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These AP 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social 15th Lesson Important Questions and Answers National Liberation Movements in the Colonies

10th Class Social 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by “Pan Africanism”?
Answer:

1. Pan Africanism is an idea that promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe.
2. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 2.
Write down the ill effects of reckless oil extraction in Nigeria.
Answer:

1. Environment got polluted.
2. The Mangrove forests have been destroyed.
3. Crops have been destroyed through contamination of ground water and soils.
4. Local fish production was declined.

Question 3.
Mention any two reasons for not establishing sustainable Democracy in Nigeria.
Answer:

1. Civil War
2. Military Rule
3. Support of Multi-National Oil Corporations

Question 4.
Why was the Civil war started in Nigeria?
Answer:
The Civil war was started in Nigeria because a just and democratic balance could not happen. Soon Civil war started in Nigeria. The corruption of rulers and Multi-National Oil Corporations suppressed human rights in Nigeria.

Question 5.
Why did America interfere into the Vietnam war?
Answer:
America interfered into Vietnam war because it was worried that communists would become powerful in Vietnam.

Question 6.
What were the twin tasks of Nigerian nationalists?
Answer:
The twin tasks of Nigerian nationalists were:

1. Fighting the British
2. Unifying the diverse and conflicting ethnic group of Nigeria.

Question 7.
Why did US intervene in the Vietnam War?
Answer:
With the help of the Ho Chi Minh government in the north, the NLF fought for the unification
of the country. The US watched this alliance with fear. Worried about communists gaining power, it decided to intervene decisively, sending in troops and arms.
(OR)
To arrest the spread of Communism from Vietnam, US intervene in the Vietnam war.

Question 8.
How did the oil extraction affect agriculture in Nigeria?
Answer:
Spills destroy crops and aqua culture through contamination of the ground water and soils.

Question 9.
Oil spillage from oil wells in Nigeria had several impacts on its ecosystem. Write any two such impacts.
Answer:

1. Large tracts of the mangrove forests, which are especially susceptible to oil have been destroyed.
2. Spills destroy crops and aquaculture through contamination of the groundwater and soils.
3. Drinking water is also frequently contaminated, and a sheen of oil is visible in many local bodies of water. (any two)

Question 10.
Who was Ken Saro Wiwa?
Answer:
Ken Saro Wiwa was an eminent human rights activist and environmentalist and was executed by the military government despite international protests.

Question 11.
Who is regarded as the founder of Modern China?
Answer:
Sun Yat-sen is regarded as the founder of modern China.

Question 12.
When was a republic established in China?
Answer:
The Manchu empire was overthrown and a republic was established in 1911 under Sun Yat-sen who is regarded as the founder of modern China.

Question 13.
Who ruled China at the turn of the 20th century?
Answer:
The emperors of the Manchu dynasty ruled China at the turn of the 20th century.

Question 14.
What was the programme of Sun-Yat-sen?
Answer:
The programme of Sun Yat-sen was called the three principles – (San min chui)
San means – nationalism
Min means – democracy
Chui means – socialism

Question 15.
Who were called warlords?
Answer:
Regional military powers of China were called warlords. China came to be controlled by them.

Question 16.
What happened on 4th May 1919 in China?
Answer:
On 4th May 1919, an angry demonstration was held in Beijing to protest against the decisions of the Versailles peace conference.

Question 17.
What was called the May Fourth Movement?
Answer:
Despite being an ally of the victorious side led by Britain, China did not get back the territories seized from it by Japan. The pro-test became a movement, called the “May- Fourth Movement”.

Question 18.
What emerged as major forces striving to unite China and bring stability?
Answer:
The Guomindang and the Chinese Commu¬nist Party emerged as major forces striving to unite the country and bring stability.

Question 19.
Where was the social base of Guomindang?
Answer:
The Guomindang’s social base was in urban areas.

Question 20.
When was Peking University established?
Answer:
Peking University was established in 1902.

Question 21.
What were the four virtues that the women had to cultivate?
Answer:
Chastity, appearance, speech, and work.

Question 22.
What was the practice of foot-binding?
Answer:
Foot-binding was a cruel practice of not allowing women to have fully grown feet.

Question 23.
Who invaded China in 1937?
Answer:
Japan invaded China in 1937.

Question 24.
When had the CCP (Chinese Communist Party) been founded?
Answer:
The CCP had been founded in 1921, soon after the Russian Revolution.

Question 25.
Why did Lenin go on to establish the Comintern?
Answer:
Lenin went on to establish the Comintern in March 1918 to help bring about a world government that would end exploitation.

Question 26.
Who emerged as a major CCP leader?
Answer:
Mao Zedong.

Question 27.
Where can Mao Zedong’s radical approach be seen?
Answer:
Mao Zedong’s radical approach can be seen in Jiangxi, in the mountains, where they camped from 1928 to 1934, secure from Guomindang attacks.

Question 28.
What was the three-fold strategy of the French?
Answer:

1. Improving irrigation network.
2. Encouraging landlords and
3. Facilitating the marketing of agricultural produce.

Question 29.
Who was called ‘colons’?
Answer:
The French citizens living in Vietnam were called colons.

Question 30.
Who established Vietnam Cong San Dang (the Vietnamese Communist Party)?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh established Vietnam Cong San Dang.

Question 31.
Who took power in North and South Vietnam?
Answer:
Ho Chi Minh and the communists took power in the north.
An old emperor took power in the south who was soon ousted by Ngo Dinh Diem.

Question 32.
How was the new era of land reforms after 1954 in North Vietnam?
Answer:

1. After 1954 a new era of land reforms was started in North Vietnam.
2. The land of the landlords was confiscated and distributed among the land-hungry landless peasants and poor peasants.

Question 33.
What is Agent Orange and why is it so-called?
Answer:
Agent Orange is a defoliant plant killer, so-called because it was stored in drums marked with an orange band.

Question 34.
Name some chemical weapons used by the US.
Answer:

1. Napalm
2. Agent Orange and
3. Phosphorous Bombs

Question 35.
Explain the formation of Nigeria.
Answer:
The country we know as Nigeria today was actually created by the British by bringing together distinct regions inhabited by different tribal groups around the Niger river system.

Question 36.
How is the region of river Niger?
Answer:
The region of river Niger is one of the most populous countries of Africa, which has been suffering from different kinds of colonial rule.

Question 37.
Expand NNDP.
Answer:
The Nigerian National Democratic Party.

Question 38.
Expand A.G.
Answer:
Action Group.

Question 39.
When did Nigeria become independent?
Answer:
Nigeria became independent on 1st October, 1963.

Question 40.
When did Nigerians elect a democratic government?
Answer:
Nigerians elected a democratic government in 1999.

Question 41.
When was oil discovered in the Niger Delta?
Answer:
Oil was discovered in 1950s in the Niger Delta.

10th Class Social 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write about the May Fourth movement in China.
Answer:

1. On 4th May 1919, an angry demonstration was held in Beijing to protest against the decisions of the Versailles peace conference.
2. Despite being an ally of the victorious side led by Britain, China did not get back the territories seized from it by Japan.
3. The protest became a movement, called the “May Fourth Movement”.
4. The revolutionaries called for driving out of foreigners, who were controlling the country’s resources, to remove inequalities and reduce poverty.

Question 2.
Study the map given below and answer the question that follows.
How were the British able to implement their ‘divide and rule’ policy in Nigeria?
Answer:

1. There are three major tribal groups in Nigeria.
   1. Hausa-Fulani,
   2. Yoruba,
   3. Igbo.
2. The British were able to implement the divide and rule policy in Nigeria by encouraging competition and conflict among these three groups.

Question 3.
How did the education system in Vietnam contribute to the emergence of nationalist ideas?
Answer:

1. In Vietnam, teachers and students did not blindly follow the curriculum given by the French.
2. While teaching, Vietnamese teachers quietly modified the text and criticized what was stated.
3. The students were inspired by patriotic feelings.
4. The primary objective of the students who went to Japan for modern education was to drive out the French from Vietnam.

Question 4.
Why does the oil spillage from oil wells have a major impact on the ecosystem?
(OR)
What are the environmental problems faced by independent Nigeria?
Answer:

1. Oil spillage from oil wells has a major impact on the ecosystem.
2. Large tracts of the mangrove forests, which are especially susceptible to oil have been destroyed.
3. Spills destroy crops and aquaculture through contamination of the groundwater and soils.
4. Drinking water is also frequently contaminated, and a sheen of oil is visible in many local bodies of water.
5. Offshore spills, which are usually much greater in scale, contaminate coastal environments and cause a decline in local fish production.

Question 5.
What is the impact of over-extraction of oil in Nigeria?
Answer:
Destruction of mangrove forests destroyal of :

1. Ecosystem
2. Crops
3. Agriculture
4. Soil
5. Water contamination
6. The decline in fish production
7. Cause for cancer

Question 6.
Explain the ‘Pan Africanism’.
(OR)
What do you know about Pan Africanism?
Answer:

1. Pan Africanism is an idea that promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe.
2. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 7.
Observe the below map and answer the following questions.

1. Which country colonized Nigeria?
Answer:
The country of Nigeria was colonized by the British.

2. South-eastern Nigeria was dominated by which tribe?
Answer:
The South-Eastern part of Nigeria is dominated by Igbo tribes.

Question 8.
How can you appreciate the role of teachers in the Emergence of Vietnamese Nationalism?
Answer:
I appreciate the teachers by the following reasons.

1. Blindly they did not follow the curriculum given by the French.
2. Teachers quietly modified the text and criticized what was stated.

Question 9.
Based on the chart given below answer the question.
Which aspect of the Communist approach do you think led to Mao’s victory? Explain.
Answer:
Strong due to promised land reform for peasants.
The above aspect introduces equality among all and distributes the lands to landless poor confiscated from rich landlords.
With this programme majority of people enjoy their own lands and lived happily without pressure.

Question 10.
What do you know about Chiang Kai-shek?
Answer:
After the death of Sun, Chiang Kai-shek emerged as the leader of the Guomindang as he launched a military campaign to control the ‘warlords’, regional leaders who had usurped authority and to eliminate the communists. He sought to militarise the nation. The people, he said, must develop a ‘habit and instinct for unified behavior’.

Question 11.
What were the evil practices against women in China?
Answer:

1. Practice of foot-binding.
2. The subordination of women and
3. Equality in marriage
4. Four virtues:
   1. Chastity,
   2. Appearance,
   3. Speech and
   4. Work and
   5. Length of hemlines were also prescribed

Question 12.
What were the two crises faced by rural China?
Answer:
Rural China faced two crises:

1. Ecological, with soil exhaustion deforestation and floods and
2. A socio-economic one caused by exploitative land-tenure systems, indebtedness, primitive technology and poor communications.

Question 13.
What was the massive effort to spread literacy?
Answer:
A massive effort for setting up adult peasant schools to spread literacy and political education was undertaken along with the land reforms. This was also accompanied by the setting up of primary schools for both young children and adults in all the villages.

Question 14.
Why did the standard of living for the peasant’s decline in Vietnam?
Answer:
The colonial economy in Vietnam was primarily based on rice cultivation and rubber plantations owned by the French and few Vietnamese elites. Bonded labour was widely used in the rubber plantations. The French did little to industrialize the economy. In the rural areas landlordism, spread and large landlords took over the lands of small peasants and made them work as tenant farmers. As a result, the standard of living for the peasants declined.

Question 15.
What were the conditions of the peasants in Vietnam who rented the land of landlords?
Answer:
The peasants who rented the land of landlords had to pay rent in both share of produce and also by working on the fields and homes of the landlords and also pay different kinds of taxes imposed at will by the landlords. This forced them to borrow rice and money from the landlords and push them further into debt bondage.

Question 16.
Why did the Vietnamese students go to Japan in early 20th century?
Answer:
In early 20th century, Vietnamese students went to Japan to acquire modern education. For many of them, the primary objective was to drive out the French from Vietnam, overthrow the puppet emperor and re-establish the Nguyen dynasty that had been deposed by the French.

Question 17.
What was the impact of the Great Depression of the 1930s?
Answer:
The Great Depression of the 1930s had a profound impact on Vietnam. The prices of rubber and rice fell, leading to rising rural debts, unemployment, and rural uprising. The French put these uprisings down with great severity, even using planes to bomb demonstrators.

Question 18.
What were the challenges faced by the New Republic of Vietnam?
Answer:
The new republic faced a number of challenges. The French tried to regain control by using the emperor, Bao Dai, as their puppet. Faced with the French offensive, the Vietminh were forced to retreat to the hills. After eight years of fighting, the French were defeated in 1954 at Dien Bien Phu and over 16000 French soldiers and officers were taken, prisoners.

Question 19.
Write about China at the turn of the 20th century.
Answer:
At the turn of the 20th century, China was ruled by emperors of the Manchu dynasty, which had become powerless to defend the interests of China vis a vis the western colonial powers. These powers had carved out their ‘spheres of influence’ in different parts of China and had forced the emperors to give them economic and political concessions like low import taxes, immunity from Chinese laws, maintaining armed forces, etc. Both the common people and administrators of the empire were unhappy with this state of affairs. There were several revolts by the people and attempts at reform by the administrators.

Question 20.
Why did the Guomindang fail?
Answer:

1. The Guomindang, despite its attempts to unite the country, failed because of its narrow social base and limited political vision.
2. A major plank in Sun Yat-sen’s programme – regulating capital and equalizing land was never carried out because the party ignored the peasantry and the rising social inequalities.
3. It sought to impose military order rather than address the problems faced by the people.

Question 21.
‘Mao was unlike other leaders’ – Why?
Answer:

1. Mao stressed the need for an independent government and army.
2. He had become aware of women’s problems and supported the emergence of rural women’s associations.
3. He promulgated a new marriage law that forbade arranged marriages, stopped purchase or sale of marriage contracts and simplified divorce. So Mao was unlike other leaders.

Question 22.
Write about the Peoples Republic of China government.
Answer:

1. The Peoples Republic of China government was established in 1949.
2. It was based on the principles of the ‘New Democracy’, an alliance of all social classes opposed to landlordism and imperialism.
3. Critical areas of the economy were put under government control.
4. Once in power the CCP carried out large-scale land reform measures which meant taking away the land of landlords and distributing them among poor peasants.
5. The new government also managed to enact laws to protect women, their rights and the abolition of polygamy.
6. This enabled women to assume new roles and enjoy equal status vis a vis men in various
   fields.

Question 23.
Read the paragraph and answer the following question.

The Great Depression of the 1930s had a profound impact on Vietnam. The prices of rubber and rice fell, leading to rising rural debts, unemployment and rural uprising. The French put these uprisings down with great severity, even using planes to bomb demonstrators.

Why did the fall in price of rice lead to the rise of rural indebtedness?
Answer:

1. Two-thirds of the rice production in Vietnam is exported.
2. By that time it was the third-largest exporter of rice in the world.
3. Great depression of 1929-30 has a great negative impact on Vietnam.
4. The prices of Rice and Rubber has fallen drastically and there is rise in rural indebtedness.

10th Class Social 15th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the reforms implemented after the formation of democracy in China?
Answer:

1. The Peoples Republic of China was based on the principles of the ‘New Democracy’, an alliance of all social classes opposed to landlordism and imperialism.
2. Critical areas of the economy were put under government control.
3. They carried out large scale and reform measures.
4. They took away the land of landlords and distributed among poor peasants.
5. The new government also managed to enact laws to protect women, their rights and abolition of polygamy.
6. This enabled women to assume new roles and enjoy equal status vis a vis men in various fields.

Question 2.
Explain the role of schooling played in Vietnam national movements.
(OR)
Explain the role of education in the national movement by taking Vietnam as an example.
Answer:

1. The teachers did not blindly follow the curriculum given by the French.
2. While teaching, Vietnamese teachers quietly modified the text and criticised what was stated.
3. Students fought against the colonial government’s efforts to prevent the Vietnamese from qualifying for white-collar jobs.
4. They were inspired by patriotic feelings and the conviction that it was the duty of the educated to fight for the benefit of society.

Question 3.
Explain the policies followed by the French in Vietnam.
Answer:

1. French colonial rule influenced all aspects of Vietnamese life.
2. The French were keen to develop Vietnam as an exporter of rice.
3. They improved irrigation net work by building canals.
4. They encouraged landlords and facilitated marketing of agricultural produce.
5. The French did little to industrialise the economy.
6. Vietnamese peasants became entrenched in a cycle of debt.
7. There was no access for all to get good education.
8. All the higher education was in French only.

Question 4.
How were the Land reforms implemented in China?
Answer:
Land reforms of China.

1. Land reforms were launched in 1950-51.
2. The major steps involved were,
   1. Identification of all village inhabitants.
   2. Confiscation of all village lands and redistribution of land lord’s land and other productive property.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

Racism became common in the British colonial empire in late 19th and early 20th centuries. Educated Africans were excluded from the civil service, and there was discrimination against African entrepreneurs. At the same time, the authorities from ruling country gave control to the tribal chiefs and elite and promoted them.

Answer:
The given paragraph is about Racial Discrimination between the Black and the White people. It is related to Africa. One more point is that tribal chiefs were given control and the government promoted them.

Nigeria is an African country. It was a colony of the British. The British created Nigeria by bringing together different regions around the Niger river system where people of different tribes lived.

Before bringing all together, they faced many problems. Hausa-Fulani, Igbo and Yoruba tribes were there. Due to long years of missionary activity, many people still practice tribal religious beliefs.

The British implemented their divide and rule policy. A section of the people were educated and developed. If all the people were united in Nigeria, then the British would face the problem. The British always wanted to divide the Vietnamese based on colour or religious practices. That Was what the Britishers followed in India to divide Indians. All the Indians came together and fought against the British. Then the Britishers encouraged the Muslims to form a separate party for Muslims. They emphasised that Indian National Congress was the party of Brahmins and of upper caste. Gradually Hindus and Muslims were separated and so the national movement was weakened.

Now all the Independent countries should give equal opportunities to all and equality is to be maintained. There will be no racial discrimination at any level.

Question 6.
“America was very cruel in the Vietnam war” – Comment.
Answer:

1. America behaves very wild manner on Vietnam.
2. America with the fear of Communism to stop the spread of Communism in Vietnam, it declared war on Vietnam.
3. It uses chemical bombs and weapons like Agent Orange – B 52s. and Napalm.
4. Agent Orange destroyed plants & trees and made the land barren for a long time.
5. Phosphorous bombs – destroyed many villages and decimated jungles.
6. Civilians died in large numbers.
7. Thousands of troops were used by America.
8. Due to cruelty of America, America got agitation from world wide and from their mother land also.
9. Finally, America made a peace settlement and withdrawn from the war.

Question 7.
Answer the questions with the help of the given information.
a) Which nation was ruled by the Manchu Dynasty?
Answer:
China was ruled by the Manchu dynasty.

b) Who is considered as the ‘founder of modern China’?
Answer:
Sun-Yat-Sen was regarded as the founder of modern China.

c) Who was an eminent Human Rights activist and environmentalist of Nigeria?
Answer:
Ken – Saro- Wiwa was an eminent Human Rights activist and environmentalist of Nigeria.

d) What is meant by the Pan Africanism?
Answer:

1. Pan Africanism is an idea which promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe.
2. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah.

Question 8.
Read the given paragraph and write your Opinion.

The coastal environment of Nigeria has been disturbed because of reckless oil extraction by foreign oil companies. Oil spillage from oil wells has a major impact on the ecosystem.

Answer:
The given paragraph emphasises that the coastal environment of Nigeria has been disturbed because the oil companies extracted more than their share. It is talking about the consequences of over spillage of oil.

Over spillage of oil has various negative consequences:
Oil spillage from oil wells has a major impact on the ecosystem. Large areas of the mangrove forests, which are especially susceptible to oil, have been destroyed. This is mainly because oil is stored in the soil and re-released annually. Around 5-10% of Nigerian mangrove ecosystems have been destroyed either by clearing or oil. Spills destroy crops and aqua culture through contamination of the groundwater and soil. Drinking water is also frequently contaminated, and sheen of oil is visible in many local bodies of water. Even if there is no immediate health effect of this water contamination, it can cause cancer in the long term. Offshore spills, which are usually much bigger in scale, contaminate the coastal environments and cause a decline in the local fish production.

If the same is continued the whole world be affected. Oil is a natural resource. So natural resources are to be saved.

Question 9.
“The United States approach in Vietnamese’s struggle was brutal.” Do you agree with this statement? Why? Why not?
Answer:
“Yes, I agree with this statement. Because:

1. Until 1950’s Vietnamese were under the control of French.
2. And in some years it was under control of Japan.
3. People were suffered with high rents and taxes.
4. They did not get proper food also.
5. Ho-Chi-Minh’s idea land distribution in North Vietnam provide something to them and they lived happily.
6. So the North Vietnam peasants fulfilled their long cherished dream.
7. At the same manner South Vietnam people also wished that reforms introduced in that area and established Communism and get happy life.

Conclusion: But America brutally declare war on them to fulfill its desire.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph given below and answer the questions.

Agent Orange: The Deadly Poison

Agent Orange is a defoliant, a plant killer, so called because it was stored in drums marked with an orange band. Between 1961 and 1971, some 11 million gallons of this chemical was sprayed from cargo planes by US forces. Their plan was to destroy forests and fields, so that it would be easier to kill if there was no jungle cover for people to hide in. Over 14 percent of the country’s farmland was affected by this poison. Its effect has been staggering, continuing to affect people till today. Dioxin, an element of Agent Orange, is known to cause cancer and brain damage in children and according to a study, is also the cause of the high incidence of deformities found in the sprayed areas.
The tonnage of bombs, including chemical arms, used during US intervention (mostly against civilian targets) in Vietnam exceeds that used throughout the Second World War.

a) What is Agent Orange ?
Answer:
Agent Orange is a defoliant, a plant killer.

b) How does Agent Orange affect the children?
Answer:
Agent Orange causes cancer, brain damage and deformities in children.

c) Why did they destroy forests and fields?
Answer:
That it would be easier to kill if there were no forests and fields cover for people to hide in.

d) Do you think America was justified in using chemical weapons and civilian population and forests?
Answer:
No, it was not justified.

Question 11.
What do you know about the administration of Chiang Kai-shek?
Answer:

1. Chiang was a conservative and he encouraged women to cultivate the four virtues of ‘chastity,
   appearance, speech and work’ and recognize their role as confined to the household.
2. He also tried to suppress the trade union movement to encourage factory owners.
3. The Guomindang was failed because of its narrow social base and limited political vision.
4. A major plank in Sun-Yat-sen’s programme – regulating capital and equalising land – was never carried out because the party ignored the peasantry and the rising social inequalities.
5. It sought to impose military order rather than address the problems faced by the people.

Question 12.
How was the French education system in Vietnam?
Answer:

1. The French colonisers like the British were convinced that the people of the colony were uncivilised and the objective of their rule was to bring the benefits of modern civilisation. Education was seen as one way to civilize the ‘natives’.
2. The French needed an educated local labour force but they feared that education might create problems.
3. Once educated, the Vietnamese may begin to question colonial domination.
4. Even though Vietnamese language was taught in the primary level, all higher education was in French.
5. Only the Vietnamese elite -comprising a small fraction of the population – could enroll in the schools and only a few among those admitted ultimately passed the school-leaving examination.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

The Manchu empire was overthrown and a republic established in 1911 under Sun Yat-sen (1866-1925) who is regarded as the founder of modern China. He came from a poor family and studied in missionary schools where he was introduced to democracy and Christianity. He studied medicine but was greatly concerned about the fate of China. He studied the problems of China and worked out a programme of action. His programme was called the Three Principles (San min chui). These were: “nationalism”- this meant overthrowing the Manchu who were seen as a foreign dynasty, as well as other foreign imperialists; “democracy” or establishing democratic government; and “socialism” regulating industries and land reforms to distribute land to the landless peasants. Even though the Manchu dynasty was overthrown and a republic was declared, the republican government led by Sun-Yat-sen could not consolidate itself. The country came to be controlled by regional military powers called “warlords”.

a) Why was Sun Yat-sen regarded as the founder of modern China?
Answer:
Because he established a republic in China by overthrowing the Manchu empire.

b) What were the Three Principles?
Answer:
San min chui (Nationalism, Democracy, Socialism)

c) What is meant by Nationalism here?
Answer:
Nationalism meant overthrowing the Manchu who were seen as foreign dynasty as well as other foreign imperialists.

d) What is meant by Socialism?
Answer:
Regulating industries and land reforms.

e) Who were war lords?
Answer:
The regional military powers were called warlords.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Japan attacked and occupied much of China between 1937 and 1945. They tried to impose a barbaric colonial militaristic rule over China which had a disastrous impact on the Chinese society and economy. Both Guomindang and CCP now tried to join forces to fight Japanese occupation. After the surrender of Japan to the US in August 1945, Guomindang and CCP engaged with each other in an all out warfare for control over China. Eventually CCP was successful in establishing its rule over mainland China while Guomindang was forced to set up its government on the island of Taiwan.

a) How was the Japanese rule over China?
Answer:
It was a barbaric colonial militaristic rule.

b) Name the two political parties.
Answer:
Guomingdang and CCP.

c) To whom did Japan surrender?
Answer:
Japan surrendered to the US.

d) Which party was successful?
Answer:
The CCP was successful.

e) Which party established rule in Taiwan?
Answer:
The Guomindang.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

The French were keen to develop Vietnam as an exporter of rice and for this purpose they adopted a threefold strategy – improving irrigation network, encouraging landlords and facilitating marketing of agricultural produce like rice and rubber. The French began by building canals and draining lands fa the Mekong delta to increase cultivation. The vast system of irrigation works – canals and earthworks – built mainly with forced labour, increased rice production and allowed the export of rice to the international market. Vietnam exported two- thirds of its rice production and by 1931 had become the third largest exporter of rice in the world. This was followed by infrastructure projects (roads and railways) to help transport goods for trade, move military garrisons and control the entire region. Construction of a trans- Indo-China rail network that would link the northern and southern parts of Vietnam and China was begun.

a) Why were the French keen to develop Vietnam?
Answer:
Because it was an exporter of rice.

b) What was the other crop?
Answer:
Rubber plantations.

c) Which Delta was developed?
Answer:
The Mekong Delta was developed.

d) exported two-thirds of its rice production.
Answer:
Vietnam.

e) Who developed Vietnam?
Answer:
The French developed Vietnam.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions that follow.

