difficulty in digesting food.
6. A more serious form of indigestion is caused by stomach and duodenal ulcers. These conditions occur more often in people who may be described as hurried or worried.
7. Those who are able to relax, who are not continually tensed up, and who live at a slower pace, seldom get ulcers.
8. For good health it is necessary to empty the bowels regularly.
9. If the food residues remain in the colon for too long, the bacteria present have more time to produce harmful substances which may be absorbed by the blood.
10. Constipation can often be avoided by having plenty of roughage in the diet.

 

These AP 10th Class Biology Important Questions and Answers 6th Lesson Reproduction will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Reproduction

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What questions you ask the doctor, who visited your school on World AIDS day?
Answer:

1. How does AIDS disease occurs?
2. How does the AIDS transmit?
3. What are the symptoms of AIDS?
4. What are the precautions to be taken to prevent AIDS?

Question 2.
What is colostrum?
Answer:
The first secretion from the Mammary glands, after giving birth, rich in antibodies.
During the end of pregnancy, a watery yellowish lymph like fluid accumulates in mammary glands. It is known as colostrum.

Question 3.
Name the types of asexual reproduction in the following organisms:
a) Paramoecium b) Yeast
Answer:
a) Paramoecium : Paramoecium reproduces by splitting into two. (Transverse binary fission)
b) Yeast: Yeast reproduces by Budding.

Question 4.
What are the advantages of grafting method in plants.
Answer:

1. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.
2. It can be used to produce varieties in seedless fruits.

Question 5.
What measures can be taken to avoid sexually transmitted diseases?
Answer:

1. Avoid sex with unknown or multiple partners.
2. Sex with life partners only.
3. Follow ethical and healthy life practices because contraceptives always cannot prevent STD’s.
4. In case of any doubt, consult a qualified doctor for early detection if diagonised with disease take complete treatment.

Question 6.
What is parthenogenesis?
Answer:
The process of developing zygote from female gametes without fertilization is known as parthenogenesis.

Question 7.
In flowering plants, I am formed as the result of double fertilization. The cotyledons digest and absorb me. Who am I?
Answer:
Endosperm.

Question 8.
In what way does mitotic division help the living organism?
Answer:

1. growth
2. cell repair
3. healing wounds.

Question 9.
Give any two suggestions to create awareness to stop female foeticide.
Answer:

1. Preparing relevant slogans
2. Organising rallies
3. Awareness campaign by using electronic and print media

Question 10.
Write two precautions you take, while observing Rhizopus in the laboratory.
Answer:

1. Don’t touch the experimental bread with hand.
2. If you touch the bread, thoroughly wash your hands.
3. Leave the bread in the open air for about an hour.
4. Avoid opening of the plastic bag as much as you can.
5. Sprinkle water over bread.
6. Place the bag in a dark and warm place.

Question 11.
Mention two materials you have used to observe Rhizopus on bread mould.
Answer:
Bread mould sample, plain glass slide, cover slip, water, disposable gloves.

Question 12.
What type of reproduction occurs in paramoecium during favourable conditions?
Answer:
During favourable conditions paramoecium reproduce asexually by fission.

Question 13.
What type of reproduction occurs in paramoecium during unfavourable conditions?
Answer:
During unfavourable conditions paramoecium reproduce sexually by conjugation.

Question 14.
Which bacteria is responsible for formation of curd from milk?
Answer:
Lactobacillus bacteria is responsible for formation of curd from milk.

Question 15.
What is asexual reproduction?
Answer:
The reproduction in which a single parent is involved, without formation of gametes is known as asexual reproduction.

Question 16.
What is fission?
Answer:
Splitting of organisms into two or more offsprings in a symmetrical manner is known as fission. Ex: Paramoecium and bacteria.

Question 17.
How budding occurs in yeast?
Answer:

1. A bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell division at specific site.
2. These buds develop when fully mature, detach from the parent body and become new independent individuals.

Question 18.
Which animals reproduce through fragmentation?
Answer:
Fragmentation is a common mode of reproduction in Algae, Fungi and many land plants.

Question 19.
What is Regeneration?
Answer:

1. Many fully differentiated organisms have the ability to give rise to new individual organism from their body parts.
2. If the individual is some how cut or broken up into many pieces, many of these pieces grow into separate individuals. Ex: Hydra and planaria.

Question 20.
In which plant, small plants grow at the edge of leaves?
Answer:
In Bryophyllum, small plants grow at the edge of leaves.

Question 21.
By means of which plants propagate vegetatively through stem?
Answer:
Plants propagate vegetatively through stem by means of stolons, bulbs, corms, tuber etc.

Question 22.
Through which the Vallisneria, Strawberry propagate vegetatively?
Answer:
Vallisneria, Strawberry propagate vegetatively through stolons.

Question 23.
Which plants produce the new plants through roots?
Answer:
New plants are produced from the roots of Dahlia, radish, carrot etc.

Question 24.
What are the artificial propagation methods in plants?
Answer:
Cutting, Layering and Grafting are the artificial propagation methods in plants.

Question 25.
Which method is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters?
Answer:
Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.

Question 26.
Which method will you adopt to get two desirable characters from two different plants in a single plant?
Answer:
I will adopt grafting method to get two desirable characters from two different plants in a single plant.

Question 27.
Which fungus is commonly called as bread mould?
Answer:
Rhizopus is commonly called bread mould.

Question 28.
How bread mould appears when you observe it under microspore?
Answer:
The common bread mould consists of fine thread like projections called hyphae and thin knob like structures called Sporangia.

Question 29.
In which plants leaf is known as Sporophyll? Why?
Answer:
In fern plants leaf is known as Sporophyll. Because on the lower surface of the leaf sporangia are present.

Question 30.
What is fertilisation?
Answer:
Union of male and female gametes is known as fertilisation.

Question 31.
What is external fertilisation?
Answer:
If the fertilisation occurs outside the body of the organism then it is known as external fertilisation. Eg : Frog and fish.

Question 32.
What is internal fertilisation?
Answer:
If the fertilisation occurs inside the body of the female organism then it is known as internal fertilisation. Eg : Terrestrial animals (Reptiles, Aves, Mammals).

Question 33.
What are the parts present in male reproductive system of man?
Answer:
A pair of testis, Accessory glands and System of ducts.

Question 34.
The male reproductive organ testis produces?
Answer:
Testis produces male reproductive cells or spermatozoa.

Question 35.
Sperms are temporarily stored in which part of duct system?
Answer:
Sperms are temporarily stored in epididymis of duct system.

Question 36.
What are the accessory glands present in male reproductive system?
Answer:
The accessory glands present in male reproductive system are one prostrate gland . and two cow cowper glands.

Question 37.
The fluid secreted by accessory glands is
Answer:
The fluid secreted by the accessory glands is semen.

Question 38.
What is the function of semen?
Answer:
Semen provide nutrients for sperm to keep alive and helps as a medium for the movement of sperms.

Question 39.
Which hormone regulates the development of the male reproductive organs?
Answer:
The hormone testosterone regulates the development of the male reproductive organs.

Question 40.
How are the secondary sexual characters are controlled in males?
Answer:
Secondary sexual characters in males are controlled by the male sex hormone testosterone.

Question 41.
Men produce sperm from the age of about?
Answer:
Men produce sperm from the age of about 13 or 14 years and can go on doing so most their lives.

Question 42.
Which are capable of changing the sex of the organism in which they grow like wasp?
Answer:
Some bacteria and other micro-organisms have been found capable of changing the sex of the organism of wasp in which they live.

Question 43.
The female gamete ovum is produced by
Answer:
The female gamete ovum is produced by graffian follicles of Ovary.

Question 44.
What is ovulation?
Answer:
The release of ovum from graffian follicle is known as ovulation.

Question 45.
Fertilisation of ovum occurs in which part of female reproductive system?
Answer:
Fertilisation of ovum occurs in fallopian tube or oviduct of female reproductive system.

Question 46.
What is placenta?
Answer:
Placenta is the nourishment tissue formed by the outer membrane of the embryo called chorion and the part of the uterine tissue.

Question 47.
When do placenta is formed during the development of embryo?
Answer:
Placenta is formed at around 12 weeks of pregnancy or during the embryonic development.

Question 48.
What keeps embryo moist and protects it from minor mechanical injury?
Answer:
The embryo develop in amniotic fluid filled cavity which keeps it moist and protects it from minor mechanical injury.

Question 49.
Which membrane forms umbilical cord?
Answer:
Allantois membrane which originates from the digestive canal of the embryo forms the major part of tube like structure called umbilical cord.

Question 50.
What is foetus?
Answer:
From the third month of pregnancy the embryo is called foetus.

Question 51.
What is gestation period?
Answer:
Total time required for the development of embryo and foetus is called gestation period.

Question 52.
What is the gestation period in human beings?
Answer:
The gestation period in human beings is 9 months or 280 days.

Question 53.
Collect the information about gestation periods in different animals.
Answer:
Gestation period in different animals:

Animal	Gestation period
Cat and dog	63 days
Horse	330 days
Cow	280 days
Rat and mouse	20-22 days

Question 54.
What is after birth?
Answer:
The muscular contractions of the uterus continue until they push out the tissues of the placenta, which are commonly called the ‘after birth’.

Question 55.
What are labour pains?
Answer:
The rhythmic contraction and relaxation of muscle layers of the uterus is known as labour pains.

Question 56.
What is colostrum?
Answer:
Colostrum: During the end of pregnancy a watery yellowish lymph like fluid accumulates in the mammary glands. It is known as colostrum.

Question 57.
What is the importance of feeding colostrum to new born baby?
Answer:
It is very important to feed colostrum to the new born baby because it helps in developing the immune system of the child.

Question 58.
What is the need of sexual reproduction?
Answer:
Sexual reproduction help organisms to develop characters that would be help them to adapt better to their surroundings.

Question 59.
In which mountain regions can Sal trees grow?
Answer:
Sal trees grow in the Himalayan mountains.

Question 60.
What are the different parts of a flower?
Answer:
Sepals, petals, stamens and carpels are the different parts of a flower.

Question 61.
What are stamens and carpels?
Answer:
The reproductive parts of a flower which possess the sex cells or germ cells are called stamens and carpels.

Question 62.
What are unisexual flowers? Give examples.
Answer:
Flowers having either stamens or carpels are called unisexual flowers.
Eg: Bottlegourd, papaya.

Question 63.
What are Bisexual flowers? Give some examples.
Answer:
Flowers having both the stamen and carpel are called bisexual flowers. Eg: Datura.

Question 64.
What are the three parts of carpel or gynoecium?
Answer:
The three parts of carpel or gynoecium are ovary, style and stigma.

Question 65.
What is self pollination?
Answer:
Plants having flowers. Where reproductive cells of stamen of the flower fertilise the female reproductive cells of the carpel of the same flower is called self pollination.
Eg: Plants of pea family.

Question 66.
How cross fertilisation occurs?
Answer:
If the male cells of flower of a plant fertilise the female cells of flowers on the same or different plants of the same species, the type of pollination is called cross pollination.

Question 67.
What did Darwin showed regarding fertilization of plants?
Answer:
Darwin in 1876 showed that plants when isolated had the greatest tendency to self fertilize while when surrounded by varieties of the same flower, they readily cross fertilize.

Question 68.
Which cells are composed the embryosac of ovule?
Answer:
The embryosac of ovule composed of gametophyte cells.

Question 69.
How many cells and nuclei does an embryosac consisting in majority of flowering plants?
Answer:
The majority of flowering plants have an embryosac consisting of seven cells and eight nuclei.

Question 70.
What is double fertilisation?
Answer:
Double fertilisation: Union of one male nucleus with an egg and the second male nucleus with the fusion nucleus is called double fertilisation.

Question 71.
What is germination?
Answer:
The seed produced after fertilisation contains the future plant or embryo that develops into a seedling under appropriate conditions. This process is called germination.

Question 72.
Who gave the phrase “omnis cellula de cellula”? What does it mean?
Answer:
The ‘phrase omnis cellula de cellula’ means cells arise from pre-existing cells. It was given by Rudolph Virchow who discovered cell division.

Question 73.
Who stated that the animals can reproduce through binary fission of cells?
Answer:
In 1852 Robert Remak of Germany stated that animals can reproduce through binary fission of cells.

Question 74.
Who discovered the process of mitosis?
Answer:
Mitosis was discovered by Walther Flemming in 1879.

Question 75.
What is the most important discovery of Walther Flemming regarding chromosomes?
Answer:
Walther Flemming’s most important discovery was chromosomes appear double in nature.

Question 76.
Who proposed that chromosomes carried a different set of heritable elements?
Answer:
Wilhelm Roux proposed that chromosomes carried a different set of heritable elements.

Question 77.
What are the hypothesis made by August Weiseman on chromosomes?
Answer:

1. In successive generations, individuals of the same species have the same number of chromosomes.
2. In successive cell division the number of chromosomes always remain constant.

Question 78.
Who confirmed the scheme of mitotic division?
Answer:
The scheme of mitotic division was confirmed in 1904 by Theodor Boveri.

Question 79.
Who discovered the structure of DNA?
Answer:
The structure of (DNA) deoxy ribonucleic acid was discovered in 1953 by James Watson and Francis Crick.

Question 80.
The cells in which organ do not divide?
Answer:
Cells present in organs such as heart and brain of an individual never divide.

Question 81.
What is time required for completion of mitosis?
Answer:
The process of mitosis is completed in 40 to 60 minutes.

Question 82.
What is interphase?
Answer:
The period between two cell divisions is called interphase.

Question 83.
Into how many phases the interphase can be divided?
Answer:
Interphase can be divided into three phases. They are G₁ phase, S phase and G₂ phase.

Question 84.
What is G₁ phase of interphase?
Answer:
G₁ phase is the linking period between the completion of mitosis and the begining of DNA replication (Gap 1 phase).

Question 85.
What is S phase of interphase?
Answer:
S phase is the period of DNA synthesis leading to duplication of chromosomes.

Question 86.
What is G₂ phase of interphase?
Answer:
G₂ phase is the time between the end of DNA replication and the beginning of mitosis (Gap 2 phase).

Question 87.
Who conducted some experiments using the cell fusion technique on phases of interphase?
Answer:
Potu Narasimha Rao and Johnson conducted some experiments using the cell fusion technique to understand the functional relationship between the phases of interphase.

Question 88.
What is cytokinesis?
Answer:
Division of cytoplasm is called cytokinesis.

Question 89.
What are the different stages present in mitosis?
Answer:
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase are the different stages present in mitosis.

Question 90.
In which phase of the mitosis chromosomes split lengthwise to form chromatids?
Answer:
In prophase of the mitosis chromosomes split lengthwise to form chromatids.

Question 91.
During which phase of mitosis chromatids are pulled towards poles?
Answer:
During anaphase of mitosis chromatids are pulled towards poles.

Question 92.
How many haploid daughter cells are formed after meiosis?
Answer:
Four haploid daughter cells are formed after meiosis.

Question 93.
What are the diseases that can be sexually transmitted?
Answer:
Sexually transmitted diseases include bacterial infections such as Gonorrhoea and Syphilis and Viral infections such as AIDS.

Question 94.
In what way the sexually transmitted diseases spread from person to person?
Answer:
Sexually transmitted diseases spread by unsafe sexual contacts, using infected devices, infected blood transfusion, from an infected mother to child.

Question 95.
Which state has the highest number of HIV patients in the country?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh and Telangana has the highest number of HIV patients in the country.

Question 96.
Which factors are contributing to the spread of HIV in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Illiteracy, poor health, unemployment, migration, non-traditional sex practise, unethical contacts and trafficking are some of the factors contributing to the spread of HIV in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 97.
Expand “ASHA”.
Answer:
Accredited Social Health Activist.

Question 98.
What is Red ribbon express?
Answer:
Red Ribbon express is an AIDS/HIV awareness campaign train by the Indian Railways. The motto of the Red ribbon express is “Embarking on the Journey of Life”.

Question 99.
What is contraception?
Answer:
The prevention of pregnancy in women by preventing fertilisation is called contraception.

Question 100.
Which device not only prevents fertilisation but also transmitting some sexually transmitted diseases?
Answer:
Condoms and diaphragm (cap) prevents fertilisation and also useful to not transmitting some sexually transmitted diseases like gonorrhoea, syphilis, AIDS.

Question 101.
What are spermicides?
Answer:
Spermicides are the pills used for killing sperms.

Question 102.
What are the surgical methods to birth control in males and females?
Answer:
Vasectomy for males and Tubectomy for female are the surgical birth control methods in human beings.

Question 103.
What is Vasectomy?
Answer:
In males, a small portion of vas deferens is removed by surgical operation ami both ends are tied properly. This method is called vasectomy.