This phase of struggle with the US was brutal. Thousands of US troops arrived equipped with heavy weapons and tanks and backed by the most powerful bombers of the time – B52s. The wide spread attacks and use of chemical weapons – Napalm (a deadly bomb which caused intense damage to humans), Agent Orange (which destroyed plants and trees and made the land barren for a long time), and phosphorous bombs – destroyed many villages and decimated jungles. Civilians died in large numbers.

a) Which struggle was brutal?
Answer:
The struggle with the US was brutal.

b) What were B52s?
Answer:
B52s were powerful bombers.

c) What was “Napalm’?
Answer:
It was a chemical weapon.

d) Which was used on forest areas?
Answer:
Agent Orange was used on forest areas.

e) How were phosphorous bombs?
Answer:
They destroyed many villages and decimated jungles, civilians died in large numbers.

Question 17.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Nigerian nationalism had the twin task of fighting the British and also welding the. very diverse and conflicting ethnic groups. The national movement was stronger in the more developed south rather than in the north and this created a north-south divide. Even in the south, nationalism was plagued by ethnic conflict between the Yoruba and the Igbos. By the 1950s these three regions also had their own anti-colonial movements led by regional parties: the conservative Northern People’s Congress (NPC) in the north; the National Council for Nigeria and the Cameroons (NCNC) in the east, and the Action Group (AG) in the west.

a) What were the two tasks?
Answer:

1. Fighting the British
2. Welding the very diverse and conflicting ethnic groups.

b) In which region was the national movement stronger?
Answer:
It was strong in south.

c) What were the two tribes?
Answer:
Yoruba and Igbos.

4) Expand NPC.
Answer:
Northern People’s Congress.

e) Expand AG.
Answer:
Action Group.

Question 18.
Read the passage and answer the following question.
The effect of the war was felt within the US as well. Many were critical of the government for getting involved in a war that they saw as indefensible.
How do you appreciate the role of the people of the USA in ending the war?
Answer:

1. Vietnam was a small country.
2. The USA was very brutal in the war.
3. It used even chemical weapons.
4. The effects of the war was felt within the US as well.
5. When youth were drafted for the war, the anger spread.
6. People opposed the war.
7. They questioned the government’s policy.
8. Finally the people were instrumental in ending the war.
9. A peace settlement was signed in Paris in 1974.

Question 19.
Read the following text and interpret it.

Pan Africanism

Pan Africanism is an idea which promotes the unity of all African peoples irrespective of country or tribe. This unity was to be used not only to fight colonialism and racial discrimination, but also to build unity among tribes and communities inhabiting the continent based on principles of equality, social justice and human dignity. One key person in this regard was Kwame Nkrumah, a freedom^ghter from Ghana.

Answer:

1. Africa was colonized by the European imperialistic powers and different tribes were residing in Africa.
2. The European powers plundered the resources of Africa both the mineral and agricultural resources.
3. Slave trade was also carried in this region.
4. Pan Africanism promoted the idea of the unity of all the Africans.
5. It helped them to fight against colonization and racial discrimination.
6. Pan Africanism has a higher sphere and it breaks the limits of nationalism.
7. It unites all the tribes living on the continent based on the principles of equality, social justice and human dignity.

Question 20.
Locate the following on the outline map of the world.

1. China
2. USA
3. Vietnam
4. France
5. Nigeria
6. Russia

Answer:

Question 21.
Locate the following in the given map of world.
1) The third largest exporter of rice in the world.
Answer: Vietnam

2) These country people were called colons.
Answer: France

3) Manchu dynasty rule this country.
Answer: China

4) Yoruba people are belongs to this country.
Answer: Nigeria

5) America used agent orange on this country.
Answer: Vietnam

6) Washington

These AP 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 3rd Lesson Earth Movements and Seasons will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social 3rd Lesson Important Questions and Answers Earth Movements and Seasons

Question 1.
Can you relate what are the major seasons you have seen?
Answer:
The major seasons I have seen are Summer season, Rainy season and Winter season.

Question 2.
Write any two factors that influence the order of seasons.
Answer:
The factors are:
a) The spherical shape of the Earth and the curvature of its surface.
b) Daily rotation of the Earth on its own Axis.

Question 3.
From where can we see the axis of the earth?
Answer:
The axis of the earth is an imaginary line. We cannot see it.

Question 4.
What are the reasons behind the formation of seasons?
Answer:
Earth’s revolution and inclination of the axis are the reasons behind it.

Question 5.
What happens if there are no seasons?
Answer:
If there are no seasons, there will be no life on the earth.

Question 6.
Find out if Andhra Pradesh is in the Tropical Belt or in the Temperate Beit.
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh is extended between 18°N to 79°N latitude (approximately). It is in Tropical Belt.

Question 7.
Will the Sun shine directly on our heads in Andhra Pradesh during any month? If yes, in which month?
Answer:
The Sun’s rays fall straightly on Andhra Pradesh in the month of May.

Question 8.
Find out in which belt is Delhi and if it would receive snowfall in winters.
Answer:
Delhi is located between 28°22″ N. latitude and 28°54″ N. latitude. It is in Temperate Belt. It records low temperatures but there is no snowfall.

Question 9.
The earth is rotating daily in such a high speed. But why don’t we feel this?
Answer:
The earth is rotating in such a speed with all its – atmosphere, human, animal and plant kingdoms. So we don’t feel this.

Question 10.
Appreciate the rotation and revolution.
Answer:
The Earth is rotating and revolving since her birth without any rest. If it stops for a while, the life on the Earth may get disappeared. So a lot of thanks to Mother Earth.

Question 11.
Which season is important out of all the seasons?
Answer:
All the seasons are important. The existence of all the seasons only supports the life on the earth.

Question 12.
What are the factors that influence the order of seasons?
Answer:
The factors that influence the order of seasons are:

1. The spherical shape of the Earth and the curvature of its surface.
2. Daily rotation of the Earth on its own Axis.
3. The tilt of the Axis of rotation compared to the plane on which the Earth moves.
4. The Earth’s movement around the Sun once a year (revolution).

Question 13.
From where can we see the axis of the earth?
Answer:
The axis of the earth is an imaginary line. We cannot see it.

Question 14.
The earth is rotating daily in such a high speed. But why don’t we feel this?
Answer:
The earth is rotating in such a speed with all its – atmosphere, human, animal and plant kingdoms. So we don’t feel this.

Question 15.
Appreciate the rotation and revolution.
Answer:
The Earth is rotating and revolving since her birth without any rest. If it stops for a while, the life on the Earth may get disappeared. So a lot of thanks to Mother Earth.

Question 16.
Which season is important out of all the seasons?
Answer:
All the seasons are important. The existence of all the seasons only supports the life on the earth.

Question 17.
Draw the important latitudes.
Answer:

Question 18.
Draw the temperature belts on the earth.
Answer:

These AP 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 18th Lesson Rights Approach to Development will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social 18th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Rights Approach to Development

Question 1.
What would give the poor people like Pavan and his mother a life with dignity?
Answer:
“Work hard – Lead the life”.
This only gives them a life with dignity.

Question 2.
Whose duty is it to ensure that Pa van and his mother are able to live a life of dignity and freedom?
Answer:
It is the duty of the society and the government to ensure that Pavan and his mother are able to live a life of dignity and freedom.

Question 3.
What are the arguments of people in “disclosing the information?”
Answer:
Their arguments are as follows.

1. Information is crucial to the human development, and democratic rights. People can participate in government and ensure just development only if they have sufficient information in the form of official documents.
2. Information will make governments more accountable in their functioning. It is possible to monitor the functioning and check possibility of corrupt practices. Information is crucial to the survival of the poor.
3. In a situation where information has to be made public, arbitrary decisions by the elected representatives or the officials can be controlled.

Question 4.
How did the movement begin for disclosing information?
Answer:
A group of people in Rajasthan, organised themselves under the banner of Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan (MKSS) and demanded information. There was no legal provision to get the details of information as mentioned in the above paragraph from government to the people. Initially, these documents were collected with the help of officials. People evaluated these documents through public meetings. Soon officials began to resist the idea of disclosing the information. This led to a people’s movement.

Question 5.
Write about six main points of RTE.
Answer:
Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009
The RTE Act is meant for providing free and Compulsory Education to all Children in the age group of 6 – 14 years and came into force from 1st April 2010.
Important provisions of RTE Act

• Ensure availability of schools within the reach of the children.
• Improve School infrastructure facilities.
• Enroll children in the class appropriate to his / her age.
• Children have a right to receive special training in order to be at par with other children.
• Providing appropriate facilities for the education of children with special needs on par with other children.
• No child shall be liable to pay any kind of fee or charges or expenses which may prevent him or her from pursuing and completing the elementary education. No test for admitting the children in schools.

Question 6.
Comment this figure.

Answer:
There is an old lady in this picture. She belongs to a poor family. All the vessels are empty. We can see the rice in a vessel in a small quantity. The woman is also very weak due to lack of food. It is because of monsoon failure. She is a victim of famine.

Question 7.
Read the following passages and answer the given questions.
Answer:
Pavan is a boy of about 13 years, who lives with his mother. He lives in a temple town visited by a large number of pilgrims. Pavan stands outside the temple gate and begs the pilgrims for food by falling at their feet. Sometime, some of them give him stale left over food from their tiffin boxes. Sometimes, he carries heavy bags for them and is paid a small amount.

His mother works in a house as domestic help. She works almost for twelve hours everyday, through out the month. She is constantly ordered about by her employers including young children. She is given left over food after everyone else has eaten. She is not allowed to sit before the employers, and has to always talk to them meekly. She is often insulted for some minor errors or delays and has to fight back her tears and anger lest she be thrown out of job.
1) How old is Pavan?
Answer:
He is 13 years old.

2) Why do the people give Pavan some money?
Answer:
Sometimes he lifts heavy bags for them. So they give Pavan some small amount.

3) What does his mother do?
Answer:
She works in a house as domestic help.

4) Try to write any two of her problems.
Answer:

1. She is not allowed to sit before the employers.
2. She is often insulted for some minor errors.

5) Why does Pavan fall at their feet?
Answer:
To create pity and sympathy in the minds of pilgrims for money.

Question 8.
Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
JAN SUNVAYI: MKSS used to conduct meetings, called ‘jan sunvayi’ (or people’s hearings). It is true that many people cannot read the government documents themselves. But every person in a village would like to know what the documents say. Thus, these were read out and explained. A muster roll would give names of people for whom wages were paid for making a hand-pump. The villagers can identify if the people mentioned in the muster roll were present during those days or were migrants, or if they were paid the amount stated in the document. This would bring out the corrupt in practices. Through these events people brought in necessary action. Officials were also given opportunity to defend and talk about the details given in the documents. The district administration and panchayat officials also participated in these meetings. When corruption was identified, criminal cases were registered against the concerned persons.

1) What is the meaning of ‘Jan Sunvayi’?
Answer:
It means people’s hearings.

2) Why do they read out the documents?
Answer:
Many people cannot read the government documents, so they read out.

3) What is a muster roll?
Answer:
It is an attendance register.

4) What did they do through these events?
Answer:
Through these events they brought in necessary action.

5) When did they register criminal cases?
Answer:
When corruption was identified, they registered criminal cases.

These AP 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 17th Lesson Understanding Poverty will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social 17th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Understanding Poverty

Question 1.
What is the average calorie intake of persons in the top quarter in the country?
Answer:
The average calorie intake of persons in the top quarter in the country is 2521.

Question 2.
By what percentage does the calorie intake of persons in the bottom quarter fall short of the daily calorie standard?
Answer:
23% of the calorie intake of persons in the bottom quarter fall short of the daily calorie standard.

Question 3.
Do you find any relationship between economic background of person and his/her nutritional status?
Answer:
Yes, I find the relationship between economic background of person and his/her nutritional status. If the economic standard is less, the nutritional status is also low and vice versa.

Question 4.
What do you think can be done such that Ramachari and his family get two square meals a day?
Answer:
Ramachari should also go to the nearest town with his wife for daily works. Then only he and his family can get two square meals a day.

Question 5.
How would you describe the exchange between Ramachari and the farmers in the village?
Answer:
I discribe the exchange between Ramachari and the farmers in the village as follows:
“One for all and all for one”.

Question 6.
Why do you think the MNREGA places priority on provision of irrigation facility to land owned by households belonging to the SCs and STs?
Answer:
The government sanctioned some funds for the development of SCs and STs from many years. These funds were remained unused. So these are used for irrigation and drinking water facilities to them only. With this they feel self-reliance.

Question 7.
Why do you think the calorie intakes of the people are so low?
Answer:
As they have low earnings, they cannot purchase costly foods which have high calories. They cannot eat and cannot work. So they.are habituated to eat stomachful of food, e.g.: Rice & chutney / rice & curry or rice & sambar.
So they are taking so low calories.

Question 8.
Do you think the poor will be served better now with new policy? Provide reasons in favour of your answer.
Answer:
I think that the poor will be served better now with new policy.
Reasons:

1. The government takes back the white cards from ineligibles.
2. So the provisions are supplied only to the poor and the poorest.

Question 9.
Ration shops are also called fair price shops. Can you guess why?
Answer:
The provisions in ration shops are available at low prices when compared to open market. So they are called fair price shops.

Question 10.
Why are people without employment also often without assets, such as land, cattle, shops etc.?
Answer:
The people those who have no employment cannot save their earnings. Without savings they cannot purchase assets. So they do not have assets.

Question 11.
Read the paragraph under the heading ‘Why Poverty? How can it be eliminated?’ and answer the following: What are the other reasons for poverty?
Answer:
The other reasons for poverty:

1. Big families
2. Only one person works hard in the family while all others eat.
3. Lack of chances according to their capacity or eligibility.
4. Less wages / salaries.

Question 12.
Give your comments on the given picture.
Answer:
This picture belongs to ‘Mid day meals scheme’. The girls are the beneficiaries of this scheme. In some poor families, children are not provided nutrious food and they are often suffered from hunger. The children studying in government schools, especially from such families will get benefited by this scheme. Undernourished children do not grow as quickly as healthy children. They will feel hard to study, work or otherwise perform physical activities. Mentally, they may develop more slowly. Keeping all these in view, the government is implementing Mid-day meal scheme for the well-being of the children belonging to poor families.

Question 13.
Observe the graph and answer the following questions.

1. Who are taking more calories?
Answer:
The rich

2. What is the difference between the top quarter and second quarter in calories?
Answer:
621 calories.

3. Who are taking least calories?
Answer:
The bottom quarter

4. What do you understand by observing this picture?
Answer:
Economic standard dictates the nutrition status.

Question 14.
Activity: One way to find out if adults are undernourished is to calculate what Nutrition Scientists call Body Mass Index (BMI). This is easy to calculate. Measure the weight of the person in kgs. Then measure the height in metres. Divide the weight by the square of the height. If this figure is less than 18.5 then the person would be considered undernourished. However, if this BMI is more than 25, then a person is overweight. Do remember that this criterion is not applicable to growing children.
Let each student in the class find out the weight and height of three adult persons of different economic backgrounds like office workers, servants, business person etc. Collect the data from all the students and make a combined table. Calculate their BMI.
Answer:

S.No.	Years of Age	M/F	Their work	Height (inches)	Weight (kgs.)	BMI
1.	35	M	Labourer	165	57	20.94 Normal
2.	42	M	Labourer	161	61	30.68 Fat
3.	28	F	Labourer	163	50	18.82 Normal
4.	37	M	Worker	168	56	19.84 Thin
5.	40	M	Worker	157	52	21.1 Normal
6.	42	F	Worker	161	56	21.6 Normal
7.	54	M	Business person	158	66	26.44 Fat
8.	46	M	Business person	170	71	24.57 Fat
9.	32	F	Business person	157	68	27.59 Fat

Question 15.
Read the following passage and answer the given questions.
The poorest families are issued Antyodaya cards. Next, the people whose situations are slightly better but still can be considered poor are issued BPL (Below Poverty Line) cards. The remaining families are issued APL (Above Poverty Line) cards.
Quantities and prices of ration given to each cardholder are different. For example, the Antyodaya cardholders are entitled to get 35 kgs of foodgrains (rice and wheat) per month per family. The BPL cardholders in Andhra Prasdesh can receive 4 kgs of foodgrains per head not exceeding 20 kgs per family. The Annapurna Scheme card holders who are the poorest of the poor (Indigent senior citizens) get 10 kgs of rice free of cost.
1. Who are issued Antyodaya cards?
Answer:
The poorest families.

2. Which colour cards are issued to BPL families?
Answer:
White cards.

3. What is meant by BPL?
Answer:
Below Poverty Line.

4. How much food grains can receive the BPL card holders in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
4 kgs of food grains per head.

5. Who are the Annapurna scheme card holders?
Answer:
The poorest of the poor (Indigent senior citizens).

These AP 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 2nd Lesson Energy from the Sun will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social 2nd Lesson Important Questions and Answers Energy from the Sun

Question 1.
What is meant by Insolation?
The radiation received on the surface of a body is called insolation.

Question 2.
What is meant by Radiation?
Answer:
When a body gives out energy it is called radiation.

Question 3.
What are the forms of sun’s energy?
Answer:
Light, heat, UV rays, radio waves and X-rays are the forms of sun’s energy.

Question 4.
Arrange the following temperatures from the highest to the lowest:
12°C, -16°C, 29°C, 0°C, – 4°C.
Answer:
29°C, 12°C, 0°C, -4°C, – 16°C.

Question 5.
What will happen if the inversion occurs?
Answer:
When inversion occurs cold air underlies warmer air.

Question 6.
Give three possible explanations for the differences between the average temperatures in Thiruvananthapuram and Shimla in January.
Answer:
A) Tiruvananthapuram is situated on sea coast.
B) Shimla is on high altitude.
C) Tiruvananthapuram is near to the equator and Shimla is far away from the equator.

Question 7.
Between Bhopal, Delhi, Mumbai and Shimla, which two places show a similar temperature pattern? How can you explain the similarity between these two places?
Answer:
Bhopal and Delhi show a similar temperature pattern. This is because these two are far away from the sea.

Question 8.
Which continents are there near to the equator?
Answer:
South America, Africa and Asia continents are there near to the equator.

Question 9.
Give reasons for ditference in temperature of a location:
a) height from sea level.
b) distance from the sea
c) distance from equator
d) all the above
e) some of the above
Answer: d

Question 10.
What is the relation between temperature and rainfall?
Answer:
The amount of rain in 2 places is determined by temperature differences between them.

Question 11.
How do we have variation in vegetation and animal life?
Answer:
Temperature and rainfall affect life in very critical ways. Plants and animals depend upon heat and water.
Only certain kinds of trees and plants will grow in hot regions and some other kinds will grow in cold regions and in very cold regions, nothing grows. Thus we have variation in vegetation and animal life.

Question 12.
What are the forms of sun’s energy?
Answer:
Light, heat, UV rays, radio waves and X-rays are the forms of sun’s energy.

Question 13.
Which results in ‘Global Warming’?
Answer:
Some gases like CO₂ prevent radiation of heat from the earth. CO₂ in the atmosphere N increases due to increased use of diesel and petrol, cutting down of forests etc. If the CO₂ proportion in the atmosphere increases, then less heat will be radiated causing increase in global temperature. This results in ‘Global Warming’.

Question 14.
Appreciate the ‘green houses’.
Answer:
Green houses are also called Glass houses. Green house is a building in which plants are grown. These are climate controlled. It works by taking sunlight and heating it up. This process is the conversion of solar energy to thermal energy. It gives plants both temperate heat and a good water source. The creation of green house is excellent.

Question 15.
What are the effects of ‘Global warming’?
Answer:
Global warming is the increase of Earth’s average surface temperature due to effect of green house gases, such as carbon dioxide emissions from burning fossil fuels or from deforestation.

Question 16.
The sun is the primary source of energy. The trees are the factories which produce food from sunlight. Are we growing or cutting down such trees? Discuss the advantages of trees and our responsibility in growing them.
Answer:
We are cutting down trees more than we grow.
The advantages of Trees:

1. Trees can reduce air temperature by blocking sunlight. Further cooling occurs when water evaporates from the leaf surface. The conversion of water to air vapour … a chemical process …. removes heat energy from the air.
2. A tree can be a natural air conditioner.
3. Trees absorb and block noise and reduce glare.
4. Fallen treen leaves can reduce soil temperature and soil moisture loss.
5. Trees create an ecosystem to provide habitat and food for birds and other animals.
6. Trees absorb CO₂ and potentially harmful gasses from the air and release O₂.
7. Trees help to reduce surface water runoff from storms, thus decreasing soil erosion and the accumulation of sediments in streams. They increase ground water recharge and reduce the number of potentially harmful chemicals transported to our streams.
8. Dews and frosts are less under tree because less radiant heat is lost at night.

Question 17.
Locate the following in the given world map.

1. Equator
2. Poles
3. Russia
4. Australia 5)India

Answer:

Question 18.
Observe the given map and answer the following questions.
1. What is the line to south of equator?
Answer:
Tropic of Capricorn.

2. This is ……… Projection.
Answer:
Robinson

3. Which continents are there near to the equator?
Answer:
South America, Africa and Asia.

Project
Observe some families in your village / locality and fill up the following table.

S.No.	Name of the family head	No.of electricity bulbs used	Type			Electricity bill (in rupees)
			Bulb	Tube	CFL

Educate the families about the energy-saving measures and then conduct the same survey again after three month and compare the difference.
Answer:

S.No.	Name of the family head	No.of electricity bulbs used	Type			Electricity bill (in rupees)
			Bulb	Tube	CFL
1.	Malleswara Rao	10	4	4	2	1000 ₹
2.	Subba Rao	9	3	4	2	1200 ₹
3.	Sunil	10	4	4	2	800 ₹

Above families used more electricity bulbs especially tubes & bulbs. They are using very less CFL’s. By using more bulbs they get every month more electricity bill. That’s why, I explain to them about the importance of electricity, how we are wasting and our future generations will face the problems and I said, use more CFL’s to reduce the wastage of power & minimise the bill. After three months I went to their houses and saw the power bill really I admired because they reduce the power using and use CFL’s also. Due to this they save the power and get less electricity bill.

These AP 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social 18th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77)

10th Class Social 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why do you think the tribal languages were ignored at the time of the creation of the states in 1956?
Answer:
The languages spoken by dominant or powerful populations were considered at that time, so the tribal language were ignored.

Question 2.
What is the main aim of Panchsheel policy?
Answer:
To establish a foreign policy on the basis of Gandhian principles like peace and non-violence.

Question 3.
What were the main challenges before the leaders of the country in the early years after Independence?
Answer:

1. To maintain unity and integrity.
2. Reorganization of states without disturbing unity and integrity.
3. To bring about social and economic transformation
4. Poverty
5. Unemployment
6. Illiteracy.

Question 4.
Write any two rural development programmes of Nehru.
Answer:
The rural development programmes are:
The strategy favoured by Nehru and finally adopted included three components.

1. Land reforms,
2. Agricultural co-operatives and
3. Local self-government.

Three types of land reforms were contemplated, a) abolition of Zamindari system, b) tenancy reform and c) land ceilings.

Question 5.
Why is the Green Revolution Compulsory in India?
Answer:
Green Revolution in India is compulsory because.

1. To meet the needs of the increasing population by increasing food production.
2. To use better water management.

Question 6.
What is the difference between a single-party system and multi-party system?
Answer:

1. Single party system – prevailing only one party
2. Multi-party system – prevailing many parties.

Question 7.
What was the main reason behind introducing symbols to represent political parties and candidates by Election Commission?
Answer:
To overcome the problem of illiteracy.

Question 8.
What is meant by ‘Universal Adult Franchise’?
Answer:
Universal Adult Franchise:
All the people who attain the age of 18 years, irrespective of caste, creed, religion gender language have the right to vote.

Question 9.
What are the land reforms proposed by Jawaharlal Nehru?
Answer:
According to Nehru’s proposal of land reforms are:

1. Abolition of Zamindari System
2. Tenancy reforms
3. Land ceiling. Some land is fixed. No one should hold more than that extent.

Question 10.
What did the Election Commission of India do for the illiterates to cast their vote?
Answer:
The Election Commission of India introduced symbols for the political parties and contesting candidates for the sake of illiterates to cost their vote easily.

Question 11.
What is the Constitution sought for?
Answer:
The Constitution is sought to fulfil multiple goals simultaneously, including making democracy work, unification and creation of a single political community and bringing about massive social and economic changes.