Question 104.
What is Tubectomy?
Answer:
In females, a small portion of oviducts (fallopian tube) is removed by surgical operation and the cut ends are tied. This prevents the ovum from entering into the oviducts. This method is called Tubectomy.

Question 105.
What is the marriage age for girls in India?
Answer:
The marriage age for girls in India is 18 years.

Question 106.
What is foeticide?
Answer:
Foeticide is the act of destruction or aborting a foetus because it is female.

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the questions you asked the doctor who visited your school to know “the ways of transmission of HIV”?
Answer:
I shall ask the following questions to the doctor.

1. What are the ways of transmission of HIV?
2. How can we prevent the spread of HIV?
3. What precautions should we take while doing transfusion of blood:
4. How does HIV transmit from mother to baby?
5. Why should we use disposable syrenges?

Question 2.
The chromosomal number is reduced to half in the daughter cells produced by meiosis. What happens if the number is not reduced to half in daughter cells?
(OR)
In Meiosis, the chromosome number in the daughter cells are reduced to half that of their parent cells. Guess, what would happen, if the reduction of chromosome number is not done.
Answer:

1. If the reduction of chromosomes number is not done, the chromosomal number is doubled in the offsprings.
2. The change in chromosomal number leads to development of abnormal characters in the individual.
3. The offspring differs from parental generation.
4. Abnormal characters will be formed in new generation, which are not useful for the existence of individual.

Question 3.
What questions do you ask a doctor to know about different birth control methods?
Answer:

1. What is family planning?
2. What is meant by contraception?
3. How many types of contraceptive methods are there?
4. What are the contraceptive devices used for female?
5. What are the contraceptive devices used for male?
6. What is tubectomy?
7. What is vasectomy?
8. What are surgical methods of birth controls?

Question 4.
Apparao and Ramulamma are a newly married illiterate couple. They don’t want children for few years. Suggest some birth control methods for them.
(OR)
Mention any four birth control methods.
Answer:
a) condoms
b) diaphragm (Cap)
c) pills
d) copper – T
e) loop

Question 5.
Why is it important for gametes to have half the number of chromosomes?
Answer:

1. If gametes have 2 sets of chromosomes, the number of chromosomes will be 4 sets in zygote after fertilization because of this the chromosomal number will be doubled in each generation. This results in abnormalities in off-spring.
2. Hence, to maintain a constant number of chromosomes, garnets should have half set of chromosomes.

Question 6.
Identify the flower parts a, b, c, d and write their main function.
Answer:
a) Ovary: Female reproductive organ in flower. It produces female gametes called ovules.
b) Style: Ovary has a pipe like structure called style. It allows the pollen tube to enter the ovary for fertilization.
c) Stamen: These are male parts called androecium. It has two parts. They are filament and Anther.
d) Anther : Produces male gametes called pollen grain.

Question 7.
Draw and label the diagram of human sperm cell.
Answer:

Question 8.
How can we get the desired useful triats with the help of two selected triats by using grafting method?
Answer:

1. Two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant.
2. One which is attached to soil is called stock and the cut stem of another plant without roots is called scion.
3. Both stock and scion are tied with the help of a twine thread and covered by a polythene cover.
4. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.
5. This technique is very useful in propagating improved varieties of plants with various flowers and fruits. Ex: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.

Question 9.
Draw the labelled diagram of Embryo-sac A.
Answer:

Question 10.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.
i) Which phases take same time duration?
Answer:
G₁ phase and S phase.
ii) In which phase, DMA synthesis takes place?
Answer:
S Phase.

Question 11.
Write the process involved in seedless fruit development with two suitable examples.
Answer:
In some plants ovary directly develops into fruit without the process of fertilization, this phenomenon is called as parthenocarypy.
Ex: Grapes, water melon.

Question 12.
What precautions will you take to keep away from diseases like AIDS and other sexually transmitted diseases?
Answer:

1. Avoid sex with unknown partners or multiple partners.
2. Use condom every time.
3. Use disposable syringes and needles.
4. Transfusion of safe blood to the patients.
5. HIV mother can have child with doctor’s advice only.

Question 13.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions.
i) Name male and female reproductive parts of the above figure.
Answer:
Male reproductive parts – anther / pollen grain / stamen
Female reproductive parts – ovary / ovule / style / stigma.

ii) Write the names of (1) and (2) in the diagram.
Answer:

1. Sepal or calyx
2. Petal or corolla

Question 14.
When does Parthenogenesis occur? Write names of two animals in which parthenogenesis takes place.
Answer:
a) Parthenogenesis is a process of reproduction where there is a shift from sexual to asexual mode of reproduction.
b) In this process generally the female garnets develops into zygote without fertilization.
c) This strange kind of reproduction occur in bees, ants and wasps.
d) The parthenocarpic zygote develop into male (Monoploid) while the fertilized one developed into female (Diploid)

Question 15.
Draw the figure of metaphase in mitosis, and write about it.
Answer:

1. Chromosomes move to spindle equator, centromeres attached to spindle fibres.
   
2. Centromeres split, separating the chromatids.

Question 16.
Prepare 4 questions on meiosis, to conduct a Quiz programme.
Answer:

1. Where does meiosis occur in?
2. How many daughter cells are produced at the end of meiosis?
3. In which phase of meiosis karyokinesis takes place?
4. Name the scientist who discovered meiosis for the first time.

Question 17.
Write slogans on ‘Child marriages – a social evil’.
Answer:

1. Child marriage, a loosing game.
2. She is a child herself, why burden her with another child?
3. My childhood, my right.
4. A child should call ‘mother’ but a child should not be called mother.
5. Good marriages take place slowly. Go slow with children’s marriage.
6. Say no to child marriage.

Question 18.
Write 5 slogans on the prevention of HIV/AIDS.
Answer:

1. Open your eyes before AIDS closes them.
2. Hate the disease but not the diseased.
3. Spread the knowledge not the virus.
4. Wear protection to prevent infection.
5. AIDS brings pain! Girls please obstain.

Question 19.
What is fission? Give examples.
Answer:

1. Fission is a method of asexual reproduction in which a single-celled organism splits into two or more offsprings.
2. This splitting usually occurs in a symmetrical manner.
3. When an organism is split into two offsprings it is called binary fission.
4. When an organism is split into more offsprings, it is called multiple fission.
5. This is often the only mode of reproduction for single celled organisms.
   Ex : Paramoecium and bacteria.

Question 20.
Write a short notes on fragmentation.
Answer:

1. Fragmentation is a reproductive method in multicellular organisms with relatively simple body organisation.
2. Some can grow from a separate piece of parent organism. This can be from any part of the body.
3. This happens only in the simplest such as some flat-worms, moulds, lichens, spirogyra, etc.
4. Fragmentation is a common mode of reproduction in algae, fungi and many land plants.

Question 21.
What do you know about parthenogenesis? Explain with examples.
Answer:

1. Parthenogenesis is an asexual reproduction in which unfertilized eggs develop into offsprings.
2. In this process generally egg develops into new individual without meiosis and fertilization. So the offsprings are diploid.
3. In some species of animals reproduction occurs only through parthenogenesis. There are no males known in these species. Ex: Rotifers.
4. In another type of parthenogenesis meiosis does occur and the egg can develop whether fertilized or not.
5. The monoploid offsprings develop into males and diploid into females.
   Ex: Bees, Ants and Wasps.
6. Nowadays we are able to develop seed less fruits like watermelon, grapes, pomegranate etc.

Question 22.
Describe the vegetative propagation through the stem with examples.
Answer:

1. Production of new plants from the vegetative parts such as stem, root, leaves of the existing plant is called vegetative propagation.
2. Aerial weak stems like runners and stolons, when they touch the ground, give off adventitious roots.
3. When the connection with the parent plant is broken, the portion with the newly struck roots develops into an independent plant.
4. Some examples for propagation by stem are from stolons, bulbs, corms and tubers as follows.
   a) Stolons – Vallisneria, Strawberry
   b) Bulbs – Alliumcepa or onion
   c) Corms – Colacasia
   d) Tuber – Potato

Question 23.
Write short note on artificial propagation method cutting.
Answer:

1. Cutting is an artificial method of vegetative propagation in which new plants are developed from the cut portion of existing plant.
   
2. Some plants grow individually when a piece of the parent plant having bud is cut from the existing plant.
3. The lower part of this cutting is buried in moist soil.
4. After few days the cut parts having buds grow as an individual plant.
   Ex: Rose, Hibiscus.

Question 24.
What is layering? Explain briefly about it.
Answer:

1. Stems that form roots while still attached to the parent plants are called layers. Propagating the plants in this method is layering.
2. A branch of the plant with at least one node is bent towards the ground and a part of it is covered with moist soil leaving the tip of the branch exposed above the ground.
3. After sometime, new roots develop from the part of the branch hurried in the soil.
4. The branch is then cut off from the parent plant, later it develops roots and grows to become a new plant. Ex: Nerium.

Question 25.
Write a short note on Grafting.
Answer:

1. Grafting is a method of artificial vegetative propagation in which two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant.
   
2. One which is attached to soil is called stock and the cut stem of another plant without roots is called scion.
3. Both stock and scion are tied with help of a twine thread and covered by a polythene cover.
4. After few days both will unite by forming new tissue and grow as a single one.
5. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable characters.
6. Plants in which grafting is done more in mango, apple, citrus, plants.

Question 26.
What are the advantages of grafting?
Answer:

1. Grafting enables us to combine the most desirable characteristics of the two plants (scion and stock) in its flower and fruits.
2. By grafting method, a very young scion can be made to flower and produce fruits quite fast when it is grafted to the stock.
3. Grafting can be used to produce varieties of seedless fruits.

Question 27.
How is tissue culture more beneficial than other traditional methods for the artificial propagation of plants? (OR)
What is tissue culture? What are its uses?
Answer:

1. The traditional methods for the artificial propagation of plants are being replaced by the modern methods of artificial propagation of plants involving tissue culture, as it is more beneficial than the traditional methods.
2. In tissue culture, a few plant cells or plant tissue are placed in a growth medium with plant hormones in it and it grows into new plants.
3. Thousands of plants can be grown in very short interval of time.
4. There will be no climatic impact on the propagation, so multiplication can be done throughout the year.
5. It is possible to obtain plants that are free from pathogens.

Question 28.
How does the Rhizopus propagate?
Answer:

1. Rhizopus propagates by means of spores.
   
2. The Rhizopus parent plant produces hundreds of microscopic reproductive units called spores.
3. When the spore case of the plant bursts, the spores spread into air.
4. These air borne spores fall on food or soil, under favourable conditions like damp and warm conditions, they germinate and produce new plants.

Question 29.
Write a short note on spore formation. (OR)
How spores are produced in sporangia of fungi?
Answer:

1. Spore formation is a method of asexual reproduction which occurs through microscopic reproductive units called spores.
2. Most of the fungi like rhizopus, mucor etc., bacteria and non-flowering plants such as ferns and mosses reproduce by the method of spore formation.
3. In fungi like rhizopus spores are produced in some specialised structures called sporangia which bursts and spreads the spores into air. These spores when fall on food or soil under favourable conditions germinate and produce new plants.
4. In non-flowering plants like fern, the leaves called sporophyll bears clusters of sporangia on their lower side. These sporangia produce the spores which produce the new plant when it falls on ground under favourable conditions.

Question 30.
How is external fertilisation different from internal fertilisation? (OR)
What are the differences between external and internal fertilisation?
Answer:

1. Fertilisation that takes place outside the body of mother is called external fertilisation. This is most common in animals like fishes and amphibians. As the chance of fertilisation is controlled by nature it becomes necessary to give rise to vast number of eggs and sperms by these animals.
2. Fertilisation that takes place inside the body of mother is called internal fertilisation. This is common in most of the land animals. As the chance of fertilisation is not controlled by the nature, these animals generally produce less number of eggs.

Question 31.
Write a short note on ovulation. (OR)
What is ovulation? How it occurs?
Answer:

1. Release of the egg or ovum is called ovulation.
2. The ova develop in tiny cellular structures in ovary called follicles, which at first look like cellular bubbles.
3. As a follicle grows, it develops a cavity filled with fluid.
4. Each follicle contains a single ovum.
5. When an ovum is mature, the follicle ruptures at the surface of the ovary and the tiny ovum is flushed out.
6. This release of ovum is called ovulation.

Question 32.
How does the uterus get adapted to receive the embryo?
Answer:

1. The uterus at the time of fertilization is beautifully adapted to receive the developing embryo, providing it with food and disposing of its wastes.
2. A few days prior to this time, the uterus was small, its tissues were thin, and its supply of blood vessels was poor.
3. When the fertilized egg or zygote is about to enter the uterus become much larger, its inner wall becomes thick, soft and moist with fluid, its blood supply is greatly increased and waiting for an embryonic occupant.

Question 33.
What is colostrum? What is its importance?
Answer:

1. During the end of pregnancy, a watery lymph like fluid accumulates in the mammary glands.
2. This is called colostrum.
3. For the first few days after the baby is born, the mammary glands secrete only colostrum.
4. It is very important to feed the new born baby with colostrum because it helps in developing the immune system of the child.

Question 34.
What is the importance of mitosis in human beings?
Answer:

1. Mitosis is the cell division that transforms a human fertilized egg into a baby in nine months and into an adult in the next 20 years.
2. The bone marrow cells actively divide by mitosis to produce red blood cells.
3. Mitosis helps in replacing the worn out cells in the skin.
4. Mitotic divisions in the cells surrounding the wound helps in cease the wound and healing.

Question 35.
Collect the information about the significance of the experiments done by Dr Potu Narasimha Rao and Johnson.
Answer:

1. Nearly 4 decades back Dr.P.N. Rao and Johnson did some elegant experiments using the cell fusion technique to understand the functional relationship between the phases of cell cycle.
2. These experiments have, for the first time provided evidence that the progression of cells through the cell cycle is sequential and unidirectional and are controlled by a series of chemical signals that can diffuse freely between nucleus and cytoplasm.
3. These experiments revealed for the first time the structure of interphase chromosomes that are not ordinarily visible under the microscope.
4. These experiments are considered to be a ‘milestone’ in the cell cycle studies.

Question 36.
Ramu said that it is very essential to create more awareness in Andhra Pradesh on the risk of HIV infection and AIDS. Do you support him? If so, how can you support his statement?
Answer:
Yes, what Ramu said is right. I support his statement with the following reasons.

1. Andhra Pradesh has the highest number of HIV patients in the country.
2. According to official statistics, the state had 5 lakh of the 24 lakh HIV positive patients
   in the country during 2011-12.
3. While one in every 300 adults is suffering from HIV elsewhere, in Andhra Pradesh one in every 100 adults is a HIV patient, that is almost one per cent.
4. The prevalence of HIV is 1.07 per cent among males and 0.73 among females in the state, which again is higher than in other states.

Question 37.
Briefly explain about the contraception and contraceptive methods.
Answer:
The prevention of pregnancy in the woman by preventing fertilisation is called contraception. Any device or chemical which prevents pregnancy in a woman is called a contraceptive. Contraceptive methods are of various types and used by any of the partners as preferable. Some of the contraceptive methods are:

1. Use of physical devices such as condoms and diaphragm (cap).
2. Use of hormonal pills which stop the ovaries from releasing ovum into oviduct.
   These pills can be induced either orally or inserting into female reproductive organ vagina.
3. Use of spermicides that kills the sperms.
4. Use of intra-uterine device called copper – T, loop, etc.
5. Use of surgical methods such as vasectomy for male and tubectomy for female.

Question 38.
Classify the given organisms basing on the type of reproduction.
Man, Flatworm, Mould, Dog, Bacteria, Frog, Fern, Datura, Hen, Yeast.
Answer:

Sexually reproducing organisms	Asexually reproducing organisms
Man	Flat worm
Dog	Mould
Frog	Bacteria
Datura	Fern
Hen	Yeast

Question 39.
What will happen if the amnion is ruptured before the foetus is developed completely?
Answer:

1. Amnion is the embryonic membrane that grows around the embryo itself.
2. The cavity within the amnion is filled with a fluid called amniotic fluid, which keeps the growing embryo moist and protects it from minor mechanical injury.
3. If the amnion ruptures by accident before the foetus developed completely, the amniotic fluid is released out through vagina.
4. As there is no protective fluid around the foetus, it starts getting damaged.
5. So if possible delivery must done immediately by surgerical method, otherwise abortion must be done.
6. If baby dies inside the uterus which leads to infections in uterus causing problems
   to mother that leads to death.

Question 40.
How will you appreciate the contribution of August Weiseman to the cell biology?
Answer:

1. Science is not advanced only by the collection of data. Someone must think about and interpret the data. August Weiseman belongs to this category who think and interpret the data.
2. Even though his poor eyesight not allowed him to use a microscope to study cells, he made great contribution to the cell biology making use of his thinking capacity and interpretation skills.
3. He hypothesised that
   a) In successive generations, individuals of the same species have the same number of chromosomes.
   b) In successive cell division, the number of chromosomes remains constant.
4. His hypothesis proved right in case of mitosis.
5. We should take such a great person who overcame his defect with his will as our role model.

Question 41.
How will you appreciate the contribution of Dr. P.N. Rao to the ceil biology?
Answer:

1. Dr. Potu Narasimha Rao, a renowned scholar and eminent cytologist came from a poor family in Muppalla village of Guntur district.
2. He did his research work on the cytogenetics of tobacco plant and cancer cells in culture medium.
3. He conducted research in cell kinematics and triggering factor of cell division i.e., mitosis.
4. He observed the interphase and its three phases.
5. To understand the functional relationship between these phases he did elegant experiments on cell fusion technique along with his research associate Dr.Johnson.
6. His researches revealed that the cell cycle is sequential, unidirectional and controlled by a series of chemical signals.
7. His experiments are considered to be a milestone in the cell cycle.
8. He is an exemplary person who proved that poverty is not a barrier to the talent and wisdom.

Question 42.
Write briefly about natural vegetative propagation in plants.
Answer:

1. In natural vegetative propagation new plants are produced from stem, root, leaves of old plants without the help of any reproductive organs.
2. In bryophyllum small plants grow at the edge of leaves.
3. Aerial weak stems like runners stolons, when they touch the ground give it adventitious roots.
4. When the connection with the parent plant is broken the stem portion with the adventitious roots develops into an independent plant.
5. Some examples for propagation by stem are from stolons, bulbs, corms, tuber etc.
   
6. Stolons – Vallisneria, strawberry.
   Bulbs – Onion (Alliumcepa)
   Corms – Colacasia
   Tuber – Potato

Question 43.
What are sexually transmitted diseases and mention the ways to prevent them?
Answer:

1. A disease which can be transmitted through sexual contact is called sexually transmitted disease or STD.
2. These include bacterial infections such as gonorrhoea, syphilis, Herpis and viral infections such as herpes and AIDS.
3. Lack of hygiene is usually a major factor in providing conditions for spread of STDs.
4. But unprotected sex with multiple and unknown partners is the highest reason for the spread of STDs.
5. Some of the ways to prevent STD are as follows.
   a) Being faithful to one’s life partner.
   b) Avoid sexual contact with unknown person.
   c) Using condom during sexual intercourse.
   d) Maintaining personal hygiene.

Question 44.
Why more complex organisms cannot give rise to new individual through regeneration ?
Answer:

1. Many organisms have the ability to give rise to new individual organisms from their body parts.
2. Regeneration happens through mitosis and a particular type of tissue can give rise to its own kind only.
3. In complex organisms, different tissues and organs have altogether different structures.
4. Regenerating a different kind of tissue from another kind is not possible.
5. Hence complex organisms are not able to give rise to new individuals through regeneration.

Question 45.
How an organism will be benefited if it reproduces through spores?
Answer:

1. Reproduction through spores gives several advantages to an organism like they are produced in very large numbers and it helps in propagation of species.
2. Spores can remain dormant till favourable conditions become available.
3. Spores help an organism to overcome unfavourable conditions.
4. Spores can be spread through water, air or animals and thus is good for the spread of an organism to more places.

Question 46.
What is the role of the placenta in embryo development?
Answer:

1. Placenta is a tissue formed by the cells from the embryo and the mother.
2. It is formed around 12 weeks of pregnancy and becomes an important structure for nourishment of the embryo.
3. Placenta is a disc which is embedded in the uterine wall. It contains villi on the embryo’s side of the tissue.
4. On the other side mother’s blood spaces are present.
5. This provides a large surface area for diffusion of glucose, oxygen and other nutrients from the mother of the embryo.

Question 47.
Why do we practise vegetative propagation for growing some types of plants?
(OR)
Why vegetative propagation is adopted over other types of propagation?
Answer:
Vegetative propagation is practised in some plants because

1. It is the only method of reproduction in seed less plants.
2. We get more number of matured plants in a very short time.
3. Thousands of plants can be grown in very short time.
4. This method can help the breeder in preserving the characters he need.
5. It is very easy and economical method for the multiplication of ornamental plants.

Question 48.
What is Mitosis? Which type of cells it occurs in organisms? Write about the different stages of it.
Answer:

1. Mitosis is a method of cell division, in which the nucleus divides into two daughter nuclei.
2. Each containing the same number of chromosomes as the parent nucleus.
3. Mitosis takes place in all body cells which retains same number of chromosomes.
4. Different stages of mitosis:
   1. Prophase
   2. Metaphase
   3. Anaphase
   4. Telophase

10th Class Biology 6th Lesson Reproduction 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain the changes involved in the formation of seed from Ovule.
(OR)
Pollen grain reached the stigma of a flower. Explain the changes that occurs up to the formation of seeds in a sequence.
Answer:
Process of double fertilization:

1. At the time of fertilization there will be a total of 7 cells arranged in three groups in a mature embryo sac.
2. They are one egg (female garnet) two synergids, one central cell (secondary or polar nucleus) and three antipodals.
3. While all the cells are in haploid (n) condition only the polar nucleus is diploid (2n). This is due to the fusion of two nuclei.
4. The synergids are also known as helper cells.
5. Fertilization is the process of fusion of male and female gametes. For the fusion pollen grains have to reach the surface of the stigma. This is called pollination.
   
6. Pollen grain received by the stigma, germinate and give rise to pollen tubes. The pollen tube has two male nuclei.
7. Usually the pollen tube enters the ovule through microphyle and discharges the two male gametes into the embryo sac.
8. One male nucleus (garnet) approaches the egg and fuses with it to form diploid (2n) zygote this is called first fertilization.
9. The other male nucleus reaches the secondary nucleus (2n) (polar nucleus) and fuses with it to form endosperm nucleus which will be triploid. This is second fertilization. Thus double fertilization occurs in embryosac.
   Changes after double fertilization:
10. After double fertilization, the ovule increases in size rapidly as a result of formation of endosperm tissue by mitosis and the development of new embryo.
11. The embryo consists of cotyledons an epicotyl and a hypocotyl. The cotyledons become greatly enlarged because of stored food for the seedling.
12. The zygote divides several times to form an embryo within the ovule. The ovule develops a tough coat and is converted into a seed. The ovary grows to form a fruit.

Question 2.
Observe the given diagram and answer the following questions.
i) What are the four main parts of a flower?
Answer:
Calyx, Corolla, Androecium and Gynoecium are the main parts of a flower.

ii) Which parts of the flower produces gametes?
Answer:
Androecium and gynoecium produces gametes.

iii) Which parts of the flower help in pollination?
Answer:
Petals or corolla help flower in pollination.

iv) Which part protect the flower during its bud stage?
Answer:
Sepals or calyx protect flower in bud stage.

v) Which part of the flower will turn into a fruit in the future?
Answer:
Ovary of the flower will change into fruit.

Question 3.
Organisms reproduce asexually in many ways. Some of the organisms are given below. Fill the below table based on the collected information about the organism and mode of asexual reproduction in it.
a) Onion b) Spirogyra c) Strawberry d) Ginger e) Honey-bee f) Paramoecium g) Planaria h) Yeast

Name of the organism	Mode of Asexual reproduction

Answer:

Name of the organism	Mode of Asexual reproduction
a) Onion	Bulb
b) Spirogyra	Fragmentation
c) Strawberry	Stolons
d) Ginger	Rhizome
e) Honey – bee	Parthenogenesis
f) Paramoecium	Binary fission
g) Planaria	Regeneration
h) Yeast	Budding

Question 4.
i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of L.S. of flower.
ii) What are the sexual parts in the flower ?
Answer:
i)
ii) A. Androecium or Stamen
B. Gynoecium or Pistil

Question 5.
Read carefully and answer the following questions.

According to Weismann prediction, every organism undergoes two kinds of cell divisions. In Mitosis, there is no change in chromosomal number (2n) and in Meiosis, chromosomal number is reduced to half (n).

i) What does ‘n’ and ‘2n’ indicate?
Answer:
‘n’ indicates haploid state. ‘2n’ indicates diploid state.

ii) In which cells, Meiosis takes place?
Answer:
Meiosis occurs in sex cells during the formation of gametes.

iii) What happens, if chromosomal number is not reduced in Meiosis?
Answer:
The chromosomal number not constant in successive generations.

iv) Which type of cell division occurs in the skin cells?
Answer:
Mitosis

Question 6.
Observe the diagram and answer the following.

i) Which part produce the female gamete?
Answer:
Ovary

ii) Where does the fertilization takes place in female reproductive system?
Answer:
Fallopian tube

iii) Where does the embryo develops until it is ready to born?
Answer:
Uterus

iv) In some cases doctor’s cut and tie the cut ends of the fallopian tubes. What is the name of surgery?
Answer:
Tubectomy

Question 7.
Briefly explain the stages of cell cycle.
Answer:
The process of cell division is called “mitosis”. The period between two cell divisions is called “Interphase”.
This is actually the period when the genetic material makes it’s copy so that it is equally distributed to the daughter cells during mitosis. Interphase can be devided into three phases.
G₁ Phase: This is the linking period between the completion of mitosis and the beginning of DNA replication (GAP-1 Phase). The cell size increase during this period.
S Phase: This is the period of DNA synthesis (Synthesis phase) leading duplication of chromosomes.
G₂ Phase: This is the time between the end of DNA replication and the beginning of mitosis. Cell organells devide and prepare chromosome for mitosis.

Question 8.
i) Draw a labelled diagram of the human male reproductive system.
ii) What is the function of testosterone?
Answer:
i) Male reproductive system:
ii) The function of testosterone hormone is maintaining of secondary sexual chracters in males.

Question 9.
Describe the life cycle of a flowering plant with a help of neat labelled diagrams. (OR) Draw the life cycle of a flowering plant.
Answer:

1. Adult plant produces flowers:
   When the plant matures and is ready to reproduce, it develops flowers. Flowers are special structures involved in sexual reproduction, which includes pollination and fertilisation.
   
2. Pollination: The transfer of pollen grains from the anther of a stamen to the stigma of a carpel is called pollination.
3. Fertilisation:
   i) After pollen grains falls on the stigma fertilization occurs when the male gamete present in pollen grains joins with the female gametes present in the ovule.
   ii) In the ovary the male nucleus of pollen combines with the nucleus of female gamete or egg present to form zygote.
4. Formation of fruit and seed: After fertilisation, a combined cell i.e. zygote grows into an embryo within a seed formed by the ovule.
5. Each seed contains a tiny plant called an embryo which has root, stem and leaf parts ready to grow into a new plant when conditions are favourable.
6. Another part of the flower (the ovary) grows to form fruit, which protects the seeds and helps them spread away from the parent plant to continue the cycle.

Question 10.
Analyze the following information and answer the following questions.

S.No.	Name of the plant	Method of propagation
1.	Mango	Grafting
2.	Rose, Hibiscus	Cutting
3.	Jasmine	Layering
4.	Bryophyllum	Small plants grow on edges of leaves
5.	Colacasia	Cor ms
6.	Onions	Bulbs

i) What do you call the given reproduction methods?
Answer:
Given reproduction methods are called ‘vegetative propagation’.

ii) What is the major difference between sexual reproduction and vegetative reproduction in plants?
Answer:
In sexual reproduction gametes form zygote. Plant parts like root, stem and leaf are used in vegetative reproduction. It is one of asexual method.

iii) Potato plants do not produce seeds. How can you propagate this plant?
Answer:
Potato plants propagates through the ‘eyes’.

iv) What are the advantages of propagating plants with the above given methods?
Answer:
In vegetative propagation

1. More plants are produced in less time
2. Characters are not changed.
3. It would be possible to develop new varieties with useful characters.

Question 11.
Explain the methods of artificial propagation in various plants.
Answer:
Artificial propagation:

1. Cutting: Some plants can grow individually when a piece of the parent plant having bud is cut off from the existing plant. The lower part of this cutting is buried in moist soil.
   
   After few days the cut parts having buds grow as an individual plant after developing roots. E.g. Rose, Hibiscus.
2. Layering: A branch of the plant with atleast one node is bent towards the ground and part of it is covered with moist soil. After a few days new roots develop from the part of the branch buried in the soil. The branch is then cut off from the parent plant.
   E.g: Nerium, Jasmine
   
3. Grafting: Two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant. This technique is very useful in propagating improved varieties of various flowers and fruits. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable character. E.g: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.
   

Question 12.
Observe the following figures and find the stages of cell division and explain.
Answer:
In the mitotic cell division, the division of nucleus (karyokinesis) followed by the division of cytoplasm (cytokinesis). Finally brings about the formation of two daughter cells. There are four stages in mitosis division.
They are

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Telophase

1) Prophase	1) Chromosomes condense and get coiled. They become visible even in light microscope. Nucleoli become smaller. 2) Chromosomes split lengthwise to form chromatids, connected by centromeres. 3) Nuclear membrane disappears. 4) Centrosome, containing rod-like centrioles, divide and form ends of spindle
2) Metaphase	1) Centrosomes move to spindle equator, spindle fibres attached to centromeres.
3) Anaphase	1) Centromeres split, separating the chromatids. 2) Spindle fibres attached to centromeres contract, pulling chromatids towards poles.
4) Telophase	1) Chromatids elongate, replication at this stage to become chromosomes and become invisible. 2) Nuclear membrane form round daughter nuclei. 3) Cell membranes pinches into form daughter cells (animals) or new cell wall material becomes laid down across spindle equator (plants) 4) Nucleus divides into two and division of cytoplasm starts. Two cells are form.

Question 13.
Mention the stages of Mitosis with the help of diagrams. Explain the changes that takes place in Prophase.
Answer:
Mitosis is a method of cell division, in which the nucleus divides into two daughter nuclei each containing the same number of chromosomes as the parent nucleus. Mitosis takes place in all body cells which retains same number of chromosomes.
Different stages of mitosis:
1) Prophase 2) Metaphase 3) Anaphase 4) Telophase

1) Prophase

1. In this phase chromosomes condense and get coiled.
2. They become visible even in light microscope.
3. Nucleoli becomes smaller.
4. Chromosome split lengthwise to form chromatids, connected by centromeres.
5. Nuclear membrane breaks down.
6. Centrosome containing rod like centrioles, divide and form ends of spindle.

Question 14.
Describe the process of double fertilization in plants. Explain the uses of endosperm that is formed.
Answer:
Double fertilization:

1. In flowering plant germinated pollen grain forms pollen tube.
2. The end of the pollen tube ruptures and two male garnets are released in the Embryosac.
3. Out of two male garnets one male garnet fuses with female garnet which is called fertilization.
4. Another male garnet fuses with the secondary nucleus and forms endosperm.
5. So in flowering plant fertilization occures twice hence it is called double fertilization.

Uses of Endosperm:

1. Cotyledons develops by utilizing endosperm.
2. The Cotyledons utilizes the stored food in the endosperm.
3. Some of the plants utilizes the endosperm completely and changes in to seed.
4. Because of the stored food the size of the cotyledons increases.

Question 15.
Explain any two natural and two artificial vegetative propagation methods to produce more number of plants in less time period with examples.
Answer:
Natural propagation:
i) Leaves – Small plant grow at the edge of the leaves. Ex: Bryophyllum
ii) Stems:
a) Stolon – Ex: Jasmine, strawberry b) Bulbs – Ex: Onion
c) Corns – Ex: Colocasia d) Rhizome – Ex: Ginger e) Tuber – Ex: Potato
iii) Root – Ex: Roots of murayya, guava
Artificial propagation:
Cutting: Some plants can grow individual when a piece of parent plant having bud is cut off from the existing plants. Ex: Rose, Hibiscus.
Layering: A branch of the plant with at least one node is bent towards the ground and a part of it is covered with moist soil leaving the tip of the branch exposed above the ground. Ex: Nerium, Jasmine.
Grafting: Two plants are joint together in such a way that stems join and grow as a single plant one which is attached to soil is called stock and stem of another plant without roots is called scion. Both stock and scion are tied with a twine thread and cover by a polythene cover. Ex: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.

Question 16.
Read the following table and answer the following questions.