Question 12.
What was a great achievement?
Answer:
The setting of national goals and putting in place institutional mechanisms to achieve them within a relatively short span of time was undoubtedly a great achievement for a people who had been ruled by a foreign power for more than two centuries.

Question 13.
How can you say that first general elections were immensely significant for Indian democracy?
Answer:
The first elections were difficult because of the social dimensions also.

Question 14.
Why was an Election Commission set up?
Answer:
An Election Commission was set up to take care of the practical matters of conducting elections across the length and breadth of the country.

Question 15.
What was called the Congress System?
Answer:
The Congress party formed the government in many of the states as well. This inaugurated what some observers called the Congress System.

Question 16.
Write about the groupism in Congress.
Answer:
Congress always had within small groups. Though these groups originated on the basis of personal competition between leaders, they shared in the overall goals of the party but differed on some policy issues.

Question 17.
What enabled Indian politics to develop a multiparty democracy?
Answer:
It was the strength of the Constitutional framework and the democratic foundations laid by the freedom movement which enabled Indian politics to develop a multiparty democracy.

Question 18.
Write a challenge of the new nation.
Answer:
Among the first challenges the new nation faced was the demand for the reorganization of states on the basis of language.

Question 19.
How was the country divided during British rule?
Answer:
During the British period, the country was divided into Presidencies (Calcutta, Madras and Bombay) and a number of very large states like Central Provinces and Berar. A large part of the country was under princely states.

Question 20.
What was the fear regarding the language reorganisation?
Answer:
The partition of the country on the basis of religion had created doubts and fears about the security and stability of India in the minds of the leadership. There was the fear that language reorganization would lead to breaking up of the country.

Question 21.
When were the A.P. and Tamil Nadu state created?
Answer:
Potti Sriramulu demanding the formation of a separate Telugu speaking state died after 58 days of fasting in October 1952. Consequently, the states of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu were created.

Question 22.
What was at the top of the agenda of modern India?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly had called for social, economic and political justice and equality of status and opportunity, it put social and economic change at the top of the agenda of modern India.

Question 23.
What were the two questions that divide a political opinion?
Answer:
The two main questions that divided political opinion were:

1. What place agriculture should have in the larger development strategy?
2. How should resources be allocated between industry and agriculture?

Question 24.
What did the planners feel?
Answer:
The planners felt that for the country to develop it was essential to develop industries so that more people can shift to towns to work in factories and in the service sector. Hence from the Second Five Year Plan onwards, the emphasis shifted to industries.

Question 25.
Who formulated Panchsheel and for what?
Answer:
As for the immediate neighbours Nehru formulated the Panchsheel policy of non-interference in each other’s internal affairs.

Question 26.
Who succeeded Sastri?
Answer:
Indira Gandhi succeeded Sastri as Prime Minister after his untimely death in 1966.

Question 27.
Name some assemblies in which the Congress defeated.
Answer:
It was defeated in assemblies like Bihar, U.P., Rajasthan, Punjab, West Bengal, Orissa, Madras and Kerala.

Question 28.
Who was MGR?
Answer:
He was a popular hero in Tamil Nadu.

Question 29.
How were SVD governments?
Answer:
Many of these SVD governments were short-lived. Their life was marked by defections and corruption. Power seemed to be the only thing that united them. These governments had nothing to showcase.

Question 30.
What was the regional sentiment in A.P.?
Answer:
In Andhra Pradesh, there was a demand for the separation of Telangana. The movement was spearheaded by students of Osmania University, whose main grouse was that the benefits of development were going to only some sections of the state.

Question 31.
What was Bangladesh?
Answer:
It was East Pakistan.

Question 32.
What was popular slogan in 1971 election?
Answer:
The popular slogan in 1971 election was “Garibi Hatao”.

Question 33.
What were the important legislations during the period of Indira Gandhi?
Answer:

1. Nationalisation of many private banks.
2. Abolition of princely pensions.

Question 34.
What happened in 1973?
Answer:
In 1973, the Court came up with the landmark decision on the Basic Structure of the Constitution, which put a checkon the governmental power to amend the Constitution.

Question 35.
Write any two ill effects of the Emergency period.
Answer:

1. The fundamental rights were suspended.
2. There were also instances of arbitrary arrests, torture and violation of civil liberties.

Question 36.
How was Meghalia formed?
Answer:

1. Meghalaya was formed in 1969; Meghalaya formerly belonged to Assam.
2. It was formed out of the tribal districts of Khasi, Jaintia and Garo hills.

Question 37.
Expand SRC.
Answer:
State Reorganization Committee.

Question 38.
Write two important events occurred during Lai Bahadur Shastry period.
Answer:

1. Official language Act in 1963 and anti-Hindi agitation.
2. War with Pakistan in 1965.

10th Class Social 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the given Pie diagram and discuss the 2014 General Elections.

Answer:

1. B.J.P. is the largest party with 282 seats.
2. INC got only 44 seats.
3. AIADMK got 37 seats
4. TDP got 16 seats.
5. Others got 140 seats.

Question 2.
Read the following passage and answer the given question.

With this democracy was put on hold. The government began a series of repressive measures, claiming that this was necessary to bring order in the country. Many of the fundamental rights were suspended. There were also instances of arbitrary detention, torture and other violations of civil liberties. While people welcomed control over prices rise and the campaign against black marketing and bonded labour many programmes undertaken by the emergency government such as demolition of slums and forced sterilisation in the name of population control became very unpopular. However, in the absence of civic freedom people could not express their discontent and the government therefore could not take corrective measures.

What were the changes taken place in an emergency?
Answer:

1. Democracy was put on hold.
2. The government began a series of repressive measures in the name of law and order.
3. Fundamental rights were suspended.
4. Forced sterilization in the name of population control.
5. In the absence of civil rights, people could not express their discontent.

Question 3.
What are the aims of the 42nd Constitutional Amendment?
Answer:

1. To exclude the courts from election disputes.
2. To strengthen the central government vis-a-vis the State Governments.
3. To provide maximum protection from judicial challenges towards social and economic transformation legislation.
4. To make the judiciary subservient to the parliament.

Question 4.
Read the following paragraph and comment in your own words.

One of the greatest weaknesses was undoubtedly the low priority given to primary education and public health. This was going to hurt India for a long time to come. Other countries like China and Korea which also began a new inning around the same time, did much better on these two counts as compared to India.

Answer:

1. Primary education and public health are the most important aspects.
2. They have to be given utmost priority in any state.
3. Unfortunately in India, both these sectors could not develop as per expectations.
4. The government had to play a key role in these sectors to achieve the targets.

Question 5.
How were the land reforms implemented in India? How far did these reforms benefit the people?
Answer:

1. Land reforms were however implemented in a half-hearted manner across India.
2. While the Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to the landless did not take place.
3. The rich and powerful in the rural areas continued to control most of the land.
4. The Dalits continued to be landless but benefited from the abolition of forced labour and abolition of untouchability.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and interpret the changes taken place in the social and economic fields in India.

Land reforms were implemented in a halfhearted manner across India. While the Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to landless did not take place. The rich and powerful in the rural areas continued to control most of the land. The dalits continued to be landless but benefited from the abolition of forced labour and abolition of untouchability.

Answer:
The Constituent Assembly had called for social, economic and political justice and equality of status and opportunity as its agenda.

1. For that the Planning Commission was set up within a month. The First Five Year Plan focussed on agriculture.
2. The strategy favoured by Nehru and finally adopted included three components.
   1. Landforms
   2. Agricultural co-operatives
   3. Local Self Government
3. Three types of land reforms were contemplated:
   1. Abolition of Zamindari system
   2. Tenancy reforms and
   3. Land Ceilings.
4. Local self-government would ensure that the land reforms were carried out and the coopera¬tives run according to the collective interests of the village.
5. Dams were constructed and were useful to both the agriculture and industrial sector.
6. The Second Five Year Plan shifted emphasis to industries. As a result, the service sector also would develop.

Question 7.
Which qualities of Lai Bahadur Shastri do you like? Why?
Answer:
After the death of Nehru in 1964, Congress managed a successful transition with the choos¬ing of Lai Bahadur Sastri as its leader in government. Sastri was immediately put to test with a series of issues which challenged the fundamental values and goals of the Indian nation. These included the Anti-Hindi agitation led by the DMK in the South, which threatened the goals of unity and integrity, the shortage of food which came in the way of social and economic transformation, besides a war with Pakistan in 1965.

Question 8.
Draw an outline map of India.
Answer:

Question 9.
What are the results of the Green Revolution?
Answer:
Results of Green Revolution:

1. Increase in net sown area
2. Increase in double-cropped area
3. Progress in the irrigation sector
4. Increase in per hectare yield level
5. Increase in the area under High Yielding Varieties
6. Increase in the use of fertilizers.

Question 10.
Write the differences between Regional party and the National Party.
Answer:
State Party: In a state, if a party wins 3% of valid votes or 3 Assembly seats, it is declared as a regional/state party. A party can be recognised in more than one state.
National Party: If a party is recognized in four states with 6% of valid votes or 11 Loksabha M.P seats from 4 different states, it is called a national party.

Question 11.
Create two slogans on “the importance of voting”.
Answer:
Your vote – Your weapon
Cast your vote – Change your fate
Vote is valuable – Don’t sell it

Question 12.
Read the passage and answer the following question.

A few days later, with the JP movement gaining more strength, the government imposed Emergency and justified it as necessary to preserve order, save democracy, protect the social and economic transformation and preserve national integrity.

Comment on the above text.
Answer:

1. When J.P. movement gaining more strength, the government imposed Emergency.
2. Democracy was put on hold.
3. Fundamental rights were suspended.
4. There were instances of arbitrary arrests and the violation of civil liberties.
5. The emergency period weakened the democratic fabric of our country.

Question 13.
Observe the following map and answer the following questions.

a) Name the states that are bordering Hyderabad state.
Answer:
Bombay State, Andhra state and Mysore state were surrounding the Hyderabad state.

b) How many states were there in the southern peninsula?
Answer:
There were eight states in the southern peninsula. They are

1. Bombay state
2. Hyderabad state,
3. Mysore state,
4. Andhra state,
5. Madras state,
6. Coorg state,
7. Pondicherry state,
8. Travancore-Cochin state.

Question 14.
Observe the following map and answer the following questions.
a) What was the smallest state that is there between Madras and Mysore state?
Answer:
“Coorg” was the smallest state between Madras and Mysore states.

b) Name the southernmost state from the above map.
Answer:
Travancore – Cochin state was the southern most state.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

Jawaharlal Nehru was not opposed to linguistic states; he only believed that this was not the time for it. It was also the consensual position among the leaders of the day. They believed that India was in the process of consolidating Itself and there should be no distraction.

Was Nehru opposing “Liquistic reorganization of states”?
Answer:

1. No. Nehru was not opposed to linguistic states.
2. He thought it was not a right time for reorganization.
3. Still India was consolidating itself.
4. At this moment there should not be any distraction.
5. Hence Nehru thought that it was not the right time to reorganization.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

When India became independent the Cold War had just begun and the world was being polarised into countries in the US or USSR camp. Jawaharlal Nehru followed a policy of not joining either camp and tried to maintain an equidistant and independent position in foreign policy. He also joined hands with several other countries that had become independent around the same time and wanted to follow a similar policy – Indonesia, Egypt, Yugoslavia, and so on. Together they built the Non Aligned Movement. As for the immediate neighbours he formulated the Panchsheel policy of non-interference in each other’s internal affairs. However, India had to face two wars during this period, first with Pakistan over Kashmir in 1948 and with China in 1962. India was not well prepared for the wars, especially the war in 1962 and sustained heavy losses of human life and money.

Answer:
What was our foreign policy and did that policy help us to avoid wars with our neighbours?

1. We became independent in the bipolarized world.
2. We followed a policy of not joining in the US or the USSR camp.
3. Along with other countries like Indonesia, Egypt, Yugoslavia we built the Non-Alignment movement
4. In spite of our policy of Non-Alignment, we had to face two wars with Pakistan in 1965 and 1971 and one war with China, i.e. in 1962.
5. These wars ended with heavy losses of human life and money.
6. We have always been peace-loving and follow our policy in spite of hurdles.

Question 17.
What were the challenges before the leadership?
Answer:
The main challenges before the leadership were the need to maintain unity and integrity, bring about a social and economic transformation and to ensure the working of the democratic system. These challenges are interrelated and great care had to be taken to ensure that the system did not get imbalanced.

Question 18.
Mention the social dimension time of the first general elections.
Answer:
A large section of the population did not know how to read and write. In some parts of the country, women were known by their father’s or husband’s name, they did not have an independent identity. This has to change if women were to have equal rights and take the country towards greater social equality.

Question 19.
How did the Election Commission overcome the problem of illiteracy?
Answer:
To overcome the problem of illiteracy, the Election Commission came up with a novel idea of having symbols from everyday life to represent political parties and candidates. This creative innovation dispensed with elaborate instructions and required only visual identification. This basic idea continues even today. To make it even easier, in the first election each candidate had a separate ballot box with the symbol stuck outside; the voter only had to drop their ballot paper in the box of their preferred candidate.

Question 20.
How were the first three general elections?
Answer:
In Independent India’s first three general elections in 1952,1957 and 1962, the Indian National Congress won reducing other participants to almost nothing. Jawaharlal Nehru became the first Prime Minister of India. None of the other parties individually got more than 11% of the votes polled.

Question 21.
What was the result of groupism in Congress party?
Answer:
The groups took different positions on various issues depending on the interests of the members. This made the Congress appear as if it was a party representing diverse interests and positions. At times, these groups also tied up with other political parties to pressurise the leadership. This also acted as an inbuilt corrective mechanism within the ruling party. Political competition in the one- party dominant system, therefore, took place within the Congress. The opposition parties therefore only posed a latent and not a real threat.

Question 22.
What was the planning for Nehru?
Answer:
For Nehru planning was not only good economics but good politics as well. He hoped that planned development would dissolve the divisions of caste and religion, community and region as well as other disruptive and disintegrative tendencies and help India to emerge as a strong and modern nation.

Question 23.
Write about the First Five Year Plan.
Answer:
The First Five Year Plan focussed on agriculture and stressed on the need for increased food production, development of transport and communications and the provision of social services. It also stressed the need to industrialise India as quickly as possible. Given that food was a basic requirement, there was a consensus on increasing food production but there was no agreement on how this should be achieved.

Question 24.
How were land reforms implemented?
Answer:
Land reforms were implemented in a half-hearted manner across India. While Zamindari system was abolished, redistribution of land to the landless did not take place. The rich and powerful in the rural areas continued to control most of the land. The Dalits continued to be landless but benefitted from the abolition of forced labour and abolition of untouchability.

Question 25.
Write about laws during the First Five Year Plan.
Answer:
The First Five Year Plan focussed on improving agriculture by building large dams to irrigate and produce electricity. Dams benefitted both the agriculture and the industrial sector. Though there was an increase in agricultural production, it was still not sufficient to meet the needs of the population.

Question 26.
Explain the need of Green revolution.
Answer:
The existing strategy was not increasing food production, there was a shift to different strategy between the years 1964-67. This attempted to secure the cooperation of the state governments as well as increase food production. In a way it also reflected the changes in economic policy after the death of Nehru and also the changes in economic thinking as well.

Question 27.
Explain the reason for the given statement: The new governments are important markers.
Answer:
The new governments are an important marker in India’s political history because it was in a way the first democratic upsurge. It was for the first time the intermediate castes; the groups who had first benefitted from the land reforms and acquired some degree of economic standing gained political power. They were the dominant castes in their respective states and also had a significant numerical presence.

Question 28.
What were the reactions of government before emergency?
Answer:
The government reacted harshly with a series of laws which violated civil rights in the name of maintaining order. The opposition also criticised the Prime Minister for personalising the government. Meanwhile, due to a decision of Allahabad High Court Indira Gandhi was unseated from Lok Sabha for violating some of the provisions of the Representation of the Peoples Act during the 1971 elections. However, she got a stay from the Supreme Court.

Question 29.
In the west, franchise was extended in stages, first to propertied and only subsequently to other sections of society. But independent India adopted Universal Adult Franchise at one go. Why was it so?
Answer:

1. The first general elections in independent India were immensely significant for Indian democracy.
2. It represented India’s determination to take the path of democracy.
3. Earlier British provided franchise to propertied and educated as well as taxpayers only.
4. But independent India wanted every adult to indicate his choice.
5. That is how democracy would be more meaningful.
6. So, independent India adopted Universal Adult Franchise immediately.

Question 30.
Why were many of the Samyukta Vidhayak Dal governments short-lived ?
Answer:

1. Many of the Samyukta Vidhayak Dal governments were short-lived.
2. Their life was marked by defections and corruptions.
3. Power seems to be the only thing united them.
4. These governments had nothing to showcase.
5. Even today, the regional or state parties are evaluated from this standpoint.

Question 31.
“The 73rd Constitutional Amendment is useful for Local Self Government”. Explain reasons.
Answer:

1. 73rd Constitutional amendment definitely useful for local self-government.
2. State governments decide on what functions were to be devolved to local self-governments.
3. Women and scheduled caste and tribes are provided with reservation of seats in local self-governments.

Question 32.
“Too much centralisation of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals”. Analyse it.
Answer:

1. Too much centralisation of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals. ,
2. After the record victory of 1971 elections, Indira Gandhi gained control over Congress Party and Parliament.
3. Most people suffered inflation, rising prices of essential commodities, unemployment and scarcity of food, but when their grievances were not addressed they supported JP movement.
4. To stop that movement she imposed emergency.
5. During Emergency, Democracy was put on hold.

Question 33.
Imagine and write the main reasons for the continuation of anti-Hindi movement in Tamil Nadu till today.
Answer:

1. DMK in Tamil Nadu believed the passage of Official Languages Act, 1963 was an attempt to foist Hindi on the rest of the country.
2. They started a statewide campaign protesting the imposition of Hindi. This was called anti- Hindi agitation.
3. They organised strikes, dharnas, burning effigies, Hindi books as well as pages of Constitution.
4. The government made English and Hindi as official languages.
5. Till now, Tamilians have anti feelings towards Hindi.

10th Class Social 18th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following table and answer the following questions.

S.No.	Concept	Related person	Year
1.	Non – alignment	Nehru	1955 -1961
2.	Green revolution	M.S. Swaminathan	1964 -1967
3.	Emergency	Indira Gandhi	1975 -1977
4.	Planning	Nehru	1951
5.	Panchasheela	Nehru	1954

i) Which two countries were signed on Panchasheela pact?
Answer:
China and India.

ii) When did Planning begin in India?
Answer:
1951

iii) Name the Prime Minister who imposed emergency in India.
Answer:
Indira Gandhi

iv) What is green revolution?
Answer:
A large increase in the production of food grains due to the introduction of high yielding varieties, to the use of pesticides and to better management techniques.

Question 2.
Observe the following table and answer the following questions.

S.No.	Name of the state	Formation	Capital	Special features
1.	Jharkhand	15th November, 2000	Ranchi	40% of mineral resources of India
2.	Uttarakhand	9th November, 2000	Dehradun	Sanskrit is one of the official languages
3.	Chattisgarh	1st November, 2000	Raipur	15% of total steel production

i) From which state, Jharkhand was separated?
Answer:
Bihar.

ii) Mention one special feature of Uttarakhand.
Answer:
Sanskrit is one of the official languages.

iii) Which state was formed on 1st November 2000?
Answer:
Jharkhand.

iv) Which state was separated from Madhya Pradesh?
Answer:
Chattisgarh.

Question 3.
Write your comments on the opinion of Ambedkar given below.

On the 26th of January 1950, we are going to enter into a life of contradictions. In politics, we will have equality and in social and economic life we will have inequality.

Answer:

1. This opinion of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is very much true.
2. As everyone has his right tp vote and each vote has the same value, we can say that there is political equality.
3. As there is discrimination in many aspects, social equality is becoming a question
4. As there are wide inequalities in incomes of the people, there is no economic equality.
5. These inequalities need to be addressed at the earliest possible moment.

Question 4.
Describe the situation of India during the Emergency period.
Answer:

1. The democracy was put on hold.
2. Many Fundamental rights were suspended.
3. Civil liberties were violated.
4. People could not even express their discontent.
5. Slums were demolished.
6. Forced sterilization went on the name of population control.

Question 5.
Read the given data and answer the following questions:

Sl.No.	Item	Details
1.	Right to vote.	Switzerland women got it in 1971.
2.	Election symbols.	To assist the illiterates.
3.	Victory of Congress.	1952,1957,1962 Elections.
4.	Andhra Mahasabha.	To unite Telugu speaking people in Madras Presidency.
5.	State Reorganisation Act.	1956
6.	First Five Year Plan.	Agriculture
7.	D.M.K.	Tamil Nadu

Questions:

1. When was first linguistic state formed?
Answer:
1953.

2. Mention one of the challenges faced by Election Commission in conducting First General Elections.
Answer:
Illiteracy.

3. In which Five Year Plan, was agriculture given importance?
Answer:
Agriculture was given importance is the First Five Year Plan.

4. What party dominated Indian politics in first 3 decades of independent India?
Answer:
Indian National Congress.

Question 6.
Read the following table and answer the questions.

S.No.	Name of the Party	Year 1952	Year 1962
1.	Indian National Congress	364	361
2.	Communist Party of India	16	29
3.	Socialist Party	12	12
4.	Kisan Mazdur Party	09	—
5.	People’s Democratic Front	07	—
6.	Ganatantra Parishad	06	—
7.	Others	38	27
8.	Independents	37	20
9.	Jana Sangh	—	18
10.	Praja Socialist Party	—	12
11.	DMK	—	07

Table showing the parliamentary seat sharing of various political parties
a) Which political parties got their majority in 1962 than in 1952?
Answer:
Communist Party.

b) Which political parties had disappeared till 1962?
Answer:

1. Jana Sangh
2. Praja Socialist Party
3. DMK

c) Which political parties lost their seats in 1952 and in 1962?
Answer:
1962: Kisan Mazdur Party, People’s Democratic Front, Ganatantra Parishad

d) Which political parties lost their majority in 1962 than in 1952?
Answer:
Others, Independents, Congress.

Question 7.
Read the paragraph given below and interpret.

India has been extremely successful in holding together and maintaining Its unity and integrity. India was seen a fit case for breakup given Its extreme diversities and the fact that It has not done so, Is a valuable lesson has many other countries.

Answer:

1. India is a vast country with diversity.
2. There are a good number of religious, castes, tribes and languages.
3. People speaking a particular language have a culture and they identify themselves as a separate entity.
4. But National Integrity lies on the fact of “one nation and one race”.
5. In India all communities people joined together and celebrate all festivals.
6. India gave Right to vote to all eligible citizens without discrimination.
7. Even the highest post President of India is also elected from different communities.
8. This shows India follows, unity and integrity.

Question 8.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analyzing it.
Summary of the 2014 – Indian General Elections

Party	Alliance	Votes (%)	Seats
BJP	NDA	31%	282
INC	UPA	19.31%	44

Answer:
The given table describes the summary of the 2014 general elections in India. In the given table two parties that is Bharatiya Janata Party and the Indian National Congress are compared. It is not only the party comparison but their alliances are also mentioned. The Bharatiya Janata Party alliance is National Democratic Alliance whereas the United Progressive Alliance is related to Indian National Congress. In these elections, the NDA got 31% of the votes whereas the UPA got 19.31%. If we observe the seats, the BJP with its alliance won 282 whereas the INC won only 44. These elections are very crucial because the voter strongly rejected the Pre-independence party which ruled India since 1947. For a long time it was a single largest party to win the seats in Lok sabha. The voters cleverly gave a mandate to the Bharatiya Janata Party with the hopes that their future may be changed. The BJP announced the Prime Ministerial candidate, Narendra Modi in advance. He achieved and succeeded in Gujarat as Chief Minister. So the voters accepted him as Prime Minister also. They believed him. Congress lost faith of the people because of its failures. During the Congress period there was a lot of corruption, scams and nepotism, etc. Many of the Congress members of Parliament were in court cases. Rajiv Gandhi himself declared that corruption is highly established in India. If the Bharatiya Janata Party with its alliance work for the development of the country, definitely they will win the next coming 2019 elections. So the party should keep this in mind and work in that direction

Question 9.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.

The partition of the country on the basis of religion had created doubts and fears about the security and stability of India in the minds of the leadership. There was a fear that language reorganisation would lead to break down of the country.

Answer:
Opinion on Paragraph:

The given paragraph says that our country was divided on the basis of religion. So some doubts are created about the security and stability of India. Language reorganisation was another fear. Congress promised to restructure the country on the lines of language.

Everyone knows that India was divided and Pakistan was formed on the basis of religion. Bengal and Punjab were divided into East Bengal – West Bengal and East Punjab – West Punjab. East Bengal became East Pakistan and West Punjab became West Pakistan. In 1970s East Pakistan declared itself independence after the war. Then Bangladesh was formed. The two newly formed countries are of the Muslim majority. Many leaders are afraid about the security and stability of the country. In Pakistan and Bangladesh, a few Hindus are there and in India there are Muslims. Now the position of Hindus in Pakistan and Bangladesh is worst. They have no minority status and rights, but in India minorities are given special attention under Article 29 and 30. The demand of language-based reorganisation was also a problem. At last the States Reorganisation Committee worked out and the States are formed based on the language. Though the States are formed based on language, nothing was weakened as expected but it helped India integrated. Based on the language someone is a Tamilian or Telanganite, he/she is an Indian. Such a feeling is there in all the states. There is a criticism that tribal languages are ignored but they also live in the states safely.