SI. No.	Structure	Location
1.	Tricuspid valve	Right auriculo-ventricular aperture
2.	Guard cells	Epidermis of leaves
3.	Glomerulus	Nephron
4.	Alveoli	Lungs
5.	Acrosome	Above the head of a sperm.

i) Name the structure concerned to the heart.
Answer:
Tricuspid valve

ii) What is the function of acrosome?
Answer:
It helps the sperm in penetrating into ovum.

iii) Name the structures which are helpful for gaseous exchange.
Answer:
Alveoli and guard cells

iv) Name the part performing Excretion.
Answer:
Glomerulus

Question 17.
a) Draw a neat and labelled diagram of Human female reproductive system.
b) What happens when the Fallopian tubes are closed?
Answer:
a) Female reproductive system
b) If fallopian tubes are closed the sperm can not reach the ova, fertilization will not happen and zygote will not form.

Question 18.
Observe the following table.

Reproduction system	Organisms
Fission	Paramoecium, Bacteria
Budding	Yeast, Hydra
Fragmentation	Flatworms, Spirogyra
Rhizome	Ginger, Turmeric
Cutting	Rose, Hibiscus
Grafting	Citrus, Apple

On the basis of information given in the table write- the answers to the following questions.
i) Write the names of two organisms that show Asexual reproduction.
Answer:
Yeast, Hydra, Bacteria, Paramoecium (any two you may write)

ii) Write two artificial vegetative propagation methods mentioned in the table.
Answer:
Cutting, Grafting

iii) Write the names of two plants, which undergo natural vegetative propagation mentioned in the table.
Answer:
Ginger, Turmeric

iv) In fission, how many organisms can we get from one organism?
Answer:
Two

Question 19.
Among the following organisms can we see asexual reproduction? Write about the method of asexual reproduction in any of the two organisms.
Answer:
а) Paramoecium b) Yeast c) Spirogyra d) Amoeba e) Planaria
Yes, we can see asexual reproduction in all the following organisms.

Method of asexual reproduction – Organism
Binary fission                                – Paramoecium, amoeba
Budding                                        – Yeast
Fragmentation                              – Spirogyra
Regeneration                                – Planaria

1) Binary fission in Paramoecium: A single cell divides into two equal daughter cells. First the cytoplasm divides into two parts followed by nuclear division.
2) Asexual reproduction in Yeast: Budding is the common method of asexual reproduction in yeast. In this method, yeast cell wall at a particular region becomes soft and bulges into an outgrowth called bud. Cytoplasm enters into this bulge and then nucleus divides mitotically into two nuclei, one moves into the bud. Finally bud is detached from the parent cell and grows into an independent yeast cell.

Question 20.
See the adjacent picture. Which type of pollination will occur in this ? Why do you think so?
Answer:

1. Self-pollination occurs if stamens and carpels matures at the same time.
2. If they mature at different times, cross pollination occurs.
3. Cross pollination occurs in this plant.
4. For cross pollination the pollen grains are carried from other plants belonging to the same species.
5. The mechanism of dispersal of pollen grains from one plant to other plant is facilitated mostly by wind and insects.
6. Cross pollination is believed to be advantageous for the plant.
7. The seeds produced by the flower will contain another source of genetic material
8. Which may contain genes which are advantageous to the survival of the seedlings.

Question 21.
What are the consequences if meiosis do not happen in the body cells of the organism?
Answer:

1. Each organism has a fixed number of chromosomes.
2. This number has to be maintained in its offspring.
3. Any sudden change in the number of chromosomes will be harmful to the offspring. Assume parent has 10 chromosomes.
4. In the absence of meiosis during sexual reproduction gametes will also have the same number of chromosomes as parent i.e., 10 chromosomes.
5. Union of female and male gametes occur forming zygote during sexual reproduction. The number of chromosomes doubled in zygote will have 10+10 chromosomes.
6. In the next generation, the offspring will have forty chromosomes. If this continues cells in the offsprings will have thousands of chromosomes within few generation.
7. This results in formation of abnormalities in each generation. Hence by way of meiotic division, the chromosome number is maintained constant from generation to generation.

Question 22.
Describe different artificial vegetative methods to produce large scale production of plants.
Answer:

1. Different artificial vegetative propagation methods are cutting, layering, grafting and tissue culture methods.
2. Cutting: Some plants grow individually when a piece of parent plant having bud is cut from the existing plant. After burying in the soil the cut parts having buds grow as an individual plant after developing roots. E.g. Rose.
3. Layering: A branch of the plant with at least one node is bent towards the ground and part of it is covered with moist soil. After sometime, new roots develop from the part of the branch hurried in the soil. The branch is then cut off from the parent plant. E.g: Nerium.
4. Grafting: Two plants are joined together in such a way that two stems join and grow as a single plant. This technique is very useful in propagating improved vari¬eties of various flower and fruits. Grafting is used to obtain a plant with desirable character. E.g: Mango, citrus, apple, rose.
5. Tissue culture: In this method, few plant cells or plant tissues are placed in a growth medium with plant hormones in it and it grows into new plants. Thousands of plants can be grown in very short interval of time.

Question 23.
i) Labelled parts of A, B, C, D above drawn Human female reproductive system.

ii) In which part fertilization takes place?
iii) Which part is in connection with implantation?
iv) What is ovulation?
Answer:
i) A: Fallopian tube
B: Ovary
C: Uterus
D: Vagina
ii) Fertilization takes place in fallopian tube.
iii) Uterus
iv) Release of ovum from graffian follicle of ovary is known as ovulation.

Question 24.
Write some programmes conducted by you to bring awareness in the people about health and hygeine and family planning?
Answer:

1. Organising Health camps on World Health day to people of the village.
2. Conducting immunisation programs for every three months.
3. Supplying tablets on the deworming day.
4. Organising seminars by expert doctors on individual health and cleanliness programs.
5. Propagating small family norms conducting camps for family planning operations.
6. Educating the masses through pamplets on the needs of taking balanced diet.
7. Need of using toilets and washing hands and legs before and after meals.
8. Educating the people by conducting adult education centres. This is basically required for enlightening the people on health aspects.

Question 25.
Government made an act on determining sex through ultrasound scanning and telling it as crime. What do you do to tell this to others?
Answer:

1. I will educate people knowing the sex of foetus inside mother’s womb is a severe crime as per the act made by government.
2. The purpose of ultrasound tests are to know the growing condition of the foetus and also to see whether it is suffering with severe ailments.
3. By knowing the sex of the foetus, if it is female people are ready for aborting it.
4. This leads to reduction in male female ratio in the country.
5. Children either male or female are equal to parents.
6. We should see proper development of girl child after her birth.

Question 26.
Write about the embryonic membranes that nourish, protect and support to the embryo?
Answer:

1. The growing embryo form two membranes – Chorion and Amnion.
2. Chorion establishes connection with the walls of the uterus and helps in the supply of nutrients to the embryo and in the removal of wastes from the embryo.
3. Amnion forms a sac like structure around the embryo and amniotic fluid is present between layers of Amnion.
4. Amnion and Amniotic fluid give protection to the embryo against mechanical shocks.
5. Placenta is a tissue formed around 12 weeks of pregnancy by the cells from the embryo and mother.
6. Embryo receives all the required nutrients and oxygen for its metabolism from the mother through the blood vessels present in the placenta.
7. Another membrane called allantois, which originates from the digestive canal of the embryo forms the major part of a tube like structure called umbilical cord.
8. Umbilical cord contains very important blood vessels that connect the embryo with the placenta.

Question 27.
Write brief history of cell division.
Answer:

1. In 1852 a German scientist, Robert Remak published his observations on cell division and stated that the binary fission of cells was the means of reproduction of animal cells.
2. This view was widely publicized by Rudolf Virchow who gave the phrase “Omnis cellulade cellula” means all cells arising from pre existing cells.
3. In 1879 Walther Flemming reported that there were string like structures in the nucleus which split longitudinally during cell division. He named the process as mitosis means fine threads as the dividing structures resembled threads.
4. Wilhelm Roux proposed that each chromosome carried a different set of heritable elements and suggested that the longitudinal splitting observed by Flemming ensured the equal division of these elements.
5. Combined with the rediscovery of Gregor Mendel’s 1866 paper on heritable elements in peas, these results highlighted the central role of the chromosomes in carrying heritable material or genetic material.
6. The scheme of mitotic division was confirmed in 1904 by Theodor Boveri.
7. The chemical nature of the genetic material was determined in a series of experiments over the next fifty years.
8. The structure of DNA – the constituent of the genetic material was determined in 1953 by James Watson and Francis Crick.

Question 28.
Explain briefly about child birth. (OR) How child birth occurs after gestation period?
Answer:

1. Total time required for the embryonic and foetal development is about 9 months or 280 days.
2. After this time, foetus is expelled from the uterus by the mother. This is child birth.
3. Child birth is a complicated process and involves the participation of child and mother.
4. The foetal hormones produced inside, stimulate the contraction of the muscles present in the walls of uterus.
5. These contractions called labour pains help in the expulsion of the foetus from the uterus.
6. During this process the amnion ruptures, placenta is separated from the walls of J the uterus.
7. At child birth the head usually comes out first.
8. The foetus is still attached to the mother’s uterus through the umbilical cord, which is later separated by the doctors.

Question 29.
Draw the life history of flowering plant in the form of block diagram.
Answer:
Life history of a flowering plant:

Question 30.
In a flower self fertilization takes place. Write the process, the flower organs which involve in self fertilization.
Answer:

1. Fusion of male and female gametes produced by the same individual is called self fertilization.
2. Self ferlization occurs in bisexual flowering plants.
3. The flower organs which involve in self fertilization are stamens (androecium) and carpels (Gynoecium).
4. Majority of flowering plants have an embryo sac consisting of seven cells and eight nuclei.
   
5. The pollen grains produced by anther of stamen are transferred to the stigma of the same flower by wind or insects.
6. The stigma of the carpel secretes a sticky substance which promotes the growth of pollen grains.
7. Under favourable conditions pollen grains germinate on the stigma and give rise to pollen tubes.
   Only one pollen tube finally reaches the embryo sac.
8. This pollen tube will have two male nuclei, which migrate to the tip of the pollen tube at the time of fertilization. Usually the pollen tube enters the ovule through micropyle and discharges the two male gametes into its embryo-sac.
9. One male nucleus (gamete) approaches the egg and fuses with it to form a diploid zygote. This is first fertilization.
10. The other male nucleus reaches the secondary nucleus (2n) and fuses with it to form the endosperm nucleus which will be triploid. This is second fertilization in the embryo sac.
11. Thus double fertilization occurs in embryo sac which is unique in flowering plants.

Question 31.
Describe the structure of flower with a neatly labelled diagram.
Answer:

1. A typical flower consists of an outer whorl of green sepals (calyx) which protects the parts with in.
2. The second whorl has petals (corolla) which are usually brightly coloured. They sometimes emit fragrance also.
3. Petals are soft and are useful to attract insects to facilitate cross pollination.
   
4. The third whorl of the flower consists of stamens (Androecium) which are the male reproductive organs.
5. Each stamen is made up of a filament and an anther.
6. Each anther usually has two anther lobes. The anther produces pollen grains (microspores).
7. The inner most fourth whorl is gynoecium or pistil. It consists of ovary, style and stigma.
8. Ovary occupies central portion on the thalamus. A swollen ovary is present on the thalamus.
9. Inside the ovary future seeds, known as ovules are present.
10. Ovary has a pipe like extension called style. The tip of the style ends in stigma. The stigma receive the pollen grains.

Question 32.
Write a brief note on male reproductive system of human beings.
Answer:

1. The male reproductive system of human beings consists of a pair of testis, accessory glands and a system of ducts.
2. Testis are male reproductive organs and produces spermotozoa or sperms and also secretes male sex hormone Testosterone.
   
3. Inside each testis several lobules are present. Each lobule has several tubules called seminiferous tubules.
4. Germinal epithelial cells in the seminiferous tubules undergo meiotic division to produce sperms.
5. The accessory glands include one prostrate gland and two cowper glands. Secretion of these glands produce semen.
6. The duct system consists of vasa efferentia.
   They collect spermatozoa from seminiferous tubules.
7. Vasefferentia continue as epididymis where sperms are stored temporarily.
8. From epididymis sperms moved into tubule called vas deference and then into urethra.

Question 33.
Describe the female reproductive system in human beings.
Answer:

1. A pair of ovaries, oviducts, uterus and vagina are the parts present in female reproductive system.
2. Ovaries are present just below the Kidneys in the abdominal cavity.
3. Each ovary has several sac like structures called ovarian follicles or Graffian follicles.
   
4. Every time only one follicle matures and release one ovum into the body cavity.
5. Ovaries secrete two female sex hormones called oestrogen and progesterone which control the development of female reproductive organs, ovulation and menstruation.
6. Just above the ovaries are the tubes called oviducts or fallopian tubes where fertilisation takes place.
7. The two oviducts connect to a bag like organ called uterus at their other ends.
8. The uterus is connected through a narrow opening called cervix to another tube called vagina which opens to the outside of the body.
9. Vagina is a tubular structure and is also called birth canal because it is through this passage that the baby is born after the completion of development inside the uterus of the mother.

Question 34.
Describe briefly about the reduction division or meiosis.
(OR)
Why meiosis is also known as reduction division? Comment on it.
Answer:

1. Meiosis occurs only during the formation of gametes in sexual reproduction.
2. During meiosis only one set of chromosomes are passed on to the daughter cells. Hence daughter cells have half the number of chromosomes of the mother cells.
   
3. In meiosis karyokinesis and cytokinesis occur two times.
4. During first phase of meiosis the parent cell divides twice, though the chromosomes divide only once.
5. The second phase meiosis is similar to normal mitosis, but chromosomes do not duplicate more over the chromosome number distributed equally to each cells.
6. Thus the four daughter cells have just half the number of chromosomes of the parent cells.
7. These are haploid (containing only one set of chromosomes).
8. Thus meiotic division is also called reduction division.

Question 35.
Describe the developmental stages of human embryo after fertilization with the help of neatly labelled diagrams.
Answer:

1. During fertilization, chromosomes of the ovum and the chromosomes of the sperm make up into pairs and the resulting cell is called zygote.
2. Fertilization takes place in the oviduct or fallopian tube.
   
3. The zygote which is diploid travels down the fallopian tube. As it moves it undergoes several mitotic divisions forming the embryonic stage called blastocyst.
4. Blastocyst moves towards the wall of the uterus and finally gets attached and embedded in the wall of the uterus. This is called implantation.
5. The growing embryo forms two membranes Chorion and Amnion.
6. Chorion establishes connection with the walls of the uterus and helps in the supply of nutrients to the embryo and removal of wastes from the embryo.
7. Amnion forms a sac like structure around the embryo. The space between the amnion and embryo is filled with a fluid called amniotic fluid.
8. Amnion and amniotic fluid give protection to the embryo against minor mechanical injury.
9. Placenta is a tissue formed by the cells from the embryo and the mother. It is formed around 12 weeks of pregnancy.
10. Placenta nourishes the growing embryo.
    
11. A tough cord called umbilical cord is also formed by the embryo which is connected to the walls of the uterus through the placenta.
12. From 3 months of pregnancy, the embryo is called foetus.
13. Pregnancy lasts on an average 9 months or 280 days. This period is called gestation period.
14. After this time foetus is expelled from the uterus by the mother – this is child birth.
15. This process is complicated and involves the participation of foetus and mother.

These AP 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 19th Lesson Social and Religious Reform Movements will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social 19th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Social and Religious Reform Movements

Question 1.
Compare the efforts of Narayana Guru and Jyotiba Phule. What similarities do you see between them?
Answer:

1. Both opposed caste system.
2. Both established many schools.
3. Both opposed the supremacy of Brahmins.

Question 2.
Recall the teachings of Buddha with regard to the caste system.
Answer:
Buddha preached that ‘All are equal’. He opposed caste and religious discriminations. He treated all his followers equal.

Question 3.
What are the similarities in the approaches of Gandhiji and Ambedkar towards dalits?
Answer:

1. Both worked for dalits.
2. Both were the members of Congress Party.

Question 4.
Do you find any religious idea advocated by the above reformers which was not part of the Bhakti Movement?
Answer:
No. All the reformers advocated the religious ideas of the Bhakti Movement only.

Question 5.
Do you think dalits have equal access to temples, water sources and schools today? What problems do they still face?
Answer:
At present dalits have equal access to temples, water sources and schools. To say frankly they have equal access and reservations also. So we can say that there were no social problems to them.

Question 6.
What did Ambedkar want to achieve through the temple entry movement?
Answer:
Ambedkar wanted to say that ‘All are equal before God and everyone has rights on God”.

Question 7.
Do you think today equal importance is given to the education of girls or do girls still face discrimination?
Answer:
Equal importance is given to girls education with boys. To be frank the girl enrolment is more than boys in some schools and colleges. But in some families girls face discrimination, mostly in some backward states.

Question 8.
What problems do girls face in getting educated which boys do not face?
Answer:

1. Girls are not encouraged for higher education.
2. Girls are not permitted to far off places for education.
3. Some courses are only meant for boys.

Question 9.
To what extent has the treatment of widows changed today?
Answer:
We can say that the attitude of the society is changed. Widows are treated equally with other women. Their elders are only arranging remarriages for them.

Question 10.
Do dalit girls and Muslim girls face special problems in education even today?
Answer:
Nowadays we seldom hear such a news from newspapers that dalit girls are facing some problems from others. They are also receiving education in classrooms along with others. Muslim girls also have separate schools. They are also studying without problems.

Question 11.
Who founded Brahmo Samaj in combined Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
Veeresalingam founded Brahma Samaj in combined Andhra Pradesh.

Question 12.
On what did Veeresalingam concentrate all his efforts and energies?
Answer:
Veerasalingam concentrated all his efforts and energies on the widow remarriage and abolition of child marriage.

Question 13.
Why was Veeresalingam called ‘Gadya Tikkana’?
Answer:
He was called ‘Gadya Tikkana’ for his writings in prose.

Question 14.
How would the feeling that the dalits were the orginal inhabitants of Telangana and Andhra have helped in boosting the confidence of the dalits?
Answer:
The feeling would raise the confidence in dalits. This confidence would strengthen them in fighting against the discrimination. That led them to their success.

Question 15.
Did all women get the right to vote in independent India?
Answer:
Yes, all women get the right to vote in independent India.

Question 16.
Locate the following in the given India Map.

1. West Bengal
2. Punjab
3. Bombay
4. Aligarh
5. Bhopal
6. Kerala

Answer:

These AP 10th Class Maths Chapter Wise Important Questions Chapter 6 Progressions will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Maths 6th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Progressions

Question 1.
Check whether – 25 is a term in the progression 5, 3, 1, ………….or not ?
Solution:
The given 5, 3, 1,…………..is an arithmetic
progression here
a = 5, d = a₂ – a₂ = 3 – 5 = -2
Let -25 is some of ‘n’th term
i.e. a_n – 25
So a_n = a + (n-1)d
-25 = 5 + (n – 1)(- 2)
– 25 – 5 = (n – 1) (-2)
\(\frac{-30}{-2}\) = n – 1
⇒  n – 1 = 15 and n = 15+ 1 = 16
So – 25 exist at 16th term in above series.

Question 2.
Find out the common ratio in the GP 2, 2\(\sqrt{2},\),4…………..
Solution:
The given GP is 2, 2\(\sqrt{2},\), 4, ………………
The common ratio = \(\frac{a_{2}}{a_{1}}=\frac{2 \sqrt{2}}{2}=\sqrt{2}\)

Question 3.
Show that the sum of multiples of 3 bet-ween 1 and 100 is 1683.
Solution:
To show the sum of multiples of 3 bet-ween 1 and 100 is 1683.
The multiples of 3, in between 1 and 100 are 3, 6, 9, 12,… 99 which is an A.P.
In which a = 3, d = 6 – 3 = 3
and number of terms = \(\frac{99}{3}\) = 33.
Now sum of 33 terms of A.P.
3, 6, 9, …. 99 is
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\)(a + l)
= \(\frac{33}{2}\) (3 + 99)
= \(\frac{33 \times 102}{2}\)
= 51 × 33
∴ Sum of multiples of ‘3’ = 1683

Question 4.
Find the 8^th term of the A.P., 117, 104, 91, 78, ………………
Solution:
In the given A.P., a₁ = 117, a₂ = 104
Common difference d = a₂ – a₁
= 104 – 117
= -13
∴ 8^th term t₈ = a₁ + 7d
= 117 + 7(-13)
= 117 – 91 = 26

Question 5.
Find the common difference of the terms of A.P.
(x – y), (x + y), (x + 3y), ……………
Solution:
Given terms of A.P = (x – y), (x + y), (x + 3y)
then common difference = difference of successive terms
= (x + y) – (x – y) = x + y – x + y = 2y
∴ Common difference of given AP = 2y

Question 6.
\(\frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{16}, \frac{1}{64}, \frac{1}{256}\), ………….. are in G.P. justify.
Solution:
To justify \(\frac{1}{4}, \frac{1}{16}, \frac{1}{64}, \frac{1}{256}\), ………….. is a G.P.
We need to show the ratio of any two successive terms is equal.
Now the common ratio
= r₁\(\frac{1}{16} \div \frac{1}{4}=\frac{1}{4}\)
r₂ = \(\frac{1}{64} \div \frac{1}{16}=\frac{1}{4}\) ⇒ r₁ = r₂
Hence it is a G.P.

Question 7.
State Fundamental Theorem of Arith-metic. Model PapeF
Solution:
Statement of Fundamental Theorem of Arithmetic “Every composite number can be expressed as a product of , primes, and this factorization is unique”.

Question 8.
Find the numbe of terms in the follow¬ing A.P.
7,13,19, …………….. ,205
Solution:
Given : 7, 13, 19 …………….., 205 are in A.P
a = 7, d = 6
Let a_n = 205
a + (n – 1)d = 205 7 + (n – 1)6 = 205 .
(n- 1)6 = 205 -7 (n-1)6 =198 (n – 1) = 33 ⇒ n = 34
Number of terms in the given A.P is 34.

Question 9.
n^th term of an A.P. is a_n . If a₁ + a₂ + a₃ = 102 and a₁ = 15, then find a₁₀.
Solution:
Given a₁ = 15 and a₁ + a₂ + a₃ =102
a + a + d + a + 2d = 102
⇒ 3a + 3d = 102
⇒ 3 (a + d) = 102
∴ (a + d) = \(\frac{102}{3}\) = 34
⇒ d = 34 – a = 34 – 15 = 19
∴ a = 15, 0 = 19
then its 10^th term = a₁₀
= a + (10 – 1)d
= a + 9d = 15 + 9(19)
= 15 + 171 = 186
∴ 10^th term of it = 186

Question 10.
How many three digit numbers are divisible by 3 ? Mar. *18|
Solution:
3 Digit numbers which are divisible by
3 are 102, 105, 108, ……………. 999
a = 102, d = 3, n^th term = 999
a + (n – 1)d = 999
102 + (n- 1) .3 = 999
(n- 1)3 = 897
n – 1 = \(\frac{897}{3}\) = 299
n = 300
∴ No. of three digit numbers which are divisible by 3 is 300.

Question 11.
If the sum of first 15 terms of an A.P. is 675 and its first term is 10, then find
25^th term.
Solution:
In an A,P. first term = a = 10
Sum of first 15 terms
S₁₅ = \(\frac{15}{2}\) (2a + 14d) = 675
⇒ \(\frac{15}{2}\) x 2(10 + 7d) = 675
⇒ 10 + 7d = \(\frac{675}{15}\)
⇒ 10 + 7d = 45
⇒ 7d = 35
∴ d = 5
∴ 25^th term = a25 = a + 24d
= 10 + 24 × 5 = 10 + 120 = 130

Question 12.
The first term of a G.P. is 50 and 4^th term is 1350. Find the 5^th term.
Solution:
Let first term of a GP is ‘a’ and com¬mon ratio is ‘r’.
Given that t₁ = a = 50
4^th term t₄ = ar³ = 1350
⇒ 50r³ = 1350 r³ = \(\frac{1350}{50}\) = 27
∴ r = 3
5^th term t₅ = ar⁴

Question 13.
Check whether -256 is term of G.P -4, -8, -16, ……………
Solution:
The given GP = -4, -8, -16, ……………
∴ a = -4, r = \(\frac{-8}{-4}\) = 2
Let the given -256 is ‘n’^th term of given GP.
∴ t_n ar^n-1 = -256
⇒ -4(2)^n-1 = -256
⇒ 2^n-1 = \(\frac{-256}{-4}\) = 64
2^n-1 = 64 = 2⁶
⇒ n -1 = 6
⇒ n = 6 + 1 = 7
-256 is ‘7’^th term of given G.P.

Question 14.
A sum of Rs. 1,000 is invested at 8% simple interest per year. Calculate the interest at the end of each year. Do these interests for 1st, 2nd and 3 rd years form an A.P. ? If so, find the total in¬terest to be paid for 30 years making the use of this fact.
Solution:
Sum invested = P = Rs. 1000
Rate of interest = R = 8%
Time of investment = 1 year
∴ Amount of interest (simple)

So the amount of interest for the
years 1, 2, 3, …………….are
80, 160, 240,….. are in an A.P.
In which the first term (a) 5= 80 Common difference (d) = a₂ – a₁
= 160 – 80 = 80
∴ The amount of interest to be paid in 30 years of time = S₃₀
S_n = j [2a + (n- l)d]
= \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2(80) + (30 – 1) 80]
= 15[160 + 29(80)]
= 15[160 + 2320]
= 2480 × 15 – Rs. 37200
∴ Rs, 37200 will be paid towards interest for 30 years.

Question 15.
If the sum of first 7 terms and 15 terms of an A.P. are 98 and 390 respectively, then find the sum of first 10 terms.
Solution:
Sum of the first 7 terms of AP = 98
\(\frac{7}{2}\)[2a + (7-1)d] = 98
2a + 6d = 98 × \(\frac{2}{7}\)
2a + 6d = 28
a + 3d = 14 ……………..(1)
Sum of the first 15 terms of AP = 390
\(\frac{15}{2}\) [2a + (15 – 1)d] = 390
2a + 14d = 390 × \(\frac{2}{15}\)
2a + 14d – 52
a + 7d = 26 ……………(2)
by solving (1) and (2)
a = 5 and d = 3
Sum of the first 10 terms 10
= \(\frac{10}{2}\) [2a + (10 – 1)d]
– 5[2(5) + 9(3)]
= 5[10 + 27]
= 5 × 37 = 185

Question 16.
Check whether – 321 is a term of the A.P.: 22,15, 8, 1, …………..
Solution:
Given A.P is 22, 15, 8, 1, ……………….
Let a_n = – 321
a = 22, d = -7
a_n = a + (n – 1)d
-321 = 22 + (n – 1) (-7)
– 321 = 22 – 7n + 7
– 321 – 29 — – 7n
– 350 – – 7n
n = \(\frac{350}{7}\) = 50
∴ – 321 be a term of given A.P. i.e., 50.

Question 17.
A man saved ₹ 16,500 in ten years. In each year, after the first, he saved ₹ 100 more than he did in the preceding year. How much aid he save in the first year?
Solution:
Given that S₁₀ = ₹ 16,500; d = ₹ 100; n = 10; a = ?
S_n = \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2a + (n – 1)d]
16,500 = \(\frac{10}{2}\) [2a + (10-1) 100]
16,500 = 5(2a + 900)
\(\frac{16,500}{5}\) = 2a + 900
2a + 900 = 3300
2a = 2400
a = \(\frac{2400}{2}\) = 1200
He saved in the first year = ₹ 1200

Question 18.
An A.P. has 21 terms. The sum of 10^th, 11^th, 12^th terms is 129. The sum of the last 3 terms is 237, then find the A.P.
Solution:
(a + 9d) + (a + 10d) + (a + 11d) = 129
3a + 30d = 129
a + 10d = 43 …………..(1)
(a + 18d) + (a + 19d) + (a + 20d) = 237
3a + 57d = 237
a + 19d = 79 ………………(2)

‘d’ value substituting in equation (1)
a + 10(4) = 43
a = 43 – 40 = 3
∴ a = 3
∴ Required A.P. is 3, 7, 11, 15, 19,…

Question 19.
Find the 13th term of the A.P. 2, 7, 12, ……………..
Solution:
In the given A.P. 2, 7, 12, ……………….
The first term (a) = 2
Common difference (d) = a₂ – a₂₁
= 7 – 2 = 5
The required term (n) = 13
Formula for nth term in an A.P. is a_n = a + (n – 1) d ,
Then a₁₃ = 2 + (13 -1)5 = 2 + 12 (5)
= 2 + 60 = 62
So 13th term = 62

Question 20.
In an A.P. the common difference (d) is 6 and seventh term is 36. Can we write such an A.P. ?
Solution:
Yes, we can write the above said A.P.
In the given A.P. (d) = 6
Seventh term a7 = 36
a₇ = a + 6d = 36
⇒ a + 6 (6) = 36
∴ a = 36 – 36 = 0
∴ In the given progression a = 0 and d = 6 then it is 0, 6, 12, 18, …………

Question 21.
The ‘n’ th term of a given A.P. is 6n+2. Then write the first four terms in it.
Solution:
In the given A.P. a_n = 6n + 2
Then the first term = a₁
= 6(1) + 2 = 6 + 2 = 8
Second term = a₂ = 6 (2) + 2
= 12 + 2 = 14
Third term = a₃ = 6 (3) + 2
= 18 + 2 = 20
Fourth term = a₄ = 6 (4) + 2
= 24 + 2 = 26
So the first four terms in that A.P. are 8, 14, 20, 26.

Question 22.
In an A.P. the seventh term is 13 and 3rd term is 7. So find ‘a’ and ‘d’ in the method of elimination.
Solution:
In an A.P. the ‘n’th term = a_n
= a + (n – 1) d
Then a₇ = a + (7 – 1) d
= a + 6d = 13 …………..(1)
and a₃ = a + (3 – 1) d
= a + 2d = 7 ………….. (2)
Now solving equations (1) & (2) in elimination method

Then a + 2d = 7
a + 2 (1.5) = 7 ⇒ a + 3 = 7
and a = 7 – 3 = 4
So a = 4 and d = 1.5

Question 23.
Which terms are to be known to cal-culate ‘n’ th term of A.P. ?
Solution:
The formula for ‘n’ th term of an A.P. is a_n = a + (n – 1) d
The variables in. the above formula are a, d, n .
So we should have the above three to calculate a_n.

Question 24.
Establish the relationship between the first and ‘n’th term of an A.P. in which ‘d’ = 0.
Solution:
Let the first term of that A.P. is ‘a’.
Then common difference (d) = 0 given then nth term = a + (n – 1) d
= a + (n – 1) (0)
= a + 0 = a
∴ a_n = a
So, when d = 0 is given the ‘n’th term of an A.P. (a_n) is equal to its first term (a).

Question 25.
What will be the salary of a person in the year 2020, whose salary in the year 2016 is Rs. 10,000, which in¬creases Rs. 1500 every year ?
Solution:
As the increase (increment) is fixed then it becomes a_n A.P.
His starting salary in 2016,
= First term of that AP (a)
So (a) = 10,000/-
Increase of salary in every year = Common difference
(d) = Rs. 1500/-
∴ His salary in 2020= 5th term in that A.P.
∴ a₅ = a + (n – 1) d
= 10,000 + (5 – 1) (1500)
= 10,000 + 4 (1500)
= 10,000 + 6000 = 16,000/-
His salary in year 2020 is 16000/-

Question 26.
Parking fee for a two wheeler is Rs. 10 per day. i.e., for first day, and then after Rs. 2 for everyday. So what will be the amount to be paid for 15 days ?
Solution:
The additional payment for each day- is fixed. Hence the payments to be made are in G.P. .
Here in this problem
Charges for first day
= First term of AP (a)
∴ a = Rs. 10
Additional charge for each day = Rs. 2
∴ Common difference (d) = 2/-
∴ The A.P. is 10, 12, 14, 16, …………….. (15 terms)
The total amount to be paid for 15 days is S₁₅ = ?
Formula for S_n = \(\) [2a + (n – 1) d]
S₁₅= \(\frac{n}{2}\) [2(10) + (15-1) (2)]
S₁₅= \(\frac{15}{2}\)[20 + 14(2)]
= \(\frac{15}{2}\)[20 + 28]
= \(\frac{15}{2}\) x 48
= 15 × 24 = 360.00
So he has to pay Rs. 360 for 15 days parking.

These AP 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 11A Lesson National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919 will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social 11A Lesson Important Questions and Answers National Movement: The Early Phase 1885-1919

Question 1.
What do you understand by Swadeshi?
Answer:
I understood Swadeshi ‘as goods produced in our own country’.

Question 2.
If authorities do not agree to the just requests of people, what do you think the people should do?
Answer:
The requests should be not only just but also legal. If the authorities do not agree, one should oppose them democratically and attain them.

Question 3.
What were the major areas of swadeshi’s impact?
Answer:

1. Political
2. Social
3. Industrial
4. Foreign trade
5. Spiritual
6. Business (National trade)
7. Education
8. Cultural
9. Judicial.