Besides religion, language is also a predominant issue. In erstwhile Andhra Pradesh the language problem was there. Andhra language is greater than Telangana was a feeling. In cinemas, books, cultural programmes and songs Telangana language was degraded and humiliated in many ways. It has become one of the reasons for Telangana separate state movement. Finally, separate Telangana was formed.

In conclusion, I would say, whatever the religion or language is everyone is a human being first next he/she is an Indian. Religion is one’s personal. One can follow the religion he/she likes. The feeling such as one’s religion is greater than others, destroys and destructs the other. Gradually it degrades the country at international level. We hope and wish universal brotherhood. We got independence with lot of stress and strain. We should not spoil its spirit.

Question 10.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
Seat share of various political parties in 1952 and 1962

S.No.	Political Party	1952	1962
1.	Indian National Congress	364	361
2.	Communist Party of India	16	29
3.	Independents	37	20
4.	Socialist Party	12	06
5.	Others	38	27

Answer:
Table Analysis:
From the given table we understand how the national parties gained seats in 1952 and 1962 general elections.

1. Comparing 1952 & 1962, we come to know that INC lost three seats; Communist Party of India gained 13 more seats than previous election.
2. Independent parties lost 17 seats.
3. Socialist Party drowned to half of its previous seats.
4. Others too lost 11 seats when compared to previous election.

In my opinion, the other parties which contested were not able to win enough seats to challenge the Congress Party.

Question 11.
Observe the given table and analyse the data of Electors.

Election Commission of India

Lok Sabha Elections, 2014 (16th Lok Sabha)

Electors	Male	Female	Others	Total
No. of Electors	43.7 Crores	39.7 Crores	28.5 Thousands	83.4 Crores
No. of Electors who voted	29.2 Crores	26.01 Crores	1968	55.3 Crores
Polling percentage	67.00%	65.54%	7%	66.30%

Answer:
The given table is about the details of Lok Sabha Elections 2014, (16th Lok Sabha) Turn out of the voters issued by Election Commission of India. In the given table male, female and other voters number and their casting of vote particulars are given. Male voters are 43.7 crores whereas 39.7 crores female voters are listed out. Polling percentage in male is 67% and in female it is 65.54%, others only 7%. Out of 83 crore voters 55 crore voters cast their vote.
In democracy voting decides the rulers. Before elections many malpractices are going on the voters are lured with money, liquor, sarees, cricket kits what not many more. Surprising thing is that educated voters are also not excepted.

It is sad in democracy. If all educated and uneducated voters cast their vote by not inclining to any attractions and cast their vote for real leaders then we can say democracy is alive.

In cities like Hyderabad, recent election voting percentage is below 50%. Government should think, why these people are not turning out to cost their vote. In most IT companies they enjoy the day of polling will be a holiday. Rural people turn a lot of costing their vote.

For urban people, Election Commission should come out with a proposal of online voting or evoting. Then percentage will be increased. It is my suggestion.

Question 12.
Analyse the advantages and problems faced by the people due to the Multi-party system in India.
Answer:

1. In the first three general elections in 1952,1957 and 1962 the Congress Party won and led to single party dominance.
2. It was a kind of undemocratic situation marked by the absence of other political parties.
3. To strengthen the democratic foundations multi-party system emerged.
4. It almost checked the single party dominance of Congress.
5. The oppositions started critisizing the government.
6. People now have chance to choose the right party.
7. Multi-party system strengthens the constitutional frame work and democracy.

Question 13.
Observe the following pie diagram and answer the questions that follow.
1. Which political party secured less seats ?
Answer:
Ganatantra Parishad party secured less number of seal

2. What are the total number of seats that were elected?
Answer:
The total number of seats that were elected are 489.

3. How many seats were secured by Indian National Congress?
Answer:
Indian National Congress Secured the maximum 364 seats.

4. Which political party secured 16 seats?
Answer:
Communist Party of India secured 16 seats.

5. How many seats were secured by Kissan Majdoor Party?
Answer:
Kissan Majdoor Party secured 9 seats.

Question 14.
Observe the given pie diagram and answer the following questions.

a) What were the total number of seats that were elected?
Answer:
The total number of seats that were elected were 494.

b) Which party secured maximum number of seats?
Answer:
Indian National Congress secured maximum number of seats.

c) How many seats were secured by Communist Party of India?
Answer:
Communist Party of India secured 29 seats.

d) Which party secured minimum of seats?
Answer:
Socialists Party secured minimum number of seats.

e) How many seats were secured by others?
Answer:
Others secured 27 seats.

Question 15.
Read the information and answer the following questions.

Compare the above Pie diagrams.
Answer:

1. The above pie diagrams reveal the fact that there was an undemocratic situation marked by the absence of other political parties.
2. In both the election the Congress won maximum seats, i.e., 364 in 1952 and 361 in 1962 election.
3. Other parties were unable to challenge the Congress.
4. Ganatantra Parishad Party secured less seats in 1952 whereas Socialist Party secured less seats in 1962 elections.
5. The Communist Party of India secured more seats in 1962 i.e., 29 when compared with 16 in 1952 elections.

Question 16.
Read the following and comment on it.

The partition of the country on the basis of religion had created doubts and fears about the security and stability of India in the minds of the leadership. There was the fear that language reorganisation would lead to break up of the country. Hence, even though the Congress itself was organised on the linguistic lines and had promised to restructure the country on those lines, it developed cold feet when independence came.

Answer:

1. The partition of India created a lot of insecurity in the minds of the people.
2. How to maintain the integrity of the country became a burning topic.
3. There was a fear that the language reorganization would lead to breakup of the country.
4. But state reorganization committee was established.
5. Reorganization Act was passed in 1956.
6. Our leaders took initiative in this direction and regional languages were recognized as state official language.
7. English was given the status of communicating language.
8. Hence linguistic reorganization did not create any problem.

Question 17.
Observe the following map and answer the questions given below.
a) Which was the smallest area shown in the map?
Answer:
Pondicherry was the smallest area shown in the map.

b) Which small state was there in between Madras and Mysore states?
Answer:
Coorg was the small state in between Madras and Mysore states.

c) Which was the southernmost state from the map ?
Answer:
Travancore – Cochin state was the southernmost state.

d) Which was the eastern state?
Answer:
Andhra state was the eastern state.

e) Name the boundaries of Andhra State.
Answer:
Bay of Bengal, Hyderabad, Mysore and Tamil Nadu were the boundaries of Andhra State.

Question 18.
Locate the following on the outline map of India.

1. Maharashtra
2. Gujarat
3. Bihar
4. Uttar Pradesh
5. Jammu-Kashmir
6. Nagaland
7. Punjab
8. Meghalaya

Answer:

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Kenya
2. Suez canal belongs to this country
   Answer: Egypt
3. Algeria
4. Libya
5. China
6. Kyrguzstan
7. Uzbekistan
8. Ukraine
9. Phillippine
10. New Zealand

Answer:

These AP 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 10th Lesson Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social 10th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Landlords and Tenants under the British and the Nizam

Question 1.
Did the Zamindar own all the lands of the villages in the Mughal times?
Answer:
No. They owned some of the village lands. They had the power to collect revenue from the villagers. Rest of the land was owned by peasants and others.

Question 2.
What did the Zamindars do for the Mughal government and what did they get in return?
Answer:
The Zamindars collected the revenue from the peasantry on behalf of Mughal emperors. In return they received a share of revenue collected. Sometimes they also had right to collect some small local taxes.

Question 3.
How would the changes have affected the position of the farmers who tilled the land for several generations?
Answer:

1. This settlement inadvertently converted all the peasants into the tenants.
2. Since rent collected was much higher than the revenue, the cultivators could not pay and sometimes deserted the lands. These were the affects.

Question 4.
What is the difference between revenue and rent?
Answer:
Revenue: Tax on land which is paid to the Zamindars or government.
Rent: Amount paid to the owners of the land for using and cultivating it.

Question 5.
In what ways did the government invest in agriculture during the early British rule? Do you think it could have been done by farmers themselves?
Answer:

1. The Britishers made necessary advances to the ryots to purchase seeds, implements, bullocks and to repair old wells or dig new ones,
2. They constructed anicuts & canals. It could not have been done by farmers themselves.

Question 6.
How was a ‘dora’ different from an ordinary landlord?
Answer:
The large landlords were called Doras. They had a large retinue of servants and soldiers. Ordinary landlords were under the control of these ‘doras’. Landlords should follow the orders of ‘Doras’. This is the difference between them.

Question 7.
How do you think it was possible for the zamindars to keep increasing their incomes without increasing investment in the land?
Answer:
The prices of grains in the market rose and cultivation slowly expanded. So there was an increase in the income of Zamindars without increasing investment in the land.

Question 8.
Who do you think would have benefited from the Ryotwari Settlement – the farmers, the landlords or the British? Give reasons.
Answer:
The landlords would have benefited from the Ryotwari settlement.
Reasons:

1. There was an increase in the number of landlords in the Ryotwari area.
2. They showed much interest in giving their lands on rents rather than cultivation.

Question 9.
Why do you think the ryots did not invest in improving agriculture or extending agriculture?
Answer:
The prices rose faster than the land revenue and the ryots found it more profitable to employ tenants to cultivate their lands and receive rent from them. So they did not invest in improving agriculture or extending agriculture.

Question 10.
Who ultimately profited from production for export market and why?
Answer:
Moneylenders profited ultimately from production for export market. They lent more and more money to farmers on high-interest rates and profited.

Question 11.
Discuss the changes in the lives of traditional crafts persons and village artists.
Answer:
Traditional crafts persons are adding technology to their tradition. As the prices are high, there is no demand for their products. Village artists had enjoyed the encouragement of the Kings and Zamindars. Now they lack it. So their lives are in worse condition.

Question 12.
How are we paying the taxes nowadays?
Answer:
At present revenue is paid in the form of money.

Question 13.
Have you heard of any similar rapid rise or decline in prices of any agricultural produce in our own times? Find out about its impact on the farmers.
Answer:
In recent past, there was an increase in the prices of rice and red gram. Later they were reduced by the government. Peasants grew some crops thinking of high profits. If the demand fell, they would get losses that year.

Question 14.
Why do you think the Zamindars kept the soldiers and small forts?
Answer:
Zamindars had some villages under their control. They were the mediators between the rulers and the ruled. They had much income also. So they lived in small forts.
To protect their people from thefts and attacks, to collect revenues they needed soldiers. So they maintained them.

Question 15.
Why did the high revenue rates prevent zamindars and farmers from improving agriculture?
Answer:
As they paid heavy rates of rents and revenue from their income, they were not able to improve agriculture. They used the remaining amounts for their household purposes.

Question 16.
During the freedom movement the Zamindars normally supported the British. Can you explain why?
Answer:
The policies of Zamindars created a gap between them and their people. They earned more assets in the British reign. So they normally supported the British during the freedom movement.

Question 17.
Who introduced the Permanent Settlement of Tax and when?
Answer:
Cornwallis introduced this in 1793.

Question 18.
Why did the war in America lead to increase in prices of cotton in India?
Answer:
In 1861, there was Civil war in America and British factories turned to India for supply of cotton. As a result cotton prices soared high.

Question 19.
Why were famines caused under British rule? Do you think it was because of failure of rains or floods?
Answer:
The rains and floods caused one or two famines during the British rule. Most of the famines occurred due to their dictatorial rule. They exported food grains in the famines. They had no interference when the merchants created artificial scarcity by hoarding food grains. They didn’t work for the welfare of the people in India. So the famines were caused.

Question 20.
Write the names of any two peasant movements.
Answer:
The Deccan riots of 1860s, Rampa fituries, Moppila agitations etc.

Question 21.
Match the following.
1) 1865/66 ( ) A) Dhawaleshwaram anicut
2) 1860      ( ) B) Anicut over the Krishna river at Vijayawada
3) 1793      ( ) C) Ganjam famine
4) f1849     ( ) D) Permanent settlement
5) 1854      ( ) E) The Deccan riots
Answer:
1) C
2) E
3) D
4) A
5) B

Question 22.
Imagine that you live in the ‘Ceded Districts’, find put about the Palegars who fought with the British.
Answer:
Many wars were broken out between Palegars and the British from 1798 to 1805. First war was fought between Veerapandya and the British in 1799. Second main war was fought between a group of Palegars and the British. After a long and expensive campaign the British finally defeated the revolting Palegars of whom many were beheaded and hanged while others were deported to the Andaman Islands. Of the Palegars who submitted to the British some of them granted Zamindari status, which had only tax collection rights and disarmed them completely.

These AP 10th Class Biology Important Questions and Answers 8th Lesson Heredity will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Heredity

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How did you get the characters from your parents and grandparents?
Answer:
By Genes

Question 2.
Why man is called a moving museum of vestigial organs?
Answer:

1. The organs which are not useful in animals are called ‘vestigial organs’. There are nearly 180 vestigial organs in human beings,
2. Hence, human being is said to be a moving museum of vestigial organs.

Question 3.
Observe the given Flow-chart and answer the question.
Who decides the sex of the baby – mother or father? How?
Answer:
Father decides the sex of the baby.
Mother has XX chromosomes. Father has ‘XY’ chromosomes. Y chromosome is determining factor. So father is responsible.

Question 4.
What examples you will give to prove that Lamarckism is not correct?
Answer:
August Weismann, tested the theory proposed by Lamarck by experiments on rats. He removed tails of parental rats. He observed for twenty two generations but still off springs are normal with tails.

Question 5.
Which chromosomes determine the sex in human beings?
Answer:
Allosomes or Sex chromosomes. They are xx (girls) and xy (boys).

Question 6.
Why do we call appendix as a vestigial organ?
Answer:

1. Vestigial organ is the organ of our body which is smaller and simpler than those in related species they have lost their original function.
2. Appendix is highly developed in ruminants which helps in the digestion of cellulose. But, in human beings the cellulose is eliminated as undigested food. Hence in human beings appendix has no role in cellulose digestion. So, we call it as a vestigial organ.

Question 7.
What are variations?
Answer:
Differences in characters within very closely related groups of organisms are referred to as variations.

Question 8.
Who is known as father of genetics?
Answer:
Gregor Johann Mendel is known as father of genetics.

Question 9.
Why Mendel has chosen garden pea plant as material for his experiments?
Answer:
Pea plant has following advantages.

1. Well defined characters
2. Bisexual flowers
3. Predominently self fertilization
4. Early hybridization
5. Annual plant.

Question 10.
What are the vitamins present in pea plant?
Answer:
The vitamins present in pea plant are ‘A, C, E, K and B’.

Question 11.
What is F₃ generation?
Answer:
F₃ generation represents the offsprings produced from the individuals of F₂ generation.

Question 12.
What is a factor?
Answer:
The determining agent responsible for each trait is called a factor.

Question 13.
WTiat is law of dominance?
Answer:
According to Mendel, among a pair of alleles for a character, only one expresses itself in the first generation as one of the allele is dominant over the other. This is known as law of dominance.

Question 14.
What is phenotype ratio?
Answer:
The characters which can be seen is known as phenotype and their ratio is called phenotype ratio.

Question 15.
What is the phenotype ratio in F₁ generation of monohybrid cross?
Answer:
The phenotype ratio in F₁ generation of monohybrid cross is 3 : 1.

Question 16.
What is genotype ratio?
Answer:
The genetic makeup of an individual with reference to a specific character under consideration is called genotype and their ratio is called genotype ratio.

Question 17.
What is the genotype ratio in F₂ generation of monohybrid cross?
Answer:
The genotype ratio in F₂ generation of monohybrid cross is 1 : 2 : 1.

Question 18.
What are genes?
Answer:
Genes are the factors which are responsible for characters or traits of an organism. These are the units of heredity that are transferred from a parent to offspring. These are small segments of DNA on a chromosome.

Question 19.
What is an allele?
Answer:
The pair of genes which are responsible for character is called allele.

Question 20.
What are homozygous alleles?
Answer:
If an organism has two copies of the same allele for example TT or tt it is homozygous for that trait.

Question 21.
What are heterozygous allele?
Answer:
If an organism has one copy of two different alleles for example Tt, then it is heterozygous.

Question 22.
What is law of independent assortment?
Answer:
In the inheritance of more than one pair of characters (traits), the factors for each pair of characters assorted independently of the other pair. This is known as “Law of independent assortment”.

Question 23.
Wliat is the law of segregation?
Answer:
The law of segregation states that every individual possesses a pair of alleles for any particular trait and that each parent passes a randomly selected copy of only one of these to its offspring.

Question 24.
What are heritable traits?
Answer:
Traits that may be passed on from one generation to the next are called as heritable traits.

Question 25.
What is heredity?
Answer:
The process of acquiring characters or traits from parents is called heredity.

Question 26.
What is inheritance?
Answer:
The process in which traits are passed from one generation to another generation is called inheritance.

Question 27.
What is genetic drift?
Answer:
Change in the frequency of genes in small populations is called genetic drift.

Question 28.
Who was the first person to propose the theory of evolution?
Answer:
Jean Baptist Lamarck was the first person to propose the theory of evolution.

Question 29.
What are acquired characters?
Answer:
The characters developed during the lifetime of an organism are called acquired characters.

Question 30.
What is inheritance of acquired characters?
Answer:
Lamarck proposed that the acquired characters are passed to its offsprings i.e., to next generation. This is known as inheritance of acquired characters.

Question 31.
Who wrote the book “principles of geology” of evolution?
Answer:
The book “principles of geology” of evolution was written by Charles Lyell.

Question 32.
What is micro evolution?
Answer:
Small changes within the species is known as micro evolution.

Question 33.
What is macro evolution or speciation?
Answer:
The process of evolution through which new species are going to be formed is known as speciation or macro evolution.

Question 34.
The double helix structure of DNA was discovered by?
Answer:
James Watson and Francis Crick discovered the double helix structure of DNA.

Question 35.
What are autosomes?
Answer:
Chromosomes whose number and morophology do not differ between males and females of a species are called autosomes.

Question 36.
What are allosomes?
Answer:
The chromosomes that determine sex of the organism are called allosomes.

Question 37.
What is meant by survival of the fittest?
Answer:
According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, nature only selects or decides which organism should survive or perish in nature. This is the meaning of survival of the fittest.

Question 38.
Write the expanded form of DNA.
Answer:
The expanded form of DNA is Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid.

Question 39.
What is the basis of evolution?
Answer:
Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis of evolution.

Question 40.
What are analogous organs?
Answer:
The organs which have similar appearance and functions but have different structure and origin. Ex : Wings of a butterfly, bat and a bird.

Question 41.
What is embryology?
Answer:
Embryology is the study of the development of an organism from egg to adult stage.

Question 42.
What is Palaeontology?
Answer:
The study of fossil is called Palaeontology.

Question 43.
How palaeontologists determine the age of fossil?
Answer:
Palaeontologists determine the age of fossil by using carbon dating method.

Question 44.
Where do scientists collected fossil of dinosaurs?
Answer:
Scientists collected fossils of dinosaurs from Yamanapalli in Adilabad district in Telangana State.

Question 45.
What are connecting links?
A. The organisms which bear the characters of two different groups are called connecting links.

Question 46.
Which organism is recognised as the connecting link between aves and reptiles?
Answer:
Archeopteryx is recognised as the connecting link between aves and reptiles.

Question 47.
What is human evolution?
Answer:
Human evolution is the evolutionary process leading upto the appearance of modern human beings.

Question 48.
How do variations occur?
Answer:
Variations develop during reproduction in organisms. Sexual reproduction and errors in DNA copying lead to variations in offspring in a population.

Question 49.
What is divergent evolution?
Answer:
The evolutionary process through which homologous organs develop is called divergent evolution.

Question 50.
What is convergent evolution?
Answer:
The evolutionary process through which analogous organs develop is called convergent evolution.

Question 51.
What are vestigial organs?
Answer:
Organs which are not useful in animal are called vestigial organs.

Question 52.
Who proposed the theory of inheritance of acquired characters?
Answer:
Jean Baptist Lamarck proposed the theory of inheritance of acquired characters.

Question 53.
Who proved that the bodily changes which may occur due to environment won’t be passed to its offsprings?
Answer:
Augustus Weisemann proved that the bodily changes which may occur due to environment won’t be passed to its offsprings.

Question 54.
How the study of fossil is considered significant?
Answer:
The study of fossil is considered significant because

1. Fossils provide direct evidence of past life and
2. Fossils provide convincing proof of organic evolution.

Question 55.
What are the nitrogen bases present in DNA?
Answer:
The nitrogen bases present in DNA are adenine, guanine, thymine and cytosine.

Question 56.
How do embryological studies provide evidence for evolution?
Answer:
The similarities in embryonic development reinforce the idea of evolution from common ancestors. The sequence of embryonic development in different vertebrates shows similarities.

Question 57.
Why Mendel selected garden pea plant for his experiments? Give a reason.
Answer:
Mendel selected garden pea plant for his experiments as these can be self pollinated.

Question 58.
What is the evolutionary significance of the fossil archaeopteryx?
Answer:
Archaeopteryx serves as a connecting link between birds and reptiles. It is the fossil evidence to show that birds have evolved from reptiles.

Question 59.
How does the creation of variation in a species ensure survival?
Answer:
The creation of variations in a species enable them to adapt according to the changes and the new needs thus they will enable the survival of the species.

Question 60.
Define evolution.
Answer:
Evolution is the sequence of gradual changes which takes place in the primitive organisms over millions of years in which new species are produced.

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write Phenotypic and Genotypic ratio of table given at side.
(OR)
Write the Phenotypic and Genotypic ratio when heterogygous (Yy) pea plant is hybridised with the same kind of plant.
(OR)
Write the phenotypic and genotypic ratios of Mendel’s cross-pollination experiments in pea plants with heterozygous yellow seeds (Yy) with that of the same type, i.e., Yy.
Answer:
Phenotypic ratio -3:1
Genotypic ratio -1:2:1

Question 2.
Define and explain Variations with examples.
Answer:
Variations: Differences in characters within very closely related groups of organisms are referred to as variations.
(OR)
Differences among living beings are called variations.
Ex:

1. Earlobes in some humans are free and in others attached.
2. Colour of eyes (cornea) in some people are blue and in others black.
3. Colour of skin is black or white.

Question 3.
“Human being is said to be a moving museum of vestigial organs”. How can you support this statement?
Answer:

1. During the course of evolution, some organs remain in organisms. For example, appendix in the digestive system.
2. In human beings it has no role to play in the process of digestion.
3. But in herbivores like rabbit appendix play important role.
4. Such type of organs which are not useful in animal are called vestigial organs.
5. There are nearly 18 vestigial organs in human beings.
6. For example pinna, hair on skin, mammary glands in man, etc.
7. That’s why human being is said to be a moving museum of vestigial organs.

Question 4.
Fill the given table and write the genotypic ratio basing on table.

Answer:

The genotypic ratio is 1: 2: 1

Question 5.
Who decides the sex of the baby, mother or father? Explain with a flow chart.
(OR)
Draw a flow-chart showing the sex determination in human beings.
Answer:
Father decides the sex of the baby.

Question 6.
Define the terms phenotype and genotype.
Answer:
Phenotype: The observable properties of an organism that are produced by the interaction of the genotype and the environment. These characters can be seen.
Genotype: The genotype is the genetic make-up an individual usually with reference to a specific characteristic consideration.

Question 7.
What questions you will ask a palaeontologist about fossils?
Answer:

1. What are fossils?
2. How do they preserve?
3. What can be the actual remains?
4. How do they form?
5. What do we call the study of fossil?
6. Can you tell some examples of fossils?
7. How do the palaeontologists determine the age of fossils?
8. What are dinosaurs and ketosaurs? In which years they belong?
9. Where did they collect the fossil of dinosaurs? What is the length of this fossil?
10. Where did they preserve the fossil of dinosaurs?

Question 8.
How does the embryological evidences support that Evolution has taken place?
Answer:
Evidences:

1. Remarkable similarities in the Embryos of different animals from fish to man.
2. Tadpole of frog resembles the fish more than the frog.
3. Life history of every individual exhibits the structural features of their ancestors.
4. The resemblance is so close at an early stage, it is difficulty to distinguish one embryo from other.

Question 9.
Observe the checker board and answer the following questions.
i) Write phenotypic ratio of monohybrid cross.
ii) How many heterozygous plants are present in the checker board?
Answer:
i) Phenotypic ratio 3 : 1
ii) Two heterozygous plants – (Yy, yY)

Question 10.
What happens if there is no evolution?
Answer:

1. Evolution is a continuous and comprehensive process.
2. If it does not take place, there is no formation of new species.
3. Variations do not take place and hence desirable traits are not developed.
4. All the Earth would be with the primitive species without any changes.

Question 11.
If you cross a plant with pure yellow seeds (YY) with a plant with pure green seeds (yy), what would be the colour of the seeds in F₂ generation? Show in a checker board.
Answer:
All pea plants are yellow in F₁ generation on self pollination in F₁ generation.
In F₂ generation, we can observe that 75% are yellow seed producing pea plants and 25% are green ones.
Hence the phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1 the genotypic ratio is 1 : 2 : 1

Question 12.
If you meet a historian to clarify your doubt on ‘Man has first born in African conti¬nent’, what type of questions will you ask him / her?
Answer:

1. What is human evolution?
2. When were early man like forms appeared on land?
3. When did the fossil of the homosapiens appeared on earth?
4. Where did the early man lived?
5. Where can we trace the earliest members of the human race homosapiens?
6. When do some of our ancestors left Africa?
7. How the residents of Africa migrated to other places?
8. Why did the residents of Africa migrated to other places?
9. Are all humans evolved from single ancestor?

Question 13.
What is the difference between Phenotype and Genotype?
Answer:

Phenotype	Genotype
1. The characters which can be seen is known as phenotype.	1. The genetic make up of an individual is known as genotype.
2. We can’t determine the internal factors by phenotype.	2. Genotype itself is the indication of internal factors.
3. It tells about only the dominating characters which express externally.	3. It tells about both dominant and recessive characters present within.
4. The phenotype ratio in monohybrid cross is 3 : 1.	4. The genotype ratio in mono-hybrid cross is 1 :2 : 1.

Question 14.
What are the differences between homozygous and heterozygous ?
Answer:

Homozygous	Heterozygous
1. It refers to having two identical alleles for a single trait.	1. It refers to having two different alleles for a single trait.
2. For example, for long pea plant homozygous combination is ‘TT’	2. For example, for long pea plant heterozygous combination is ‘Tt’
3. On self pollination homozygous plants produce homozygous plants only.	3. On self pollination heterozygous plants produce homozygous dominant, heterozygous dominant and homozygous recessive plants in 1: 2 :1 ratio respectively.

Question 15.
How do traits get expressed according to Mendel?
Answer:

1. Mendel hypothesised that each character or trait is expressed due to a pair of factors or alleles.
2. Now these alleles are known as genes.
3. Gene is made up of a segment of DNA which provide information of protein.
4. Protein is needed for biochemical process.
5. If the proteins work efficiently, the traits get expressed in better way.
6. Thus genes control the traits or characters.

Question 16.
What is speciation? How it occurs?
Answer:

1. Origin of new species from existing one is called speciation.
2. It may occur due to a) mutations and b) natural selection.

Question 17.
What is sex chromosome? Name the two types of sex chromosomes. Mention the chromosomes present in male and female?
Answer:

1. The chromosome which determine the sex of a person is called sex chromosome.
2. The two types of sex chromosomes are X chromosome and Y chromosome.
3. Sex chromosomes in male is XY.
4. Sex chromosomes in female is XX.

Question 18.
Write a short notes on the law of “inheritance of acquired characters”.
Answer:

1. Law of inheritance of acquired characters was proposed by Jean Baptist Lamarck.
2. He thought that the characters acquired by an organism in its life time are passed to its offsprings.
3. He thought that at same point of time in the history, the size of giraffe was equal to that of deer.
4. Due to shortage of food material on the ground and lower branches of trees giraffes started stretching their necks.
5. Because of continuous usage of neck, after several generations giraffes obtained longer necks.
6. Such characters that are developed during the lifetime of an organism are called acquired characters.

Question 19.
Write a short notes on the theory of “Natural selection”.
Answer:

1. The theory of natural selection was proposed by Charles Darwin.
2. This theory states that nature only selects or decides which organism should survive or perish in nature.
3. The organisms with useful traits will survive.
4. The organisms having harmful traits are going to be perished or eliminated from its environment.

Question 20.
Write briefly about “Survival of the fittest”.
Answer:

1. Variations which are useful are retained, while those which are harmful are removed.
2. In a population where there is a struggle, the “fittest” will be survived.
3. Nature favours only useful variations.
4. Each species tends to produce large number of offspring.
5. They compete with each other for food, space, mating and other species.
6. In this struggle for existence, only the fittest can survive. This is called survival of the fittest.
7. Over long period of time this leads to formation of new species.

Question 21.
How are new species evolved?
Answer:

1. Sexual reproduction and errors in DNA copying leads to variations in offspring in a population.
2. Organisms contain variations that help to adapt to its environment going to be survived more efficiently.
3. But in the same population, the organisms which contain the trait which may not help to adapt in its environment may be perished or eliminated slowly.
4. These small changes within the population due to variations is called micro evolution.
5. When organisms of the same species with variations are separated by some cause for long years, lot of variations may take place in these species.
6. These accumulated variations make them unable to mate and produce new offsprings.
7. Thus new species form and this is known as speciation or macro evolution.

Question 22.
Write a brief note on homologous organs.
Answer:

1. Homologous organs are the organs which perform different functions but have similar structure and origin.
2. For example forelimb of a whale (swimmer), bat (flyer), horse (runner), mole (digger) and man (grasping).
3. If we carefully observe the anatomy of all these animals, they have a common pattern in the arrangement of bones.
4. Even though their external form and functions are different, they are similar internally.
5. Thus it indicates that all the vertebrates have evolved from a common ancestor.

Question 23.
What are fossils? Write a short note on their formation.
Answer:

1. Fossils are evidence of ancient life forms or ancient habitats which have been preserved by natural processes.
2. Fossil evidence is typically preserved within sediments deposited beneath water and land.
3. They can be actual remains of once lived such as bones or seeds or even traces of past event such as dinosaurs foot print or ripple marks on a pre-historic shore.
4. Usually when organisms die, their bodies will be decomposed and lost.
5. But sometimes the body or at least some parts may be in an environment that does not let it decompose completely.
6. For example if a dead insect get caught in mud, it will not decompose quickly and the mud will eventually harden and retain the impression of the body parts of insect.
7. All such preserved traces of living organisms are called fossils.

Question 24.
How would you appreciate Jean Baptist Lamarck for his contribution to the biology?
Answer:

1. Jean Baptist Lamarck was the first person to propose the theory of evolution.
2. He proposed that the acquired characters are passed to its offspring i.e., to next generation.
3. This is known as inheritance of acquired characters.
4. For example elongation of neck and forelimbs in giraffe.
5. Even though this theory was disproved, his contribution to biology was appreciable because it changed the belief of the people of olden days that the organisms on the earth have not undergone any change.

Question 25.
How did August Weisemann disprove the theory of “Inheritance of acquired characters” proposed by Lamarck? (OR)
What example will you give to prove that Lamarckism is not correct?
Answer:

1. August Weisemann, tested the theory of “Inheritance of acquired characters” proposed by Lamarck by an experiment on rats.
2. He removed tails of parental rats.
3. He observed its offsprings which have normal tails.
4. He has done it again for twenty two generations but still offsprings are normal with tails.
5. He proved that the bodily changes are not inherited. So they won’t be passed to its offspring.
6. Thus he disproved the theory of “Inheritance of acquired characters”.

Question 26.
Some organisms or species adapt better and survive in a community of organisms. Why do you think this may happen?
Answer:

1. This may happen due to the variations posessed by the organisms which are suitable to that habitat.
2. The variations that help the organism to collect food to escape from their enemies, increase the chance of survival for the organism than the other organisms.
3. In general, variations come during sexual reproduction or mutation.
4. If the variations are useful, that organisms can adapt better and survive.
5. These organisms can be selected by the nature.

Question 27.
What do you understand about pure breeds?
Answer:

1. Pure breed is that expresses the selected character over several generations.
2. A pure breed will have both the factors of the same type.
3. It means all the pure breeds are homozygous.
4. All the gamates produced by them will have same type of factor.
5. Pure breed on self pollination will give pure breed again.

Question 28.
What do you understand about F₁ generation?
Answer:

1. F₁ generation or first filial is the offspring of first generation parents.
2. Cross pollination of pure breeds will give F₁ generation.
3. All the individuals produced in F₁ generation are heterozygous.
4. Only the dominant characters are expressed in this generation.

Question 29.
What are the differences between F₁ generation and F₂ generation of mono hybrid cross?
Answer:

F1 generation	F2 generation
1)   F1 generation or first filial is the offspring of first generation parents. 2)    Cross pollination of pure breeds will give F1 generation. 3)    All the individuals produced in F1 generation are heterozygous. 4)    Only the dominant characters are expressed in this generation. 5)    All the individuals produced in F1 generation are same, both phenotypically or genotypically.	1)     F2 generation is the offspring of second generation parents. 2)     Self or cross-pollination of F1 generation will give F2 generation. 3)     Individuals produced in F2 generation may be homozygous or heterozygous. 4)     Homozygous recessive plants express recessive characters. 5)     In F2 generation individuals, the phenotype ratio is 3:1 and the genotype ratio is 1 : 2 : 1.

Question 30.
What are the differences between monohybrid cross and dihybrid cross ?
Answer:

Monohybrid cross	Dihybrid cross
1) In monohybrid cross only one pair of contrasting characters are taken into consideration. 2) In monohybrid cross, the phenotype ratio of F2 generation individuals is 3:1. 3) In monohybrid cross, the genotype ratio of F2 generation individuals is 1:2:1.	1) In dihybrid cross two pairs of contrasting characters are taken into consideration. 2) In dihybrid cross, the phenotype ratio of F2 generation individual is 1:2: 1. 3) In dihybrid cross, the genotype ratio of F2 generation individuals is 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.

Question 31.
Write a short note on fossils of dinosaurs, ketosaurs collected in Telangana state.
Answer:

1. A rare and magnificient fossil of the dinosaurs, ketosaurs were collected in Yamanapalli in Adilabad district of Telangana district.
2. They belong to the lower jurassic age going back to about 160 million years.
3. This fossil has 14 meters length and 5 meters height.
4. This fossil is preserved in BM Birla Science Centre. Hyderabad.

Question 32.
Write a short notes on vestigial organs.
Answer:

1. During the course of evolution some organs remain in organisms, even though they don’t have any work to do.
2. For example appendix in the digestive system of human beings has no role to play in the process of digestion.
3. But in herbivores like rabbit appendix plays important role.
4. Such type of organs which are not useful in animal are called “vestigial organs”.
5. There are nearly 180 vestigial organs in human beings such as pinna, hair on skin, mammary glands in human, etc.
6. That’s why human being is said to be a moving museum of vestigial organs.

10th Class Biology 8th Lesson Heredity 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fossils are the precious evidences preserved by the nature to help us knowing about ancient life forms. Write the information you collected about fossils.
Answer:

1. Fossils are the evidences of ancient life forms or ancient habitates which have been preserved by natural processes.
2. Fossils provide information about what lived in the past.
3. Palentologists determine the age of fossils by using carbon-dating method.
4. They convey us about genetic condition, heredity characters through inactive chromosomes which are present in them.
5. They give a detailed information about their diet, life styles, shape of body, etc.
6. Fossils provide the information about how species have changed across long periods of the earth history.

Question 2.
a) If a sperm with ‘X’ chromosome fertilizes with an ovum with ‘X’ chromosome, what will be the gender of the baby?
b) Who determines the sex/gender of the baby, mother or father?
c) Is it correct to blame the mother for giving birth to a baby girl?
d) Are all our characters resembles our parents?
Answer:
a) Female
b) Father
c) Not correct
d) No, some variations occur.

Question 3.
Observe the diagram and answer the following questions. Vamsi and Priya are newly married couple. They want to give birth to a male child.

a) Draw a probable diagram showing transfer of chromosomes from parents to give birth to male child.
Answer:
b) Who determines the sex of the baby? How can you say ?
Answer:
Father (Vamsi) determines the sex of the baby. Because the chromosome ‘Y’ that determines male sex is present in males.

Question 4.

i) What does the given flow chart indicate?
Answer:
Sex determination in human beings

ii) What will happen if the sperm containing ‘X’ chromosomes fertilises the ovum?
Answer:
Baby will be a girl

iii) Who decides the sex of the baby – Mother or Father?
Answer:
Father

iv) How many pairs of chromosomes are present in off-spring?
Answer:
23 pairs

Question 5.
Write a brief note on Homologous and Analogous organs.
Answer:
Homologous organs: Organs which are structurally similar but functionally different are known as “Homologous organs”.
Forelimbs of a whale – swimming
Wings of a bat – flying
Forelegs of cheetah – running

Analogous: Organs which are structurally different but functionally similar are known as “Analogous organs”.
Eg : Wings of a bird – flying
Wings of a bat – flying

Question 6.
Observe the flow – chart and answer the following.
i) What does the flow – chart represent?
Answer:
The flow – chart represents a monohybrid hybridisation between a pure breed Tall (T) and a pure breed dwarf (t) plants resulting first filial generation. On self pollinating with F₁ generation the new breed have any combinations of T, t came in F₂ generation.

ii) What is the phenotype characters in F₁ generation?
Answer:
In the phenotypic characters in F₁ generation all are dominant that is (T) Tall,

iii) What is the Genotype, Phenotype ratio of F₂ generation?
Answer:
Genotype ratio in F₂ generation is 1 : 2 : 1
Phenotype ratio in F₂ generation is 3 : 1

iv) What laws of inheritance did you understand by this flow – chart?
Answer:
understand that i) the law of dominance ii) law of segregation proposed by Mendel.

Question 7.
Write the Darwin’s theory of evolution in a nutshell.
Answer:

1. Any group of population of an organism has variations and all members of group are not identical.
2. Variations maybe passed from parent to offspring through heredity.
3. The natural selection over abundance of offspring leads to a constant struggle for their survival in any population.
4. Individuals with variations that help them to survive and reproduce tend to live longer and have more offsprings than organisms with less useful features.
5. The offsprings of survivors inherit the useful variations, and the same process happens with every new generation until the variation becomes a common feature.
6. As the environment changes, the organism within the environment adapt and changes to the new living conditions.
7. Over a long period of time, each species of organism can accumulate so many changes that it becomes a new species, similar to but distinctly different from the original species. All species on the earth arise in this way.
8. Evolution is a slow and continuous process that involves several thousands of generations.

Question 8.
What are Mendel’s laws of inheritance? What are the reasons to choose pea plant for his experiment?
Answer:
Mendel’s Laws of inheritance:

1. Law of Dominance : Among a pair of closely related ‘alleles’ or factors, only one expresses itself. In the first generation as one of the allele is dominant over the other. This is called as Mendel’s Law of dominance.
2. Law of Segregation : The law of segregation states that every individual possesses a pair of alleles for any particular trait that each parent posses a randomly selected copy only one of these to its off-spring.
3. Law of Independent assortment : In the inheritance of more than one pair of characters (traits), the factors for each pair of characters assort independently of the other pairs. This is known as ‘Law of Independent assortment’.

Mendel has chosen garden pea as material for his experiment because:

1. It has well developed characters.
2. It is a bisexual flower.
3. Predominently self pollinating.
4. Suitable for cross pollination.
5. It is an annual plant.

Question 9.
What is Phenotype and Genotype? Explain them with the help of Mendel’s Monohybrid cross.
Answer:
Phenotype: Expression of visible character of an individual is called phenotype.
Genotype: Genetic constitution of an individual for any character is called Genotype or Probable nature of factors is known as genotype.
Cross Pollinating a pure breed of yellow coloured pea seeds (YY) and green coloured pea seeds (yy) give F₁ generation. All pea seeds were yellow in F₁ generation. So, yellow colour is phenotype. ‘Yy’ is genotype of all pea seeds in F₁ generation.

F₂ Generation : Self pollination of F₁ pea plants (Yy)

Phenotype Ratio is 3:1 Genotype Ratio is 1:2:1.

Question 10.
Explain in brief any two evidences of Evolution.
Answer:
Some of the evidences of evolution are

1. Homologous and analogous organs
2. Evidences from embryology and
3. Evidences from fossils.

I. Homologous and analogous organs :

1. Organs which have common fundamental anatomical plan and similar embryonic origin, whatever varied functions they may perform are regarded as homologous organs.
2. For example forelimb of a whale, wing of bat, leg of leopord, claw of mole and hand of man.
3. They indicate that all the vertebrates are evolved from common ancestor.
4. Organs which are structurally different but functionally similar are known as “Analogous organs”.
5. For example wings of bats and wings of birds.
6. The designs of the two wings, their structure and components are different but they look similar because they have a common use for flying but their origin is not common.

II. Evidences from embryology:

1. There are remarkable similarities in the embryos of different animals from fish to man.
2. The resemblance is so close that at an early stage even an experienced embryologist would find difficulty to distinguish one embryo from the other.
3. This strengthens the view of the existence of a common ancestor from which all these have evolved.

III. Evidences from fossils:

1. Fossils are evidences of ancient life forms or ancient habitats which have been preserved by natural processes.
2. Palaeontologists determine the age of fossils by using carbon dating method.
3. These fossils provide evidences of presence of extinct animals like dinosaurs and how the evolution occurred on the earth, etc.

Question 11.
Observe the given flow-chart and answer the following questions:

i) Name the chromosomes that determine the sex of an individual.
Answer:
Y Chromosome of father.

ii) Show given information in the form of Checker Board.
Answer:

iii) In this situation, which principle of Mendel is applicable?
Answer:
Law of dominance

iv) “Mother determines the sex of the baby”. Is this statement correct or not? Why?
Answer:
The statement is not correct. Because the sperm of father that carries Y chromosome fertilize with ovum of mother that contains X chromosome the resultant will be XY – Male baby.

Question 12.
Keep in mind Mendel’s experiments and write what you know about the following concepts?
a) Pure breed b) Phenotype c) Genotype d) Alleles
Answer:
a) Pure breed: These are the plants that expresses a selected character over several generations. Such plants according to Mendel were pure breed for that character.

b) Phenotype: The characters which can be seen is known as phenotype. We cannot determine the internal factors by phenotype. It tells about only the dominating char-acters which express externally. The phenotype ratio in monohybrid cross is 3 : 1.

c) Genotype: The genetic make up of an individual is known as genotype. Genotype itself is the indication of internal factors. It tells about both dominant and recessive characters present within. The genotype ratio in monohybrid cross is 1 : 2: 1.

d) Alleles: Alleles are corresponding pairs of genes located at specific positions in chromosomes. Together they determine the genotype of their host organism. Every individual possesses a pair of alleles for any particular trait and that each parent passes a rondomly selected copy of only one of these to an offspring. The offspring then receives its own pair of alleles for that trait one each from both parents.

Question 13.
Competition among organisms, variations, natural selection survival of the fittest.
Which theory explains all these aspects? Describe them in a orderly manner.
Answer:

1. Competition: Every living organism in this world reproduces itself. The rate of multiplication and existence of organisms are more or less common for all living things. But the food supply and space remain unchanged, in other words they are limited. Under these conditions, there is a competition among the organisms to fulfil their needs of food and space. This is known as struggle for existence. It may be interspecific, intraspecific and the environment factors.
2. Variations: Every organism has its own specific characteristic and relationship with its environment. The variability caused by variations may be large or small. Large variations are known as macro variation and small variations called micro variations. Variations may be favourable or harmful. Those with useful variations survive while the others perish.
3. Natural selection: The organism with favourable variations are best adapted to the environment in which they live. They have a better chance of survival and perpetuation of race. This principle is called natural selections.
4. Survival of the fittest: Variations which are useful are retained, while those are harmful are lost. In a population where there is a struggle, the fittest will be survived and the less adjusted will be perished. This is known as the elimination of the unfit.

Question 14.
What is genetic drift? Explain how it provides diversity in the population.
Answer:

1. Changes in the frequency of genes in small populations, due to accidents is known as “Genetic drift”.’
2. Let us consider a colour variation occurred in red colour beetles which are living on green coloured leaves of bushes.
3. It results in “blue” colour beetles instead of ‘red’ colour beetles and passed its colour to its progeny.
4. Initially in the population, there are few blue beetles, but most are red.
5. Imagine at this point, an elephant comes by and stamps on the bushes where the beetles live.
6. This kills most of the beetles but by chance a few beetles survived are mostly blue.
7. Again the beetle population slowly increases, but in the beetle population most of them are in blue colour.
8. Thus genetic drift provides diversity in the population.

Question 15.
Have the apparent groups of human beings (races) evolved differently?
Answer:

1. No, there is no biological basis to the notion of human races. All humans are a single species.
2. Regardless of where we have lived for the past few thousand years, we all came from Africa.
3. The earliest members of human species, Homosapiens, can be traced there.
4. Our genetic footprints can be traced back to our African roots.
5. A couple of hundred thousand years ago, some of our ancestors left Africa while others stayed on.
6. While the residents spread across Africa, the migrants slowly spread across the planet.
7. They did not go in a single line. They went forwards and backwards, with groups, sometimes separating from each other, even moving in and out of Africa.
8. Like all other species on planet, they had come into being as an accident of evolution, and were trying to live their lives the best they could.

Question 16.
How would you appreciate Gregor Johann Mendel’s contribution to the genetics?
(OR)
Why Gregor Johann Mendel is considered as the father of genetics?
Answer:

1. Gregor Johann Mendel worked on the problem of how variations were passed from one generation to the other.
2. As he was a monk, he did his experiments with interest in the garden of the monastery.
3. He worked for over seven years after which he presented conclusions from his experimental data in a form of a detailed research paper.
4. Mendel made many careful observations of pea plants and asked himself questions about what he observed and then planned and designed experiments to find the answers.
5. He had worked on nearly 10,000 pea plants of 34 different varieties choosing 7 distinguishing forms of characters.
6. His experimental outcomes gave the idea how the variations were passed on from one generation to another.
7. He was an exemplary person for his observation, planning, patience and experimental skills.
8. His efforts to know the secrets of nature was really appreciable.

Question 17.
What are the hypothesis assumptions and outcomes of Mendel’s experiments with pea plants?
Answer:
Regarding his experiments with pea plants, Mendel hypothesised that

1. Characters were carried as traits and an organism always carried a pair of factors for a character.
2. The distinguishing traits of the same character were present in the population of an organism.
3. The traits shown by the pea plants must be in the seeds that produced them.
4. The seeds must have obtained by the traits from the parent plants.

His assumptions made to explain his observations are:
Assumption 1: Every pea plant has two ‘factors’ which are responsible for producing a particular property or trait.
Assumption 2: During reproduction one ‘factor’ from each parent is taken to form a new pair in the progeny.
Assumption 3: One of these will always dominate the other if mixed together.

Laws made from his experiments:

1. Law of Dominance: Among a pair of alleles for a character, only one expresses itself in the first generation as one of the allele is dominant over the other.
2. Law of Segregation: Every individual possesses a pair of alleles for any particular trait and that each parent passes a randomly selected copy of only one of these to its offspring.
3. Law of Independent Assortment: In the inheritance of more than one pair of characters the factors for each pair of characters assorts independently of the other pairs.

These AP 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social 9th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Rampur: A Village Economy

10th Class Social 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the main factor of production in the agricultural sector?
Answer:
The main factor of production in the agriculture sector is land.

Question 2.
Why were usually men paid more wages than women for the same work?
Answer:

1. Because ours is a male-dominated society.
2. Women are paid less wages because of gender bias.

Question 3.
Write any two aspects of Rampur village’s economy which you like.
Answer:

1. In Rampur no land is left idle.
2. The non-agricultural sector also developed.
3. Due to the development of the transport sector, other sectors of the economy also developed.

Question 4.
What is multiple cropping?
Answer:
To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the same year is called multiple cropping.

Question 5.
What are the main non-farm production activities taking place in your region?
Answer:

1. Transportation
2. Dairy farming
3. Brick making
4. Carpentry
5. Basket making
6. Poultry
7. Shopkeeping
8. Fishing, etc.

Question 6.
Who are called as labour force?
Answer:
Labour force: People, in the age group of 15 – 59 are labour force, (or)
People who are employed are called labour force.

Question 7.
How do the small farmers procure the capital needed for farming?
Answer:
The small farmers procure the capital needed for farming by borrowing money from

1. Large farmers
2. Moneylenders
3. The traders who supply various inputs for cultivation.

Question 8.
Create a slogan on the importance of agriculture.
Answer:
Without agriculture – there is no future.
No farmer-No food.

Question 9.
Which is the main production activity in villages across India?
Answer:
Farming is the main production activity in villages across India.

Question 10.
Name any two non-farming activities in Rampur village.
Answer:
Small scale manufacturing, dairy farming, transport services, etc.

Question 11.
Who owns the majority of land in Rampur village?
Answer:
80 upper-caste families own the majority of land in Rampur village.

Question 12.
What educational facilities are available in Rampur village?
Answer:
Rampur has two primary schools and one high school.

Question 13.
What health facilities are available in Rampur village?
Answer:
Rampur has a primary health centre run by the government and one private dispensary where the sick are treated.

Question 14.
What is the main aim of production?
Answer:
The main aim of production is to produce goods and services required by the people.

Question 15.
What is a marketable surplus?
Answer:
The difference between the quantity of output that a farmer produces during a year and the quantity that he keeps with himself for his own and family’s consumption is called a marketable surplus.

Question 16.
Who are small farmers?
Answer:
Farmers who own less than 2 hectares of land are known as small farmers.

Question 17.
Who are the medium farmers?
Answer:
Farmers who own more than 2 hectares and less than 10 hectares of land are called medium farmers.

Question 18.
Who are large farmers?
Answer:
The farmers who own more than 10 hectares of land are known as large farmers.

Question 19.
What is the basic constraint in raising farm production?
Answer:
Land area under cultivation is the basic constraint in raising farm production because it is fixed and scarce.

Question 20.
What is the minimum wage rate for a farm labourer?
Answer:
The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is Rs. 60/- per day.

Question 21.
Which is the most abundant factor of production?
Answer:
Labour is the most abundant factor of production.

Question 22.
What do medium and large farmers do with their earnings from surplus farm produce?
Answer:
A part of the earning from surplus farm produce is saved and kept for buying capital for the next season. Another part may be utilized for lending to small farmers who require a loan.

Question 23.
How did the spread of electricity help the people of Rampur?
Answer:
a) Electricity helped farmers in running tubewells in the fields.
b) It is also used for carrying out various small scale business in the village.

Question 24.
What are the sources of irrigation?
Answer:

1. Canals
2. Tubewells
3. Tanks and
4. Rains.

Question 25.
What is fixed capital?
Answer:
Tools, machines and buildings are called ‘fixed’ capital because these can be used in production for several years.

Question 26.
What is working capital?
Answer:
Raw materials and money form part of working capital. The capital which is used for production is known as working capital.

Question 27.
Classify the capital investment on various items in production.
Answer:
There are two types of capital investments in production.

1. Physical or fixed capital
2. Working capital

Question 28.
Name the items/factors that are needed for production.
Answer:
There are four factors of production. They are:

1. land 2
2. labour
3. capital and
4. organisation.

10th Class Social 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the aims and objectives that are directed by the landless rural workers or labourers?
Answer:
The aims and objectives that are directed by the landless rural workers or labourers:

1. Some more days of work.
2. Still better wages.
3. Better education to their children in the local govt, schools.
4. No social discrimination.
5. Chances of leadership activities, etc.

Question 2.
Study the information given below and write your observations.

Answer:

1. 87% of the farmers are small farmers are holding only 48% of the cultivated land.
2. 13% are the medium and large farmers.
3. There is unequal land distribution in India.

Question 3.
Convert the information given below into a pie-chart (rough diagram). Write your observation.

Type of farmers	Percentage of cultivated area
Small farmers	48%
Medium and large farmers	52%

Answer:
Cultivated Area

Observation: While a major part of the land (52%) is under control of medium and large farmers, minor part of land (48%) is under the control of small farmers.

Question 4.
Write a letter to the Tahasildar (MRO), explaining the problems faced by the farmers because of famine.
Answer:

Kalyandurg,
Date : xx xx xxxx.

To,
The Tahsildar,
Mandal Revenue office,
Anantapur

Sub: Problems faced by farmers due to famine – request for write off old loans.

Respected Sir,

I am from Kalyandurg I would like bring to your notice the following one and for favourable help. The rains are very less in the before year. So, crops left much loss. The farmers get into debt. They can’t repay the loans. They need money for purchasing seeds, fertilizers, pesticides and to cultivate the land. It will be highly difficult to get a loan again from bank.

Hence, I request you place it in front of the government, write – off the old loans and give them the new loans. I hope you provide immediate help to the farmers without loss to them to grow the crop this year.

Thanking you sir,

Yours truly,
x x x x x

Question 5.
Mention the factors of production.
(OR)
Explain any one factor of production.
Answer:
Land: An area of ground, especially when used for a particular purpose such as farming or building; A necessary factor for production.
Labour: Workers especially people who do practical work with their hands.
Working capital: The requirement of raw material and money which are used up in the production cycle.
Fixed capital: Physical Capital = Tools, machine and buildings, which are not used up or consumed immediately in the production process.
Knowledge: It is essential to use all the above in a meaningful way to produce some goods or services.

Question 6.
Today, why is there a need for expansion of non-farm activities in rural areas?
Answer:
Nowadays farming is not providing regular employment to rural people and they are not getting sufficient income also. That’s why the expansion of non – farm activities in rural areas is needed. Nowadays people with some amount of capital can set up non-farm activities.

It requires very little land. Banks provide loans to self-employment purpose. People can get market facilities to sell their goods. Neighbouring towns and cities provide more demand to village goods.
Ex: Milk, jaggery, broomsticks etc.

Question 7.
How do the farmers get their capital for agriculture?
Answer:
For capital, farmers face many troubles. They get their capital by borrowing from large farmers and village money lenders. They take loans from traders who supply various inputs for cultivation. They get from banks also but very less and rare.

Question 8.
What can be done so that more non-farm production activities can be started in the villages?
Answer:

1. At present, non-farm production activities engage less number of people in villages.
2. Many things can be done so that more non-farm production activities can be started in the villages.
3. It is important to see that loan available to people, who are interested in setting up non-farm production activities, at low rate of interest.
4. It is good to have markets where these goods and services produced can be sold.
5. To connect more and more villages to towns and cities through good roads.
6. As these require little land and some capital, entrepreneurs should be encouraged.

Question 9.
Describe the work of a farmer with 1 hectare of land.
Answer:

1. The farmer with 1 hectare of land is considered as a small farmer.
2. He usually keeps large share of production for household needs.
3. He does not have much saving for capital.
4. When he thinks of inputs expenditure, he may borrow money from large farmer or moneylender.
5. In case of borrowing from large farmer, he not only pays high rate of interest but he is also forced to work as a labourer in the large farmer’s fields.
6. In case of borrowing from money lender, he has to pay high rates of interests.

Question 10.
Modern farming methods require more inputs which are manufactured in industry. Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes, modern farming methods like the use of fertilizers, pesticides, high yielding variety of seeds, power-driven tubewells of irrigation, latest tools and implements like tractors, harvesters, threshers, etc. require more inputs which are manufactured in industry.

Question 11.
Is it important to increase the area under irrigation? Why?
Answer:

1. It is very important to increase the area under irrigation because it is not wise to depend on monsoon rains which were uncertain and erratic.
2. To increase production we have to bring more area under irrigation.
3. It helps us to improve the farming pattern or adopt modern farming methods in those areas.

Question 12.
Give the characteristics of Rural industries.
Answer:

1. Rural industries are small scale manufacturing units.
2. They involve very simple production methods.
3. The output is very small.
4. The work is usually carried out by the members of the family.
5. The work is carried out at home and not in workshops.
6. The profits earned are also less.

Question 13.
Explain ‘Multiple Cropping’ in your own words.
Answer:

1. Growing more than one crop on a piece of land during the year is known as multiple cropping.
2. It is the most common and traditional practice to increase production on a given piece of land.
3. All farmers in Rampur grow at least two main crops.

Question 14.
Which changes have taken place in the way of farming practised in India?
Answer:

1. Traditional seeds have been replaced by HYVS.
2. Natural manures were replaced by chemical fertilizers.
3. Use of pesticides.
4. Use of farm machinery.
5. Use of tubewells for irrigation, instead of Persian wheels.

Question 15.
“Excessive use of chemical Fertiliser and pesticides declines the Fertility of land”.
Give your opinion on this.
Answer:

1. Experience shows fertility of the land is declining due to overuse, excessive use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides.
2. The situation of water is equally alarming.
3. Underground water tables have fallen rapidly across the country.
4. The use of natural resources also not always been judicious while increasing production.

Question 16.
“Labour in an essential item for production”. Read the statement and interpretate.
Answer:

1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
3. Skilled or semi-skilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
4. Thus labour is an essential item in production.

Question 17.
The expenditure on tools, machines and buildings is called as physical capital. Ex¬plain why.
Answer:

1. The expenditure on tools, machines and building is called physical capital.
2. They are not used up or consumed immediately in the process of production.
3. They help to produce goods over many years.
4. They require some repair and maintenance so that they remain useful and can be used year after year.
5. That is why they are called fixed or physical capital.

Question 18.
Ground-level waters are rigorously declining nationwide. Suggest some alternatives.
Answer:

1. Underground water levels are deteriorating at a faster rate throughout India.
2. To conserve water schemes like a watershed, soaking pit, check dams, afforestation, bund construction, etc., should be taken up.
3. Digging borewells should be allowed only for drinking water but not irrigation.
4. Farmers should look for alternate crops which use lesser water.

Question 19.
Name some Dairy activities in your area.
Answer:

1. Many families in my region are engaged in milk production.
2. Various types of grass, maize, bajra, etc., is used to feed the cattle.
3. Two tradesmen established milk collection and storing points.
4. Family labour and especially women take care of the rearing of animals.

Question 20.
Explain the business tactics of a small businessman in your area.
Answer:

1. Once Mr. Venkateswara Rao organised a cloth business in my region.
2. At the beginning, he used to wander every household to sell cloths and collects money weekly.
3. By conducting his business reliably and supplying quality items he became popular.
4. Later he set up his own business firm and till date it is running well.

10th Class Social 9th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Based on the pie chart and the particulars given below, answer the questions.

1. Which kind of houses are more in Rampur Village?
   Answer:
   Huts and thatched houses are more in Rampur village.
2. In which category does 60% of Rampur village belong?
   Answer:
   60% of Rampur village belong to the poor class.
3. State approximately, the number of middle-class people in Rampur village.
   Answer:
   25% people of Rampur belong to the middle class.
4. Which category of people live in the terraced houses built with cement and bricks?
   Answer:
   Rich people live in the terraced houses built with cement and bricks.

Question 2.
Read the table given below and answer the following questions.

Workers	Ploughing	Sowing	Weeding	Transplanting	Harvesting	Winnowing	Threshing	Picking Cotton
Male	214	197	215	–	164	168	152	–
Female	–	152	130	143	126	124	118	136

1. What are the works done only by male workers?
   Answer:
   Ploughing.
2. What are the works done only by female workers?
   Answer:
   Transplanting, Picking cotton.
3. In which works, the wages are different for male and female?
   Answer:
   Sowing, Weeding, Harvesting, Winnowing, Threshing.
4. What are the reasons for paying less wages to female workers than male workers?
   Answer:
   The concept existing in the society is that, the women do less work than men.

Question 3.
Read the given paragraph and interpret.

Labour being the most abundant factor of production, it would be ideal if the new ways of farming used much more labour. Unfortunately, such a thing has not happened. The use of labour on farms is limited. The labour, looking for opportunities is thus migrating to neighbouring villages, towns and cities. Some labour has entered the non – farm sector in the village.

Answer:

1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
3. Skilled or semi-skilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
4. Thus labour is essential item in production.

Conclusion: If government provides loans to landless labour for agriculture purpose, motor pumpsets, engines, etc. more labour we will find in the agricultural sector.

Question 4.
Mention the factors of production and explain any two of them.
Answer:

1. The aim of production is to produce the goods and services that we want.
2. There are four requirements for the production of goods and services.

They are:

1. Land
2. Labour
3. Capital – (a) Physical or fixed capital (b) Working capital
4. Knowledge and enterprise

1. Land: The first requirement is land, and other natural resources such as water, forests, minerals.
It is a free gift of nature and it is neither created nor destroyed.
2. Labour: It is a factor which helps in production. There are three types of labour – skilled, semi-skilled and unskilled. Some production activities require highly educated workers to per¬form the necessary task. Other activities require manual work. Each worker provides the labour necessary for production.

Question 5.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
Data refers to the land cultivated by farmers).

Type of farmers	Size of plots	% of farmers	% of cultivated area
Small farmers	Less than 2 hectares	87%	48%
Medium and Large farmers	More than 2 hectares	13%	52%

Answer:

1. The given data refers to the land cultivated by farmers.
2. As per the data, 87% of the total farmers, i.e. small farmers are cultivating only 48% of the total land.
3. The remaining 13% of the farmers are medium and large farmers. They are cultivating the remaining 52% of the land.
4. This indicates that there is no equal distribution of land among farmers.
5. I opine that the distribution of cultivated land is unequal in India.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

The land is the most crucial factor necessary for farm production. Land area under cultivation, however^practically fixed. In Rampur, since 1921 there has been no expansion in land area under cultivation. By then, the nearby forests had been cleared and some of the wastelands in the village Were converted to cultivable land. There is no further scope to increase agriculture production by longing new land under cultivation.

Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that land is essential for agriculture.
2. The cultivable land is not expanding.
3. In some areas a few forest lands are cleared and the waste land is being converted to agriculture land. There is no other way of expansion of land.
4. My opinion is that the issue discussed in this paragraph is correct. The basic factor of production is land.
5. The population is increasing day by day.
6. The food grain production is not increasing or expanding in proportion to the population. It is the time for searching for new ways of increasing the production of food grains.
7. Green revolution is also to be encouraged.
8. Rampur village is a model for us.
9. In conclusion I would like to say that there is much land without irrigation.
10. Due to some other reasons like power cut, lack of capital, non-availability of ground water the farmers are not able to involve in farm activities.
11. The government should concentrate on these issues and try to solve them so as to increase the cultivable land and increase the food grains.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

Most small farmers have to borrow money to arrange for the working capital. They borrow from large farmers or the village moneylenders or the traders who supply various inputs for cultivation. The rate of interest on such loans is very high. They are put to a great distress to repay the loan.

Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph, small farmers in villages take loans from the moneylenders.
2. They don’t have sufficient capital for farming activities.
3. As they are charged a high rate of interest, they are put to distress.
4. This is the real situation of small farmers.
5. I do agree with this. My comments on this paragraph are as follows.
6. Generally, large farmers have sufficient capital for next crop.
7. Small farmers depend on others for loans.
8. The government should concentrate on providing a loan facility to the small farmers without collateral.
9. Farmers’ cooperative societies are to be encouraged.
10. Minimum facilities and needs are to be identified and fulfilled.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and interpret.

There is often a loss inform activities, especially when crops are damaged because of floods, pests, etc. The other risk is sudden fall in price of agricultural produce. In such situations, farm¬ers find it difficult to recover the working capital they had spent.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given it is clearly understood that when there is a natural hazard like floods or pests the farmer’s life will be in risk.
2. In those conditions, they hardly survive.
3. Many of the farmers commit suicide because of this situation.
4. Farmers normally desire to grow more food grains.
5. They hope the yield must be more. They spend much on agriculture.
6. They depend on moneylenders for loans. Sometimes they take loans from banks also. They have to pay all these loans when the yield comes. Due to the pests, floods or drought, they don’t have money to pay the loans or for their survival.
7. Many a time, they commit suicides.
8. When they face this type of situation the government should give them a helping hand.
9. They should be saved from losing their lives.
10. New schemes should be launched for the sake of farmers who lose because of these natural hazards.

Question 9.
From your field visit find out at what rate of interest do farmers borrow when they need money for inputs. Compare with interest charged by the bank.
Answer:

1. Farmers need money for inputs like seeds, fertilizers, pesticides and repair of tools, etc.
2. Small farmers cannot mobilise that money.
3. They borrow from medium and large farmers or moneylenders.
4. They charge higher rate of interest, usually 36% per annum.
5. Whereas banks provide crop loan to farmers.
6. But banks charge only 8% per annum.
7. Thus there is great variation in the rate of interest.

Question 10.
Groundwater levels are deplected dangerously day by day. If this is continued, what would be the consequences?
Answer:

1. The groundwater levels are depleted dangerously day by day.
2. Excessive use of groundwater for irrigation and industrial purposes has resulted in a decrease of groundwater levels.
3. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.
4. We will face the problem of scarcity of water.
5. Water will not be available for domestic purposes also.
6. Hence we should not over-extract water from tube wells.
7. Water should be allowed to sink into the ground.
8. Under any cost we should conserve groundwater for future generations.

Question 11.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Capital of Maharashtra
   Answer:
   Mumbai
2. The birth place of river Godavari.
   Answer:
   Triyambak
3. The birth place of river Krishna.
   Answer:
   Mahabaleswar
4. Santal tribal people are in this state.
   Answer:
   Odisha
5. Uttar Pradesh
6. Kerala
7. Punjab
8. Jammu & Kashmir
9. Assam
10. Tripura

These AP 8th Class Biology Important Questions 4th Lesson Reproduction in Animals will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology 4th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Reproduction in Animals

8th Class Biology 4th Lesson Reproduction in Animals 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by external fertilization?
Answer:
The process of fertilization that occurs outside of an organism is called External Fertilization. E.g.: Frog, Fish, Star fish etc.

Question 2.
What is meant by Internal Fertilization?
Answer:
The process of fertilization that takes place inside the body of females is called Internal Fertilization. E.g.: Animals, Human beings.

Question 3.
Which are called Viviparous animals?
Answer:
Animals which give birth to their offsprings are called Viviparous animals. E.g.: Animals, human beings.

Question 4.
What are oviparous animals?
Answer:
Animals which lay eggs are called oviparous animals.
E.g. Hen, Duck, Pigeon etc.

Question 5.
Which is formed by the fusion of male and female gametes?
Answer:
Zygote is formed by the fusion of male and female gametes.

Question 6.
Which gamete is that has a tail and travel to fuse with female gamete?
Answer:
Male gamete or sperm or spermatozoa. The structure of sperm has a head, a middle piece and a tail.

8th Class Biology 4th Lesson Reproduction in Animals 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete this flow chart.

Answer:
1 – Testes
2 – Sperms
3 – Ovary
4 – Ovum
5 – Embryo
6 – Foetus

Question 2.
What is meant by cloning if Who invented this?
Answer:

1. Cloning is the reproduction of an exact copy of the cell, any other living part or complete organism from somatic cells.
2. Cloning of an animal was successfully performed for the first time by lan Wilmut in Scotland.

8th Class Biology 4th Lesson Reproduction in Animals 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete the cross word puzzle using the hints given below.
Across:
1. The process of the fusion of the gametes.
6. The type of fertilization in hen.
7. The term used for bulges observed on the sides of the body of Hydra.
8. Eggs are produced here.
Down:
2. Sperms are produced in these male reproductive organs.
3. Another term for the fertilized egg.
4. These animals lay eggs.
5. A type of fission

Answer:

Question 2.
Write a note on “test tube babies”.
Answer:

1. The babies who born through IVF (In Vitro Fertilization) technique are called “Test tube babies”.
2. In some women, oviducts are blocked due to some reasons. In these cases fertilization will not takes place. Doctors collect freshly released egg and sperms and keep them for few hours.
3. In case, fertilization occurs, the zygote is allowed to develop for about a week and then it is placed in the mother’s uterus.
4. Babies born through this technique are called ‘Test tube babies’ which does not mean babies growing in test tubes.

8th Class Biology 4th Lesson Reproduction in Animals Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are Oviparous and Viviparous animals ? Write their characters and give some examples.
Answer:

1. The animals giving birth to their off springs are called Viviparous animals.
2. The animals which lay eggs are called Oviparous animals.
3. Viviparous animals have epidermal hair on their skin and external ears. Examples are cow, elephant, dog, etc.
4. Oviparous animals do not have epidermal hair or external ears. Examples are fish, frog, crow, peacock, snake, lizard etc.

Question 2.
Kshitija found a fish like larva and put it in an aquarium supposing it as a fish. What would she find after some days?
Answer:

1. Kshitija had brought tadpole larva, which looks like a fish. It was the larva of the frog.
2. After somedays, this tadpole larva undergoes metamorphosis and develops into a frog.
3. Hence, Kshitija would observe a frog in place of tadpole larva after some days in the aquarium.

Question 3.
You want to clarify some doubts about test tube babies what questions do you ask the doctor?
Answer:

1. Where do test tube babies born?
2. What differences may we find between normally born baby and a test tube baby?
3. What problems will test tube babies face in their life?
4. Why people have so many doubts about test tube babies?

Question 4.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of a human sperm. Fill the following table:

Name of the organ	Function
Tail
Mitochondria
Head
Middle piece

Answer:

Name of the part	Function
Tail	Helps in the movements of the sperm.
Mitochondria	Releases energy for the movements of the sperm cell and also provides energy for the penetration of sperm into Ovum.
Head	Helps in the process of fertilization.
Middle piece	It is the site of mitochondria which are the power houses of the cell.

Question 5.
Latha draw the following flow chart of Human reproduction like this. Is it correct or not.
If not, draw a correct one.

Answer:

Question 6.
What are the differences you observed in the reproduction of Amoeba and frog?
Answer:

Reproduction in Amoeba	Reproduction in Frog
1. Asexual mode of reproduction takes place in Amoeba.	1. Sexual mode of reproduction takes place ts Frog.
2. Fusion of garnets will not occur.	2. Fusion of garnets takes place.
3. Through binary fission or multiple fission (during unfavourable condi­tions) daughter amoebas are formed.	3. Through external fertilization, many offsprings will take birth in water.
4. Daughter amoebas formed during binary fission, completely resemble their mother.	4. Offsprings formed exhibit variations.
5. Mother Amoeba will extinct sifter binary fission.	5. Mother frog will not extinct after external fertilization.

Question 7.
Write the apparatus used in the project work of observing the life cycle of frog.
Answer:
To conduct this project we need,

1. Wide mouth transparent bottle/tube
2. Transparent glass
3. Dropper
4. Petridish
5. Some pebbles
6. Magnifying glass

Question 8.
Fill in the blanks with the correct terms.
The main male reproductive organs are A and in females are B. A and B release some cells respectively known as C and D. The fusion of C and D is known as E. E results in the formation of F. F gradually develops into a G and finally becomes a H.
Answer:
The main male reproductive organs are Testes and in females are Ovary. Testes and Ovary release some cells respectively known as Sperm cells and Ova. The fusion of Sperm cells and Ova is known as Fertilization. Fertilization results in the formation of Zygote. Zygote gradually develops into a Embryo and finally becomes a Foetus.

Question 9.
Observe this diagram and answer the questions.

a) The diagram belongs to which system?
b) Write the A, B, C in the above diagram.
c) What produces the “B” part?
d) What is function of Part “A”?
Answer:
a) Male reproductive system in human beings.
b) A – Seminal ducts B – Testes C – Penis
c) Sperm cells
d) This duct connects each testes to the urethra. They transport sperms into the penis.

Question 10.
Look at the picture and answer the questions.

a) Which system does the picture belong to?
b) What is “A”? What is produced here?
c) What is “B”?
d) What happens when fallopian tubes are closed?
Answer:
a) Female reproductive system in human beings.
b) Ovary
c) Uterus
d) Fertilization will not take place.

Question 11.
What happens to a female body when ovulation stops forever?
Answer:
a) If ovulation stops in females, menstrual changes do not occur in female body. This stage is known as ‘menopause’.
b) As ovum is not released, there is no chance of pregnancy in this stage.

Question 12.
Label the parts of female reproductive system and answer the following questions.

a) In which part of the female reproductive system does fertilization occur?
b) What is the function of the part labelled as 2?
Answer:
Labelled parts :

1. Fallopian Tube
2. Ovary
3. Uterus
4. Fallopian tube
5. Releasing ova

These AP 10th Class Biology Important Questions and Answers 4th Lesson Excretion will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Biology 4th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Excretion

10th Class Biology 4th Lesson Excretion 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by excretion?
Answer:
Excretion is a biological process involved in separation and removal of wastes from body.

Question 2.
When you are on a field trip, your friend collected a sticky substance oozed out by a plant called gum. What are the plants you observe which give gum ?
Answer:
Acacia, Neem, Drumstick, Eukalyptus and Sapota are the gum yielding plants present in our surroundings.

Question 3.
What are primary metabolites?
Answer:
The substances that are directly involved in normal growth and development and reproduction of a plant are called primary metabolites, e.g.: Carbohydrates, fats and proteins.

Question 4.
What are secondary metabolites?
Answer:
The inorganic substances that are not directly involved in the normal growth, development and reproduction of an organism are called secondary metabolites, e.g.: Alkaloids, tannins, resins, gums and latex, etc.

Question 5.
Write any two substances present both in blood and urine.
Answer:
Glucose, Sodium, Potassium, Chlorides, Urea, Creatinine, Uric Acid, Calcium, Phosphorous.

Question 6.
When you are on a field trip, you might have collected some plants which contain alkaloids. Name the alkaloids which are harmful to us.
Answer:
Nicotine, Morphine, Cocaine.

Question 7.
Write the names of any two excretory organs in human beings.
Answer:
Kidney, Skin, Lungs, Liver, Large Intestine.

Question 8.
Which plants in your surroundings are useful for the production of medicines?
Answer:
Neem, Datura, Tulasi, Calotropis.

Question 9.
The body of a person is filled with extra water and waste products. His hands and feet were swollen. What do we call this condition? Failure of which system causes this condition?
Answer:
This condition is called Uremia. This condition is caused due to failure of excretory system (Kidneys).

Question 10.
How do plants get rid of their waste materials?
Answer:

1. Plants can get rid of excess water by transpiration and guttation.
2. The other nitrogenous waste products are stored in leaves, bark and fruits when these dead leaves, bark and ripe fruits fall off from the tree then the waste products in them are removed.

Question 11.
Give an example of a case where organ donation can save one’s life.
Answer:

1. Kidney of a brain dead person can be donated to save the life of renal failure persons.
2. Cornea of a dead person can be donated to the blind.
3. Bone marrow can be donated to save life of persons suffering from blood related genetic disorders.

Question 12.
Why is urine yellow in color?
Answer:
Because of urochrome, urine is yellow in colour. It forms in the liver from dead RBC.

Question 13.
Write two slogans to popularize the awareness on “Organ Donation”.
Answer:
Slogans:

1. Organ donation saves lives.
2. Donate organs today for better tomorrow.
3. Donate organs – Live after death.

Question 14.
Write two healthy habits which you practice to protect your kidneys from diseases.
Answer:

1. Drink plenty of water.
2. Eat low salt diet that saves kidney life.
3. Drink more fruit juices.

Question 15.
What precautions you have to take in the observation of internal structure of mammalian kidney?
Answer:

1. Wash the kidney thorougly with water.
2. Ensure that blood is completely drained from it.
3. Wash your hands with antibacterial lotion after completing the dissection.

Question 16.
Write two secondary metabolites, which you use in your daily life.
Answer:
Gum, Rubber, Coffee are the examples for secondary metabolites which we use in our daily life.

Question 17.
Why is vasopressin not secreted when a person drinks a lot of water?
Answer:
Vasopressin is secreted only when concentrated urine is to be passed out. When a person drinks a lot of water, there will be no need to secrete concentrated urine. The excess water taken by the person will be sent out in the form of dilute urine. Hence, vasopressin is not secreted.

Question 18.
In urine excretory system much water is reabsorbed. What happens if it doesn’t occur?
Answer:
If water is not reabsorbed it leads to excessive repeated dilute urination called diabetes insipidus. If water does not reabsorbed we would dry up in few hours.

Question 19.
A substance given below consists of other three substances. What is that substance? Where is it produced? Uric Acid, Sodium, Oxalate, Urine.
Answer:
Urine contains all the other three substances. It is produced in kidney.

Question 20.
Name the hospitals where the organ transplantation facility is available in Hyderabad.
Answer:
Organ transplantation facility is available only in two government hospitals. They are NIMS (Nizam Institute of Medical Sciences) and Osmania hospital. This facility is also available in some corporate hospitals.

Question 21.
What is anabolism?
Answer:
The synthesis of complex molecules in living organisms from simpler ones together with the storage of energy.

Question 22.
What is catabolism?
Answer:
The breakdown of complex molecules in living organisms to form simpler ones, together with the release of energy.

Question 23.
What is the meaning of the word excretion in Latin?
Answer:
In Latin ex means out, crenere means shift.

Question 24.
What are the wastes produced during metabolic activities?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, water, nitrogenous compounds like ammonia, urea, uric acid, bile pigments, excess salts, etc., are the wastes produced during metabolic activities.

Question 25.
What is the most poisonous of all waste products?
Answer:
Ammonia is the most poisonous of all waste products.

Question 26.
What are the substances present in blood?
Answer:
Substances present in blood are glucose, sodium, potassium chloride, urea, creatinine, uric acid, cholesterol, triglycerides, calcium, phosphorous, bilirubin, proteins, etc.

Question 27.
What are the substances present in urine?
Answer:
The substances present in urine are protein, creatinine, calcium, phosphorous, uric acid, etc.

Question 28.
What are the substances present in both blood and urine in common?
Answer:
The substances present in the blood and urine in common are sodium, potassium, glucose, chlorides, urea, proteins, creatinine, calcium, phosphorous and uric acid.

Question 29.
What are the substances that need to be removed from body?
Answer:
Creatinine, uric acid, urea, cholesterol and calcium.

Question 30.
In human beings excretory system consists of?
Answer:
The excretory system in human beings consists of a pair of kidneys, a pair of ureters, urinary bladder and urethra.

Question 31.
Where are the kidneys present in human body?
Answer:
In human body kidneys are present in the abdominal cavity attached to dorsal body wall one on either side of backbone.

Question 32.
What is the shape and colour of the kidney?
Answer:
The kidney is bean shaped and reddish brown in colour.

Question 33.
What is the size of the kidney?
Answer:
The size of the kidney is 10 cm in length, 5 – 6 cm in breadth and 4 cm in thickness.

Question 34.
Why is the position of right kidney lower than the left kidney?
Answer:
The position of right kidney is lower than left kidney due to the presence of liver above it.

Question 35.
Which artery brings oxygenated blood to kidney?
Answer:
Renal artery brings oxygenated blood to kidney.

Question 36.
What are the two distinct regions present inside the kidney?
Answer:
The two distinct regions present inside the kidney are

1. dark coloured outer zone called the cortex and
2. pale coloured inner zone called medulla.

Question 37.
Each kidney is made up of how many nephrons?
Answer:
Each kidney is made up of about 1.3 to 1.8 million nephrons.

Question 38.
What is the other name of Nephron?
Answer:
The other name of nephron is uriniferous tubule.

Question 39.
What are the two basic parts of nephron?
Answer:
The two basic parts of nephron are malphigian body and renal tubule.

Question 40.
What is meant by Glomerulus?
Answer:
Malphigian body consists of a blind cupshaped broader end of nephron called Bowman’s capsule and bunch of blood capillaries called Glomerulus.

Question 41.
Which blood vessel forms glomerulus in Bowman’s capsule?
Answer:
Afferent arteriole forms glomerulus in Bowman’s capsule.

Question 42.
Renal tubule consists of how many parts?
Answer:
Renal tubule consists three parts. They are Proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), Loop of Henle, and Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT).

Question 43.
What is the major function of proximal convoluted tubule?
Answer:
Proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs useful substances like glucose, amino acids, phosphate, potassium, urea and other organic solutes from the filtrate.

Question 44.
What are podocyte cells?
Answer:
Glomerulus is lined by a single layer of squamous epithelial cells called podocyte cells.

Question 45.
What is the function of loop of Henle?
Answer:

1. In the descending loop of Henle reabsorption of water from the filtrate takes place.
2. Ascending loop of Henle is impermeable to water and only ions diffuse out into the surrounding cells.

Question 46.
What is the function of Distal convoluted tubule?
Answer:
Distal convoluted tubule maintains proper concentration and pH of the urine.

Question 47.
How many stages are involved in formation of urine? What are they?
Answer:
Formation of urine involves four stages. They are

1. Glomerular filtration,
2. Tubular reabsorption,
3. Tubular secretion and
4. Concentration of urine.

Question 48.
The amount of water reabsorption in the tubule depends on?
Answer:
The amount of water reabsorption in the tubule depends on amount of excess water present in the body and the amount of dissolved wastes to be excreted.

Question 49.
In which region seventy five percent of water content of the nephric filtrate is reabsorbed?
Answer:
Seventy five percent of water content of the nephric filtrate is reabsorbed in the region of proximal convoluted tubule.

Question 50.
Which hormone is responsible to pass concentrated urine?
Answer:
Vasopressin is responsible to pass concentrated urine.

Question 51.
What is micturition?
Answer:
Micturition is the process of discharge of urine from the urinary bladder.

Question 52.
What are the composition of various substances in urine?
Answer:
The composition of various substances in urine are 96% of water, 2.5% of organic substances and 1.5% of inorganic solutes.

Question 53.
How much amount of urine is excreted per day?
Answer:
Total amount of urine excreted per day is about 1.6 -1.8 litres.

Question 54.
What is the storage capacity of urinary bladder?
Answer:
The storage capacity of urinary bladder is 300 – 800 ml.

Question 55.
What is uremia?
Answer:
If kidneys stop working completely, our body is filled with extra water and waste products. This condition is called uremia.

Question 56.
What is haemodialysis?
Answer:
Artificial filtering of blood to remove wastes by using dialysis machine is known as haemodialysis.

Question 57.
What is the time required for each dialysis session?
Answer:
The time required for each dialysis session is 3 to 6 hours.

Question 58.
What are the organs that can be transplanted from brain dead patients?
Answer:
The organs that can be transplanted from brain dead patients are kidney, liver, heart, lungs, pancreas, skin, bone, intestines and eyes (cornea).

Question 59.
Where is the transplanted kidney fixed in the body of kidney failure patient?
Answer:
The transplanted kidney is fixed in the body of patient inside the lower abdomen.

Question 60.
What is cadaver transplantation?
Answer:
The process of transplantation of organs from brain dead patients to another is called cadaver transplantation.

Question 61.
What are the other excretory organs present in human body in addition to kidney?
Answer:
The other excretory organs present in human body in addition to kidney are lungs, skin, liver, large intestine, salivary glands and lacrimal glands.

Question 62.
What are the waste products excreted by lungs?
Answer:
The waste products excreted by lungs are carbon dioxide and water.

Question 63.
Sebum of sebaceous glands in skin contains wastes like?
Answer:
Sebum of sebaceous glands in skin contains wastes like waxes, sterols, hydro carbons and fatty acids.

Question 64.
What are the metabolic wastes of haemoglobin of red blood cells in liver?
Answer:
The metabolic wastes of haemoglobin of red blood cells in liver are bile pigments like bilirubin, biliverdin and urochrome.

Question 65.
How is urea produced in liver?
Answer:
Urea is produced in liver by the deamination of proteins.

Question 66.
What are the wastes excreted by intestine?
Answer:
The wastes excreted by intestine are excess salts of calcium, magnesium and iron.

Question 67.
How do unicellular organisms remove waste products?
Answer:
Unicellular organisms remove waste products by diffusion from the body surface to the surrounding water.

Question 68.
What is the osmoregulatory organelle in amoeba and paramoecium?
Answer:
The osmoregulatory organelle in amoeba and paramoecium is contractile vacuole.

Question 69.
In which animal phyla water bathes almost all their cells in body of organisms?
Answer:
In porifera and coelenterates water bathes almost all their cells in body of organisms.

Question 70.
Through which processes plants get rid of excess water?
Answer:
Through transpiration and guttation plants get rid of excess water.

Question 71.
What are Raphides?
Answer:
Waste gets stored in the fruits in the form of solid bodies called Raphides.

Question 72.
What are alkaloids?
Answer:
The poisonous nitrogenous by products produced by plants are alkaloids.

Question 73.
Which alkaloid is used as antimalarial drug?
Answer:
Quinine is the alkaloid used as antimalarial drug.

Question 74.
Which flowers and fruits are used to extract sedative scopalamine?
Answer:
The sedative scopalamine is extracted from the flowers and fruits of Datura stramonium.

Question 75.
What are the alkaloids produced by plants?
Answer:
The alkaloids produced by plants are nimbin, nicotine, morphine, codeine quinine, reserpine, caffeine/scopolamine, etc.

Question 76.
What are tannins?
Answer:
Tannins are alkaloids which are carbon compounds.

Question 77.
Which group of plants secretes resin?
Answer:
Resin secretes by a group of plants Gymnosperms.

Question 78.
What is latex?
Answer:
Latex is a sticky, milky white substance secreted by plants.

Question 79.
Which plant of latex is used to prepare rubber?
Answer:
Rubber is prepared from the latex of Hevea braziliensis.

Question 80.
Bio-diesel is obtained from the seeds of?
Answer:
Bio-diesel is obtained from the seeds of Jatropa.

Question 81.
Which person’s kidney is used for a successful kidney transplantation?
Answer:
From a close relative kidney can be used for successful transplantation.

Question 82.
What may be the feeling of the patients who are waiting for suitable organ donations due to failure of vital organs?
Answer:
The patients who are waiting may think that any donor with a kind heart can give them life by donating their organs.

Question 83.
What may be the feeling of a doctor while transplanting the organs?
Answer:
Doctor is also a human being, he predicts that the transplantation becomes a success.

Question 84.
How can you appreciate the father of Yaswanth Kumar for donating the organs of his brain dead son? (From annexure)
Answer:
We can appreciate the father of Yaswanth Kumar for his humanity where no one can accept to take or think such a delicate decision of donating the organs of his brain dead son.

Question 85.
What might be the feeling of the father H.V. Shiva Kumar father of Yaswanth Kumar for donating the organs of his son? (From annexure)
Answer:
The father might have thought that his son can live even after his death in some other people who are in need for the suitable organs. We can appreciate father’s humanity.

Question 86.
What does the society need about organ donation?
Answer:
The society needs much awareness in organ donation so that we can jsave many lives who are in need of different organs from donors for their survival.

Question 87.
Which substances are present above the normal limits both in the blood and urine in the sample given?
Answer:
Substances present above the normal limits in the blood are: creatinine, uric acid and cholesterol. Substances present above the normal limits in the urine are creatinine, calcium, uric acid and urea.

Question 88.
When is more urine excreted?
Answer:
A large intake of liquids or water rich food increases the volume of water in the blood, hence more urine is excreted.

Question 89.
What are the uses of Tannins?
Answer:
Tannins are used in tanning of leather and in medicines.

Question 90.
What are the economic importance of gums?
Answer:
Gums are valuable being used as adhesives and binding agents in the preparation of the medicines, food, etc.

Question 91.
Why do we get peculiar smell when you shift the potted plant?
Answer:
Plants release some peculiar chemical substances into their surroundings into soil through roots. These substances attract useful microorganisms to the plant. Hence we get peculiar smell when we shift the potted plant.

Question 92.
What is chewing gum ? How is it made of?
Answer:
Chewing gum is a type of gum for chewing made dates back 5000 years. Modern chewing gum originally made of chicle, natural latex from plant.

Question 93.
How do pollen grains affect our health?
Answer:
Whenever pollen grains enter in our body they cause allergy due to the presence of nitrogenous substances. These allergens cause skin allergy and asthma. Ex: Parthenium.

Question 94.
What are the defensive mechanism developed by plants of your village to protect themselves from the herbivores ? Give two examples.
Answer:
Plants produce nitrogenous compounds to protect themselves from the herbivores. These compounds are called as alkaloids. For example,
Datura – It produces alkaloid known as scopolamine.
Cactus – Develop spines on the body.

10th Class Biology 4th Lesson Excretion 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fill in the table on the basis of your obervations in field trip.

S.No	Name of the plant	Secondary metabolites	Uses
A.	Neem
B.	Datura

Answer:

S.No	Name of the plant	Secondary metabolites	Uses
A.	Neem	Nimbin	Antiseptic
B.	Datura	Scopola mine	Sedative

Question 2.
Two kidneys are present in human beings as excretory organs. Haritha, whose age is 23 years, donated one kidney to her father. Now she has one kidney only. She gave birth to a female child.
a) How many kidneys are there in Haritha’s daughter?
Answer:
Harita’s daughter has 2 kidneys,

b) Support your answer.
Answer:
Bodily changes are not inherited, so Harita’s daughter has 2 kidneys.

Question 3.
What questions do you ask a nephrologist to know more about kidney related diseases?
Answer:

1. How are stones formed in the kidney?
2. What is dialysis?
3. What is the effect of smoking and alcoholism on kidneys?
4. What is ESRD?

Question 4.
Read the following lines and answer the questions.

Liver: It produces bile pigments (bilirubin, biliverdin and urochrome) which are metabolic wastes of haemoglobin of dead R.B.Cs. Urochrome, which is responsible for the amber colour of the urine, is eliminated through urine. Biliverdin and bilirubin are stored in gall bladder and later excreted through bile along with cholesterol and derivatives of steroid hormones, extra drug, vitamins and alkaline salts. Liver is also involved in urea formation.

i) Which substance adds colour to urine?
ii) The site of synthesis of urea in the body is …………..
Answer:
i) Urochrome
ii) Liver

Question 5.
Look at the picture and answer the questions, (label bottle on left as X and bottle on right as Y)
The above is a procedure of haemodialysis in a hospital.
i) What are the liquids X and Y, in the picture?
ii) What is the purpose of this procedure and for whom is it needed?
Answer:
i) X – Dialyzing fluid; Y – Urine
ii) It is a process of removal of poisonous nitrogenous wastes from blood. This process is needed by uremic or kidney failure patients.

Question 6.
Prepare four questions to find the reasons for obstructions in excretory system.
Answer:

1. What do we call the complete and irreversible kidney failure?
2. What happen if kidney stops working completely?
3. What is uremia?
4. Is there any solution to this problem?

Question 7.
Name the secondary metabolites which are useful in leather and rubber industry. From which plants we obtain them?
Answer:

1. Latex used in rubber and Tannins used in Leather Industry.
2. Latex – Hevea brasiliensis (Rubber Plant) Tannins – Cassia, Acacia.

Question 8.
Prepare four questions you will ask a nephrologist about Kidney failure.
Answer:

1. When does kidney fail?
2. What are the symptoms of kidney failure?
3. What precautions can we take to prevent failure of kidney?
4. Which alternative method can we adopt if kidney fails?

Question 9.
Observe the following table.

Name of the phylum / organism	Excretory system / organ
Protozoa	Diffusion
Porifera	Water bathes all their cells
Platyhelmirthes	Flame cells
Annelida	Nephridia
Arthropoda	Green glands
Reptiles, Aves and Mammals	Kidney

On the basis of above table, write answers to the following questions.

i) In above table, which living organisms contains kidneys as excretory organs like human beings?
Answer:
Reptiles and Aves.

ii) Write the excretory organs present in Earthworm and Cockroach.
Answer:
Earthworm – Nephridia Cockroach – Green glands

Question 10.
Observe the following table and answer the questions given below.

Alkaloid	Name of the plant	Uses
Quinine	Cinchona	Anti malarial drug
Nicotine	Tobacco	Pesticides
Morphine	Opium	Pain killer
Pyrethroids	Chrysanthemum species	Insecticides

i) Which alkaloid we get from the fruit, is used as pain killer?
Answer:
Morphine

ii) From which part of the plant do we get Quinine?
Answer:
Bark of Cinchona

Question 11.
What is called structural and functional unit of kidney? Why?
Answer:

1. Each kidney is made up of more than one million microscopic and thin tubular units called nephrons or uriniferous tubules. Hence nephron is known as structural and functional unit of kidney.
2. Nephron’s chief function is to regulate the concentration of water and soluble substances, reabsorbing what is needed and excreting the rest as urine. Hence it is known as functional unit of kidney.

Question 12.
Blood is filtered in Bowman’s capsule of nephron. For the filtration of blood some pressure is needed. How does the pressure arises in Bowman’s capsule?
Answer:

1. Blood flows inside the glomerulus of Bowman’s capsule under the influence of pressure due to the large diameter of afferent arteriole.
2. This increases or rise the blood pressure in the glomerulus capillaries leading to ultrafiltration of the blood in the Bowman’s capsule.

Question 13.
Classify the substances given below.
Ptyaline, Leptin, Morphine, Riboflavin, Testosterone, Thyamin, Niacine, Sucrase, Nicotine, Amylase, Retinol, Quinine, Calciferol, Adrenaline, Tripsin.
Answer:
The above substances can be classified into Enzymes, Hormones, Alkaloids and Vitamins.
Enzymes: Ptyaline, Sucrase, Amylase, Tripsin
Hormones: Testosterone, Adrenaline, Leptin
Alkaloids: Morphine, Nicotine, Quinine
Vitamins: Riboflavin, Thyamin, Niacine, Retinol, Calciferol

Question 14.
How does excretion take place in phylum protozoa?
Answer:

1. Specific excretory organs are absent in unicellular organisms. These organisms remove waste products by simple diffusion from the body surface into the surrounding water.
2. Excess water is sent out through contractile vacuoles in fresh water protozoans. Ex: Amoeba surface.
3. The major portion of excess water is eliminated by diffusion through body surface.

Question 15.
What are the functions of excretory system?
Answer:

1. Excretory system in animals performs more than one function.
2. The primary function of excretory system is to maintain ionic and osmotic balance in the animal body.
3. Excretory system helps to maintain appropriate concentration of salts and correct amount of water in the body.
4. It also helps in maintaining the body volume.
5. The secondary function of excretory system is excretion of nitrogenous wastes and foreign substances such as drugs.

Question 16.
Mention the groups of animals where excretion fakes place through diffusion from body surface.
Answer:

1. In protozoans wastes are excreted by diffusion through body surface.
2. Contractile vacuoles present in some protozoans are mainly concerned with the maintenance of osmotic and ionic balance. Excretion is mainly by diffusion.
3. In sponges, coelenterates like Hydra, excretion takes place by diffusion.

Question 17.
People in cold countries get very less / no sweat. What changes occur in their skin and in other excretory organs?
Answer:

1. Usually human skin has a unique system keep in equilibrium state with the surrounding temperature.
2. During winter season the temperature is low and the body temperature should be heated to balance the tolerance.
3. So the water content in our body is sent out in the form of urine.
4. Hence, people in cold countries get less sweat or no sweat.

10th Class Biology 4th Lesson Excretion 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Analyse the following information and answer the questions.

Alkaloid	Part of the plant	Uses
Quinine	Bark	Anti-malarial drug
Pyrethroids	Leaves	Insecticide
Reserpine	Roots	Medicine for snake bite
Caffeine	Seeds	Central nervous system stimulant
Nimbin	Seeds, Barks, Leaves	Antiseptic

i) Name the alkaloid which is used to cure malaria.
Answer:
Quininie

ii) Name the alkaloids used as insecticides.
Answer:
Pyrethroids

iii) Which system is stimulated by the alkaloid caffeine?
Answer:
Central nervous system

iv) Which parts of which plant is used as medicine for snake bite?
Answer:
The roots of Rauwolfia Serpentina (Snake root)

Question 2.
Which diagram do you draw to label these parts?
Answer:

1. Bowman’s capsule
2. Uriniferous tubule.
3. Collecting tubule.

Draw the diagram and label the parts.
Answer:

Question 3.
Fill the following table related to Secondary Metabolites in plants.

S.No.	Metabolite	Name of the plant	Use
1.		Pinus
2.	Gums
3.			Rubber preparation
4.	Nimbin

Answer:

S.No.	Metabolite	Name of the plant	Use
1.	Resin	Pinus	Used in varnishes
2.	Gums	Neem, Acacia	Used as adhesives and binding agents
3.	Latex	Hevea braziliensis (Rubber plant)	Rubber preparation
4.	Nimbin	Azadirachta indica (Neem)	Antiseptic

Question 4.
The given parts belong to which system? Draw a neat labelled diagram of the system.
a) Kidneys b) Ureters c) Urinary bladder
Answer:
The given parts belong to human excretory system.

Question 5.
Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Plants can get rid of excess water by a process like transpiration and guttation. Waste products may be stored in leaves, bark, and fruits. When these dead leaves, bark, and ripe fruits fall off from the tree then waste products in them are removed. Waste gets stored in the fruits in the form of solid bodies called ‘raphides’. However several compounds are synthesized by the plants for their own use especially for defence. Many plants synthesize chemicals and store them in roots, leaves, seeds, etc. for protection against herbivores. Most of the chemicals are unpleasant to taste. Hence herbivores usually do not prefer to eat such plants. Some of the chemicals are toxic and may even kill the animals that eat them.

i) What are raphides?
ii) How do plants protect themselves against herbivores?
iii) How do plants get rid of wastes?
iv) Name the processes by which plants lose excess of water.
Answer:
i) The wastes stored in some fruits in the form of solid bodies are called “raphides”.
ii) Many plants synthesize chemicals and store them in roots, leaves, seeds, etc. for protection against herbivores.
iii) Waste products may be stored in leaves, bark and fruits. When these dead leaves, bark and ripe fruits fall off from the tree. Then waste products in them are removed.
iv) Plants lose excess of water by transpiration and guttation.

Question 6.

S.No.	Test	Present level	Normal range
A. Blood Test
1.	Blood Pressure (BP)	160/90 mm/Hg	120/80 mm/Hg
2.	Glucose (Before food)	120- mg/dl	60-100 mg/dl
3.	Glucose (After food)	220 mg/dl	160-180 mg/dl
4.	Bilirubin	1.0 mg/dl	0.1-0.8 mg/dl
	B. Urine Test
1.	24 hrs protein	150 mg/d ay	100 mg/day
2.	Sodium	140 mmol/L	125-250 mmol/L.

A) Which test is required to know bilirubin?
Answer:
Blood test is required to know bilirubin.

B) How is the sugar disease confirmed?
Answer:
In blood test if the glucose levels in blood before and after food are more than the normal, the sugar disease is confirmed.

C) By observing the above report, what would be the other problems faced by that patient?
Answer:
The blood pressure of the patient 160/90 as the normal is 120/80 mm/Hg.
The Glucose levels in the blood of the patient shows more than the normal before and after food.
So he is suffering from Hypertension and diabetes.

D) What are the organs affected by these problems?
The organsaffected by these problems are heart and kidneys.

Question 7.
Explain the temporary and permanent methods to be adopted for Kidney failure (ESRD) persons.
Answer:
Temporary method for ESRD persons is Dialysis (Artificial kidney). Permanent method is transplantation of kidney.

Dialysis:

1. Blood is taken out from the main artery, mixed with an anticoagulant, such as heparin and then pumped in to dialyzer.
2. In dialyzer blood flows through cellophane tubes and these tubes are embeded in the dialysing fluid.
3. The membrane separates the blood flowing inside the tube and dialysing fluid (same as plasma without nitrogenous waste).

Kidney transplantation:

1. A functioning kidney is used in transplantation from a donor preferably a close relative.
2. The kidney that is received by a recipient must be a good match to his body, to minimise the chances of rejection by the immune system of the recipient.
3. Nowadays the process of organ donation helps a lot for kidney failure patients.

Question 8.
What are the accessory excretory organs in human body? How does the liver carry out excretion as a secondary function? (OR)
Write about the accessory excretory organs and their excretory substances in human beings.
Answer:

Accessory Excretory Organs	Excretory Materials
Lungs	CO2 and Water
Skin	Sweat and Metabolic Waste (Sebum)
Liver	Bilirubin, Biliverdin, Urochrome
Large Intestine (Colon)	Excess of salts of calcium, magnesium and iron are excreted along with faecal matter.

Excretory functions of Liver:

1. Liver acts as detoxification centre of our body. Liver produces bile juice which contain bile pigments which are metabolic wastes of dead R.B.C.
2. Bilirubin, Biliverdin and urochrome are the pigments of bile juice.
3. Bilirubin, Biliverdin, cholesterol and derivatives of steroids, extra drugs, vitamins and alkaline salts are the wastes produced by liver.
4. Urochrome is eliminated through urine.
5. Liver also plays a role in the formation of concentrated urine.

Question 9.
Explain the formation of urine in a flow chart.
Answer:
Dissolved substances of blood like urea, glucose, amino acids, minerals, salts etc., are filtered out in Bowman’s capsule under high filtration pressure.
Glomerular filtrate is called primary urine.

Question 10.
Excreting wastes from the human body not only by kidneys but also by other organs helps you. How do you support it?
Answer:

1. In human body wastes are excreted not only by kidneys but also by other organs.
2. Kidney filters blood and eliminates nitrogenous wastes and other harmful things. Filters urea from blood.
3. Apart from kidney lungs, skin, liver, intestine, salivary glands and lacrymal glands.
4. Lungs remove carbon dioxide and water in respiration.
5. Skin excrete wastes in the form of sweat which contains water and certain salts.
6. Liver eliminates bile pigments bilirubin and biliverdin through urine.
7. Excess salts of calcium, magnesium and iron are excreted by epithellial cells of colon for elimination along with faeces by intestine.
8. Eccrine glands present on the forehead, the bottoms of the feet and the palms allow excess water to leave the body.
9. Salivary glands and lacrimal glands excrete small amounts of nitrogenous waste through saliva and tears.

Question 11.
Which plants can you get in your village? Among these by-products of which plants do you use in your real life?
Answer:

1. The plants grow or available in our village are Sapota, Coconut, Cassia, Mango, Guava, Borassus plantain, Tobacco, Rauwolfia, Coffee, Neem, Datura, Chrysanthe¬mum, Acacia, Pinus, Vallisneria, Teak, etc.,
2. Out of these plants alkaloids are available from the plants like Tobacco, Rauwolfia, Coffee, Neem, Datura and Chrysanthemum. The by-products from these plants are utilised in my real life.
   Plant – Use
   Tobacco – Insecticide
   Rauwolfia serpentina – Medicine for snake bite
   Coffee – Central nervous system stimulant
   Neem – Antiseptic
   Datura – Sedative
   Chrysanthemum – Insecticides
3. Tannins are the by-products of cassia, acacia. These are used in tanning of leather and in medicines.
4. Resin the by-product of Pinus is used in varnishes.
5. Gums are extracted from neem and acacia.
   They are used as adhesives and binding agents in the preparation of food, medicines.

Question 12.
Write an essay stating the advantages of by-products of plants in our real life.
(OR)
What are secondary metabolites? Briefly explain their uses.
(OR)
Not only the food of plants but also their wastes are useful to us. What evidences do you give for it?
Answer:

1. The materials which do not require for normal growth and development are called secondary metabolites. These are the by – products of plants, eg: Alkaloids, Tannins, Resins, Gums and Latex, etc. Though plants produce these chemicals for their own use man found the usage of these chemicals for own benefits. They are generally coloured and fragrant.
2. Alkaloids: These are nitrogenous by-products and poisonous. These are stored in different parts of the plants. Common alkaloids in plants and their uses are given in the table.
   

   Alkaloid	Plant	Part	Uses
   Quinine	Cinchona officinalis (Cinchona)	Bark	Antimalarial drug
   Nicotine	Nicotiana tobacum (Tobacco)	Leaves	Insecticide
   Morphine, Cocaine	Papaver somniferum (Opium)	Fruit	Pain killer
   Reserpine	Rauwolfia serpentiana (Snake bite)	Root	Medicine for snake bite
   Caffeine	Coffea Arabica (Coffee plant)	Seed	Central nervous system stimulant
   Nimbin	Azadirachta indica (Neem)	Seeds, Barks, Leaves	Antiseptic
   Scopolamine	Datura stramonium	Fruit, flower	Sedative
   Pyrethroids	Chrysanthemum sps	Flower	Insecticides

3. Tannins: Tannins are carbon compounds. These are stored in different parts of the plant and are deep brown in colour. Tannins are used in tanning of leather and in medicines, e.g. Cassia, Acacia.
4. Resin: Occur mostly in Gymnosperms in specialized passages called resin passages. These are used in varnishes, e.g. Pinus.
5. Gums: Plants like Neem, Acacia oozes out a sticky substance called gum. When branches are cut. The gum swells by absorbing water and helps in the healing of damaged parts of a plant. Gums are economically valuable and used as adhesives and binding agents in the preparation of the medicines, food, etc.
6. Latex: Latex is a sticky, milky white substance secreted by plants. Latex is stored in latex cells or latex vessels. From the latex of Hevea braziliensis (Rubber plant) rubber is prepared. Latex from Jatropa is the source of bio-diesel.
7. Modern chewing gum originally made of chick natural latex from plant.

Question 13.
Blood is purified in kidneys. So many wastes are removed from the blood in nephron of the kidney. Which issue make you surprise in excretory system?
Answer:

1. Kidneys remove nitrogenous waste from our body. They also work towards balancing the amount of vitamins , minerals, fat and protein that are found in the blood. They do this so that our body can easily perform day to day activities.
2. Our intestine makes solid waste materials and is excreted through digestive tract.
3. Each day our body eliminates around 1.6 to 1.8 liters of urine which contains liquids, minerals and vitamins that are of no use to the body.
4. The bladder of a human body is nearly the same size as the average of human brain.
5. In one individuals life span the liver can produce around 184.275 kgs of bile (6500 ounces).
6. In our lifetime an individual could urinate close to 7,850,000,000 gallons of fluid.
7. A really extraordinary fact regarding the excretory system is that upto 400 ml of urine can be held in human bladder.
8. Urine contains a high amount of urea which can be used by plants as a source of nitrogen. Because of this diluted urine can be used in gardens and potted plants.
9. It is amazing to see that each kidney is made up of approximately more than one million microscopic tubular functional units called nephrons or uriniferous tubules.

Question 14.
What is the structural and functional unit of the excretory system? Draw a neat labelled diagram of that unit.
Answer:
Nephron is the structural and functional unit of the kidney.

Question 15.
Give an account of excretory system found In different phyla of animal kingdom.
Answer:

1. Different organisms have various excretory systems and organs.
2. Following are the excretory system found in various organisms.
   

   Name of the phylum / organism	Excretory system / organ
   Protozoa	Simple diffusion from the body surface into the surrounding water.
   Porifera and coelenterates	Water bathes almost all their cells
   Platyhelminthes	Flame cells
   Nematoda	Renette cells
   Annelids	Nephridia
   Arthropoda	Green glands, Maiphigian tubules
   Mollusca	Meta nephridia
   Echinodermata	Water vascular system
   Reptiles, Birds and Mammals	Kidneys

Question 16.
How do plants manage/send out waste products from their body?
Answer:

1. Plants can get rid of excess water by a process like transpiration and guttation.
2. Waste products may be stored in leaves, bark and fruits.
3. When these dead leaves, bark and ripe fruits fall off from the tree then waste products in them are got rid of.
4. Plants get rid of carbon dioxide and oxygen through diffusion.
5. Plants release some waste products through roots also.
6. Some waste products are deposited near bark as resins or gums.
7. In many plants waste products are stored in vacuoles of the cells. Plant cells have comparatively large vacuoles.

Question 17.
In recent days many people are coming forward to donate organs of brain dead people, who met with accidents. How will you appreciate the family members of organ donor?
Answer:

1. In recent days many families are willing to donate organs of brain dead person’s. This is truely significant change in attitude of people.
2. Most of the people are burning or burying body after death. Very a few people are would like to see their very dear one’s in other people by donating organs like heart, liver, kidneys, cornea, spleen and bone marrow etc.
3. The family members of brain dead are already in great sorrow. They need great courage and so much kindness toward needy patients.
4. With nobel decision of that family giving new life to 5 – 7 persons, who has no alternate treatment, other than organ transplantation. In society every one must appreciate their courage, kindness and sympathy. They stood role model to others.

Question 18.
How is the amount of urine produced regulated?
Answer:

1. The amount of urine produced largely depends on the amount of water reabsorbed in the renal tubule.
2. The amount of water reabsorbed by the renal tubule largely depends on
   the amount of water present in excess in the body need to be removed. If water is abundantly present in the body tissues large quantities of dilute urine is send out of the body. When water is less in quantities in the body tissues a small quantity of concentrated urine is excreted.
3. When there is more quantity of dissolved wastes in the body more quantity of water is required to excrete them. So the amount of urine produced increases.
4. Deficiency of vasopressin causes excessive, repeated, dilute urination called diabetes insipidus.

Question 19.
Observe the below flow chart. Fill the boxes. Explain to which system this belongs to.

Answer:

1. Kidney
2. Loop of Henle
3. Pelvis
4. Urethra

This flow chart belongs to excretory system in human beings. It shows the way how the blood in the kidney moves filtered and urine is excreted.

Question 20.
Explain the external features of kidney in human beings.
Answer:

1. In human beings, there are a pair of bean-shaped, reddish-brown structures in the abdominal cavity attached to dorsal body wall one on either side of the backbone.
2. The size of the kidney is 10cm in length, 5 – 6 cm in breadth, and 4cm in thickness.
3. Each kidney is convex on the outer side and concave on the inner side.
   
4. The inner side of each kidney has a fissure or hilus for the entry of a renal artery, exit of a renal vein and an ureter.
5. Renal artery brings oxygenated blood loaded with waste products and renal vein carries deoxygenated blood.

Question 21.
Describe the excretory system of man.
Answer:

1. The excretory system of man consists of
   a) a pair of kidneys
   b) ureters and
   c) urinary bladder and d) urethra.
2. Kidneys are bean shaped and are located in the abdominal region on either side of vertebral column.
   
3. From hilus of each kidney there are a pair of whitish, narrow tubular structures arise. They are known as ureters.
4. The ureter travels downwards and open, in the sac like structure called the urinary bladder, which stores urine.
5. Urethra is a tube that takes urine from urinary bladder to outside.
6. The opening of urinary bladder into urethra is guarded by a ring of muscles or sphincter.

Question 22.
Describe the internal structure of kidney with the help of diagrams. (OR) Describe the structure of nephron with the help of a diagram.
Answer:

1. L.S. of kidney show two distinct regions. Dark coloured outer zone called cortex and pale coloured inner zone called medulla.
2. Each kidney is made up of approximately more than one million microscopic and thin tubular functional units called nephrons or uniferous tubules.
   
3. Each nephron has basically two parts. One is malphigian body and other is renal tubule.
4. Malphigian body consists of a blind cup shaped broader end of nephron called Bowman s capsule and bunch of fine blood capillaries called glomerulus.
5. Glomerulus develops from afferent arteriole and it gives to rise to an efferent arteriole.
6. Glomerulus functions as a filtration unit.
7. Renal tubule has three parts. They are
   1. Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT)
   2. Loop of Henle which is ‘U’ shaped and
   3. Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT).
8. In tubule part reabsorption and secretion takes place. Urine is formed in the renal tubule part of nephron.
9. Distal convoluted tubules open into a collecting tube.
10. Collecting tube forms pyramids and calyces which open into the pelvis.
11. Pelvis leads into the ureter.

Question 23.
Describe the structure of renal tubule with neatly labelled diagram.
Answer:

1. Renal tubule is a specialised tubular structure made up of proximal convoluted tubule, a ‘U’ shaped tube called loop of Henle, and distal convoluted tubule.
   
2. The three tubular components are selectively permeable and only allow specific molecules to pass through them.
3. The renal tubule is surrounded by capillaries called peritubular capillaries that arise from the efferent arterioles.
4. The substances essential for the body are reabsorbed from the tubules into the peritubular capillaries and the unwanted or toxic molecules are secreted into the lumen of the renal tubule.

These AP 8th Class Biology Important Questions 9th Lesson Production and Management of Food From Animals will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology 9th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Production and Management of Food From Animals

8th Class Biology 9th Lesson Production and Management of Food From Animals 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
From where do we obtain food?
Answer:
We obtain food from plants and animals.

Question 2.
What are the food items that are obtained from animals?
Answer:
We obtain milk, meat and eggs from animals.

Question 3.
What is animal husbandry?
Answer:
Providing food, shelter, protection and breeding of animals is called animal husbandry.

Question 4.
How did man use animals since long time?
Answer:
Since long time, man used animals not only for obtaining food but also for agriculture, transportation etc.

Question 5.
Why did early man domesticate only some of the animals?
Answer:
The early man domesticated only some of the animals which provide him food, clothing and the animals which are helpful for agriculture and transportation.

Question 6.
In what way the animals are useful to us?
Answer:
Buffalo and cow give us milk, hens give us eggs and meat, goats and sheep provide us meat, ox, bulls, donkeys are useful for agriculture and transportation.

Question 7.
What do farmers believe in our country?
Answer:
In our country farmers believe that animal husbandry is part and parcel of agriculture.

Question 8.
Name the animals that domesticate by the people living in rural areas.
Answer:
People living in rural areas domesticate animals like cows, buffaloes, bullocks, goats, sheep, pigs, hens, etc.

Question 9.
What is the important issue in Animal husbandry?
Answer:
Supplying of nutritious food, accommodating clear and hygienic shelters for animals is important issue in animal husbandry.

Question 10.
Where do people rear their cattle in the village?
Answer:
Generally villagers send their cattle to rear at the places where grass is easily available.

Question 11.
Where do farmers keep their cattle?
Answer:
Farmers keep their cattle in the sheds.

Question 12.
Name the agricultural practices done by using bullocks and he-buffaloes.
Answer:
Ploughing and levelling the field farmers use bullocks and he-buffaloes.

Question 13.
How do cattle rearers protect their cattle?
Answer:
Cattle rearers make fences in the fields at off crop seasons.

Question 14.
How is the milk production effected?
Answer:
Milk production is effected by viral and bacterial diseases.

Question 15.
In rainy season how are cattle protected from mosquitoes?
Answer:
Cattle can be protected by covering mosquito nets.

Question 16.
Who will provide treatment and health care for cattle?
Answer:
Veterinary doctor will provide treatment and health care for cattle.

Question 17.
Name the dangerous disease in cows and buffaloes.
Answer:
Galikuntu is a common and dangerous disease in cows and buffaloes.

Question 18.
From which disease sheep and goats will suffer?
Answer:
Sheep and goats will suffer from worm infections (Nattala Vyadhi)

Question 19.
How do our government treats milk production?
Answer:
Our Government treats milk production as an industry.

Question 20.
How much milk is given by traditional species of cows?
Answer:
2 to 5 litres of milk per day.

Question 21.
How much milk is given by murra species?
Answer:
Murra species give up to 8 litres of milk per day.

Question 22.
Name the traditional varieties of cows.
Answer:
Haryana, Jaferabad, Nagapuri are the traditional varieties which give good quantity of milk.

Question 23.
Name the foreign varieties of cows.
Answer:
Jersy (England) and Holstein (Denmark).

Question 24.
What is the milk yield from foreign varieties?
Answer:
They give 8 to 20 litres of milk.

Question 25.
What is pasteurization?
Answer:
The destruction of disease producing organisms present in the milk. In this process milk is heated at 62° temperature and cooled below 10°C.

Question 26.
In which months milk production is high?
Answer:
In the months of October and November milk production is high.

Question 27.
Who is the father of white revolution?
Answer:
Prof. J.K. Korian is the father of white revolution in India.

Question 28.
How is milk secreted?
Answer:
Milk is secreted from the mammary glands of animals.

Question 29.
Why do people in our country decorate their cattle during festivals?
Answer:
People believe that cattle are part and parcel of our culture. They treat them as their family members. So they decorate their cattle.

Question 30.
Why do some persons collect bones of dead animals?
Answer:
because bones are used in fertilizer industry.

Question 31.
What is the use of leather of animals?
Answer:
Leather of cattle is used in the leather industry.

Question 32.
What is Biogas? How is it produced?
Answer:
Biogas is produced from the wastes from cattle, home etc. As this is produced biologically, this gas is called biogas used for domestic purposes.

Question 33.
What are Broilers and layers?
Answer:
Broilers are the hens reared for meat and layers are the hens reared for eggs in poultry.

Question 34.
Name some local variety of poultry varieties.
Answer:
Aseel, Kadaknath, Chittagang, Longshan, Bursa are the pure local varieties.

Question 35.
What is a poultry?
Answer:
Production and rearing of hens on a large scale is called poultry.

Question 36.
In which place India is occupied in production of eggs?
Answer:
India achieved 4th position in the world by producing 41.06 million eggs per annum.

Question 37.
Name the foreign varieties of hens giving meat.
Answer:
New Hampshire, White plymouth, Rhode island red, while leg horn and Anoka.

Question 38.
What are the major practices in food production?
Answer:
Animal husbandry, poultry, fish culture, bee culture etc., are the major practices in food production.

Question 39.
In which months the egg prices are high?
Answer:
During January to April, egg prices are high.

Question 40.
Why egg prices are more in January to April?
Answer:
This is because of most of the eggs are used for hatching.

Question 41.
What is the temperature for hatchability of eggs?
Answer:
Hatchability of eggs is generally influenced by 37°C to 38°C temperature.

Question 42.
Write a slogan on nutritional Egg.
Answer:
“If you want to be healthy person eat egg every day”.

Question 43.
Name the traditional variety meant for fighting.
Answer:
Aseel (Berisa Kodi) is the Indian traditional variety meant for fighting.

Question 44.
How is hatching done in our rural areas?
Answer:
Our rural areas, the practitioner hatch eggs by placing them under broody hen.

Question 45.
What is the weight of Emu bird?
Answer:
The weight of Emu bird is nearly 50 kg.

Question 46.
What is the life span of natural wild varieties?
Answer:
Natural wild varieties grow fully in 5 to 6 years.

Question 47.
What is the life span of broilers?
Answer:
Broilers grow fully in just 6 to 8 weeks.

Question 48.
What is Apiculture?
Answer:
Culture of honey bees (apis) is called Apiculture.

Question 49.
What is the use of honey bee production?
Answer:
Development of apiculture is not only for honey production but also very much useful for crop pollination.

Question 50.
Which insects are the best pollinators?
Answer:
Honey bees are the best pollinators of many agricultural crops.

Question 51.
How much honey is produced by Indian honey bee?
Answer:
Indian honey bee produces 3 – 10 kg of honey.

Question 52.
Which honey bee is produces more honey?
Answer:
European honey bee produces 25 – 30 kgs of honey per annum.

Question 53.
Name the honey bees present in honey bee colony.
Answer:
A honey bee colony consists of one queen bee, several thousands of workers and few hundreds of drones.

Question 54.
What is the primary function of a queen bee?
Answer:
The primary function of a queen bee is to lay eggs.

Question 55.
What is the life span of a queen bee?
Answer:
The life span of queen bee is two-three years.

Question 56.
What are worker bees?
Answer:
The sterile females are called worker bees in the hive.

Question 57.
What is the function of worker bees?
Answer:
They attend to indoor duties during first three weeks of their lives such as secretion of royal jelly feeding of the brood, collecting nectar, pollen and water.

Question 58.
Name the plants that are sources of nectar.
Answer:
Fruit trees like citrus, apple, guava, tamarind, cultivated fields, crops like mustard, gingelly, wheat, cotton, sunflower.

Question 59.
What are the other products of Apiculture?
Answer:
Bee venom and bee wax are the other products of Apiculture.

Question 60.
How is bee venom used?
Answer:
Bee venom is used for the preparation of “Apistincture” used in homeopathic treatment.

Question 61.
What are the uses of bee wax?
Answer:
The uses of bee wax are production of polish cream, nail polish etc.

Question 62.
Name the parts present in a artificial bee hive.
Answer:
It consists of floor board, brood chamber, super chamber, top cover, inner cover, frames and entrance rod.

Question 63.
Name the pests and predators that attack honey bee colonies.
Answer:
Wax moths, wasps, rubber flies, dragon flies attack honey colonies. King crow, Bee eater are more harmful.

Question 64.
How are fish important for us?
Answer:
Fish constitute an important and rich sources of high quality animal protein.

Question 65.
What are the inland water areas?
Answer:
Rivers, fresh water and brackish water lakes, reservoirs, tanks, ponds, swamps etc., are the inland water areas.

Question 66.
Name the crustacean fishery.
Answer:
Prawns, lobsters and crabs together constitute the crustacean fishery.

Question 67.
Name the local varieties offish.
Answer:
Murrel (Korramenu), Katla (jalla), Katrana (bochalu), rohu (mosu), seer (vanjram) are the local varieties.

Question 68.
Name the marine fish varieties.
Answer:
Macerel, tuna, saradines are the marine fish varieties.

Question 69.
What are mechanized fishing?
Answer:
Fishermen catch fish by using machines is called mechanized fishing.

Question 70.
Name some marine fishes which are of high economic value.
Answer:
Mullets, Bhetki and peral spots, shel fishes such as prawns mussels and oysters as well as sea weed.

Question 71.
What are estuaries?
Answer:
Brackish water resources where sea water and fresh water mix together are called estuaries.

Question 72.
What is the reason for growing fish in paddy fields?
Answer:
The reason for this is increasing use of inorganic fertilizers and insecticides in paddy fields.

8th Class Biology 9th Lesson Production and Management of Food From Animals 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do you appreciate the role of poultry to meet the food needs of the present day increasing population ?
Answer:

1. The world is facing the problem of over growth in population.
2. To meet the increasing population food needs, poultry is the best suitable option.
3. So billion hens are reared world wide for eggs and chicken.
4. India achieved 4th position in the world by producing 41.06 million eggs per annum.
5. India is placed in 5th position in the production of 1000 million kgs of chicken per year.
6. Hence, I appreciate the poultry, in fulfilling the food needs of the society.

Question 2.
“Fish has high nutrition values” said Shravya. Do you support Shravya? Why?
Answer:

1. The meat of fish contains 15-25% of proteins. Hence they are the rich sources of proteins.
2. The meat of fish has vitamins like A and D.
3. Fishes are the sources for very important fatty acids and unsaturated fatty acids which are very vital in our body’s metabolic activities.
4. Meat of fish can be easily digested. It helps in the growth and development.

Question 3.
Name the three Indian Major fresh water crops grown in fish culture.
Answer:

1. Rohu – Labeo rohita:
2. Boche – Catla catla
3. Erramosu – Cirrhinus mrigala are the three Indian major crop fishes.

8th Class Biology 9th Lesson Production and Management of Food From Animals 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
This fish is called Tuna. Collect information about availability catching and marketing of this particular fish.

Answer:
Availability:
English: Big eye Tuna
Latin: Thunnus obesus
size + weight: Average today about 40 -180 c.m. about 1, 4-130 Kg.
Biggest Angled Fish: 197, 3 kg, 236 cm, Peru, 1957 Russel Lee
Maturity: Size 105 cm, weight 25 Kg., age 3 – 4 years
Maximum: Size 230 c.m., Weight 210 Kg., Age 15 years
Catching: 21% Eastern Pacific
38% Western Pacific
22% Indian Ocean
19% Atlantic Ocean
Catching Methods: Longlining, Purse seining and pole-and-line (by-catch)
Share of all Tuna: 2011 about 10% – 398.000 m.t
Main Production: Thailand, Philippines, Indonesia, Mexico, Venezuela, Ecuador, Colombia, Spain, Italy.
Life cyle: About 7-8
Major Markets: Japan (Sashimi)
Populr Product: Fresh (Whole fish)
Forms: Fresh Fillets (Sashimi)

Question 2.
Write a note on different methods used to store the fish in your area.
Answer:

1. The fish caught should be preserved in chilled conditions.
2. After catching the fish, gut is removed. Before transportation, fishes are thoroughly washed in clean and chlorinated waters.
3. They are perceived in insulated ice boxes with alternate layers of crushed ice and fishes in 1 : 1 proportion.
4. Preservation can also be done by
   a) Drying b) Salting c) Smoking d) Canning methods
5. Before canning, harmful bacteria like clostridum botulinum must be destroyed.
6. Cold storage facility and vans with refrigerated chamber have improved the storage and transport of fish.

Question 3.
Visit a poultry farm of your village. Collect the diseases of poultry and their preventive control measures. Prepare them in theform of a table.
Answer:

Diseases in Poultry birds	Casual organism	Precautionary control measures
Fowl cholera	Bacteria	Vaccination for fowl cholera is must.
Salmonellasis	Bacteria	Antibiotics with sulphur and vaccines.
Coryza	Bacteria	Sulfa drugs and antibiotics are necessary.
Fowl fox	Virus	They should be separated from the farm.
Ranikhet	Virus	Fowls should be separated from the farm and treatment should be given separately.

Question 4.
Write some diseases of tamed animals.
Answer:

1. Galikuntu is a common and dangerous diseases occur in cows and buffaloes.
2. Sheep and goats suffer from worm infections (Nattala vyadhi).
3. Some parasitic diseases cause damage to liver and intestine of tamed animals.
4. Viral and bacterial diseases also effect on milk production of cows and buffaloes.
   These are some examples for diseases in domestic animals.

8th Class Biology 9th Lesson Production and Management of Food From Animals Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How are the microorganisms like bacteria killed and how can the milk be preserved at milk chilling centres?
Answer:

1. Pasteurization of milk ensures the destruction of disease producing organisms present in milk.
2. In this process, milk is heated at 72°C for 30 minutes.
3. Prior to this, the milk was being cooled to below 10°C.
4. This process was invented by Louis Pasteur.

Question 2.
Dung is used as biofuel. You know that it is an accessory product. Write about such accessory products produced in animal husbandry.
Answer:
1. The supplimentary products produced from animal husbandry are meat, dung, leather, bones, horns, etc,
2. Animal husbandry is also contributing to different industries like

1. Dairy industry: Milk and milk products are produced.
2. Slaughter houses: Production of meat.
3. Leather industry: Tanning of leather and making shoes, belts and suitcases, etc.
4. Fertilizer industry : Bones of cattle are used in the production of chemical fertilizers.
5. Bio gas industry: Cattle dung is used in the production of biogas.
6. Toys industry: The horns of cattle are used to make toys and ornamental items.