Question 4.
What is meant by ‘Swaraj’?
Answer:
Swaraj means complete independence.

Question 5.
What is the slogan of Tilak?
Answer:
“Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it”.

Question 6.
A few leaders like Gandhiji, Tilak, Subhash Chandra Bose, Bhagat Singh sacrified their lives for the sake of our nation.
What would have happened, if they did not do so?
Answer:
The British would have plundered our nation’s wealth more and more. The people of our country would have been suffered as slaves under the British rule and India would have become a very poor country.

Question 7.
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
In the next Congress session (1905), the extremist Nationalists led by Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pai and Lala Lajapat Rai were in favour of extending the movement to the rest of India and to demand for full fledged freedom or ‘Swaraj’. Bal Gangadhar Tilak gave the famous slogan, “Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.” They wanted to move away from the earlier strategy of submitting petitions to government to mobilising the masses against the British rule and forcing the British to give up and go. They called the earlier strategy as ‘mendicancy’ (or begging for alms). The old leaders, called ‘Moderate nationalists’.

1) Name any two extremists.
Answer:
Tilak, Bipin Chandrapal.

2) What is meant by ‘Swaraj’?
Answer:
Swaraj means complete independence.

3) What is the slogan of Tilak?
Answer:
Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.

4) How did they call the policy of moderates?
Answer:
They called it ‘mendicancy’.

5) What did the moderates do?
Answer:
The moderates tried with petitions.

Question 8.
Read the following passage and write a meaningful question.
In Class VII, you had read about the revolt of 1857 in which the soldiers, ordinary peasants, artisans and landlords and even princes joined the struggle against the British rule. While the movement was opposed to the British, it did not have any new vision of the country. It in fact wanted to restore the rule of the old kings and queens and also the same caste based society.
Answer:
“Why did the 1857 revolution fail?”

These AP 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 6th Lesson The People will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social 6th Lesson Important Questions and Answers The People

10th Class Social 6th Lesson The People 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How is sex-ratio calculated?
Answer:
Sex ratio can be calculated with the number of females per 1000 males in the population.

Question 2.
As 2011 Census, the population has increased to 121 crores approximately in India. Write any two reasons for it.
Answer:

1. Early marriages.
2. Illiteracy.
3. Superstitions.
4. Advancement in Medical Science.

Question 3.
Give the main reason for decreasing the death rate during the last decade in India.
Answer:

1. Decline in the death rate is due to effective control of dreadful epidemic diseases through the advancement of medical technology and the health-care delivery system.
2. Spread of education, development of science and technology and effective use of the resources have given greater scope and prospects for sustainability.

Question 4.
Observe the following table and answer the questions a, b, c and d.

Male, Female Literacy rate in India.

Year	Female Literacy	Male Literacy	Literacy rate
1961	15.35%	40.45%	28.30%
1971	21.97%	45.96%	34.45%
1981	29.76%	56.38%	43.57%
1991	39.29%	63.13%	52.21%
2001	54.67%	75.26%	64.84%
2011	65.46%	82.14%	74.04%

(a) By what percentage is male literacy more than that of female in 2011?
Answer:
Male literacy is more than that of female in 2011 is 16.68%.

(b) What information does the above table give us?
Answer:
The above table gives us the information about male and female literacy rate in India during 1961 – 2011.

(c) In which period is the literacy rate increased more?
Answer:
The literacy rate increased more during the period 1991 – 2001.

(d) How do you understand female literacy?
Answer:

1. When compared with male literacy, female literacy rate is low.
2. In 1961 female literacy is very low. But it is an increasing level. During 1991 – 2001 female literacy is highly increased.

Question 5.
Observe the given bar graph and answer the questions.

(a) What does the above graph tell about?
Answer:
The above graph tells about India Population – Sex Ratio (1951 – 2011).

(b) What does the change in sex ratio show when compared with 1991 year to that of 2011 year ?
Answer:
The sex ratio is increased (929 to 940)

(c) What do you mean by sex ratio?
Answer:
Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males in the population.

(d) Mention the reason behind the low female population in India.
Answer:

1. Gender discrimination
2. Illiteracy
3. Lack of Medical facilities
4. Not providing nutritious food.
5. Parental attitude

Question 6.
What processes influence the change in population size?
Answer:
The processes that influence the change in population size are

1. births
2. deaths
3. migrations

Question 7.
Observe the following table and answer questions a and b.
Census 2011 – Data related to literacy rate in Kerala and Bihar

Rank	State	Literacy rate	Male literacy rate	Female literacy rate
1	Kerala	94%	96%	92%
2	Bihar	64%	73%	53%

(a) What is table about?
Answer:
The table is about literary rate in Kerala and Bihar considering census 2011.

(b) Mention one reason for low literacy rate among the women.
Answer:
Reasons for low literacy rate among the women:

• Following traditions and conventions
• Less priority to girl education

Question 8.
How much percent of the working people in India are in the unorganised sector?
Answer:
Ninety-two percent of the working people in India are in the unorganised sector.

Question 9.
What is important regarding population study?
Answer:
It is important to understand population numbers, its distribution and characteristics that provide the basic background for understanding and appreciating the other aspects.

Question 10.
What does the Census of India provide?
Answer:
The Census of India provides us with infor-mation regarding the population of our country.

Question 11.
What is a census?
Answer:
A census is a procedure of systematically acquiring and recording information about the members of a given population.

Question 12.
Who collects the census?
Answer:
A central government institution, the Census of India, organizes the collection and record¬ing of this information.

Question 13.
What does the age structure of a population refer to?
Answer:
The age structure of a population refers to the number of males and females in different age groups in a country.

Question 14.
How can we group the population of a nation?
Answer:
The population of a nation is generally grouped into three broad categories:

1. Children (Below 15 years),
2. Working-age (15-59 years),
3. Aged (Above 59 years)

Question 15.
Who gets retirement pension?
Answer:
Those who work and retire in organised sector may get retirement pension.

Question 16.
What is sex ratio?
Answer:
Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males in the population.

Question 17.
What does the sex ratio indicate?
Answer:
The sex ratio indicates a hidden form of discrimination.

Question 18.
What does medical research show?
Answer:
Medical research shows that given similar circumstances girl children survive much better than boys.

Question 19.
What does the census show regarding child births? Give reasons for that.
Answer:
The census shows that in the age group 0-5, the number of girls who survive is much lower than boys. This can only happen if there is some discrimination in their care and nutrition otherwise the physical chance of survival is better for girls.

Question 20.
Which tend towards unequal sex ratios? Give reason for that.
Answer:
Regions that have unequal gender relations that favour the males and discriminate against the females tend towards unequal sex ratios. This can happen even though they have high incomes.

Question 21.
Give an example of the state which has positive sex ratio.
Answer:
Kerala.

Question 22.
What are the reasons for female foetus infanticide?
Answer:
Due to the preference for male children parents may decide to abort female child before birth. Many adults consider female children as a burden.

Question 23.
Write about women’s education.
Answer:
Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women. There is definitive evidence that women’s literacy and schooling reduce child mortality and work against the selective neglect of the health of girls.

Question 24.
Who is treated as literate?
Answer:
According to the Census of 2011, a person aged 7 years and above who can read and write with understanding in any language is treated as literate.

Question 25.
What is literacy?
Answer:
Literacy: Literacy is key for socio-economic progress.

Question 26.
Write an account of literacy rate.
Answer:
At independence in 1947,12% of the population was literate. In 2001, it was 64.84%.lt grew to 74.04% by 2011. However, the 2011 Census shows that there is a wide disparity in literacy rates for men (82.14%) and women (65.46%).

Question 27.
Write the equation of population change.
Answer:
Population change (absolute numbers) = (Population at later date) – (Population at earlier date)

Question 28.
Write the equation of population change in a place.
Answer:
Population change in a place = (number of births + number of in-migrants) -(number of deaths + number of out-migrants). A positive number means the population has increased by that number. A negative number shows it has decreased by that number.

Question 29.
What is birth rate?
Answer:
Birth rate is the number of live births per thousand persons in a year.

Question 30.
What is death rate?
Answer:
Death rate is the number of deaths per thousand persons in a year.

Question 31.
What is the change in birth rate and death rate at present?
Answer:
There has been the rapid decline in death rates but till recent times, birth rates were not decreasing substantially.

Question 32.
Why did the famines decline after 1900?
Answer:
After 1900 famines declined because of famine relief, movement of grain, ration shops and an active public voice in a democracy.

Question 33.
Why are some children forced to work?
Answer:
Some children are forced to work because of economic conditions.

Question 34.
Why does the population size change?
Answer:
The population is dynamic. The numbers, distribution and composition of the population are always changing. This is because of the interaction of the three processes:

1. births,
2. deaths and
3. migrations.

Question 35.
What is the change in population size? How it can be expressed?
Answer:
The change in the size of a population is the difference in the number of inhabitants of a country/territory during a say during the last ten years. Such a change can be expressed in two ways, (1) as absolute numbers, or (2) as a percentage change.

Question 36.
Write some reasons for population growth in India.
Answer:

1. High birth rate
2. Low death rate
3. Improvement in medical facilities.
4. High fertility rate in young couples.
5. A decline in fancies
6. Illiteracy.

Question 37.
What are the factors that influence population densities in states like Assam?
Answer:
Assam and most of the peninsular states have moderate population densities. Hilly, dissected and rocky nature of the terrain, moderate to low rainfall, shallow and less fertile soils have influenced population densities in these areas.

Question 38.
Why do the plains have very high density of population?
Answer:
The northern Plains and the plain in the south have, high to very high population, densities, because of the flat plains with fertile soils and abundant rainfall.

10th Class Social 6th Lesson The People 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph.
A distressing aspect of gender bias in India that shows little sign of going away is the preference for boys over girls. One of the worst manifestations of this pro-male bias is the relatively high mortality rates of girls compared with boys. Many families consider female children as a burden. Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women.
“Due to the difference in sex ratio, what would be the impact on society ?” Explain.
Answer:

1. Female population will decrease.
2. In future male population may not get marriages.
3. Family system may collapse.
4. Gender bias may increase in the society.
5. The problem of criminality in our society will increase.

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given question.
India is one of the most densely populated countries of the world. The population density of India in the year 2011 was 382 persons per sq km. Densities vary from 904 persons per sq km in West Bengal to only 13 persons per sq km in Arunachal Pradesh.
What are the reasons for high population density in West Bengal and low population density in Arunachal Pradesh?
Answer:

1. West Bengal is located in fertile deltas of River Ganga.
2. It supports agriculture and industrial development and suitable for living.
3. Arunachal Pradesh is in hilly terrain and covered by snow in vast areas.
4. So, it is not suitable for human habitation and have low density of population.

Question 3.
“Sex ratio is the number of females per 1000 males in the population. In 1951 there were 946 females per 1000 males in India. In 1991 there were 929 per 1000 males and 933 in 2001 and 940 in 2011 respectively.”
Draw a table based on the information given below:
Answer:

S.No.	Year	Sex ratio
1.	1951	946
2.	1991	929
3.	2001	933
4.	2011	940

Question 4.
Study the following graph and answer the given questions.
a) In which year, the highest sex-ratio was recorded?
Answer: 1951.
b) Identify the reasons for low sex-ratio in India.
Answer:

1. Gender Bias.
2. Superstitions

Question 5.
People often talk of population growth in alarmed tones. Why?
Answer:

1. It population increases, availability of infrastructural facilities will become less.
2. It may also leads to food shortage.
3. Deforestation and global natural destruction is one of the problem.
4. A huge population causes huge demands like foods, water, clothes etc. As per the population growth the trees were cut down for construction of the house and factories.
5. Due to this natural resources will be depleted.

Question 6.
Write your observations about the population growth in india, from the graph given below:
Answer:
I observed the following reasons:

1. Population census have been taken for every 10 years.
2. From the year 1921 onwards population increases very highly due to the following reasons.
   1. Improved medical facilities.
   2. Declination of the impact of famines.

The other factors which are responsible for high growth rate of population:

1. Contact with western nations, in particular Great Britain, brought with it western medicine.
2. The infant mortality rate dropped.
3. The life expectancy rose.
4. As the largest democratic nation in the world, India has been unable to force population controls.
5. High fertility rate due to early marriages.
6. Some religious superstitions, etc.

Question 7.
Observe the following graph and write a paragraph analyzing it.
Answer:

1. The bar graph is about male, female sex ratio of India.
2. It gives the sex ratio in 1991, 2001 and 2011.
3. Sex ratio is increasing from 1991 to 2011.
4. The sex ratio in India is a cause of concern. Ever since independence, it has been constantly decreasing and with 940 in 2011 it is also alarming.

Question 8.
Prepare two slogans on ‘Control of popula-tion growth’.
Answer:

1. Slogan should reflect the theme of controlling population growth.
2. Slogan should be divided around two equal halves.

Examples:

1. More Population – More problems.
2. Control the Population – Enjoy nature.
3. Small family – Happy family.
4. Reduce the crowd – Have a better future.

Question 9.
Give some examples of gender discrimination.
Answer:
Women and girls in particular face unequal opportunities for education and development. In the most basic needs of nutrition, child care and health also they are discriminated against – they get less of these things than males. This can happen even within the same family. This discrimination is not always obvious. Nor is it accepted.

Question 10.
What is rate or pace of population increase?
Answer:
The rate or the pace of population increase is important. It is studied in per cent per annum, e.g.: a rate of increase of 2 per cent per annum means that in a given year, there was an increase of two persons for every 100 persons in the base year. This works like compound interest. This is referred to as the annual growth rate. India’s population has been steadily increasing.

Question 11.
Describe the categories of the working population.
Answer:
The Census of India, groups the working population into four categories. Cultivators are farmers, who farm or supervise the land that they own or take on rent. Agricultural labourers are those who work on another’s farm for wages in cash or kind. Workers in household industries would be those who are manufacturing or repairing some product at home such as dehusking of paddy, bidi workers, potters, weavers, repair of footwear, manufacture of toys, matches, etc. Other workers would be those who are employed in factories, trading, casual labour and all other occupations.

Question 12.
Why did the birth rate remain high for such a long period?
Answer:
One set of reasons has to do with what has happened in the past. If in the overall population the percentage of young people is high, then in the coming years they would grow up, get married and have children. The total number of such children added would be high because we began with a population with a large number of young people.
The other reason is the number of children that couples wish to have. This in turn is related to how many children survive, what social security people have and the preference of male child in society.

Question 13.
Prepare a rough bar diagram using the following information.

Area	Haryana	Punjab	A.P	Kerala	USA
Sex Ratio	870	880	970	1040	1050

Answer:

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.
The Census of India provides us with information regarding the population of our country. A’ census is the procedure of systematically acquiring and recording information about the members of a given population. Once in ten years information is collected about all people living in India. The people who do this survey go from house to house and find out the number of people living in every house in every village,town and city. This census provides us with a lot of information such as how old people are, their occupation, houses, education, religion, etc. The Registrar General & Census Commission of India, organises the collection and recording of this information.
Answer:
A census is the procedure of systematically acquiring and recording information about the members of a given population. It is a regularly occurring and official count of a particular population. In India this information is collected once in ten years. This census provides us a lot of information. The census is conducted by the Registrar General and Census Commission of India.

Question 15.
It is noted that within India certain parts like Kerala have a positive sex ratio. How can you appreciate it?
Answer:

1. Kerala have a positive sex ratio while some other states are extremely biased against women.
2. Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women.
3. Women’s literacy and schooling reduce child mortality and work against the selective neglect of the health of girls.
4. As Kerala worked on these front, remaining states need to follow its footsteps.

Question 16.
“Over population creates many problems” Do you support this statement? Write in your own words.
Answer:

1. The number of non-working people increases.
2. Per capita income decreases with increase in population.
3. Production has to be increased to provide facilities like houses, educational institutions, health centres, transport, etc., to the increasing population.
4. There is a danger of occurrence of famine if sufficient food is not produced.

10th Class Social 6th Lesson The People 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Answer the following of questions based on the graph given below.

1. From which year did the population increase continuously?
   Answer:
   From the year 1921 the population increased continuously.
2. What is the present population of India?
   Answer:
   The present population of India is 121 crores.
3. In which decade is the population growth less?
   Answer:
   The population growth is less in the decade 1911-21.
4. For how many years is the census being taken in India?
   Answer:
   The census is being taken in India for ten years once.

Question 2.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions that given below.

1. How many times census was taken up after independence ?
   Answer:
   7 times.
2. What do you mean by sex ratio ?
   Answer:
   Sex ratio is the number of females per every 1000 males in the population.
3. Give two reasons for low sex ratio.
   Answer:
   1. Traditionally our society is male-dominated. Gender discrimination is one cause.
   2. Women are getting inequal opportunities for education and development.
4. In which year the sex ratio is better ?
   Answer:
   1951

Question 3.
Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions.

1. What does the above graph explain?
   Answer:
   It explains the Sex ratio of India from 1951 to 2011.
2. In which year, the least sex ratio is recorded ?
   Answer:
   The least sex ratio recorded in 1991.
3. How was the sex ratio calculated?
   Answer:
   The sex ratio is calculated as the number of females per 1000 males in the population.
4. How many times the female number is recorded more than 935?
   Answer:
   3 times.

Question 4.
Study the graph and answer the following.

1. In which year, did the population decrease?
   Answer:
   1921
2. For how many years, census have been held regularly?
   Answer:
   10 years
3. Why was the population of India increasing after independence?
   Answer:
   Improved medical facilities
   Declination of the impact of famines.
4. What problems would arise with the population explosion?
   Answer:
   1. Stress on environment.
   2. Unemployment.
   3. Scarcity of resources.
   4. Lock of food.

Question 5.
Read the text given below and write your opinion.
In India, 103 female babies are born as against 100 male babies. However, more female babies die than the male babies. The census shows that in the age group 0-5 years, the number of girls who survive is much lower than boys. This can only happen if there is some discrimination in their care and nutrition because otherwise the physical chance of survival is better for girls.
Answer:
More female babies are born, yet at the age of 0-5 years the number of girls who survive is much lower than boys.
The following reasons give us why the sex ratio has been declining.

1. Most of the women are illiterate, so they are unable to realise the importance of a girl child.
2. Most of the families in India are patriarchal, so men dominate the women and force them to abort against for a girl child.
3. Most of the families give importance for a boy child to increase their clan.
4. Even though they have high income, parents give less importance for girl child in all spheres.

Question 6.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.

1. Which year has the least number of females?
   Answer:
   In the year 1991, the number of females is least.
2. What do you mean by Sex ratio?
   Answer:
   The number of females per 1000 males is called sex ratio.
3. Since 1951, what changes do you observe in Sex ratio?
   Answer:
   During 1951-1971 the sex ratio is decreasing whereas 1991 onwards it has been increasing gradually though the literacy rate in 1951 is low, the sex ratio is high.
4. What is to be done to prevent a decrease in female number?
   Answer:
   Concept of equality between male and female is to be developed by organizing campaigns.
   • The laws related to pre-natal diagnostic tests should be brought out.
   • They should be implemented in true spirit.

Question 7.
What is the influence on society when female percentage decreases in sex ratio?
Answer:
Influence on society when female percentage decreases in sex ratio:

1. Marriage related problems.
2. Crimes related to sexual assault increase.
3. Kanyasulkam may revive.
4. Gender discrimination reduces.
5. Mankind struggles to survive.
6. Population decreases.
7. Family relations may be affected
8. Human relations get disturbed.
9. Importance to women – increased.

Question 8.
Plot the below information on a bar-graph. Write your observation.
Table : India Population: Sex Ratio 1951 – 2011

SI. No.	Year	No. of females for 1000 males
1.	1951	946
2.	1961	941
3.	1971	930
4.	1981	934
5.	1991	929
6.	2001	933
7.	2011	943

Answer:

1. The above graph explains the Sex Ratio of India from 1951 to 2011.
2. During 1951 -1971 the Sex Ratio is decreasing whereas in 1991 onwards it has been increasing gradually though the literacy rate in 1951 is low, but the Sex Ratio is high.
3. The least Sex Ratio recorded in 1991.
4. The female ratio is very low in India due to gender discrimination, illiteracy, lack of medical facilities, not providing nutritious food, parental attitude etc.

Question 9.
Read the given paragraph and comment.
We often hear people talk of population growth in alarming tones. These people are often literate and talk about others not benefitting because there are too many people who have to share very few resources.
Answer:
According to the given paragraph, the population growth affects many ways people should aware of this and the literate people talk about the benefits share of resources is not balancing. Very few people are using more resources whereas many people are using very less resources.
Countries like USA are using more natural resources though its population is less than 5% of the world population. In India, it is less than 16% of the population of the world is using less natural resources. In India population is steadily increasing. If population increases in this way, one day India would be the first in world population. Population is not a curse to the country development, it is a boon for the development of the country. People in any country can be divided into three categories. They are skilled, semi-skilled and unskilled. The Government has to utilise the services of the skilled for the nation’s development. The semi skilled should be made skilled. The unskilled should be provided with some training and so they would be doing some sort of productive work which would be strengthening Gross Domestic Product. Equal distribution of resources should be the target of the Government. The underdeveloped countries should focus on improving the qualities of work force. So population is not a problem. It’s a boon.

Question 10.
Observe the population pyramids and answer the questions.

a) What are group in India has the largest percentage of people?
b) What is the total percentage of the population in the 90 and above age group?
c) What is the total percentage of the population between 0-14 age group?
d) Based on the population pyramid given above, how do you think.the population of the India will grow? Will it grow quickly or slowly? Why?
Answer:
a) 10-14 years.
b) 0.1 % .
c) 4.7 + 4.7 + 4.9 + 4.3 + 4.3 + 4.4 = 27.3
d) Quickly. Because young pouplation currently is high in number. So for future the population of the India will grow.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
The third component of population change is migration. Migration is the movement of people across regions and territories. Migration can be internal (within the country) or international (between the countries). Internal migration does not change the size of the population but influences the distribution of population within the nation. Migration plays a very significant role in changing the composition and distribution of the population.
Answer:

1. Migration is the third component of population growth.
2. Migration plays a significant role in changing the composition and distribution of the population.
3. Migration is the movement of people from one region to another.
4. Migration is both internal and international.
5. Internal migration does not affect the size of the population but changes the composition of the population.
6. Internal migration includes movement of people from rural to urban and from urban to rural.
7. Whereas international migration changes the size of the population.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.
Think of various ways in which the government should have special schemes for different groups. Examples could be midday meal schemes; Anganwadi programmes, etc. Why are they necessary?
Answer:

1. The given paragraph focuses on special schemes suggestive for the sake of the poor and the needy people.
2. According to my opinion the midday meal scheme came out with the initiation of the Su¬preme Court of India.
3. Many of the poor students are not attending schools in the afternoon. Their parents may go to fields for work.
4. As the people are poor many programmes are to be taken up. In many of the schools it is not functioning well.
5. They should be provided with sufficient mechanism so as to make them lead their lives with satisfaction.
6. Whatever the programme or scheme taken up, it should be worked out in a right way with the true spirit.
7. The objective is not fulfilled in many of the schemes.
8. How many schemes are running is different from how they are running. So implementation is important.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
Women’s education has been a powerful force in reducing discrimination against women. There is definitive evidence that women’s literacy and schooling reduces child mortality and work against the selective neglect of the health of girls.
Answer:

1. It is very important to educate the girls. Their literacy and schooling should be increased so as to bring social change with regard to discrimination against women.
2. My comments on this paragraph are that the village people are mostly illiterates and they don’t want to send their daughters to schools and colleges for education.
3. In this decade, we observe that many of the parents in villages changed their notions and started sending them even to cities and towns and encouraging in getting higher education.
4. An educated mother can take care of both male and female child in a better way.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.
Why did the birth rate remain high for such a long period? One set of reasons has to do with what has happened in the past. If in the overall population, the percentage of young people is high, then in the coming years they would grow up, get married and have children. The total number of such children added would be high because we began with a population with a large number of young people. 
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that the young people are more in number and in due course of time, they get married and have children.
2. This adding of population is going on over the period.
3. There are so many reasons for high birth rate in our country.
4. Early marriages also cause for population growth. The family planning programmes are not successfully implemented.
5. They understand that they may not provide sufficient food, clothes, education and health facilities to their children.
6. Awareness programmes should be initiated among the people.
7. People also should participate in the campaign. Everyone should take responsibility. Increase in population is not the problem of the nation but it affects the lives of the people.

Question 15.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.

1. What is the graph about?
   Answer:
   This graph is about sex ration of Indian Population during 1951-2011.
2. In which year is the least sex ratio recorded?
   Answer:
   The least sex ratio is recorded in 1991.
3. How often does the Census take place?
   Answer:
   Once in ten years.
4. How many times it is recorded less than 940?
   Answer:
   It is recorded four times (1971,1981,1991,2001).
5. What do you mean by sex ratio?
   Answer:
   Sex ratio is the number of females per one thousand males in the total population.
6. From which year onwards is sex ratio constantly increasing?
   Answer:
   It is increasing constantly from 1991.
7. In which year the ratio is high?
   Answer:
   The ratio is high in 1951.

Question 16.
Observe the graph and describe it.
Answer:

1. The above graph depicts the fertility rate in India.
2. The fertility rate is nothing but total births per women.
3. The fertility rate in India has been decreasing.
4. That means the number of children a family wants is decreasing.
5. In 1961, the fertility rate was 5.9 that means an average women is likely to bear five to six children.
6. Now the outlook is completely changed.
7. The present fertility rate as per 2011 census is 2.7.

Question 17.
What are the steps to be taken restrict the overgrowth of population in India?
Answer:
The following are the steps to be taken to restrict the over growth of population in India :

1. Family planning measures should be implemented by the government.
2. Child marriages must be stopped.
3. Education should be provided to all women in the country.
4. Family planning counselling centres must be maintained.
5. Newly married couples should wait at least three years to get children.
6. They should maintain 3 years gap between two children.

Question 18.
“Over population creates many problems”. Do you support this statement? Write in your own words.
Answer:

1. The number of non-working people increases.
2. Per capita income decreases with increase in population.
3. Production has to be increased to provide facilities like houses, educational institutions, health centres, transport, etc. to the increasing population.
4. There is a danger of the occurrence of famine if sufficient food is not produced.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Aila super cyclone affected the Delta Region.
   Answer: Sunderban
2. Capital of Lakshadweep Islands.
   Answer: Kavaratti
3. The density of population is very high in this state.
   Answer: Bihar
4. The density of population is very low in this state.
   Answer: Arunachal Pradesh
5. The highest populous state.
   Answer: Uttar Pradesh
6. The lowest populous state.
   Answer: Sikkim
7. Sardar Sarovar dam is constructed on.
   Answer: Narmada River
8. The capital of Tamilnadu.
   Answer: Chennai
9. Cardamom hills.
10. The capital of West Bengal.
    Answer: Kolkata

These AP 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social 21st Lesson Important Questions and Answers Social Movements in Our Times

10th Class Social 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the given may and answer the question:
In which state, Indira Sagar Project is located and on which river?
Answer:
Madhya Pradesh, River Narmada.

Question 2.
Identify one state for each movement in given India’s political map relating to the following social movements.
Answer:

1. Narmada Bachao Andolan
2. Chipko Movement

Question 3.
Why did the black Americans begin the Civil Rights Movements in 1960s?
Answer:
The blank Americans began the Civil Rights Movements in 1960s

1. Segregation of the Blacks and Whites (in schools, buses and public places).
2. Discrimination in appointments, housing and in voting rights.

Question 4.
Name the two movements related to Narmada Bachao Movement
Answer:
The two movements related to Narmada Bachao Movement are

1. Movement of Indigenous people.
2. Movement against neo-liberal policies.

Question 5.
What did the American Civil Rights Movements fight for?
Answer:
The American Civil Rights Movement fought for equal treatment of Afro-Americans against permitting segregation.

Question 6.
When was Washington March conducted?
Answer:
Washington March was conducted on 28th August 1963.

Question 7.
Where was Narmada Bachao Andolan Movement taken place?
Answer:
In Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 8.
Who led Narmada Bachao Andolan?
Answer:
Medha Patkar led Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Question 9.
Where was the Chernobyl nuclear plant?
Answer:
The Chernobyl nuclear plant was in the USSR.

Question 10.
In which year was arrack officially banned?
Answer:
In 1993.

Question 11.
Which dominated the world during the first half of the 20th century?
Answer:
The world during the first half of the 20th century was dominated by great wars, revolutions, the emergence of German Fascism, Soviet Socialism, Western liberalism, national liberation movements, etc.

Question 12.
Name two anti-Communist countries.
Answer:
The USA and the UK.

Question 13.
Which decades saw a new kind of movement – the movement against war and nuclear arms?
Answer:
The 1970s and 1980s.

Question 14.
When was START signed?
Answer:
Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START) was signed in 1991.

Question 15.
When was the total arrack prohibition imposed in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
In 1995.

Question 16.
When was Manipur made a part of India?
Answer:
The kingdom of Manipur signed a merger agreement with India in 1949 and Manipur was made a part of India.

Question 17.
When did the Greenpeace Movement start in Europe?
Answer:
The Greenpeace movement initially started as a protest in 1971 against the American underwater nuclear tests near Alaska.

10th Class Social 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1
Do you agree with the view that equal participation of men and women and equal opportunity for them is necessary for freedom and development of the country?
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with this view.
2. Because the women contribute nearly half of the participants in all aspects.

Question 2.
What were the reasons for the American civil rights movement?
Answer:

1. One of the most important civil rights movements was the American Civil Rights Movement.
2. It fought for equal treatment of Afro-Americans of Black Americans and against rules that permitted segregation of blacks and whites in schools, buses, and public places and discriminated against them in appointments, housing, and even voting rights.

Question 3.
Read the map given below and answer the following questions.

i) In which state, was Sardar Sarovar Project constructed?
Answer:
Gujarath.

ii) Name the movement that was held against the construction of dams on river Narmada.
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan.

Question 4.
Create two slogans on ‘Environmental Protection.
Answer:

1. No chemicals – Go organic.
2. Conserve water – Conserve life.
3. Grow trees – Save earth.

Question 5.
Write the main reasons for Assam movement.
Answer:

1. Demand for autonomy.
2. Domination of Bengalis.
3. Migration from Bangladesh.
4. Fear of losing their cultural roots.
5. Trade and other establishments were in the hands of outsiders.
6. No preference in employment for locals.

Question 6.
What would you do, if you were to solve the problem of liquor prohibition?
Answer:

1. Bringing awareness among the people.
2. Proper implementation of the laws.
3. Formation of village committees.
4. Making involvement of women.

Question 7.
During the last few decades, why is the pollution increasing day by day?
Answer:

1. Nowadays industries are increasing due to that they release more chemicals and pollution is increasing.
2. Nowadays every person has a power-driven vehicle due to that pollution is increasing.
3. Farmers are using more pesticides and fertilizers, due to that pollution increases. Due to de-forestation, CO₂ reaches more in the atmosphere then pollution increases very highly.

Question 8.
What were the four main demands of Bhopal gas victims?
Answer:

1. Proper medical treatment of the victims.
2. Adequate compensation for them based on international standards.
3. Fixing criminal responsibility for the disaster on the management of the multinational company.
4. Steps to prevent disasters in the future.

Question 9.
Prepare a pamphlet on the importance of the Environment.
Answer:

Importance of Environment

1. The surroundings in which living and non-living things are present is known as the environment.
2. For living things environment provides basic needs for staying alive.
3. We get food, shelter and cloth from the environment.
4. Tourism people go the jungle to observe animals and for their different characteristics.
5. The forest, ocean and sky environment provides shelter to various animals.
6. It also provides home for us.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

“A large section of people who actively participated in the civil rights movement were black women, who felt that their voice was not being heard even within the movement which was dominated by men. In fact, no woman was allowed to speak in the famous Washington March. They felt that women needed to assert themselves for the equality of women.”

Answer:
This paragraph is about the inequalities in the society. Women discrimination is discussed. Their voice was not being heard. It means they were not allowed to say what they demand. Many of the black women participated in the Civil rights movement but not even a single woman was allowed to speak is the March. The women came to know that they should fight for their rights.

There was strong discrimination between the Whites and the Blacks. Especially the black women had no rights. The Americans purchased the black people from Nigeria and other African countries as if they purchase different commodities. They were treated as slaves. In 1960s there was a segregation of blacks and whites in schools, buses and public places. The blacks were discriminated against in appointments, housing and even in voting rights. So there was a movement against this discrimination.

White Aryan supremacy was the reason for this segregation. The Americans, the English, and French, and the Germans feel that they are Nordic race and their race is the supreme one. Dr. Martin Luther King delivered a speech that he had a dream that his children would one day live in a nation where they would not be judged by the colour of skin.

Discrimination is there in different forms. At the time of Second World War, in Germany, millions of Jews were killed.Caste based discrimination was there in India. Nowadays this discrimination is reduced.

Special status is being given to some people based on their birth or position. In these days, everyone is coming out for study and employment. As this was not there, the movements began. Nowadays the women occupied many high positions. Banks, political parties are also being run by the women. About five states in India are being ruled by the women. Many IAS, IPS officers are there from women.

In conclusion, the women should be given priority, even in family matters. The head of the family may be the women. She could play a crucial role in taking decisions. Equal rights are to be given to women. They should be encouraged for higher education. There voice is to be given respect. In political scenario the wives of leaders occupied some positions but their husbands are ruling. This shouldn’t happen. Let the elected rule of themselves. I hope to see the world without any sort of discrimination.

Question 11.
What are the losses incurred due to Bhopal gas disaster?
Answer:
The losses incurred due to Bhopal gas disaster:

1. Thousands of people lost their lives.
2. Many people became homeless.
3. Still people are suffering from its ill effects.
4. It caused damage to the environment.

Question 12.
What is the result of the anti-nuclear movement?
Answer:

1. Thousands of scientists and intellectuals from across the world campaigned for abolishing all nuclear weapons and insisted that USA and USSR come to an agreement to end the Arms Race.
2. Massive protests took place against the governments weaponisation policies and demanded them to reduce nuclear arms and work towards peace on a long term.
3. The USA and the USSR began the race to cut down their nuclear arsenal.
4. Strategic Arms Limitation talks were unsuccessful.
5. A Treaty was signed in 1991 called Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START)
6. In late 2001, according to this treaty, 80% of the all strategic weapons then in existence were removed.

Question 13.
What is the effect of globalisation on people?
Answer:

1. Tribal and marginal farmers are being threatened by commercial farmers, mining corporations, dam projects, etc.
2. As large companies find rare resources in remote rural areas there has been a rapid increase in the ousting of the farming and tribal population.
3. This led to the destruction of tribal cultures.
4. So they became most vulnerable section of the society.
5. These gave rise to environmental movements.
6. Poor families, landless workers, women, industrial workers, and workers in unorganized sectors have been worst hit.

Question 14.
Read the passage and answer the following question.

“We, the undersigned, as American men of draftage, may be asked by our government to participate in the war in Vietnam. We have examined the history and the nature of this war, and have reached the conclusion that our participation in it would be contrary to the dictates of our consciences.

We therefore declare our determination to refuse military service (all citizens are required to do so by law) while the United States is fighting in Vietnam. Our intention in signing this statement is to unite with other draftage men who share our convictions, in order to turn our personal moral rejection of this war into effective political opposition to it.”

Give your opinion on the above article.
Answer:

1. Here the people in the USA were refusing to be drafted into the army to fight in the Vietnam war.
2. They were saying that they had examined the history and the nature of the war.
3. Participation was contrary to the dictates of their consciences.
4. So they are refusing to join into military services.
5. They signed on the statement in order to create political opposition to the war.
6. The article was a trendsetter as people’s rejection to war was established in the statement.

Question 15.
Why have social movements arised?
Answer:

1. Social movements have raised diverse demands of environment or human rights or equality.
2. In some contexts, these resist changes that are forced on them.
3. In some contexts, these demand for change.
4. These often distant from individual political parties and more united under a single cause.
5. Their programmes are envisaged through participatory and democratic manner.
6. Social movements arise when people feel that their expectations were unmet by political systems.

Question 16.
‘The second half of the 20th -century was an era of growth, prosperity and growing tensions’ – Comment.
Answer:

1. With the end of the Second World War and the independence of colonies and semi-colonies like India, China, Indonesia, Nigeria and Egypt by mid 1950s a new era began in the world.
2. This was an era of economic growth and prosperity for most of the countries, but also of growing tensions in many countries.
3. Sections of societies which had long been denied equal rights came out asserting their rights.

Question 17.
Write the names of any two important treaties among the nations to prevent nuclear weapons.
Answer:
The USA and the USSR, the main competitors in the arms race began talks to cut down their nuclear arsenal.

1. SALT – Strategic Arms Limitation Talks.
2. START – Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty.

Question 18.
Read the given passage.

Manipur today is composed of two distinctive geographical terrains: the valley and the hills. Before independence, the valley was under princely rule and the hill areas were relatively autonomous, mainly inhabited by the tribal population. In 1891 the British established their I control over the region though the king continued to rule the kingdom. The kingdom of Manipur signed a merger agreement with India in 1949 and Manipur was made a part of India. This agreement was disputed by many tribes which argued that they had been autonomous and did not agree to be a part of India.

Answer the following questions.
a) When did the British establish their control over the Manipur?
Answer:
British established their control oyer Manipur in 1891.

b) When has Manipur signed a merger agreement with India?
Answer:
Manipur signed a merger agreement with India in 1949.

c) Name the two distinctive geographical terrains of Manipur.
Answer:
Two distinctive geographical terrains in Manipur are 1) Hills and 2) Valleys.

Question 19.
The raise in the price level of oil will severely affect the social life-Express your opinion.
Answer:

1. The raise in the price level of oil will severely affect social life.
2. The raise in the price levels of oil will lead to raise in the transportation costs.
3. It’s raise leads to raise in the prices of essential commodities.
4. As we depend a lot on oil imports, it’s cost raise will charge a lot on our exchequer.

10th Class Social 21st Lesson Social Movements in Our Times 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write an essay on ‘Appreciating the prominence of the basic features of Social Movements”.
Answer:

1. Social movements have been a powerful means for ordinary people to participate directly in creating positive social change.
2. There are deeply grounded in our founding values of security, culture, justice, democracy, civil rights, etc.
3. Social movements have raised diverse demands cutting across the strict boundary of environment establishing equality.
4. Most of the social movements are non-violent and often a distance from individual political parties and are more united under a single cause.
   For all these conditions we can appreciate the basic features of the Social Movements.

Question 2.
Explain the Meira Paibi Movement.
Answer:

1. Meira Paibi (in Meitei language) literally can be translated as ‘torch bearers’.
2. Meira Paibi originated as a movement to prevent public disorder due to alcohol abuse in the late 1970s.
3. But, it soon became a movement for human rights with the massive deployment of Indian armed forces to counter the armed movement in the early 1980s.
4. This resulted in frequent military operations and human rights violations. The Meira Paibi responded instantly with protest demonstrations.
5. The Meira Paibi took to patrolling the streets at night.
6. Women of every leikai or ward of every town and village participated in the daily patrolling.
7. Bearing no weapons but only the bamboo and rag kerosene torches.
8. These are not activists or politically inclined women, Meira Paibi group has also been demanding that AFSPA be revoked.

Question 3.
Explain the impact of globalisation and neo-liberalism on the lives of marginalised people.
Answer:

1. Tribal people, poor farmers, landless workers, women and the workers in the unorganised sector have been worst hit.
2. They have no access to better education and skills.
3. As a result, they are not able to get better-paying jobs or legal or other constitutional remedies.
4. Due to the activities such as mining and construction of major projects, many tribal people and farmers are being displaced.

Question 4.
Estimate the pros and cons of building Multipurpose projects.
Answer:
Pros:

1. Huge amounts of water could be stored.
2. Agriculture could be developed.
3. A large amount of electricity could be generated.
4. Floods and droughts could be controlled.

Cons:

1. Local people will be displaced.
2. It is not really possible to rehabilitate all the displaced people properly.
3. Bio-diversity will be damaged.
4. Water storage and electricity generation were actually less than those were assumed.
5. Sometimes the construction of dams may cause earthquakes.

Question 5.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analysing it.

Rank in Total Emissions in 2011	Country	2011 Total Carbon dioxide emissions from the consumption of Energy (million metric tons)	Per capita Carbon di-oxide emissions from the consumption of Energy (Metric tons)
1	China	8715.31	6.52
2	USA	5490.63	17.62
3	Russia	1788.14	12.55
4	India	1725.76	1.45
11	UK	496.80	7.92
15	Indonesia	726.79	1.73

Answer:

1. The above table shows that how many million tonnes of carbon dioxide is emitted in 2011 by some of the countries like China, USA, Russia, India, UK & Indonesia while they are using energy resources.
2. According to this, they are given ranks also to the countries on the base of emission of carbon dioxide.
3. In the above table, over all China emitted more million tonnes, but in percapita USA emitted more metric tonnes.
   In this one China, USA, Russia occupies first three places in the emission of carbon dioxide which are highly industrialised countries. These are the main responsible for global warming in the world and creating natural hazards and disasters in the world. Due to that climatic changes are taken place very rapidly and causes to destroy life at present and future also.
4. If it continues the whole world will suffer very highly, that’s why every country takes the responsibility and reduce the emission of carbon dioxide more and follow the safe and scientific measure and protect the atmosphere, environment and human beings also.

Question 6.
Write about the advantages and problems the people faced, due to the construction of Dams.
Answer:
Advantages: They do not only help in irrigation but also in electricity generation, water supply for domestic and industrial uses, flood control, recreation, inland navigation and fish breeding.
Disadvantages: Due to the Dam construction people lost their fertile land. Tribal people lost the forest land and their livelihood. People are displaced from their native place to other places. It maintains more expenditure also. It also induced earthquakes, caused water-borne diseases and pests and pollution resulting from excessive use of water.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

The economic and political changes happening world wide since 1990s, which go by the name pf ‘globalisation’ or ‘neo-liberalism’ have deeply impacted the lives of the underprivileged and poor. Tribal people, poor farmers, landless workers, women, urban poor working in the unorganised sector and industrial workers have been the worst hit. By and large these are also the people without access to formal education or adequate nutrition and health.

Answer:
This paragraph is about the consequences of globalisation. It mainly influences the poor people and tribal people and it affects workers working in the unorganised sector. The people who are illiterates and under-nutritious are mostly affected.

Due to technological advancement, various machinery came out. The developed technology is influencing all the sectors. In agriculture combined harvesters, threshers are used. Tractors and transplantation machines are used and so labourers lost their livelihoods Due to railways and dams the tribal people are affected. When railways are taken up for extension many of the trees are cut for keeping under the rails. Hence the forest dwellers face problems of displacement. When government plans for constructing dams to increase irrigation facilities it is compulsory to
construct near forests. These lead to the displacement of tribal people. Many of these people are illiterates. Many tribal people lost their livelihoods such as collecting honey, nuts and seeds. Industrial belts also increased near the outskirts of cities and towns. This leads to pollution. Many rural illiterates are affected by this. Computers, IT,

Telecommunication, transportation increased and so the poor and the tribals are impacted.
My suggestion to the government is that it should take care of the people about their displacement. Proper compensation is to be given on time. Officers also should implement existing laws.

Question 8.
What are the ways in which the Black Americans protested with the government?
Answer:

1. The Black Americans suffered a lot as the government permitted segregation in schools and buses.
2. There was discrimination against them in appointments, housing, and even in voting rights.
3. They took up the Civil Rights Movement.
4. It Is of non-violent nature.
5. They gave massive demonstrations, marches, civil disobedience and boycott of discriminatory services.
6. They boycotted the buses for one year long.
7. More than two lakh people conducted the Washington March.
8. These are the ways in which they protested.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

Initially, the Sardar Sarovar Project was expected to be built with money borrowed from World Bank. After Intense protests, mobilisation, marches, hunger fasts and an international campaign World Bank decided to withdraw its funding.

Is it possible to build factories or projects or powerplants without throwing out farmers or tribal people?
Answer:

1. Most of the times it is possible to build factories, mines or power plants without throwing out the farmers or the tribal people.
2. Because they need infrastructural facilities and raw material.
3. .For that Government should think of alternatives.
4. Protection of the interests of the farmers and tribals also lies with the government.
5. The government should see that no damage is done to any sections of people.
6. Compensations in terms of land, money or job are to be properly calculated.
7. Government has to go for alternatives if the interests of any section of people are hurt.

Question 10.
Answer the following questions after studying the table.

Sl. No.	Movement	Place	Leaders
1.	Civil Rights Movement	America	Dr. Martin Luther King
2.	Narmada Bachao Andolan	Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh	1) Medha Patkar 2) Bava Mahalia
3.	Anti-arrack Movement	Andhra Pradesh	Rosamma
4.	Anti AFSPA	Manipur	Irom Sharmila

a) Which state witnessed anti-arrack movement?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh is the state which witnessed anti-arrack movement.

b) Which movement was led by Med ha Patkar?
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan was led by Medha Patkar.

c) Who led the Civil Rights Movement in America?
Answer:
Dr. Martin Luther King led the Civil Rights Movement in America.

d) Name the movement that took place in Manipur.
Answer:
Anti AFSPA is the movement that took place in Manipur.

e) Where was Narmada Bachao Andolan Movement taken place?
Answer:
Narmada Bachao Andolan was taken place in Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh.

Question 11.
Answer the following questions after studying the table.

	Vietnam	The USA
Civilian deaths	8 to 30 lakhs	Nil
Military deaths	8 to 30 lakhs	58,000
Physically handicapped	NA	More than 58,000
War technique	Guerrilla warfare	Army, Air Force
Arsenal (Invented)	NIL	Chemical weapons and Napalm bombs

a) What is the war technique of Vietnam?
Answer:
The war technique of Vietnam is Guerrilla warfare.

b) What are the inventions of the USA Arsenal?
Answer:
Chemical weapons and Napalm bombs are the inventions of U.S.A Arsenal.

c) Why were there no civilian deaths in war for the USA?
Answer:
The war was fought in Vietnam. So, none of the USA civilian deaths occurred there.

d) How many military deaths were there for the USA?
Answer:
There were 58000 military deaths for the USA.

e) How many civilian deaths were there for Vietnam?
Answer:
There were 8 to 30 lakh civilian deaths for Vietnam.

Question 12.
Read the following information.

Article	Provisions
Article 3	Everyone has right to life, liberty and security.
Article 5	No one is subject to torture, or to cruel, inhuman treatment or punishment.
Article 7	All are equal before law.
Article 9	No one shall be subjected to arbitrary arrest detention, exile.
Article 10	Everyone is entitled to a fair and public hearing by an independent and impartial judiciary.
Article 12	No one shall be subjected to arbitrary interference with his privacy.
Article 13	Everyone has right to freedom of movement and residence within the borders of our country.

Read the passage and answer the following questions.
a) Which article protests, against the arbitrary arrest?
Answer:
Article 9.

b) What are the provisions of Article 10?
Answer:
According to article 10 everyone is entitled to a fair and public hearing by an independent and impartial judiciary.

c) Why are the above articles framed?
Answer:
The above articles are framed to protect civil and human rights.

d) Which article insists on equality before Saw?
Answer:
“Article 7” insists on equality before law.

Question 13.
Read the information and answer the following questions.

S.No.	Name of the movement	Purpose	Who lead the movement
1.	Civil Rights Movement of the USA of 1960’s.	Protest against discrimination of blocks in the USA	Martin Luther king 1960’s
2.	Human Rights Movement	Human rights of freedom of expression and move­ment.	Alexander Solzhenit­syn and Andrei Sakharov.
3.	Green Peace Movement	Banning of underwater nuclear tests	Mass Movement
4.	Narmada Bhachao Andolan	Demand for a fair compensation	Meda Patkar and Bava Mahaliya
5.	Anti-Arrack movement	Against liquor in Nellore in A.P.	Mass Movement
6.	Meira Paibi Movement	To prevent public disorder due to alcohol abuse in Meitei in Manipuri.	Mass movement

a) Write about civil rights movement of the USA.
Answer:
It was a movement to protest against discrimination of blacks in the USA in 1960s.

b) In which place Anti-Arrack movement in A.P. occurred?
Answer:
In Nellore District.

c) Name the movement that banned under water nuclear tests.
Answer:
Green Peace movement.

d) Who were the leaders of Human Rights Movement of the USSR.
Answer:
Alexander Solzhenitsyn and Andrei Sakharov.

Question 14.
What were the demands of the people of Bhopal regarding the great tragedy?
Answer:

1. The worst industrial disaster in the world happened in Bhopal in 1984.
2. Thousands of people lost their lives and many more are still suffering from its ill effects till date.
3. Right from the beginning, the people of Bhopal have been fighting for four main demands.
4. Proper medical treatment of the victims is the first.
5. As the company was a multinational company, the compensation for them based on international standards.
6. Third one is fixing criminal responsibility for the disaster on the management of the company.
7. The fourth demand is to find steps to prevent such disasters in the future.
8. While they have succeeded to some measure, they are still a long way to achieve all these demands.

Question 15.
Locate the following points on the outline map of world.

1. USA
2. USSR
3. Vietnam
4. Madhya Pradesh
5. Andhra Pradesh
6. Manipur
7. Gujarat
8. Hungary
9. Poland.

Answer:

Question 16.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Estonia
2. Atlantic Ocean
3. Finland
4. Hungary
5. Europe
6. Norway
7. Sweden
8. Greenland
9. River Niger
10. Turkey

Answer: