TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Telangana SCERT TS 6th Class English Study Material Pdf Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest Textbook Questions and Answers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Questions & Answers:

Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
“There was excitement in the air.” Why ?
There was going to be a grand contest. In that contest every animal, bird and tree should show something special. So there was the excitement in the air.

Question 2.
Who will sing a song ?
Answer:
The lark will sing a song.

Question 3.
How was the squirrel ? Why ?
Answer:
The squirrel was sad. He thought that he didn’t glow or sing. He didn’t have any special ability to perform. So he was sad.

Question 4.
Who was the winner of the contest ?
Answer:
The winner of the contest was the little grey squirrel.

Question 5.
Why did the Great One give prize to the squirrel ?
Answer:
The Great One thought that the little squirrel thought of the future while the others thought of only the present. So, the Great One gave the prize to the squirrel.

Question 6.
If you were the judge, who would get the prize ? Why ? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
If I were the judge, the same little grey squirrel would get the prize. He filled the dry branches with nuts and seeds. We can plant the seeds and the new plants and trees will bear fruit and other eatables. So I would judge that he was the winner.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Grand Contest in the Forest Summary in English

The animals, birds and trees were excited because there was a grand contest among the animals. They had to perform their special abilities on that day. On the day of that grand contest all the animals, birds and trees except the little grey squirrel showed their abilities before the Great One. But the little squirrel was full of despair as it couldn’t perform any grand on the day. When the Great one asked the little squirrel why he remained silent, the squirrel answered that he couldn’t glow or sing but he could give with his heart. So saying, he went away and brought back dry branches which were filled with nuts and seeds. The Great One announced the prize for the little squirrel as he thought of the future. All the animals and birds cheered the little squirrel.

Glossary:

1. excite (v) : to make someone feel happy, interested or eager
2. contest (n) : competition
3. praise (v) : approve of someone
4. laburnum : a small tree with groups of yellow flowers hanging down
5. palash (n) : a tree with red flowers, supposed to be sacred
6. turquoise (adj) : a bluish green colour
7. despair (n) : feeling of no hope
8. hollow (adj) : having an empty space inside
9. scamper (v) : to run with quick steps
10. sow (v) : to plant

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Section – A : Reading Comprehension (25 Marks)

Questions: 1 – 10 (Marks : 15)

Passage No. 1:

1. Read the following passage.

Once upon a time, in a very thick forest there lived many animals, birds, snakes and insects. They all lived together happily. They roamed about the jungle, and played together in the open fields without any fear. The peacocks were very proud of their dances but admired the melodious songs of the cuckoos. The elephants enjoyed watching the fish swimming in the pool. The pythons which were blessed with long bodies, spoke well of the fine fur of the flat-footed rabbits. The tiny ants, which were always busy, tickled the dark buffaloes.

They often held musical evenings in a large open field. The elephant and the deer danced. The mynahs and the parrots sang. The tiger and the bear exhibited gymnastics. They called the moon and his friends, the stars, to be the guests of honour at their musical evenings.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5

Question 1.
How did the animals live according to the passage ? ( )
A) peacefully
B) harmoniously
C) happily
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 2.
Who did the peacocks admire ? ( )
A) their own dances
B) melodious songs of cuckoos
C) swimming fish
D) elephant’s dance
Answer:
B) melodious songs of cuckoos

Question 3.
What did the tiny ants do ? ( )
A) tickled the elephants
B) tickled the pythons
C) tickled the dark buffaloes
D) tickled the rabbits
Answer:
C) tickled the dark buffaloes

Question 4.
What did the elephants enjoy ? ( )
A) watching the fish swimming in the pool
B) melodious songs of cuckoos
C) peacock dances
D) their own dance
Answer:
A) watching the fish swimming in the pool

Question 5.
Pick out the word which is opposite to ‘leisurely’ from the passage. ( )
A) busy
B) proud
C) honour
D) admired
Answer:
A) busy

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 5 × 2 = 10

Question 6.
How did the animals roam in the forest ?
Answer:
The animals roamed about the jungle, and played together in the open fields without any fear.

Question 7.
Why did the creatures hold musical evenings in the forest ?
Answer:
The creatures held musical evenings to enjoy the occasion among themselves and to depict peace and harmony existed among them.

Question 8.
Who were the invitees to be the guests of honour at musical evenings ?
Answer:
Moon and his friends, the stars were the invitees to be the guests of honour at their musical evenings.

Question 9.
Where did they hold musical evenings ?
Answer:
They held musical evenings in a large open field.

Question 10.
Mention the cultural programmes that were held in their musical evenings.
Answer:
The elephant and the deer danced. The mynahs and the parrots sang. The tiger and the bear exhibited gymnastics.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Passage No. 2:

2. Read the following passage.

One day a jackal entered the forest. He was dirty, dangerous, and very cunning too. He told the elephants, “You are the biggest animals in the forest. Why do you want to play with the squirrels and the rabbits?” He poisoned the minds of the peacocks saying, “You are the loveliest birds in the forest. Why do you want to praise the mynahs?” The jackal then approached the deer and whispered that the tiger was waiting for a chance to kill them.

Gradually, all the animals began suspecting one another. Earlier they had lived together, slept together and roamed around the forest together. Now they started to put up boundaries and build fences around their properties. They moved about individually or with their own group.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5

Question 1.
The jackal was ________ ( )
A) dirty
B) dangerous
C) very cunning
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 2.
Who is the biggest animal in the forest ? ( )
A) Elephant
B) Lion
C) Tiger
D) Bear
Answer:
A) Elephant

Question 3.
________ was playing with squirrels and the rabbits. ( )
A) Elephant
B) Lion
C) Tiger
D) Bear
Answer:
A) Elephant

Question 4.
What did the jackal do after entering the forest ?
A) poisoned the minds of the animals and birds
B) roamed about the jungle without fear
C) played with all animals
D) lived happily
Answer:
A) poisoned the minds of the animals and birds

Question 5.
The loveliest bird in the forest is ……………. ( )
A) Peacock
B) Mynah
C) Parrot
D) Cuckoo
Answer:
A) Peacock

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each.

Question 6.
‘Peacocks praised the mynahs.’ What character trait of peacock do you observe from the above sentence. What skill do you want to develop from the peacock ?
Answer:
I observed modesty in peacock. I develop appreciating skill from the peacock.

Question 7.
What did the jackal try to do in the above passage ?
Answer:
The jackal wanted to bring differences among the creatures of the forest by poisoning their minds.

Question 8.
What did the jackal whisper in the deer’s ear ?
Answer:
The jackal whispered in the deer’s ear that the tiger was waiting for a chance to kill them.

Question 9.
Did the animals believe the jackal’s words ? What was the consequence ?
Answer:
Yes, they believed the jackal’s words. They started suspecting one another. They moved about individually.

Question 10.
Can you guess why the jackal behaved as mentioned in the passage ?
Answer:
The jackal wanted to kill the smaller animals and birds by creating some differences among them. If they were united, it was not possible for the jackal to kill them.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Passage No. 3:

3. Read the following passage.

Now it was easy for the jackal to hunt the smaller animals and the birds. And when the smaller ones cried out for help, no one came to help them. One by one, the little ones disappeared. The forest slept as the animals were afraid. There were no more musical evenings. The moon was sad. He cried.

The moon thought for a while and decided to come down among the animals and the birds as a sadhu. As soon as the sadhii appeared in the forest, the animals and the birds approached him to narrate their tales of woe. They cried, sobbed and blamed each other for disturbing the peace in the forest. And the sadhu listened to them.

The sadhu brought together the lions and the rabbits for a common meal. He visited the python and the viper, and had a long chat with them. He advised the eagle not to attack the little chicks that had lost their mother. The sadhu accompanied the tiger and the wild bear to the nearest market. He played with the bulbul, the owl and the monkeys.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booldet. 5 × 1 = 5

Question 1.
Now it was easy for the jackal to hunt the smaller animals and the birds because ________ ( )
A) all the animals began suspecting one another.
B) peace and harmony among the animals was disturbed.
C) they started to move individually.
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 2.
Why did the little ones disappear ?
A) because the jackal killed one by one
B) because they flee to another forest
C) because the bigger animals hunted all the little ones
D) they slept as they were afraid
Answer:
A) because the jackal killed one by one

Question 3.
The moon was sad because ________ ( )
A) there were no musical nights.
B) the animals did not invite him as a guest of honour.
C) the animals did not give respect to him.
D) peace and harmony among the animals was disturbed and they began to live individually.
Answer:
D) peace and harmony among the animals was disturbed and they began to live individually.

Question 4.
The sadhu brought together the lions and the rabbits for a common meal ________ ( )
A) to teach them to live in peace and harmony. ( )
B) to ask them to conduct musical nights.
C) to ask them to call him as a guest of honour.
D) to praise the lion and the rabbit.
Answer:
A) to teach them to live in peace and harmony.

Question 5.
What did the sadhu listen ? ( )
A) Animals’ tales of woe
B) Cuckoo’s song
C) Parrot’s talk
D) Mynah’s words
Answer:
A) Animals’ tales of woe

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 5 × 2 = 10

Question 6.
Why did no one come to help the smaller animals when they cried out for help ?
Answer:
All the animals started thinking that the other animals were their enemies. So when the smaller animals cried out for help no one came.

Question 7.
Why did the moon come to the earth ?
Answer:
The moon came to the earth to restore peace and harmony in the forest. He wanted to save the lives of the animals from the jackal.

Question 8.
What did the animals do when they saw the sadhu in the forest ?
Answer:
When the animals saw the sadhu, they approached him to narrate their tales of woe They cried, sobbed and blamed each other for disturbing peace in the forest.

Question 9.
How was the moon disguised ? Why did he choose that form ?
Answer:
The moon was disguised as a sadhu. He is soft by nature. It matches well with a sadhu. Even the animals have faith in a sadhu. A sadhu is capable of giving advice to others. Hence, the moon chose that form.

Question 10.
What did the sadhu advise the eagle ?
Answer:
The sadhu advised the eagle not to attack the little chicks that had lost their mother.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Passage No. 4:

4. Read the following passage :

But the jackal was very angry with what the sadhu was doing. He did not want the animals to live in peace and harmony. So he was waiting for an opportunity to attack the sadhu.

One day, the animals, insects and birds held an emergency meeting and they unanimously decided to approach the sadhu and pleaded with him to kill the jackal.

The sadhu said, “I will not kill the jackal but help you in a different way.”
When the sue. went to sleep, the jackal came to the house of the hens to take a few of them for his supper, i fie sadhu, who had been lodging nearby, came out of the house and spoke to the jackal. “Take me today for your meal.”

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5

Question 1.
The animals, insectes and birds held an emergency meeting ( )
A) to kill the jackal.
B) to send jackal from the forest.
C) to plead the sadhu to kill the jackal.
D) to plead the lion to kill the jackal.
Answer:
C) to plead the sadhu to kill the jackal.

Question 2.
What did the animals do to get rid of the jackal ? ( )
A) They held an emergency meeting.
B) They approached the jackal.
C) They approached the lion.
D) They held an emergency meeting and decided to approach the sadhu for help.
Answer:
D) They held an emergency meeting and decided to approach the sadhu for help.

Question 3.
‘When the sun went to sleep’ What do you understand from this line ? ( )
A) The sun fell asleep.
B) The sun was tired and went to sleep.
C) The sun did not want to shine.
D) As the sun set, it became night.
Answer:
D) As the sun set, it became night.

Question 4.
Where did the jackal come at night ? ( )
A) the house of the ducks
B) the house of the hens
C) the house of the pigeons
D) the house of the peacocks
Answer:
B) the house of the hens

Question 5.
The jackal came to the house of hens ( )
A) to take a few of them for his breakfast.
B) to take a few of them for his lunch.
C) to take a few of them for his supper.
D) to take a few of them for sadhu’s supper.
Answer:
C) to take a few of them for his supper.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 5 × 2 = 10

Question 6.
Why was the jackal very angry ?
Answer:
The jackal was very angry with what the sadhu was doing. He did not want the animals to live in peace and harmony. If it happened, it would be dificult for him to kill the small creatures.

Question 7.
What was the jackal’s wish ?
Answer:
The jackal’s wish was to disturb the peace and harmony among animals.

Question 8.
Why was the jackal waiting for an opportunity ?
Answer:
The jacked was waiting for an opportunity to attack the sadhu.

Question 9.
What assurance did the sadhu give to the animals ?
Answer:
The sadhu said that he would not kill the jackal but help them in a different way.

Question 10.
Where did the sadhu lodge ? What did he speak to the jackal ?
Answer:
The sadhu lodged near the house of the hens. He spoke to the jackal to take him that day for his meal.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Passage No. 5:

The jackal who had been waiting for this opportunity, dragged the sadhu and ran into the jungle. He took the sadhu to a lonely place, tore him into pieces and ate him up. The animals were very sad, angry and disappointed with what had happened to the sadhu. They were afraid that the hungry jackal would appear again the next day. Then they heard a strange noise.

All of them ran in that direction. What they saw surprised them. They saw the stomach of the jackal growing bigger and bigger. It continued to bloat until it burst. Then they heard a soft voice: “May my animals, birds and insects live in peace and harmony! May there be no fences around you! May you sing and dance once again! Remember me and be not afraid.”

When they looked up at the sky, they saw the moon shining brilliantly, spreading milky brightness over the earth. The animals once again started to roam, sing, and sleep in peace. They broke down the fences which they had built. They invited the moon and the stars for their cultural evenings.

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 5 × 2 = 10

Question 1.
Who had been waiting for the opportunity ? ( A )
A) The jackal
B) The sadhu
C) The animals
D) The birds
Answer:
A) The jackal

Question 2.
The jackal dragged the sadhu and ran into the jungle because ________ ( A )
A) He wanted to kill the sadhu and eat him.
B) he wanted to teach a lesson to the sadhu.
C) he wanted to surrender the sadhu to a lion.
D) he wanted to ask to pardon him.
Answer:
A) He wanted to kill the sadhu and eat him.

Question 3.
The animals were very sad, angry and disappointed because ________ ( B )
A) the sadhu offered himself as a meal to the jackal.
B) the jackal killed the sadhu and ate him up.
C) the hungry jackal would appear again the next day.
D) the jackal dragged the sadhu and ran into the jungle.
Answer:
B) the jackal killed the sadhu and ate him up.

Question 4.
Why were the animals afraid ? ( )
A) because the sadhu offered humself as a meal to the jackal.
B) because the jackal killed the sadhu.
C) because the hungry jackal would appear again the next day.
D) because the jackal dragged the sadhu and ran into the jungle.
Answer:
C) because the hungry jackal would appear again the next day.

Question 5.
The animals ran into the jungle because ________ ( )
A) they heard a strange noise.
B) they wanted to search the sadhu.
C) they wanted to kill the jackal.
D) they wanted to flee away.
Answer:
A) they heard a strange noise.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Question 6.
What made the animals surprise ?
Answer:
They saw the stomach of the jackal growing bigger and bigger. It continued to bloat until it burst.

Question 7.
What is the message of the sadhu ?
Answer:
He said that all the animals, birds and insects must live in peace and harmony.

Question 8.
What happened to the jackal ?
Answer:
The jackal’s stomach grew bigger and bigger until it burst and the jackal died.

Question 9.
Do you think that the animals understand that the moon is disguised as a sadhu ? How can you say ?
Answer:
Yes, because they looked up at the sky after hearing to the sadhu’s words and saw the moon shining brightly, spreading milky brightness over the earth.

Question 10.
How were the animals after the jackal’s death ? What moral do you extract from this lesson ?
Answer:
The animals once again started to roam, sing, and sleep in peace. They broke down the fences which they had built. I understood that unity is strength and if one lives in peace and harmony, one will yield happiness in life.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Poem:

6. Read the following poem.

I am big and round,
I wonder if there will be peace,
I hear the sound of people who are being killed,
I see the people crying for life,
I want to help the poor people.
I am big and round,
I feel the weight of sorrow on me,
I touch the feelings of the people,
I worry about the future of the people on me,
I cry for help from God.
I am big and round,
I understand the problems of the people on me,
I say grace for all people,
I dream about my past,
I try to handle my sorrow,
I hope I won’t be destroyed,
I am big and round.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5

Question 1.
How was the earth? ( )
A) happy
B) sorrowful
C) joyful
D) graceful
Answer:
B) sorrowful

Question 2.
The earth wonders if there will be peace because ……………. ( )
A) she hears the sound of people who are being killed.
B) she sees the people crying for help.
C) she is big and round.
D) both A & B
Answer:
D) both A & B

Question 3.
What does the earth worry about? ( )
A) the future of the people on her
B) the joy
C) the peace
D) the sorrow
Answer:
A) the future of the people on her

Question 4.
Whosehelpdoestheearth seek? ( )
A) God
B) People
C) Environment
D) Leaders
Answer:
A) God

Question 5.
What does the earth dream about? ( )
A) present
B) past
C) future
D) peace
Answer:
B) past

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 5 x 2 = 10

Question 6.
What does the earth wish to have and why ?
Answer:
The earth wishes to have peace all over the world because she wants that the people shouldn’t be killed on her.

Question 7.
Who does the earth want to help ? What does it feel ?
Answer:
The earth wants to help the poor people. She feels the weight of sorrow on her.

Question 8.
What does the earth touch ?
Answer:
The earth touches the feelings of the people.

Question 9.
What does the earth understand ? What does she say to her people ?
Answer:
She understands the problems of the people on her.

Question 10.
What does the earth try and what does it hope ?
Answer:
The earth tries to handle her sorrow and hopes that she won’t be destroyed.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Passage No. 6:

7. Read the following passage.

There was excitement in the air. There was going to be a grand contest. Everyone should show something special, and the best one would be praised by the Lords of Fire, Wind, Water, and Sun… The animals and trees began preparations.

“I’ll shine like sparkling sunshine,” said the laburnum. “My flowers will look like golden raindrops.”

The gulmohar said, “I’ll dress myself so that 1 look like the early morning sun- golden-red, spreading radiance.”
“I’ll offer the best honey 1 can find,” shouted the bear.

The elephant said, “I’ll get the best fruit, so fresh it would still be on the branches…And lay them at her feet.”

Everyone had something beautiful or wonderful to offer on the great day. Everyone, except a little grey squirrel, who talked sadly to himself, “What does alittle grey squirrel with black stripes have to offer?”

The palash said, “The forest will be ablaze with my beauty. Though late, I’ll save some flowers.”

“And though early, I’ll make some flowers bloom,” snapped the gulmohar.

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 5 × 2 = 10

Question 1.
There was excitement in the air because ( )
A) Everyone should show something special.
B) Best one would be praised by the Lords of Fire, Wind. Water and Sun.
C) There was going to be a grand contest.
D) The animals and trees began preparations.
Answer:
C) There was going to be a grand contest.

Question 2.
Every animal, bird and tree would ( )
A) give their best to the Great One.
B) shine like sparkling sunshine.
C) offer the best honey.
D) dress like the early morning sun.
Answer:
A) give their best to the Great One.

Question 3.
What would the bear do? ( )
A) It would offer the best honey.
B) It would offer the best flower.
C) It would offer the best fruit.
D) It would sing a song.
Answer:
A) It would offer the best honey.

Question 4.
Who doesn’t have something beautiful or wonderful to offer on the great day? ( )
A) Bear
B) Elephant
C) Little grey squirrel
D) Dove
Answer:
C) Little grey squirrel

Question 5.
What was the great day mentioned in the passage? ( )
A) a grand contest
B) musical evening
C) earth day
D) environment day
Answer:
A) a grand contest

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 5 × 2 = 10

Question 6.
‘And lay them at her feet.’ Whom do ‘her feet’ refer to?
Answer:
‘Her feet’ refer to the Great One’s feet.

Question 7.
What would the liffle grey squirrel talk to himself?
Answer:
The little grey squirrel would talk to himself that he couldn’t have to offer anything as he was a little one.

Question 8.
How could the palash want to show bis ability?
Answer:
The palash could want to ablaze the forest with her beauty.

Question 9.
What did the gulmohar snap?
Answer:
The gulmohar snapped that she could make sorne flowers bloom.

Question 10.
Where would all the above animals and trees perform their abilities?
Answer:
They would perform their abilities on the great day in the presence of the Great One.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Passage No. 7:

8. Read the following passage.

The beautiful trees and creatures had started competing and fighting.
“My mangoes are ready,” announced the mango tree.
The peacock said, “Emeralds and turquoises are my feathers.”
The lark trilled, “I’ll sing a song, beautiful and moving…”
The dove cooed, saying the Great One would love her soft notes.

Gifts and beauty abound, thought the squirrel in despair. He thought and thought. “But 1 will do what I can do best,” he decided. He found hollow branches and filled them with as many nuts and seeds of different trees as he could find.

The next day everyone was ready. The Great One came. The air became soft and balmy. The streams tinkled as they tumbled over little rocks.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5

Question 1.
The beautiful trees and creatures started competing and fighting ( )
A) to win in the contest.
B) to get a prize in the contest.
C) to give their best to the Great One.
D) all the above
Answer:
D) all the above

Question 2.
Who will sing a song ? ( )
A) dove
B) peacock
C) lark
D) squirrel
Answer:
C) lark

Question 3.
How was the squirrel ? ( )
A) happy
B) sad
C) angry
D) hungry
Answer:
B) sad

Question 4.
The next day everyone was ready. Why were they ready ? ( )
A) to give their best to the Great one
B) to participate in the great contest
C) to participate in the cultural evening
D) both A & B
Answer:
D) both A & B

Question 5.
The air became soft and balmy because ( )
A) the Great One came.
B) the rain came.
C) the cool breeze came.
D) the mist came.
Answer:
A) the Great One came.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 5 × 2 = 10

Question 6.
What was the fighting mentioned in the passage ?
Answer:
The fighting mentioned in the passage was the performance of the special abilities of the creatures on the great day.

Question 7.
What did the peacock say ?
Answer:
The peacock said that emeralds and turquoises were her feathers.

Question 8.
Why was the squirrel in despair ?
Answer:
The squirrel had not any special ability to show on the great day. So he was in despair.

Question 9.
What did the little squirrel want to do finally ?
Answer:
He wanted to do his best. He found hollow branches and filled them with nuts and seeds of different trees.

Question 10.
What did the dove coo ?
Answer:
The dove cooed that the Great One would love her soft notes.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Passage No. 8:

9. Read the following passage.

“Great One. here is my gift,” said each, laying gifts at her feet After evefyone had given their gifts, the Great One looked at the little grey squirrel, and asked “Little one, why are you quiet”?

“I have nothing grand to offer you. 1 don’t glow or sing, but what 1 have I give with my heart,” and he scampered away. He returned, dragging his dry branches. The Great One looked grave.

1 see beauty in form and sound…” all waited holding their breath. But the prize goes to the grey squirrel, for I can use the seeds and sow them; new life will burst forth…trees will bear more fruit. It is a gift not only for today but also for ail our tomorrows.”

The creatures then marvelled saying, “How foolish we were to think only of the present. Three cheers for the little squirrel!”

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 5 × 2 = 10

Question 1.
Where did all the creatures keep their gifts ? ( )
A) at the Great one’s feet
B) under a tree
C) in front of the Great One
D) in the Great One’s hands
Answer:
A) at the Great one’s feet

Question 2.
What did the Great One observe ? ( )
A) Everyone had given their gifts.
B) Everyone had given nice gifts
C) Little squirrel was quiet.
D) Everyone was happy.
Answer:
C) Little squirrel was quiet.

Question 3.
The little squirrel was quiet because ________ ( )
A) He had nothing grand to offer the Great One.
B) He could not glow
C) He could not sing.
D) all of the above
Answer:
D) all of the above

Question 4.
What did the little squirrel present ? ( )
A) dry branches filled with flowers
B) green branches filled with flowers
C) dry branches filled with nuts and seeds
D) dry branches and green branches
Answer:
C) dry branches filled with nuts and seeds

Question 5.
Who was the winner of the contest ? ( )
A) The little grey squirrel
B) The Bear
C) The peacock
D) The elephant
Answer:
A) The little grey squirrel

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 5 × 2 = 10

Question 6.
How did the little squirrel’s show impress the Great One ?
Answer:
On seeing the little squirrel’s show, the Great One thought that the seeds would give on the plants which would bear more fruit. He thought that it was a gift not only for the present but also for the future. So she was impressed with the squirrel’s efforts.

Question 7.
Why did the Great One give prize to the squirrel ?
Answer:
The Great One thought that the little squirrel thought of the future while the others thought of only the present. So the Great One gave the prize to the squirrel.

Question 8.
Why did the other creatures cheer the little squirrel ?
Answer:
The other creatures cheered the little squirrel as he was awarded the prize by the Great One.

Question 9.
Why did the creatures think that they were foolish ?
Answer:
The creatures thought that they were foolish because they thought about only the present while squirrel thought about both the present and the future.

Question 10.
If you were the judge, who would get the prize ? Justify your answer.
Answer:
If I were the judge, the same little grey squirrel would get the prize He presented nuts and seeds. We can plant the seeds and the new plants and trees will bear fruit and other eatables. So I would judge that he was the winner.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Questions : 11 – 16, Marks : 10

Passage No. 1:

Read the following passage.

Abha went to a fair with her parents. The fair was a tot of fun There were rides food and games. There were many good things to eat. They enjoyed eathing bhel-puri. ice cream and popcorn. Abha bought balloons and a wooden doll. There were many performers and crowds had gathered around them. Abha and her parents watched a juggler juggling apples, balls and sticks. They watched a fire-eater swallow a flame. They listened to some musicians playing music. They rode on a ferris wheel and a merry-go-round. They bought glass bangles from a woman sitting in a tent. After a tiring but wonderful day, Abha and her parents returned home carrying many packages.

Choose the correct answer from the four choices given below the questions. 2 × 1 = 2

Question 11.
Abha and her parents ate ( )
A) aloo-chat
B) bhel-puri
C) candy floss
D) dosa
Answer:
B) bhel-puri

Question 12.
Crowds had gathered around the ( )
A) food stalls
B) rides
C) performers
D) tent
Answer:
C) performers

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 4 × 2 = 8

Question 13.
Where did Abha go ? What type of recreations were there ?
Answer:
Abha went to a fair with her parents. The fair was a lot of fun. There were rides, food and games.

Question 14.
What did the woman sitting in the tent sell ?
Answer:
The woman sitting in the tent sold glass bangles.

Question 15.
What does the phrase ‘Many packages’ mean ?
Answer:
‘Many packages’ means things they bought at the fair.

Question 16.
Have you ever gone to a fair ? Write a few words about your experience.
Answer:
Yes, I have gone to an exhibition with my parents. I enjoyed eating mirchi bajji, noodles. I bought toy cars and balloons. I rode on a camel round the exhibition.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Passage No. 2:

Read the following passage.

A farmer lived in a village. He had a hen. It laid an egg of gold daily. The farmer sold
the eggs and became rich. One day his wife grew greedy. She wanted to have all the eggs once. She asked her husband to kill the hen and get all the eggs. The farmer took a knife and cut open the hen. But there were no eggs inside the hen. The farmer and his wife felt very sad. But it was too late now.

Choose the correct answer from the four choices given below the questions. 2 × 1 = 2

Question 11.
Which of these words means ‘every day’ ? ( )
A) greedy
B) daily
C) inside
D) golden
Answer:
B) daily

Question 12.
On cutting the hen, both the farmer and his wife felt ________ ( )
A) happy
B) rich
C) sad
D) angry
Answer:
C) sad

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 4 × 2 = 8

Question 13.
How did the farmer grow rich ?
Answer:
The farmer had a hen. It laid an egg of gold daily. The farmer sold the eggs and became rich.

Question 14.
Did they find eggs inside the hen ? Why / Why not ?
Answer:
No, because it is a natural process to lay only one egg daily. No hen can store many eggs at a time in the stomach.

Question 15.
What moral did you learn from the story ?
Answer:
Greed brings grief.

Question 16.
If you were the wife of the farmer, what would you do ?
Answer:
If I were the wife of the farmer, I don’t cut open the hen. I shall take the egg laid by the hen daily and be satisfied.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Passage No. 3:

Read the following passage.

Emperor Akbar wanted to test the wisdom of his courtiers. So, one day in his court he drew a line on the floor and ordered his courtiers to make his line shorter, but not to rub out any part of it.

No one knew what to do. Each minister looked at the line and was puzzled. No one could think of how it could be made shorter without erasing it.

Birbal started smiling. When it was his turn, he went near the line. He drew a longer line under the first one. He didn’t touch the first line. Everyone in the court saw what he drew and said. “That’s true. The first line is shorter now !”

Choose the correct answer from the four choices given below the questions. 2 × 1 = 2

Question 11.
Akbar drew the line to ( )
A) prove his courtiers were fools.
B) teach drawing.
C) prove that he was great.
D) test who was wise.
Answer:
D) test who was wise.

Question 12.
Birbal is a in Akbar’s court. ( )
A) minister
B) soldier
C) jester
D) king
Answer:
A) minister

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 4 × 2 = 8

Question 13.
What did Akbar order one day ?
Answer:
One day in his court Akbar drew a line and ordered his courtiers to make his line shorter without erasing any part of it.

Question 14.
Why were the ministers puzzled ?
Answer:
The ministers were puzzled because they could not think of how the line could be made shorter without erasing it.

Question 15.
How did Birbal make the line shorter ?
Answer:
Birbal drew a longer line under the Akbar’s line and made it shorter.

Question 16.
Do you think Birbal is clever ? Why ?
Answer:
Yes, because nobody in the court could make the line shorter without erasing any part of it. But only Birbal made it by drawing another longer line.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Section – B : Vocabulary and Grammar (20 Marks)

Questions : 17 – 21, Marks : 5

Passage No. 1:

Read the following passage and write as directed.

Once upon a time, in a very thick (17) forest there lived many animals, birds, snakes and insects. They all lived together happily. They roamed about the jungle (18), and played together on (19) the open fields without any fear. The peacock (20) were very proud of their dances but admired (21) the melodious songs of the cuckoos.

Question 17.
Write the antonym (opposite) of the underlined word.
Answer:
thin

Question 18.
Write the synonym of the underlined word.
Answer:
forest

Question 19.
Replace the underlined word with the correct one.
Answer:
in

Question 20.
Write the plural form of the underlined word.
Answer:
peacocks

Question 21.
Write the right form of the underlined word.
Answer:
admiration

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Passage No. 2:

Read the following passage and write as directed.

One day a jackal entered the forest. He was dirty, (17) dangerous, and very cunning too. He told the elephants, “You are the bigger (18) animals in the forest. Why do you want to play with the squirrels and the rabbits?” He poisoned (19) the minds of the peacocks saving. (20) “You are the loveliest birds in the forest. Why do you want to praise (21) the mynahs?”

Question 17.
Write the antonym of the underlined word.
Answer:
clean

Question 18.
Replace the underlined word with the right word.
Answer:
biggest

Question 19.
Write the right form of the underlined word.
Answer:
poisonous

Question 20.
Write another verb form of the underlined word.
Answer:
say / said

Question 21.
Write the synonym of the underlined word.
Answer:
admire / applaud

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Passage No. 3:

Read the following passage and write as directed.

The sadhu brought (17) together the lions and the rabbits for a common (18) meal. Ha visited the python and the viper, and had a long chat (19) with them. He advised (20) the eagle not to attack the little chicks that had lost there (21) mother.

Question 17.
Write the other verb form of the underlined word.
Answer:
bring

Question 18.
Write the antonym (opposite) of the underlined word.
Answer:
rare

Question 19.
Write the synonym of the underlined word.
Answer:
talk

Question 20.
Write the right form of the underlined word.
Answer:
advice

Question 21
Replace the underlined word with the correct one.
Answer:
their

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Passage No. 4:

Read the following passage and write as directed.

There was excitement (17) in the air. There was going to be a grand contest (18). Everyone should show something special. (19) and the best one would be praised with (20) the Lords of Fire,Wind, Water, and Sun…The animals and trees began (21) preparations.

Question 17.
Write the right form of the underlined word.
Answer:
excite

Question 18.
Write the synonym of the underlined word.
Answer:
competition

Question 19.
Write the antonym of the underlined word.
Answer:
ordinary

Question 20.
Replace the underlined word with the correct one.
Answer:
by

Question 21.
Write the other verb form of the underlined word.
Answer:
begin

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Passage No. 5:

Read the following passage and write as directed.

Gifts and beauty abound, thought the squirrel in despair (17). He thought and thought (18). “But I will do what I can do best,” he decided. (19) He found (20) hollow branches (21) and filled them with as many nuts and seeds of different trees as he could find.

Question 17.
Write the synonym of the underlined word.
Answer:
sadness / hopelessness

Question 18.
Write the other verb form the underlined word.
Answer:
think

Question 19.
Write the right form of the underlined word.
Answer:
decision

Question 20.
Write the antonym of the underlined word.
Answer:
lost

Question 21.
Write the singular form to the underlined word.
Answer:
branch

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Questions : 22 – 26, Marks : 5

Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (Q or (D) in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5

Passage No. 1:

Sustu ________ (22) a farmer. He was ________ (23) lazy. He did not like ________ (24) work. He ________ (25) wanted to sleep. He ________ (26) to God, ‘0 God ! please send me a servant to work for me.’

Question 22.
A) were
B) is
C) was
D) are
Answer:
C) was

Question 23.
A) very
B) much
C) more
D) most
Answer:
A) very

Question 24.
A) to
B) at
C) of
D) for
Answer:
A) to

Question 25.
A) never
B) always
C) sometimes
D) often
Answer:
B) always

Question 26.
A) pray
B) prays
C) prayed
D) praying
Answer:
C) prayed

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Passage No. 2:

Sarojini Naidu was born_________ (22) Hyderabad on February 13, 1879_________ (23) father was Aghornath Chattopadhyay and mother was Barada Sundharl Devi. Sarojini was ________ (24) bright child. She ________ (25) Matriculation ________ (26) the age of 12.

Question 22.
A) in
B) at
C) on
D) with
Answer:
A) in

Question 23.
A) She
B) Her
C) Hers
D) Herself
Answer:
B) Her

Question 24.
A) a
B) an
C) the
D) for
Answer:
A) a

Question 25.
A) pass
B) passed
C) passes
D) passing
Answer:
B) passed

Question 26.
A) on
B) in
C) at
D) with
Answer:
C) at

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Passage No. 3:

There is a story _________ (22) a kind tree and _________ (23) little boy. He used to _________ (24) in the shade _________ (25) the tree. The tree loved him_________ (26) much.

Question 22.
A) for
B) on
C) about
D) with
Answer:
C) about

Question 23.
A) a
B) one
C) the
D) an
Answer:
A) a

Question 24.
A) sit
B) sits
C) sat
D) sitting
Answer:
A) sit

Question 25.
A) by
B) of
C) near
D) at
Answer:
B) of

Question 26.
A) very
B) so
C) as
D) how
Answer:
A) very

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Passage No. 4:

Once there was a very rich man. He _________ (22) a miser. He_________ (23) cheap food and spent very _________ (24) money. He lent money to small shop keepers _________ (25) a high rate of interest. In this way, he _________ (26) a lot of money.

Question 22.
A) were
B) is
C) was
D) are
Answer:
C) was

Question 23.
A) eat
B) ate
C) eaten
D) eating
Answer:
B) ate

Question 24.
A) a little
B) few
C) less
D) little
Answer:
D) little

Question 25.
A) at
B) to
C) of
D) for
Answer:
A) at

Question 26.
A) earn
B) will earn
C) earned
D) earns
Answer:
C) earned

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Passaae No. 5:

Florence Nightingale always wanted to _________ (22) a nurse. Her parents _________ (23) not want her to become a nurse. In _________ (24) days girls who come _________ (25) rich families did not become ________ (26).

Question 22.
A) become
B) became
C) becomes
D) becoming
Answer:
A) become

Question 23.
A) do
B) did
C) does
D) done
Answer:
B) did

Question 24.
A) those
B) these
C) that
D) this
Answer:
A) those

Question 25.
A) in
B) with
C) from
D) for
Answer:
C) from

Question 26.
A) nurse
B) nurses
C) doctor
D) doctors
Answer:
B) nurses

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Questions : (27 – 31), Marks : 10

Rewrite the following passage given below. Five sentences in the passage are numbered (27 – 31. at the beginning. Each of the five sentences has an error. Correct and rewrite them in the answer booklet. 5 × 2 = 10

1. (27) They always held musical evenings in a large open field. (28) The elephant or the deer danced. (29) The mynahs and the parrot sang. (30) The tiger and the bear exhibit gymnastics. (31). They called the moon and his friends, the stars, to be the guests of honour in their musical evenings.
Answer:
27) They often held musical evenings in a large open field.
28) The elephant and the deer danced.
29) The mynahs and the parrots sang.
30) The tiger and the bear exhibited gymnastics.
31) They called the moon and his friends, the stars, to be the guests of honour at their musical evenings.

2. (27) The sadhu brought together the lions and the rabbits to a common meal. (28) He visits the python and the viper, and had a long chat with them. (29) He advised a eagle not to attack the little chicks that had lost their mother. (30) The sadhu accompanied the tiger and the wild bear to the near market. (31) He played with the bulbul, the owl and the monkey.
Answer:
27) The sadhu brought together the lions and the rabbits for a common meal.
28) He visited the python and the viper, and had a long chat with thepi.
29) He advised the eagle not to attack the little chicks that had lost their mother.
30) The sadhu accompanied the tiger and the wild bear to the nearest market.
31) He played with the bulbul, the owl and the monkeys.

3. (27) The jackal who had been waiting for this opportunity, dragged the sadhu and ran inside the jungle. (28) He took the sadhu to a lone place, tore him into pieces and ate him up. (29) The animals was very sad, angry and disappointed with what had happened to the sadhu. (30) They were afraid that a hungry jackal would appear again the next day. (31) Then they listened a strange noise.
Answer:
27) The jackal who had been waiting for this opportunity, dragged the sadhu and ran into the jungle.
28) He took the sadhu to a lonely place, tore him into pieces and ate him up.
29) The animals were very sad, angry and disappointed with what had happened to the sadhu.
30) They were afraid that the hungry jackal would appear again the next day.
31) Then they heard a strange noise.

4. (27) The animals, birds and trees were excites. (28) They began to prepared for the Great Day when they would give their best to the Great One except the little grey squirrel.
(29) There were excitement in the air. (30) There was going to be the grand contest. (31. Everyone should show something special, and the best one would be praised with the Lords of Fire,Wind, Water, and Sun.
Answer:
27) The animals, birds and trees were excited.
28) They began to prepare for the Great Day when they would give their best to the Great One except the little grey squirrel.
29) There was excitement in the air.
30) There was going to be a grand contest.
31) Everyone should show something special, and the best one would be praised by the Lords of Fire, Wind, Water, and Sun.

5. (27) “I have everything grand to offer you. (28) I didn’t glow or sing, but what I have I give with my heart,” and he scampered away. (29) He returned, drag his dry branches. (30) A Great One looked grave. (3l) “I see beahty in form or sound…” all waited holding their breath.
Answer:
27) “I have nothing grand to offer you.
28) I don’t glow or sing, but what 1 have I give with my heart,” and he scampered away.
29) He returned, dragging his dry branches.
30) The Great One looked grave.
31) “I see beauty in form and sound…” all waited holding their breath.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Section – C : Conventions of Writing (5 Marks)

Question : 32, Marks : 5

Read the following passage and rewrite it using proper punctuation marks (capitalization, . , ? ! ” ” )5 Marks

Question 1.
the elephants enjoyed watching the fish swimming in the pool the pythons which were blessed with long bodies spoke well of the fine fur of the flat-footed rabbits.
Answer:
The elephants enjoyed watching the fish swimming in the pool. The pythons which were blessed with long bodies, spoke well of the fine fur of the flat-footed rabbits.

Question 2.
one day a jackal entered the forest he was dirty dangerous and very cunning too
Answer:
One day a jackal entered the forest. He was dirty, dangerous and very cunning too.

Question 3.
IT the sadhu said i will not kill the jackal but help you in a different way when the sun went to sleep the jackal came to the house of the hens to take a few of them for his supper
Answer:
The sadhu said. “I will not kill the jackal but help you in a different way.” When the sun went to sleep, the jackal came to the house of the hens to take a few of them for his supper.

Question 4.
the creatures then marvelled saying how foolish we were to think only of the present three cheers for the little squirrel
Answer:
The creatures then marvelled saying, “How foolish we were to think only of the present. Three cheers for the little squirrel!”

Question 5.
IT ill shine like sparkling sun-shine said the laburnum my flowers will look like golden rain drops
Answer:
“I’ll shine like sparkling sun-shine.” said the laburnum. “My flowers will look like golden rain drops.”

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Section – D : Creative Writing (20 Marks)

Question : 33, Marks : 12

Question 1.
Write a possible conversation between the elephant and the deer before the jackal entered the forest.
Answer:
Deer : HelIo elephant ! Where are you coming from?
Elephant : Hal, I am coming from the pöol.
Deer : Oh ! Have you taken bath?
Elephant : Yes, you know, I enjoyed watching the fish swimming in the pool till now.
Deer : Really, how modest you are ! Though you are the biggest, you love small creatures. How nice you are!
Elephant : Don’t praise me too much. All of us know pretty well that our forest is different from other forests. We live in peace and harmony.
Deer : Yes, of course. We are living together happily without any fear. I would like to remind you one thing.
Elephant : What is it?
Deer : Tomorrow there is a musical evening in our open field.
Elephant : Oh! I see. Who are the guests?
Deer : As usual. Moon and the stars are our guests of honour.
Elephant : Do we have cultural programmes? ,
Deer : Yes, shall we both dance in that evening?
Elephant : Why not ? Absolutely. Shall we practise?
Deer : 0K! Let us practise.

Question 2.
In the lesson ‘Grand Contest in the Forest’, the Great One gave the prize to the little grey squirrel. All the animals and birds cheered him.
Write a possible conversation between the squirrel and the bear.
Answer:
Bear : Congratulations. You have won the prize.
Squirrel : Thank you.
Bear : Hearty congratulations. You deserve this.
Squirrel : Thank you very much. But I din’t expect this prize. I can’t believe my ears and eyes.
Bear : I offered the best honey. But I don’t think it won’t retain for ever at that time.
Squirrel : I too did the same. 1 offered fresh fruits which are useful for that day only.
Bear : Yes, how foolish we are to think only of the present.
Squirrel : Don’t blame yourself. You did the best. Obtaining honey and fresh fruits is not that easy task.
Elephant : How humble you are ! Though you got the prize, you are appreciating our offerings.
Squirrel : We are all belong to the same family. We must not have any differences regarding any matter.
Bear : Yes, of course. Any how you taught us a lesson. From today onwards we shall think not only of the present but also of the future.
Squirrel : Thanks a lot for your affection and concern.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Question 3.
Write a script of drama “How Friends Become Enemies” based on the events that occurred in the lesson ‘Peace and Harmony’.
Answer:

Play

Characters:
Elephant; Deer; Rabbit; Peacock; Jackal; Cuckoo; Tiger

Peacock : Hey dear ! Listen. How melodious the song of cuckoo is !
Rabbit : So nice dear ! I too like your dance. I would like to appreciate your modesty. Though you dance very well, you are admiring cuckoo’s song.
Peacock : Of course, you know pretty well that all of us are living in peace and harmony.
Rabbit : Yes, look at that python. How long it is ! It won’t harm us. It talks to me nicely.
Deer : Dear friends, how are you ?
Peacock, Rabbit : We are fine. Why are you so excited ?
Deer : Don’t you know about our musical evening ?
Elephant : Hai friends, what are you discussing about ?
Deer : About our musical evening.
Elephant : Oh ! When is it going to be held ?
Deer : Tomorrow.
Rabbit : Oh ! Very nice. Hey dear elephant, where are you coming from ? You are looking very fresh.
Elephant : I went to our pool to take a bath.
Peacock : I have seen you going there three hours back. What are you doing till now ?
Elephant : I took a bath and enjoyed watching the fish swimming in the pool.
Deer : I am proud of my friends. How nice you are !
Elephant : OK! Dear, tell me something about musical evening.
Deer : As usual it is going to be ueld in our open field itself. .
Peacock : Who are the guests ?
Deer : The moon and the stars.
Rabbit : Is it ? It is very nice.
Peacock : I shall dance in the musical evening.
Cuckoo : I shall sing a nice song.
Deer : Dear elephant! Shall we both dance ?
Elephant : Why not ? Certainly.
******
[One day a jacked entered the forest.]

Jackal : Hi friend! Nice to meet you. You are the biggest animal in the forest. Why do you want to play with the squirrels and the rabbits ?
Elephant : If I play, what will happen ?
Jackal : Oh! Innocent elephant! Bigger animals should not play with smaller ones. You should maintain a distance. They should be afraid of you.
Elephant : Oh ! I see !
Jackal : OK, bye ! Think once again about what I said.
*******

Jackal : Hi friend ! Glad to meet you.
Peacock : Glad to meet you.
Jackal : You are the loveliest bird in the forest. Why do you want to praise the mynahs ?
Peacock : Appreciating others is a good habit. Nothing bad in it.
Jackal : No, not at all. You should do firendship with those who are equal to you. If you appreciate them, they will think that they are superior to you. They will become proud.
Peacock : Oh ! Till now I don’t think so.
*******
Jackal : Hi friend, How do you do ?
Deer : How do you do ? Are you a new comer to this forest ?
Jackal : Yes, I would like say one secret to you. While I was passing the tiger’s cave, 1 heard that it was waiting for a chance to kill you.
Deer : Oh God ! Is it true ? I can’t believe.
Jackal : Yes, It is true, I heard with my own ears. Be careful.
*******
Rabbit : Hi friend, what happened to you ? Yo are not coming to play with me?
Elephant : Why should I play ? From today onwards I don’t play with you.
Rabbit : What happened to this elephant ? Is it gone mad ?
********
Cuckoo : Hi, peacock! Why haven’t you been coming to me for two days ? Don’t you listen to me ?
Peacock : Why should I listen to you ? I am the loveliest bird in this forest. I don’t want to listen to you.
Cuckoo : Oh ! God ! Is it true !
********
Tiger : Dear deer ! How are you ?
Deer : Oh ! God ! It is coming to kill me. Don’t kill me. Please don’t kill me. runs away)
Tiger : What happened to this poor creature !

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Question 4.
Write the choreography script of the poem ‘I Want Peace’.

I am big and round,
I wonder if there will be peace,
I hear the sound of people who are being killed, I see the people crying for life,
I want to help the poor people.
I am big and round,
I feel the weight of sorrow on me,
I touch the feelings of the people,
I worry about the future of the people on me,
1 cry for help from God.
I am big and round,
I understand the problems of the people on me, Isay grace for all people,
I dream about my past,
I try to handle my sorrow,
I hope I won’t be destroyed.
I am big and round.
Answer:
Title : I Want Peace
The script of the choreography

1. Sing the poem three or four times to register the tune and rhythm.
2. Characters involved in the poem.
3. The theme of the poem :
– The plight of the earth

4. Instances of the theme :

  • The earth wants to help the poor.
  • The earth worries about the future of the people.
  • The earth hopes that she won’t be destroyed.

5. Locations: Earth
6. Presentation :

  • The chorus team sings the poem.
  • The characters perform their actions.
  • The actions related to facial expressions and gestures.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1C Grand Contest in the Forest

Question 34, Marks : 8

Question 1.
Answer:

Invitation

Mr and Mrs Prabhakar request the pleasure of Mr. and Mrs. Gautam’s company at dinner on Monday, April 18, 20xx at 8 p.m.

40, Rama Street
Hyderabad

Question 2.
Design an invitation card on the occasion of a Birthday party.
Answer:

Invitation

Join the fun at Gautam’s 11th Birthday party!

Time : 3 p.m.
Venue : 303, Bandi Towers, Adilabad

Hi friends ! This year I’m having my birthday party at my grandmother’s house ! You can bring your grandparents too, if they want to come ! It will be fun !
Parents – Please pick up your children at 7 p.m.

Question 3.
Design an invitation card on the occasion of a Wedding.
Answer:

Invitation

Mr. and Mrs. Prabhakar
request the pleasure of all
at the marriage of their son
Rajesh to
Bindu

At 11, E – Block, Srinagar Colony, Hyderabad. On Monday, 18 April, 20xx at 8 p.m.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1B I Want Peace

Telangana SCERT TS 6th Class English Study Material Pdf Unit 1B I Want Peace Textbook Questions and Answers.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1B I Want Peace

TS 6th Class English Guide 1B I Want Peace 1

I am big and round,
I wonder if there will be peace;
I hear the sound of people who are being killed
I see the people crying for life,
I want to help the poor people.

I am big and round,
I feel the weight of sorrow on me,
I touch the feelings of the people,
I worry about the future of the people on me,
I cry for help from God.
I am big and round.

I understand the problems of the people on me.
I say grace for all people.
I dream about my past,
I try to handle my sorrow,
I hope I won’t be destroyed.
I am big and round.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1B I Want Peace

Questions & Answers:

Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
What does the earth wish to have and why ?
Answer:
The earth wishes to have peace all over the world. She wishes so because she wants that the people shouldn’t be killed on her.

Question 2.
“I am big and round. ” What do you think is suggested by the repetition of this line ?
Answer:
By the repetition of this line, the poet wants to make us know that the earth is filled with people facing so many problems and killings of the innocent people. So, the earth says about herself that she is big and round.

Question 3.
Was the earth happy or sorrowful ? Give reasons for your opinion.
Answer:
The earth was sorrowful. I can say that because she wished for peace and she wanted to stop the killings of the people. She wanted to take the sorrow out from the minds of the people. She witnessed the problems facing or faced by them.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1B I Want Peace

Project:

Collect /draw 5 pictures of animals / birds and fill the table given below.

TS 6th Class English Guide 1B I Want Peace 2

Pick your favorite animal/bird from the above list and write about it .give reasons why you like it present it to the class.
Answer:

TS 6th Class English Guide 1B I Want Peace 3

My Favourite Bird :
Parrot is a type of colorful bird. There are 372 species of parrots that mostly inhabit tropical and subtropical areas of South and Centra! America, Asia, Africa, Australia and New Zealand. Few species of parrots prefer life in colder climate. Macaws, Amazons, kea, kaka, lorikeets, parakeets, lovebirds and cockatoos are well known species of parrots. Because of their beauty and intelligence, parrots are one of the most popular pets in the world.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1B I Want Peace

I Want Peace Summary in English

The earth says that she is big and round. She wants that there should be peace. She doesn’t want to see the people being killed and their crying for help. She wants to help the poor. She knows the sorrows of the people and worries about the future of the people. She wishes grace for all people. She hopes that she won’t be destroyed. She asks for help from God to solve the problems of the people.

Glossary:

peace (n) : state of no war
wonder (v) : feel surprise
sorrow (n) : sadness
worry (v) : feel anxious
grace (n) : favour
destroy (v) : pull down

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1A Peace And Harmony

Telangana SCERT TS 6th Class English Study Material Pdf Unit 1A Peace And Harmony Textbook Questions and Answers.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1A Peace And Harmony

Look at the picture and discuss the questions that follow:

TS 6th Class English Guide 1A Peace And Harmony 2

Question 1.
What does this picture tell you about the animals ?
Answer:
This picture tells us that the animals and the birds are holding a meeting. They are discussing something seriously.

Question 2.
Are they happy or unhappy ? How do you know ?
Answer:
I think they are unhappy. They are discussing something seriously. They might have been facing some kind of problem. So they are holding a meeting to solve their problem by discussing it.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1A Peace And Harmony

Oral Discourse:

Description : Select any one animal from the above picture and describe it.
Answer:

Elephant

Elephants are the largest land mammals on earth. Male elephants can grow to be thirteen feet tall. They have tusks. They can weigh up to nearly 6500 kg. Their ears alone can be five feet long. Elephants eat all day long. They eat vegetables, grass,

leaves and other plants and fruits like bananas. They use their trunks to grab food and put it in their mouths. They can also suck water into their trunks and squirt the water into their mouths. Elephants sometimes drink up to 150 litres of water a day ! Elephants use their trunks to pick up small things as small as a marble, or as big as a tree trunk. They also breathe through their trunks.

Comprehension:

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
How were the animals before the jackal joined them ? Pick out the words which describe their mood.
Answer:
Before the jackal joined the animals, they roamed about the jungle and played together. They often held a musical evening in a large open field and invited the moon, his friends and the stars to witness their abilities. The words that describe their mood are ‘proud’, ‘admired’, ‘enjoyed’, etc.

Question 2.
What happened to the animals after the jackal came to the forest ?
Answer:
The jackal poisoned the minds of the animals, birds and insects. All the creatures began suspecting one another. They started to put up boundaries and build fences around their properties. They moved about individually or with their own group.

Question 3.
What was the jackal’s plan ? How did it succeed ?
Answer:
The jackals’ plan was to disturb the peace and harmony in the forest. He wanted to develop enmity among the creatures in the forest. In that way he wished to eat all the creatures in the forest one by one. It succeeded in its attempt in creating differences among the creatures. When they moved about individually, the jackal started killing them one by one.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1A Peace And Harmony

Question 4.
What did the animals do to check the jackal’s evil design ?
Answer:
The animals, insects and birds held a meeting and decided to meet the sadhu and plead with him to kill the jackal. All of them met the Sadhu and requested him to kill the jackal.

Question 5.
How was the moon disguised ? Why did he choose that form ?
Answer:
The moon was disguised as a sadhu. He chose that form to set peace and harmony in the forest by killing the cunning jackal. In that way he wanted to save the creatures’ lives.

Question 6.
Why did the sadhu ask the jackal to take him for his meal ? Would you do the same if you were in his place ?
Answer:
The sadhu wanted to save the lives of the hens. Besides, he wanted to teach the jackal a lesson. So, he asked the jackal to take him for his meal. If I were in the sadhu’s place, I wouldn’t do the same. I would kill him using my wit.

Question 7.
What did the sadhu teach the animals in the forest ?
Answer:
The sadhu taught the animals to live in peace and harmony. He wanted that there would be no fences around them. He wished that they might sing and dance together. He advised them to remember him and not to be afraid.

Question 8.
Do you think the sadhu sacrificed his life for the sake of animals in the forest? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Yes, I think the sadhu sacrificed his life for the sake of animals in the forest. He offered himself as food to the jackal to save the lives of hens. He did that only to save the lives of creatures in the forest. Otherwise there was no need for him to sacrifice his life in that manner.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1A Peace And Harmony

II. Read the following paragraph and analyse it in terms of cause and effect/ consequence. One has been done for you.

The animals in the forest were friendly, so the jackal could not eat any animal. The jackal then thought of a plan and implemented it. The animals started suspecting each other as the jackal’s plan worked. The life in the forest became dull because there were no musical evenings. All the animals requested the sadhu for help, so he talked to the animals and the birds and solved their problem. However, the sadhu didn’t want to kill the jackal, but preferred to teach a lesson to it.

TS 6th Class English Guide 1A Peace And Harmony 1

Answer:

Cause Consequence
1. All the animals in the forest were friendly. The jackal couldn’t eat any animal.
2. The jackal’s plan worked. The animals started suspecting each other.
3. There were no musical evenings. The life in the forest became dull.
4. All the animals requested sadhu for help. He talked to the animals and the birds and solved the problem.

III. Rearrange the following sentences in the order of their occurrence in the story.

1. The animals and the birds requested the moon to help them.
2. The moon came in the form of a sadhu.
3. The jackal created an unfriendly atmosphere.
4. The peace and harmony in the forest was disturbed.
5. The jackal entered the forest.
6. The peace and harmony in the forest was restored.
7. The jackal did not like this, so it killed the sadhu.
8. The sadhu talked to everyone int he forest and tried to restore peace.
9. Every month they had a musical evening.
10. The animals and the birds began suspecting each other.
11. The animals and the birds were living happily together.
12. The stomach of the jackal bloated and then burst into pieces.
Here is the first sentence : The animals and the birds were living happily together.
Answer:
a) The animals and the birds were living happily together. (11)
b) Every month they had a musical evening. (9)
c) The jackal entered the forest. (5)
d) The jackal created an unfriendly atmosphere. (3)
e) The animals and the birds began suspecting each other. (10)
f) The peace and harmony in the forest was disturbed. (4)
g) The moon came in the form of a sadhu. (2)
h) The animals and the birds requested the moon to help them. (1)
i) The sadhu talked to everyone int he forest and tried to restore peace.
j) The jackal did not like this, so it killed the sadhu. (7)
k) The stomach of the jackal bloated and then burst into pieces. (12)
l) The peace and harmony in the forest was restored. (6)

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1A Peace And Harmony

Vocabulary:

I. Read the following sentences from the story :

They heard a soft voice.
He was dirty and dangerous.
It was easy for the jackal to hunt the smaller animals and birds.
The jackal told the elephant, “You are the biggest animal in the forest.”
He said to the peacock, “You are the loveliest bird in the forest.”

The underlined words are called Adjectives.
1. They come either before or after a noun (a tall boy).
2. They take intensifiers like very, quite (a very tall boy).
They have degrees of comparison – Positive, Comparative and Superlative.
Here are the three forms of some adjectives.

TS 6th Class English Guide 1A Peace And Harmony 3

Read the following paragraph carefully, underline all adjectives and write the other degrees of comparison for them.

Yesterday we went for a picnic to Nehru Zoological Park which is one of the biggest zoos in the country. The climate was cool and pleasant. We saw many animals, birds, reptiles etc. We also saw a very large elephant. After that, we saw a tall giraffe with a long neck. There were also some small birds which sang sweet songs. There was a beautiful peacock which danced majestically. We went very close to the brown cobra. We felt very happy. We reached home late in the evening.
Answer:

Positive Degree  Comparative Degree  Superlative Degree
1) big  bigger  biggest
2) cool  cooler  coolest
3) Pleasant  more pleasant  most pleasant
4) many  more  most
5) large  larger  largest
6) tall  taller  tallest
7) long  longer  longest
8) small  smaller  smallest
9) sweet  sweeter  sweetest
10) beautiful  more beautiful  most beautiful
11) close  closer  closest
12) happy  happier  happiest
13) late  later  latest

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1A Peace And Harmony

II. Read the following words. Each pair has one word the other word is opposite in meaning :

1. big x small
2. dark x light
3. happy x unhappy
4. large x small
5. live x die
6. long x short
7. near x far
8. open x close
9. start x stop
10. thick x thin
11. appear x disappear
12. common x uncommon

Now fill in the blanks in the sentences given below with the word opposite in the maning to the one in bold letters.

Question 1.
The elephant’s eyes are small but its body is _________
Answer:
big

Question 2.
The animals were happy in the beginning. After the jackal entered the forest, they became _________
Answer:
unhappy/sad

Question 3.
The giraffe’s neck is very long but its tail is _________
Answer:
short

Question 4.
Mangoes are sweet but lemons are _________.
Answer:
sour

Question 5.
The coconut is a tall tree but the guava is a _________ tree.
Answer:
short

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1A Peace And Harmony

III. The following pairs of words are similar in meaning. Pick out such pairs from the story you have just read.

TS 6th Class English Guide 1A Peace And Harmony 4

Answer:

  1. called – invited
  2. loveliest – beautiful
  3. tiny – little
  4. opportunity – chance
  5. happily – cheerfully
  6. fear – terror
  7. admire – praise
  8. often _ frequently
  9. cunning – cheating

Grammar:

I. Degrees of Comparison : (Comparison of Adjectives)

Read the following sentences.

The elephant is bigger than the donkey.
The donkey is not so big as the elephant.
In the above sentences the elephant and the donkey are compared with respect to their size. The words “big” and “bigger” are adjectives that are used to compare their size.

Read these sentences.

1. Aruna is a tall girl.
2. Aruna is taller than Karuna.
3. Aruna is the tallest girl in the class.

In the first sentence the adjective ‘tali’ tells us that Aruna is a tall girl, without saying how much tall she is. The adjective ‘tall’ is said to be in the ‘Positive Degree’. In the second sentence, the adjective taller tells us that Aruna is taller than Karuna. Here the comparison takes between two persons. The adjective ‘taller’ is said to be in the ‘Comparative Degree’.

In the third sentence, the adjective ‘tallest’ tells us that of all the girls in that class, Aruna is the tallest girl. It shows us the highest degree. The adjective ‘tallest’ is said to be in the ‘Superlative Degree’.

The adjectives come either before or after the noun. They take intensifiers like very, quite etc.

So, we can say that there are three degrees of comparison in English. They are

  1. Positive Degree
  2. Comparative Degree
  3. Superlative Degree

1. The Positive Degree :
The Positive Degree of an Adjective is the Adjective in its simple form. It is used when there is no comparison.

2. The Comparative Degree :
The Comparative Degree of an Adjective tells us a higher degree of the quality than the Positive. It is used when there is comparison between two things or persons or places.

3. The Superlative Degree :
The Superlative Degree of an Adjective tells us the highest degree of the quality. It is used when there is comparison among more than two things or persons or places.

Here are the three forms of a few adjectives.

Positive Comparative Superlative
dark darker darkest
small smaller smallest
near nearer nearest
big bigger biggest
lovely lovelier loveliest
dirty dirtier dirtiest
melodious more melodious most melodious
great greater greatest
long longer longest
tall taller tallest
happy happier happiest
easy easier easiest
many more most
old older oldest
old (two members of the same family) elder eldest
sweet sweeter sweetest
sad sadder saddest
thin thinner thinnest
courageous more courageous most courageous
beautiful more beautiful most beautiful

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1A Peace And Harmony

Interchange of the Degrees of Comparison

1. Ravi is as tall as Ramu. (Positive)
Ramu is not taller than Ravi. (Comparative)

2. The elephant is bigger than the donkey. (Comparative)
The donkey is not as big as the elephant. (Positive)

3. Harini is as fat as Raghava. (Positive)
Raghava is not fatter than Harini. (Comparative)

4. Lakshmi is older than Gopi. (Comparative)
Gopi is not so old as Lakshmi. (Positive)

5. Vasavi is not as heavy as Raghava. (Positive)
Raghava is heavier than Vasavi. (Comparative)

6. Siddu is the heaviest boy in the group. (Superlative)
Siddu is heavier than any other boy in the group. (Comparative)
No other boy in the group is so heavy as Siddu. (Positive)

7. No other river in India is as long as the Ganges. (Positive)
The Ganges is the longest river in India. (Superlative)
The Ganges is longer than any other river in India.

8. Sravanthi is more beautiful than most other girls.
Sravanthi is one of the most beautiful girls.
Very few girls are as beautiful as Sravanthi.

9. Prakash is one of the most courageous boys in the class.
Prakash is more courageous than most other boys in the class.
Very few boys in the class are as courageous as Prakash.

10. Mumbai is one of the largest cities of India.
Mumbai is larger than most other cities of India.
Very few cities of India are as large as Mumbai.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1A Peace And Harmony

Here is some information about a group of pupils in 6th class.

Name of the Student Age in Years Height in Ft. Weight in Kgs.
Harini 11 4.9 27
Seshagiri 12 5.1 30
Akhila 12 4.8 28
Bhaskar Raju 10 4.5 24
Siddu 13 5.3 35
Rajesh 11 5.1 28
Raghava 12 4.9 28
Vamsi 13 4.5 27
Manoj 12 5.1 30
Gopi 10 4.5 25

Nov make 20 sentences comparing the age, height and weight of the students as shown in the examples given below :

Harini is as tall as Raghava.
Harini is not so heavy as Raghava.
Harini is older than Gopi.
Siddu is the heaviest boy in the group.
Answers :
1) Siddu is the tallest boy in the group.
2) Siddu and Vamsi are the oldest boys in the group.
3) Bhaskar Raju and Gopi are the youngest boys in the group.
4) Seshagiri is younger than Vamsi.
5) Harini is not so old as Akhila.
6) Manoj is older than Rajesh.
7) Seshagiri is not as tall as Siddu.
8) Rajesh is taller than Akhila.
9) Vamsi is one of the shortest boys in the group.
10) Akhila is not so heavy as Manoj.
11) Siddu is heavier than any other pupil in the group.
12) No other member in the group is so heavy as Siddu.
13) Rajesh is as heavy as Raghava.
14) Manoj is heavier than Gopi.
15) Vamsi is as heavy as Harini.
16) Siddu is taller than any other pupil in the group.
17) No other pupil in the group is as tall as Siddu.
18) Rajesh is taller than Raghava.
19) Akhila is shorter than Harini.
20) Vamsi is not as tall as Manoj.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1A Peace And Harmony

II. Adverbs of frequency :

Look at the following sentences paying special attention to the underlined words.

The tiny ants, which were always busy, tickled the dark buffaloes.
They often held musical evenings in a large open field.

The underlined words are adverbs, which tell us how often something happens.They are called adverbs of frequency.

An adverb modifies a verb or an adjective or another adverb.
Adverbs of frequency tell us how often something happens.
Often, always, frequently, seldom, sometimes etc., are some of the adverbs of frequency.
e.g.: 1) The tiny ants, which are always busy, tickled the dark buffaloes.
2) They often held a musical evening in a large open field.
3) I have told you twice.
4) She seldom comes here.
5) He always tries to do his best.

Read the following passage and underline the adverbs of frequency.

Sekhar is a busy taxi driver. He never finds time to read books. He often takes food outside. He reaches home early in the evening. But he seldom goes to bed early. So. his children always ask him for a bed time story. Sometimes he takes his children to picnics and buys toys and gifts.

Look at the conversation between two friends, Murthy and Krishna. Fill in the blanks with always, never, often, seldom, sometimes.

Murthy : Do you like reading books’?
Krishna : Yes, very much. I ________ read books, a book a day. How about you?
Murthy : I like books too. But I ________ read books, not always.
Krishna : How ________ do you read books?
Murthy : Once or twice a month.
Krishna : Oh, that’s fine. Have you read Asura by Anand Neelakanian?
Murthy : No, I haven’t. I’ll read it next month. How ________ does your brother read’?
Krishna : He ________ read books. The last he read a book was 10 years ago.
Answer:
Murthy : Do you like to reading books ?
Krishna : Yes, very much. I always read hooks, a book a day. How about you?
Murthy : I like hooks too. But I sometimes read books, not always.
Krishna : How often do you read books ?
Murthy : Once or twice a month.
Krishna : Oh, that’s fine. Have you read Asura by Anand Neelakantan?
Murthy : No, I haven’t, I’ll read it next month. How often does your brother read?
Krishna : He seldom reads books. The last he read a book was 10 years ago.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1A Peace And Harmony

Writing:

I. Here is an invitation card from the animals about a musical programme in the forest. Read it carefully.

TS 6th Class English Guide 1A Peace And Harmony 5

Suppose you are planning to conduct a cultural programme In your school on the occasion of your School Anniversary. Design an Invitation card. You may use the model given above.
Answer:

INVITATION
School Anniversary – 20xx

Welcome Address : Kum. K. Lavanya, Vi Class A/s.
Venue : Z.P. High School, Vemulavada.
Guests of Honour :

  1. Mr. L. Bajaj, MDO
  2. Mrs. S. Kanchana, MEO

Cultural Programmes:

1. Dance : Kathakali by VI C/S girls.
2. Song : “Desamante ….“ by VI B/s boys.
3. Play : ‘Alexander’ by VI A/s boys and girls
4. Skit : ‘Laugh …. Laugh …….. Laugh’ by VI class girls and boys
5. Vote of thanks : Master S. Anirudh, CPL, VI A/s

All are welcome.

XXXXX,
Secretary,
School Anniversary Committee.

II. Read below how Peacock, the organizer, compered the whole programme in the Greenwood Forest.

Dear Mr. Moon, Stars and dear friends,

I welcome you all to the Peace and Harmony Programme organised in the Greenwood Forest. As you’re aware, we have with us Mr. Moon and Stars as our guests of honour. On behalf of our animal kingdom, and on my behalf, I thank them for sparing some of their valuable time for us. I’d request Mr. Moon to say a few words on this occasion.
(Mr. Moon says a few words)
Mr. Moon sir, ……………….
Thank you sir, for saying very kind words for us.
Now I will begin our cultural programme with a dance item called “Made for Each Other”. This will be presented by Elephant and Deer.
(Dance item by Elephant and Deer)
I’m sure you have liked the item. The next item on our programme is a song called “Victory over Jackal.” This will be sung by Parrots and Mynahs.
(A song by Parrots and Mynahs)
How was the song ? Did you like it ? Now you will see the gymnastic show called ‘Health Tips for All Animals’. This will be presented by Tiger and Deer.
(Gymnastic show by Tiger and Deer)
I am sure you have enjoyed the show. Now you will see a skit called ‘Fine Fur of Rabbit’. It will be presented by Cuckoo and Friends.
(Skit by Cuckoo and friends)
Now I invite the Wild Buffalo, the President of the animal kingdom to propose a vote of thanks.
(Vote of thanks by Wild Buffalo)
Finally, I invite you all to have a mouthful of juice before you leave.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1A Peace And Harmony

III. Imagine that you are the cultural Secretary of your school. You have been asked to compere the programme on the school Anniversary day. Prepare your script and then give a mock performance before your group.
Answer:

Dear Mr. L. Bajaj, Mrs. S. Kanchana and dear friends,

I welcome you all to our school Anniversary Programme organised at Z.P. High School, VemulavadAnswer: As you are aware, we have with us Mr. L. Bajaj, the MDO of our mandal and Mrs. S. Kanchana, the MEO of our mandal as our guests of honour. On behalf of our school, and on my behalf, I thank them for sparing some of their valuable time for us. I would request Mr. L. Bajaj to say a few words on this occasion.
(Mr. L. Bajaj says a few words)

Mr. Bajaj sir, ……….
Thank you sir, for saying very kind words for us.
Now, I would request Mrs. S. Kanchana to say a few words on this occasion.

(Mrs. S. Kanchana says a few words)

Thank you madam for giving your valuable speech for us.
Now I will begin our cultural programme with a dance item called “Kathakali”. This will be presented by Class VI C/s girls.
(Dance item by VI C/s girls)

I am sure you have liked the item. The next item on our programme is a song called “Desamante…”. This will be sung by Class VI B/s boys.
(A song by VI B/s boys)

How was the song ? Did you like it ? Now you will see the play called “Alexander”. This will be presented by Class VI A/s boys and girls.
(A ‘Play’ by VI A/s boys and girls)

I am sure you have enjoyed the play. Now you will see a skit called “Laugh ………. Laugh …….. Laugh’ by Class VI girls and boys.
(Skit by Class VI girls and boys)

Now I invite Master S. Anirudh, CPL, VI A/s to propose a vote of thanks.
(Vote of thanks by S. Anirudh)

Finally, I invite you all to have a mouthful of juice before you leave.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1A Peace And Harmony

Study Skills:

Read the following Table of Contents of a book :

TS 6th Class English Guide 1A Peace And Harmony 6

Fill in the blanks with the information in the Table of Contents given above.

Question 1.
“Fossils” is found on page ________.
Answer:
32 (thirty two)

Question 2.
If you want to know about crocodiles you must turn to page ________.
Answer:
38 (thirty eight)

Question 3.
“Mosquito” is found in ________.
Answer:
Unit 8 (eight)

Question 4.
The Unit 7 : “Kites” is found from page ________ to ________.
Answer:
47 to 51 (forty seven to fifty one)

Question 5.
Unit 4 talks about ________.
Answer:
Vikram Sarabhai and Trees

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1A Peace And Harmony

Listening and Speaking:

Listen to the story “The Friendly Mongoose” and answer the following questions:

TS 6th Class English Guide 1A Peace And Harmony 7

The Friendly Mongoose

Once, a farmer and his wife lived in a village with their small son. They loved him very much. “We must have a pet,” the farmer said to his wife one day. “When our son grows up, he will need a companion. This pet will be our son’s companion.” His wife liked the idea.

One evening, the farmer brought with him a tiny mongoose. “It’s a baby mongoose,” said his wife, “but will soon be fully grown. He will be a friend to our son.”

Both the baby and the mongoose grew. In five or six months, the mongoose had grown to its full size – a lovely animal with two shining black eyes and a bushy tail. The farmer’s son was still a baby in the cradle, sleeping and crying alternately.

One day, the farmer’s wife wanted to go to the market. She fed the baby and rocked him to sleep in his little cradle. Picking up the basket, she said to her husband, “I’m off to the bazar. The baby is sleeping. Keep an eye on him. Frankly. I don’t like to leave the child alone with the mongoose.”

“You needn’t be afraid,” said the farmer. “The mongoose is a friendly animal. It’s as sweet as our baby and they are the best of friends, you know.”

The wife went away, and the farmer, having nothing to do in the house, decided to go out and take a look at his fields not far away. He ran into some friends on the way back and didn’t return for quite some time.

The farmer’s wife finished her shopping and came back home with a basket full of groceries. She saw the mongoose sitting outside as if waiting for her. On seeing her, he ran to welcome her, as was customary. The farmer’s wife took one look at the mongoose and screamed. “Blood!” she cried. The face and paws of the mongoose were smeared with blood.

“You wicked animal! You have killed my baby,” she screamed hysterically. She was blind with rage and with all her strength brought down the heavy basket full of groceries on the blood-smeared mongoose and ran inside to the child’s cradle.

The baby was fast asleep. But on the floor lay a black snake torn and bleeding. In a flash she realised what had happened. She ran out looking for the mongoose.

“Oh! You saved my child! You killed the snake! What have I done?” she cried touching the mongoose, who lay dead and still, unaware of her sobbing. The farmer’s wife, who had acted hastily and rashly, stared long at the dead mongoose. Then she heard the baby crying. Wiping her tears, she went in to feed him.

Question 1.
Which character do you like the most in the story and why ?
Answer:
I like the character of the mongoose the most in the story. It saved the little child’s life by sacrificing its life.

Question 2.
Do you think the mongoose would have bitten the child ?
Answer:
No, I don’t think the mongoose would have bitten the child.

Question 3.
Is the woman right in killing the mongoose ? What would you have done ?
Answer:
No, the woman is not right in killing the mongoose. I wouldn’t have killed the mongoose. I would have gone into the room where the baby slept and known what had happened there.

Question 4.
Why did the husband go to fields leaving the child to the mongoose ?
Answer:
The husband went to fields to reap the harvest leaving the child to the mongoose.

Question 5.
Why do you think the mongoose killed the snake ?
Answer:
I think that the snake tried to bite the baby. Then the mongoose killed the snake to save the baby.

Question 6.
Suggest one word that describes the character of the mongoose in the story.
Answer:
Faithfulness

Question 7.
It is a good idea to have a mongoose as a pet ? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes, it is a good idea to have a mongoose as a pet. A mongoose is a lovable and faithful animal. The crawling creatures may not dare to enter our houses.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1A Peace And Harmony

Peace And Harmony Summary in English

Once there lived many animals, birds, snakes and insects in a thick forest. They wandered together around the forest without any fear. They lived in peace and harmony. They often held a musical evening in a large open field and invited the moon and her friends and the stars as the guests of honour. They used to show their special abilities at their cultural evenings.

One day a cunning jackal entered the forest and disturbed the peaceful atmosphere. He wanted to make all the animals as his prey one by one by creating enmity among them. He changed their minds with his saying and poisoned them. He was successful and the animals moved about individually or with their own group. There was the opportunity the cunning jackal was waiting for. He started killing the animals one by one and ate them up. There were no more cultural evenings.

Seeing this the moon came to the forest in the disguise of a sadhu. All the creatures met him. They blamed one another in his presence. The sadhu understood the situation and tried to set peace and harmony by talking to them. Gradually the normal conditions were being set. But the jackal was very angry with the sadhu and was looking for an opportunity to attack him.

One day, while the jackal tried to kill the hens, the sadhu offered himself as a prey to the jackal and requested the jackal to leave them. Then the jackal dragged him into the forest, tore him into pieces and ate him up. After eating the sadhu, the jackal’s stomach bloated until it burst. Even in his last seconds, the sadhu advised and wished that the animals, birds and insects should live in peace and harmony. The creatures once again started to roam, sing and sleep in peace. The moon and the stars witnessed their cultural evenings in a happy mood.

Glossary:

1. roam (v) : travel without any definite aim.
He used to roam around the city.

2. admire (v) : regard somebody with respect and pleasure
The foreigners admired Gandhiji.

3. melodious (adj) : producing pleasant music
The tune of this song is melodious.

4. tiny (adj) : little, very small
They are living in a tiny room.

5. gymnastics (n) : physical exercises
I like gymnastics very much.

6. cunning (adj) : clever at deceiving others
Our boss is a cunning fellow.

7. praise (v) : express approval for somebody
They praised Sachin for achieving the great success.

8. approach (v) : come near
Yesterday we approached the director of the firm.

9. whisper (v) : speak softly
I whispered something in his ear.

10. suspect (v) : mistrust
I suspected that he was the thief.

11. property (n) : objects or things owned by somebody
This property belongs to Mr. Raju.

12. woe (n) : extreme sadness
They expressed their stories of woe when he met them.

13. sob (v) : draw in breath noisily and irregularly from sorrow while crying
She sobbed into her handkerchief.

TS 6th Class English Guide Unit 1A Peace And Harmony

14. accompany (v) : come as a companion
The teacher accompanied the students.

15. harmony (n) : a state of living together peacefully
They live in peace and harmony under his rule.

16. unanimously (adv) : unitedly
Mr. Prabhu was elected as the President unanimously.

17. drag (v) : pull along with difficulty
The dog dragged the log along the road.

18. strange (adj) : not familiar, unusual
He wore a strange, dress.

19. bloat (v) : become bigger and bigger (swell unpleasantly)
My stomach was bloated when I took meal last night.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Students get through AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions 4th Lesson Plant Kingdom which are most likely to be asked in the exam.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions 4th Lesson Plant Kingdom

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the basis of classification of Algae?
Answer:
Algae are classified into 3 types on the basis of pigments and the type of stored food.

Question 2.
When and where does reduction division take place in the life cycle of a liverwort, a moss, a fern, a gymnosperm and an angiosperm?
Answer:
Reduction division occurs during spore formation within the sporangium in the life-cycle of liverworts, mosses, ferns, gymnosperms and angiosperms.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 3.
Differentiate between syngamy and triple fusion.
Answer:

Syngamy Triple fusion
1) In syngamy, one of the male gametes released in the embryosac fuses with the egg to form a zygote.
2) It is true fertilisation
1) In triple fusion, the second male gamete fuses with the diploid secondary nucleus to produce primary endosperm nucleus (PEN).
2) It is double vegetative fertilisation.

Question 4.
Differentiate between antheridium and archqgonium.
Answer:

Antheridium Archcgonium
1) Antheridium is the male sex organ 1) Archegonium is the female sex organ.
2) It is club shaped. 2) It is flask shaped.
3) It produces many antherozoids 3) It produces a single egg cell.

Question 5.
What are the two stages found in the gametophyte of mosses? Mention the structures from which these two stages develop?
Answer:

  1. The gametophyte of Mosses consists of two stages:
    (i) Juvenile stage-Protonema (ii) Adult leafy stage-Gametophore
  2. Protonema is developed from the spore whereas gametophore is developed from the protonema.

Question 6.
Name the stored food materials found in Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae.
Answer:

  1. The stored food material in Phaeophyceae is laminarin or mannitol.
  2. The stored food material in Rhodophyceae is floridian starch.

Question 7.
Name the pigments responsible for brown colour of Phaeophyceae and fed colour of Rhodophyceae.
Answer:

  1. The pigments Xanthophyll and Fucoxanthin are responsible for brown colour of Phaeophyceae.
  2. The pigment r-phycoerythrin is responsible for red colour of Rhodophyceae.

Question 8.
Name different methods of vegetative reproduction in Bryophytes. [AP M-15]
Answer:
Fragmentation, gemmae and budding

Question 9.
Name the integumented megasporangium found in Gymnosperms. How many female gametophytes are generally formed inside the megasporangium?
Answer:

  1. The integumented megasporangium is ovule.
  2. Inside the megasporangium generally one female gamete is formed.

Question 10.
Name the Gvmnosperms which contain mycorrhiza and corolloid roots respectively.
Answer:

  1. Pinus contain mycorrhizal roots.
  2. Cycas contain corolloid roots

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 11.
Mention the ploidy of any four of the following
a) Protonemal cell of a moss
b) Primary endosperm nucleus in a dicot
c) Leaf cell of a moss
d) Prothallus of a fern
e) Gemma cell in Marchantia
f) Meristem cell of monocot
g) Ovum of a liverwort
h) Zygote of a fern.
Answer:
a) Haploid
b) Triploid
c) Haploid
d) Haploid
e) Haploid
f) Diploid
g) Haploid
h) Diploid

Question 12.
Name the lour classes of Pteriodophyta with one example each.
Answer:
Class 1: Psilopsida – Ex: Psilotum
Class 2: Lycopsida – Ex: Selaginella, Lycopodium
Class 3: Sphenopsida – Ex: Equisetum
Class 4: Pteridopsida – Ex: Dryopteris, Pteris, Adiantum

Question 13.
What are the first organisms to colonise rocks? Give the generic name of the moss which provides peat?
Answer:

  1. The first organism to colonise rocks are – Mosses and Lichens.
  2. The generic name of the moss which provides peat is Sphagnum

Question 14.
Mention the fern characters found in Cycas.
Answer:
Fern characters found in Cycas are:

  1. Circinate vernation in young leaves.
  2. Presence of ramenta
  3. Multiciliated male gametes.
  4. Presence of archegonia in the female gametophyte

Question 15.
Why are Bryophytes called the amphibians of the plant kingdom?
Answer:
Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant kingdom because these plants live in moist soil and are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.

Question 16.
Name an alga which show (a) Haplo-diplontic and (b) Diplontic (c) Diplobiontic types of life cycles.
Answer:

  1. Haplo-diplontic life cycle is exhibited by Ectocarpus and Laminaria
  2. Diplontic life cycle is exhibited by Fucus
  3. Diplobiontic life cycle is exhibited by Polysiphonia

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 17.
Give examples for unicellular, colonial and filamentous algae.
Answer:

  1. Unicellular algae – Chlamydomonas
  2. Colonial algae – Volvox
  3. Filamentous algae- Spirogyra, Ulothrix

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Differentiate between red algae and brown algae. |TS M-17, 19, 22] [AP M-16, 19]
Answer:

Red Algae Brown Algae
1)  Red algae belongs to Rhodophyceae class.
2)   Their red colour is due to the red pigment called r-phycoerythrin
3)   Major pigments in them are chlorophyll a,d and phycoerythrin.
4)   Reserve food material is Floridian starch.
5)   Asexual reproduction is by non-motile spores.
6)   Sexual reproduction is by non-motile gametes. Ex: Gracilaeria, Gelidium
1)   Brown algae belongs to Phaeophyceae class.
2)    Their brown colour is due to the brown pigment xanthophyll.
3)    Major pigments in them are chlorophyll a,c, carotenoids and xanthophylls
4)    Reserve food material is laminarin (or) mannitol.
5)   Asexual reproduction is by biflagellate zoospores.
6)    Sexual reproduction is by motile gametes. Ex: Ectocarpus, Laminaria, Fucus.

Question 2.
Differentiate between liverworts and mosses. [AP Mar, May-17]
Answer:

Liverworts Mosses
1)   Plant body in liverworts is thalloid.
2)    Liverworts are amphibians.
3)    Sporophyte is complete parasite on gametophyte.
4)    Sporophyte is small or reduced.
5)   Elaters help in the dispersal of spores.
Ex: Marchantia
1)     Plant body in Mosses is upright structure and divided into root like, stem like and leaflike.
2)     Mosses are the advanced bryophytes.
3)      Sporophyte is semi parasite tm gametophyte
4)      Sporophyte is more elaborate.
5)     Peristomial teeth help in the dispersal of spores.
Ex:Polytrichum,Spagnum,Funaria.

Question 3.
What is meant by homosporous and heterosporous pteridophytes? Give two examples. [APM-15,22] [IPE Mar-13]
Answer:
1) Homosporous pteridophytes; The plants which produce only one kind of spores are called homosporous pteridophytes.
Ex: Psilotum, Lycopodium

2) Heterosporous pteridophytes: The plants which produce two kinds of spores on the same plant are called heterosporous pteridophytes.
Ex: Selaginella, Salvinia.

Question 4.
What is heterospory? Briefly comment on its significance. Give two examples. [TS M-15, 20]
Answer:
Heterospory: Production of two kinds of spores on the same plant is called heterospory.
Ex: Selaginella, Salvinia

Significance:

  1. Two types of spores are seen
    (i) Microspores – germinate into male gametophyte
    (ii) Megaspores – germinate into female gametophyte.
  2. Sex organ in male gametophyte is Antheridia. It gives antherozooids as male gametes.
  3. Sex organ in female gametophyte is Archegonia. It produces egg as female gametes.
  4. Fusion of Antherozoids to egg results zygote.
  5. Development of zygote into young embryo takes place within the female gametophytes.
  6. This event is precursor to the seed habit. This is considered as important step in evolution.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 5.
Write a note on economic importance of Algae and Bryophytes. [TS M-16] [AP M-19]
Answer:
I) Economic importance of Algae:

  1. Fixation of carbondioxide on Earth is mainly carried out by algae.
  2. Brown algae produces Algin
  3. Red algae produces carrageen.
  4. Agar Agar is obtained from Gelidium.
  5. Chlorella and spirulina are used as food supplements by space travellers.
  6. Laminaria and sargassum are used as food for fauna of sea.

II) Economic importance of Bryophytes:

  1. Mosses provide food for herbivorous mammals and birds.
  2. Sphagnum provides peat, which is used as fuel.
  3. They play significant role in plant succession.
  4. They prevent soil erosion.
  5. They are used as packing material for trans-shipment.

Question 6.
How would you distinguish monocots from dicots?
Answer:

Monocots Dicots
1)  The seed has only one cotyledon.
2)   Root system is adventitious type.
3)   Leaves have parallel venation.
4)   Leaves are isobilateral.
5)   Sheathing leaf base is present.
6)   Secondary growth is absent.
7)   Vascular bundles are scattered and closed. Ex: Rice, Maize
1) The seed has two cotyledons.
2)  Root system is taproot system
3)  Leaves show reticulate venation.
4)  Leaves are dorsiventral
5)  Sheathing leaf base is absent.
6)  Secondary growth is present.
7)  Vascular bundles are arranged in ring & open. Ex:Mango, Coffee.

Question 7.
Give a brief account of prothallus. [AP M- 20]
Answer:
Prothallus:

  1. The gametophytic plant body of pteridophytes is called prothallus.
  2. The haploid spore germinates and gives rise to prothallus.
  3. It is a heart shaped thallus like structure, green, dorsiventral with a notch.
  4. The rhizoids produced on ventral surface are unicellular.
  5. Prothallus grows on shady, damp and wet soil.
  6. Male sex organs antheridia are produced on the lower part of prothallus.
  7. Female sex organs archegonia are produced near the notch.
  8. The antherozoids are ciliated, require water to reach the egg.
  9. The zygote develops into an embryo, which develops into a diploid sporophyte with in the female gametophyte.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 8.
Draw labelled diagrams of (a) Female thallus and male thallus of a liverwort.
(b) Gametophyte and sporophyte of Funaria.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom 1
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom 2

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Name three groups of plants that bear arehegonia, Briefly describe the life cycle of any one of them.
Answer:
The plant groups which bear arehegonia are Bryophytes, Pteridophytes and gymnosperms.
Life cycle of Bryophytes-Funaria (Moss plant):

  1. The life cycle includes two phages – gametophyte and sporophyte.
  2. The gametophyte also has two stages – protonema and adult stages.
  3. The haploid spore germinates and gives rise to a juvenile stage called protonema.
  4. It is creeping, green branched filamentous stage.
    AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom 3
  5. It possess several lateral buds.
  6. Each bud develops into an upright adult leafy stage called gametophore.
  7. Vegetative reproduction is by fragmentation, gemmae and budding.
  8. Sex organs – antheridia and arehegonia are produced on separate branches of the same plant and hence monecious.
  9. Antheridia are club shaped and produce antherzoids.
  10. Antherzoids are ciliated, swim in water, enter into the archegonium to fertilize the egg.
  11. The product of fertilization is the diploid zygote.
  12. It develops into an embryo and there by a sporophyte with in the gametophyte.
  13. The sporophyte has 3 parts foot, seta and capsule.
  14. The sporophyte is a semi parasite on gametophyte.
  15. The foot absorbs water from gametophore.
  16. The capsule contain chlorophyll bearing cells to prepare food.
  17. The spore mother cells of spore sac under go meiosis and produce haploid spores of one kind. Hence funaria is homosporous.
  18. Each spore germinates and gives rise to haploid juvenile protonema

Question 2.
Describe the important characteristics of Gymnosperms.
Answer:
Important characters of Gymnosperms:

  1. Gymnosperms are the naked seeded plants. The seeds are not enclosed inside the fruit.
  2. The ovules are not enclosed by any ovary wall and remain exposed.
  3. Gymnosperms are embryophytes, tracheophytes and archegoniate phanerogams.
  4. They are medium sized trees, but sequoia is the tallest tree.
  5. Ginkgo is considered to be a living fossil.
  6. Root system is tap root system. Mycorrhizal association is seen in the roots of pinus.
  7. Corolloid roots of cycas show symbiotic association with nostoc and anaebaena.
  8. The stem is unbranched in cycas, branched in pinus.
  9. Leaves may be simple or compound.
  10. In cycas pinnate persistant leaves and in pinus needle like leaves are present.
  11. Leaves adapted to with stand extremes of temperature, Sunken stomata are also present.
  12. Anatomically the stem is eustele, vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral and open.
  13. Vessels are generally absent in xylem. Companion cells are absent in phloem.
  14. Secondary growth occurs in stem and root.
  15. The Gymnosperms are heterosporous, produce micro and mega sporangia.
  16. The microsporangia are produced on niicrosporophylls which are arranged to form compact cones.
  17. The microspores are the pollen grains which are produced in microsporangia.
  18. Megaspores are produced in megasporangia, which are integumented ovules.
  19. Ovules are borne on mega sporophylls and have three layered integument.
  20. Micropyle is the opening on ovule. Pollination is direct.
  21. Fertilization is siphonogamy. The male gametes travel in the pollen tube.
  22. Zygote is the fertilization product, which becomes an embryo.
  23. The body of female gametophyte becomes the endosperm.
  24. The endosperm is a pre fertilization tissue and is haploid.
  25. Seeds are naked without any covering of fruit wall.
  26. Germination is epigeal. Polyembryony is noticed.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 3.
Give the salient features of Pteridophytes. .
Answer:

  1. Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues.
  2. They are embryophytic, archegoniate, vascular cryptogams.
  3. They are found in cool, damp, shady places.
  4. They are soil-binders, grown as ornamentals and used for medicinal purposes.
  5. The main plant body is sporophyte and is differentiated into root, stem and leaves.
  6. The roots are adventitious, stem shows internally epidermis, cortex and stele.
  7. Stele may be a protostele or spiphonostele or solenostele or dictyostele.
  8. Leaves may be microphylls as in selaginella and macrophylls as in ferns.
  9. The sporophyte bear sporangia, that occur on leaf like appendages called sporophylls.
  10. The development of sporangium may be lepto-sporangiate or eusporangiate.
  11. Majority of pteridophytes are homosporous, produce one kind of spores.
  12. Genera like selaginella, salvinia are heterosporous, produce two kinds of spores.
  13. Sporophylls form compact structures called strobili or cones.
  14. Spores germinate and produce small, multicellular, photosynthetic gametophytes called prothalli.
  15. Prothallus may be monoecious or dioecious
  16. Sex organs are antheridia or archegonia.
  17. Antheridia produce male gametes which are uninucleate, biflagellate or multiflagellate.
  18. Archegonium contain egg.
  19. Fusion of male and female gamete results in diploid zygote.
  20. Zygote develops into diploid embryo with in the female gametophyte.
  21. The embryo produces a multicellular sporophyte which is a dominant phase in pteridophytes.

Question 4.
Give an account of plant life cycles and alternation of generations.
Answer:
A) Life Cycles.
I) Hapiontic life cycle:

  1. The dominant photosynthetic phase of the plant is free living gametophyte.
  2. Sporophytic generation is represented by one-celled diploid zygote.
  3. Sporophyte is not free living.
    AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom 4
  4. Meiosis in zygote results haploid spores and germinate into a gametophyte.
  5. This kind of life-cycle is called hapiontic.
    Ex: Algae like Volvox and Spirogyra.

II) Diplontic life cycle:

  1. The diploid sporophyte is the dominant, photosynthetic, independent phase of the plant.
  2. Haploid phase is represented by gametes only.
  3. This type of life cycle is called diplontic.
    AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom 5
  4. When the life cycle is represented by only independent sporophyte with few celled gametophyte, life cycle is called diplo-haplontic
    Ex: Pteridophyte and seed-bearing plants.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

III) Haplo-diplontic life cycle:

  1. Bryophytes exhibit an intermediate conditior called haplo-diplontic.
  2. Both phases are multicellular.
  3. Dominating phase in gametophytic generation It is independent.
  4. Sporophyte is photosynthetic, but dependent or gametophyte.
    AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom 6
  5. This life cycle is called haplo diplontic.
  6. Most algal forms are hapiontic.
  7. Some forms like Ectocarpus, Laminaria are haplo-diplontic.
  8. Fucus in diplontic and polysiphonia is diplo-biontic.

B) Alternation of generations;

  1. There are two generations in the life of a plant body. They are gametophyte and sporophyte.
  2. The haploid gametophyte produces gametes by mitosis.
  3. Fusion of gametes result in the formation of diploid zygote.
  4. Zygote divides by mitosis and produces a diploid sporophytic plant body.
  5. Sporophytes produces sporemother cells, which undergo meiosis to produce haploid spores.
  6. These spores in turn divide by mitosis to form haploid plant body once again.
  7. Thus during the life cycle of any sexually reproducing plant, there is an alternation of generation between gamete producing haploid gametophyte and spore producing diploid sporophyte.

Question 5.
Both Gyimiosperms and Angiosperms bear seeds, then why are they classified separately?
Answer:
Though both Gymnosperms and Angiosperms bear seeds, because of their following differences they are classified separately.

Exercise

Question 1.
How far does Selaginella, one of the few living members of Lycppodiales (Pteridophytes) fall short of seed habit.
Answer:

  1. Pteridophytes like selaginella are heterosporous. It produces two kinds of spores – mega and micro spores.
  2. The sporophylls form distinct compact structures called strobili or cones.
  3. Micro spores germinate to give rise to inconspicuous male gametophyte contain sex organs called antheridia which produce antherzoids.
  4. Mega spores germinate to give rise to inconspicuous female gametophyte, contain sex organs called archegonia which produce eggs or female gametes.
  5. Fusion of male and female gametes results in the formation of zygote in side the archegonium.
  6. The development of zygote into young embryos takes place with in the female gametophyte.
  7. This event is a precussor of seed habit, but not a true seed habit.
  8. Thus members of lycopodinae fall short of seed habit.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 2.
Each plant or group of plants has some phylogenetic significance in relation to evolution.
Answer:
Cycas, one of the few living members of Gymnosperms is called as the relic of past. Can you establish a phylogenetic relationship of Cycas with any other group of plants that justifies the above statement?

Cycas is a member of Gymnosperm. It shows some resemblances with the ferns and on the other hand shows several angio spermic features. Thus it is treated as the “relic of the past”.

Fern characters of Cycas are:

  1. Young leaves show circinate vernation.
  2. Sporophylls are leaf like.
  3. Sporophylls are arranged in the form of a cone or strobilus.
  4. Micro sporangia are produced on the abaxial side of microsporophyll.
  5. Presence of ramenta.
  6. Persistant leaf bases.
  7. Stem underground in young condition.
  8. Xylem with trachieds only.
  9. Phloem without companion cells.
  10. Archegonia are present in the female gametophyte.
  11. Sperms are multiciliate.

Question 3.
The male and female reproductive organs of several Pteridophytes and Gymnosperms are comparable to floral structures of angiosperms. Make an attempt to compare the various reproductive parts of Pteriodophytes and Gymnosperms with reproductive structures of Angiosperms.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom 7

Question 4.
The plant body in higher plants is well differentiated and well developed. Roots are organs used for the purpose of absorption. What are the equivalent of roots in the less developed lower plants?
Answer:
In the some members of bryophyta like Riccia and Marchantia the rhizoids are unicellular whereas the rhizoids of Funaria are multicellular. The rhizoids ofprothallus of Fern are also unicellular, but in the sporophyte of pteridophytes adventitious root system is present. All these structures are meant for the absorption of water and salts in lower plants.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Amphibians of the plant kingdom are
1) Angiosperms
2) Bryophytes
3) Gymnosperms
4) Pteridophytes
Answer:
2) Bryophytes

Question 2.
Bryophytes are not
1) Archaegoniate, embryophytic and atracheophytic cryptogams
2) Vascular cryptogams
3) Amphibians of the plant kingdom
4) Primitive land plants
Answer:
4) Primitive land plants

Question 3.
Carpogonhim is a
1) Female gametophyte
2) Female sex organ
3) Fructification formed over female sex organ
4) All the above
Answer:
2) Female sex organ

Question 4.
Diplontic life cycle is shown by —
1) Fucus
2) Spirogyra
3) Polysiphonia
4) Ectocarpus
Answer:
1) Fucus

Question 5.
Elater mechanism of spore dispersal is found in
1) Riccia
2) Marchantia
3) Funaria
4) Fem
Answer:
2) Marchantia

Question 6.
Focus is a
1) Green algae
2) Brown algae
3) Red algae
4) Blue -green algae
Answer:
2) Brown algae

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 7.
Gymnosperm with unbranched stem is
1. Pinus
2. Sequoia
3. Cycas
4. Cedrus
Answer:
3. Cycas

Question 8.
Heterospory is the production of
1) Sexual and asexual spores
2) Large and smaller spores
3) Haploid and Diploid spores
4) Diploid and Tetraploid spores
Answer:
2) Large and smaller spores

Question 9.
Identify the mismatching
1) Porphyra – Food
2) Gelidium – Agar
3) Laminaria – Iodine
4) Sargassum – Carrageen
Answer:
4) Sargassum – Carrageen

Question 10.
PEN in angiosperms is
1) Haploid
2) Diploid
3) Triploid
4) Tetraploid
Answer:
3) Triploid

Question 11.
Peat moss is
1. Funaria
2. Sphagnum
3. Marchantia
4. Polytrichum
Answer:
2. Sphagnum

Question 12.
Porphyra is a
1. Red alga
2. Brown alga
3. Green alga
4. Blue-green alga
Answer:
1. Red alga

Question 13.
Pyrenoid contains
1) Proteins and starch
2) Protein and lipid
3) starch and lipid
4) starch and cellulose
Answer:
1) Proteins and starch

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 14.
Protonema is
1) haploid and found in mosses
2) diploid and is found in liver worts
3) diploid and is found in pteridophytes
4) haploid and is found in pteridophytes
Answer:
1) haploid and found in mosses

Question 15.
Agar is
1. obtained from green algae
2. used in tissue culture medium
3. stored food in brown algae
4. pigment present in red algae
Answer:
2. used in tissue culture medium

Question 16.
Food storage bodies of green algae are
1. ER
2. Nucleus
3. Chloroplasts
4. Mitochondria
Answer:
3. Chloroplasts

Question 17.
Female sex organ is called carpogonium in
1. Cyanobacteria
2. Phaeophyceae
3. Rhodophyceae
4. Chlorophyceae
Answer:
3. Rhodophyceae

Question 18.
The following plant provides peat which is used as fuel located in
1. Marchantia
2. Sphagnum
3. Riccia
4. Anthoceros
Answer:
2. Sphagnum

Question 19.
Identify the mismatching
1. Liverwort – Marchantia
2. Hornwort – Anthoceros
3. Mosses – Polytrichum
4. Hepacticopsida – Funaria
Answer:
4. Hepacticopsida – Funaria

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 20.
Pseudo – elaters are found in
1. Marchantia
2. Anthoceros
3. Sphagnum
4. Polytrichum
Answer:
2. Anthoceros

Question 21.
The following plants are used as soil binders
1. Algae
2. Bryophytes
3. Pteridophyetes
4. Lichens
Answer:
3. Pteridophyetes

Question 22.
Mlcrophylls are found ¡n
1. Selagineila
2. Pteris
3. Diyopteris
4. Azolla
Answer:
1. Selagineila

Question 23.
Non-character of conifers is
1. Needle like leaves
2. Thick cuticle
3. Seeds covered by fruit
4. Sunken stomata
Answer:
1. Needle like leaves

Question 24.
The pollination is direct and anemophilous in
1. Bryophytes
2. Pteridophytes
3. Gymnosperms
4. Angiosperms
Answer:
3. Gymnosperms

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 25.
The giant red wood tree belongs to
1. Angiosperms
2. Dicots
3. Gymnosperms
4. Monocots
Answer:
3. Gymnosperms

Question 26.
Reserve food of brown algae is
1. Fucoxanthin
2. Floridean starch
3. Carrageen
4. Laminarin
Answer:
4. Laminarin

Question 27.
Algae, that is a rich source of protein is
1. Nostoc
2. Ectocarpus
3. Chlorella
4. Spirogyra
Answer:
3. Chlorella

Question 28.
In mosses, meiosis occurs
1. During spore formation
2. In the zygote
3. In the gametangium
4. In the gametes
Answer:
1. During spore formation

Question 29.
In bryophytes
1. both sporophyte and gametophyte are independent
2. sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte
3. both sporophyte and gametophyte are dependent on one another
4. gametophyte is dependent on sporophyte
Answer:
3. both sporophyte and gametophyte are dependent on one another

Question 30.
Double fertilization is a characteristic of
1. Pteridophytes
2. Angiosperms
3. Bryophytes
4. Gymnosperms
Answer:
2. Angiosperms

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 31.
Life cycle in Marchantia is
1. Haplo-diplontic
2. Diplontic
3. Diplo-haplontic
4. Haplontic
Answer:
1. Haplo-diplontic

Question 32.
Reserve food in porpyra is
1. oil droplets
2. Marmitol
3. Floridean starch
4. Glycogen
Answer:
3. Floridean starch

Question 33.
The commerical product agar is produced by
1. Ectocarpus
2. Gelidium
3. Laminaria
4. Chlorella
Answer:
2. Gelidium

Question 34.
Align is the cell wall material in
1. Blue green lagae
2. Red algae
3. Green algae
4. Brown algae
Answer:
4. Brown algae

Question 35.
Kelp is
1. Laminaria
2. Volvox
3. Lycopodium
4. Adiantum
Answer:
3. Lycopodium

Question 36.
Much of the global photosynthesis is carried out by
1. Algae
2. Bryophytes
3. Pteridophytes
4. Angiosperms
Answer:
1. Algae

Question 37.
Fronds are seen in
1. Green algae
2. Blue-green algae
3. Porphyra
4. Laminaria
Answer:
4. Laminaria

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 38.
In gymnsperm, the endosperm is
1. Haploid
2. DiPloid
3. Triploid
4. Polyploid
Answer:
1. Haploid

Question 39.
A gymnosperm having vessels in xylem is
1. Cednis
2. Gnetum
3. Cycas
4. Pinus
Answer:
2. Gnetum

Question 40.
Spermatozoid of cycas is
1. Biflagellate
2. Non-flagellate
3. Uniflagellate
4. Multiciliate
Answer:
4. Multiciliate

Question 41.
Megasporophyll of Cycas has the same nature as
1. Stamen
2. Petal
3. Sepal
4. Carpel
Answer:
4. Carpel

Question 42.
Spores of Funaria on germination, give rise to
1. Antheridia
2. Protonema
3. Archegonia
4. Vegetative body
Answer:
2. Protonema

Question 43.
………….. plants play an important role in plant succession on bare rocks/soil
1. Bryophytes
2. Pteridophytes
3. Fungi
4. Bacteria
Answer:
1. Bryophytes

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 44.
Number of stages in the life cycle of a moss
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Answer:
2. 2

Question 45.
Chlorophyll – bearing, simple, thalloid and autotrophic plants arc
1) Bryophytes
2) Algae
3) Pterodohyptes
4) Fungi
Answer:
2) Algae

Question 46.
Non-flagellated isogametes are formed during sexual reproduction in
1) Chlamydomonas
2) Fucus
3) Spirogyra
4) Volvox
Answer:
3) Spirogyra

Question 47.
The most common cell wall materials in green algae are
1) cellulose, hemicellulose
2) Hemicellulose, pectin
3) Cellulose, pectin
4) Pectin and xylan
Answer:
3) Cellulose, pectin

Question 48.
Choose the wrong statement with reference to phaeophyceae
1) Pear shaped biflagellated zoospores and flagellae are unequal and laterally attached
2) Pyriform shaped gametes bearing two laterally attached flagellae
3) Union of gametes occurs in the oogonium
4) Carotenes and xanthophylls are absent
Answer:
4) Carotenes and xanthophylls are absent

Question 49.
Identify the mismatching
1) Chara – Monoecious
2) Marchantia – Dioecious
3) Funaria – Monoecious
4) Salvinia – Terrestrial moss plant
Answer:
4) Salvinia – Terrestrial moss plant

Question 50.
Archaegoniophore is present in
1) Marchantia
2) Chara
3) Adiantum
4) Funaria
Answer:
1) Marchantia

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 51.
Which of the following is responsible for peat formation
1) Marchantia
2) Riccia
3) Funaria
4) Sphagnum
Answer:
4) Sphagnum

Question 52.
Chlamydomonas, Ciadophora, Chloreila, Ectocarpus, Ocdogonium., Spirogyra, Volvox and Ulothrix. Among this howmany are green filamentous algae
1) 5
2) 4
3) 2
4) 1
Answer:
3) 2

Question 53.
…………. algae are used as food
a) Porphyra
b) Sargassum
c) Laminaria
1) a,c only
2) c, b only
3) a, b only
4) a,b,c
Answer:
4) a,b,c

Question 54.
Choose the wrong statement with reference to pteridophytes
1) First terrestrial plants to have vascular tissues
2) Embryophytic, archaegoniate trachaeophytic cryptogams
3) Main plant body is a sporophyte with tap roots
4) Deveiopoment of sporangium may be leptosporangiate or eusporangiate
Answer:
3) Main plant body is a sporophyte with tap roots

Question 55.
Heterosporous ferns are
1) Salvinia, selaginella
2) Equisetum, selaginella
3) Azolla, salvinia
4) Dryopteris, pteris
Answer:
1) Salvinia, selaginella

Question 56.
The bryophyte which provides peat used as fuel and also used as packing material for transshipment of living material is . .
1) Funaria
2) Sphagnum
3) Anthoceros
4) Marchantia
Answer:
2) Sphagnum

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 57.
Sex organs are multicellular, jacketed and sessile in
1) Bryophytes
2) Pteridophytes
3) Algae
4) Fungi
Answer:
2) Pteridophytes

Question 58.
Identify the mismatching
1) Haplontic life cycle – Spirogyra
2) Haplodiplontic life cycle – Ectocarpus, Laminaria, Bryophytes
3) Diplontic life cycle – Gymnosperms and Angiosperms, Fucus
4) Diplo Haplontic – Chlamydomonas
Answer:
4) Diplo Haplontic – Chlamydomonas

Question 59.
A fern differs from a mass in having
1) Swimming archegonia
2) Swimming antherozoids
3) Independent gametophytes
4) Independent sporophytes
Answer:
4) Independent sporophytes

Question 60.
Mark the correct statement
1) All archegoniates are tracheophytes
2) All protistans are heterotrophic
3) All algae show chlorophyll a
4) All tracheophytes are archegoniate
Answer:
3) All algae show chlorophyll a

Question 61.
In chlorophyceae, the mode of sexual reproduction is
1) Anisogamy
2) Oogamy
3) Isogammy
4) All of these
Answer:
4) All of these

Question 62.
First terrestrial plants possessing vascular tissues are
1) Bryophytes
2) Pteriodophytes
3) Gymnosperms
4) Angiosperms
Answer:
2) Pteriodophytes

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 63.
Strobili cones are found in
1) Salvinia
2) Pteris
3) Marchantia
4) Equisetum
Answer:
4) Equisetum

Question 64.
Which of the following algae produce Carrageen?
1) Blue-green algae
2) Green algae
3) Brown algae
4) Red algae
Answer:
4) Red algae

Question 65.
Protonema occurs in the life cycle of
1) Riccia
2) Funaria
3) Anthoceros
4) Spirogya
Answer:
2) Funaria

Question 66.
An alga, very rich in protein is
1) Chlorella
2) Nostoc
3) Spirogyra
4) Ulothrix
Answer:
1) Chlorella

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 4 Plant Kingdom

Question 67.
Mannitol is the stored food in
1) Porphyra
2) Fucus
3) Gracillaria
4) Chara
Answer:
2) Fucus

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany

Students get through AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions 3rd Lesson Science of Plants – Botany which are most likely to be asked in the exam.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions 3rd Lesson Science of Plants – Botany

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain how the term Botany has emerged. [AP M -19]
Answer:

  1. The term Botany is derived from the Greek word Bouskein, which means cattle feed.
  2. In course of time Bouskein gave rise to Botane and hence the term Botany is derived.

Question 2.
Name the books written by Parasara and mention the important aspects discussed in those books. [AP M-17, 20]
Answer:
The books written by Parasara are: “Krishi Parasaram” and “Vrikshayurveda”.

  1. Krishiparsaram deals with agriculture and weeds.
  2. Vrikshayurvedam deals with the types of forests and characters of plants including medicinal plants.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany
Question 3.
Who is popularly known as father of Botany? What was the book written by him?
Answer:

  1. Theophrastus is popularly known as Father of Botany. [AP &TS M-16]
  2. The book written by him is deHistoria Plantarum.

Question 4.
Who are Herbalists? What are the books written by them?
Answer:

  1. The scientists who identified and described the Medicinal plants technically are called the Herbalists.
  2. The books written by them are called Herbals.

Question 5.
What was the contribution of Carolus Von Linnaeus for the development of plant taxonomy?
Answer:

  1. “Carolus Von Linnaeus” popularised the “Binomial Nomenclature system”.
  2. He proposed “Sexual system” of classification.

Question 6.
Why is Mendel considered as the father of Genetics? [TS M-17]
Answer:

  1. Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on pea plants and also introduced the laws of inheritance in 1866.
  2. After this a considerable progress was seen in Botany. So, he is declared as Father of Genetics.

Question 7.
Who discovered the cell and what was the book written by him? [TS May-17,22] [IPE-Mar-14]
Answer:

  1. Robert Hooke discovered the cell.
  2. The book written by him is Micro graphia.

Question 8.
What is Palaeobotany? What is its use? [AP M-17, 22] [TS M- 15,17,20]
Answer:

  1. Palaeobotany is the study of fossil plants.
  2. It helps in understanding the course of evolution in plants.

Question 9.
Name the branches of Botany which deal with the chlorophyllous autotrophic thallophytes and non-chlorophyllous heterotrophic thallophytes.
Answer:

  1. Phycology deals with the study of chlorophyllous autotrophic thallophytes (Algae)
  2. Mycology deals with the study of non-chlorophyllous heterotrophic thallophytes (fungi)

Question 10.
What are the groups of plants that live as symbionts in lichens? Name the study of lichens.
Answer:

  1. The plants that live as symbionts in lichens are algae and fungi.
  2. The study of lichens is called Lichenology.

Question 11.
Which group of plants is called vascular cryptogams? Name the branch of Botany which deals with them? [TSM-19][AP May-19]
Answer:

  1. Pteridophytes are called Vascular cryptogams.
  2. Pteridology is the branch that deals with pteridophytes.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany

Question 12.
Which group of plants is called amphibians of plant kingdom? Name the branch of Botany which deals with them. [TS M-22]
Answer:

  1. Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant kingdom
  2. The branch of botany that deals with bryophytes is Bryology.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the brief the scope of Botany in relation to agriculture, horticulture and medicine.
Answer:
I) Botany in relation to agriculture, and horticulture:

  1. Experiments in hybridization, genetic engineering and techniques of plant breeding are useful to develop high-yielding varieties of crops like rice, wheat, mary gold etc in the field of Agriculture and Horticulture.
  2. Knowledge of plant physiology like the study of role of plant hormones in plant growth helps to improve agriculture and horticulture.
  3. Knowledge of plant pathology helps to control and prevent several plant diseases.

II)Botanyin relation to medicine:

  1. Study of plants like Neem, Arnica, Belladona, Cinchona, Datura, Rauwolfia, Ocimum having medicinal value are important to explore them for human health care. These lead to the development of Ayurvedic & Homoeopathic pharmacies.
  2. Production of antibiotics like Penicillin, bioinsecticides is made possible through study of product yielding plants.

Question 2.
Explain the scope of Botany taking plant physiology as example,
Answer:

  1. Plant physiology helps to known the role of minerals in plant nutrition.
  2. Plant physiology helps in the rational usage of chemical fertilizers and control ofmineral deficiencies.
  3. Role of plant hormones in plant growth and development can be understood.
  4. Herbicidal control of weeds, breaking seed dormancy is dealt in plant physiology.
  5. The other benefits of plant physiology are rooting of stem cuttings for vegetative propagation, artificial ripening of fruits like apple, banana and water melons, enhancement of shelf period of leafy vegetables like spinach.

Question 3.
What are the different branches of Botany that deal with morphology of plants? Give their salient features.
Answer:
1) Morphology deals with the study and description of different organisms of a plant.

2) It is the fundamental requisite for classification of plants. It can be divided into two parts.

  • External Morphology: It is the study and description of external characters of plant organs like roots, stem, leaf, flower, fruit and seed.
  • Internal Morphology: It is the study of internal structure of different plant organs.

It has two branches.

  1. Histology is the study of different tissues present in the plant body.
  2. Anatomy deals with the study of gross internal details of plant organs like root, stem, leaf, flower etc.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give a comprehensive account on the scope of Botany in different fields giving an example for each.
Answer:
1) Scope of Botany in Agriculture:

  1. Enhancement of crop yield through Green revolution solves the problem of ‘decreasing re¬sources and increasing population’.
  2. New techniques of plant breeding are useful to develop hybrid varieties in crop plants like rice, wheat, maize, sugarcane etc.
  3. Soil and water pollution caused by chemical fertilizers can be avoided by using biofertilizers.
  4. Crop cultivation refers to the origin of human civilization.

2) Scope of Botany in Horticulture:

  1. Progress in horticulture is possible through experiments in hybridization and genetic engineering.
  2. Experiments in tissue and organ culture made it possible to produce large number of plants in the laboratory (micro propagation) with in a short duration of time.

3) Scope of Botany in Medicine:

  1. Study on plants like Arnica, Cinchona, Neem, Datura, Ocimum, Rauwolfla, Aloe, Withania having medicinal value are important to explore for human health care.
  2. Production of antibiotics like Penicillin, bioinsecticides, single cell proteins made possible through the study of product yielding plants.

4) Scope of Botany in Plant physiology:

  1. Hybridization and Genetic Engineering experiments improve applied fields like Agriculture, Forestry, Horticulture and Floriculture.
  2. Hybrid varieties in crop plants like Rice, Wheat, Maize is possible through plant breeding.
  3. Knowledge of plant physiology is useful in rational usage of chemical fertilizers.
  4. Plant pathology is helpful in the prevention and eradication of several plant diseases.

5) Scope of Botany in Industries:

  1. Industries like Cloth mills, Paper mills, Ayurvedic pharmacies, Sugar mills could be developed due to Botany.
  2. Knowledge of commercially important plant products like timber, fibres, coffee, tea, rubber, gums, aromatic oils is of great importance for their exploitation.
  3. Fuels like petrol, coke, gasoline, petrol are past formed products of fossil plants.
  4. Petroplants like Jatropa, Pongamia produce bio-diesel.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany

6) Scope of Botany in Environment:

  1. Intensive tree plantation control green house effect.
  2. Usage of biofertilizers like Azolla, Nostoc and recycling of nutrients by saprophytic organisms avoid soil and water pollution.

7) Other uses:

  1. Usage of algae like chlorella as food for astronauts in space research programme and extraction of iodine, agar agar from sea weeds indicate wide scope of Botany for the contemporary world.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Father of Biology is
1) A. P.de Candolle
2) A. W.Eichler
3) Aristotle
4) Theophrastus
Answer:
3) Aristotle

Question 2.
TCA cycle was discovered by
1) Rendel
2) V. Ramdas
3) Bessy
4) Hans Krebs
Answer:
4) Hans Krebs

Question 3.
Herbals are
1. Books written by herbalists
2.Collection of herbaceous plants of a particular area
3. Herbarium of various types of plants
4. Flora of a particular region
Answer:
1. Books written by herbalists

Question 4.
Anatomy deals with the study of
1. Different tissues in the plant body
2. Gross internal structure of plant organs
3. Formation of gametes
4. Vital activites of plants
Answer:
2. Gross internal structure of plant organs

Question 5.
The branch of botany which deals with multiplication of cells is
1) Phytogeography
2) Bryology
3) Cytology
4) Palynology
Answer:
3) Cytology

Question 6.
Ptcridology is the study of
1) Phaenerogams
2) Angiosperms
3) Vascular cryptogams
4) Amphibians of plant kingdom
Answer:
3) Vascular cryptogams

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany

Question 7.
Vrikshayurveda contains information on
1. Medicinal plants
2. Crop plants
3. Fruit trees
4. Flowenng plants
Answer:
1. Medicinal plants

Question 8.
The book written by Theophrastus is
1. The origin of species
2.Genera plantatrum
3. de Historia plantarum
4. Species plantarum
Answer:
3. de Historia plantarum

Question 9.
Bionomial nomenclature of plants was first introduced by
1. Gaspard bauhin
2. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
3. Socrates
4. de Candolle
Answer:
1. Gaspard bauhin

Question 10.
Agar-agar, an inert polysaccha ride is extracted from
1. Green algae
2. Brown algae
3. YelIow algae
4. Red algae
Answer:
4. Red algae

Question 11.
The study of development of male and female gametophytes ¡s
1. Systematic Botony
2. Palaeobotany
3. Palynology
4. Embryology
Answer:
4. Embryology

Question 12.
Identify the correct pair
1. Father of Botony – Aristotle
2. Father of Palaeobotany – Linnaeus
3. Father of Genetics – Mendel
4. Father of Biology – Theophrastus
Answer:
3. Father of Genetics – Mendel

Question 13.
The first descriptions of sexual reproduction in plants wa$ given by
1. Thomas Fair Child
2. Gregor Mendel
3. Camerarius
4. Norman Borlaug
Answer:
3. Camerarius

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany

Question 14.
Which one of the following branches deals with fossil plants?
1. Plants ecology
2. Phytogeography
3. Paleobotany
4. Palynology
Answer:
3. Paleobotany

Question 15.
Identify the medicinal plants among the following
1) Arnica, Neem, Datura, Belladona, Aloe
2) Pisum, Neem, Datura, Lathyrus, Agave
3) Hibiscus, Neem, Datura, Agave
4) Euphorbia, Neem, Datura, Bryophyllum
Answer:
1) Arnica, Neem, Datura, Belladona, Aloe

Question 16.
Single cell proteins are
1) Spirullina, Dolichos
2) Spirullina, Chlorella
3) Euphorbia, Lathyrus
4) Hibiscus, Pisum
Answer:
2) Spirullina, Chlorella

Question 17.
Botany expanded rapidly and accumulated vast amount of knowledge in various aspects of plant life during ……….centuries.
1) 18th, 16th
2) 19th and 20th
3) 17th and 18th
4) 16th and 17th
Answer:
2) 19th and 20th

Question 18.
Identify the correct statement.
1) Phycology gives information about all Thallophytes
2) Anatomy is the branch of Morphology
3) Taxonomy and Histology are same
4) Palaeobotany helps us in understanding the course of evolution in plants
Answer:
4) Palaeobotany helps us in understanding the course of evolution in plants

Question 19.
Cyanobacteria are referred as
1) Actinomycetes
2) Blue green algae
3) Bryophytes
4) Mycoplasmas
Answer:
2) Blue green algae

Question 20.
Identify the scientists relating with tissue culture.
a) Hanning
b) Robert son
c) Shimakura
d) Hugodevrics
e) Skoog
f) Robert brown
g) Nitsch
h) Rendel
1) f, g
2) b, d, f, h
3) b, e, g
4) a, c, e, g
Answer:
4) a, c, e, g

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany

Question 21.
Identify biofertilizers among the following.
a) Canna
b) Anabaena
c) Azolla
d) Brassica
e) Rhizobium
f) Nostoc
1) d, e, f
2) a, d only
3) a, b, d, e
4) b, c, e, f
Answer:
4) b, c, e, f

Question 22.
Identify the physiological aspects of plants.
a) N2 metabolism
b) Photosyntheis
c) Respiration
d) Growth
1) a, c only
2) a, b, c, d
3) b, c only
4) a, c, d only
Answer:
2) a, b, c, d

Question 23.
Phycology is the study of the following
a) Autotrophic thallophytes
b) Heterotrophic thallophytes
c) Chlorophyllous thallophytes
d) Non – Chlorophyllous thallophytes
1) a, c
2) b, d
3) a, d
4) b, c
Answer:
1) a, c

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Students get through AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions 2nd Lesson Biological Classification which are most likely to be asked in the exam.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions 2nd Lesson Biological Classification

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the nature of cell-walls in diatoms? [ TS M-22] [AP M-16, 17]
Answer:

  1. In diatoms, the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells like soap box.
  2. The walls are embedded with silica and thus the walls are indestructible.
  3. The upper shell is called epitheca and the lower one is called hypotheca.

Question 2.
How are ‘Viroids’ different from ‘Viruses’?
Answer:

Viroids Viruses
1) Viroids are infectious agents to plants
2) Protein coat is absent.
3) Viroids contain nucleic acid only.
4) Their nucleic acid consists of only RNA.
1) Viruses are infectious agents to all organisms
2) Protein coat is present.
3) Viruses contain nucleic acid & protein coat.
4) The nucleic acid may be RNA or DNA.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification
Question 3.
What do the terms phycobiont arid mycobiont signify? [APM -17] [IPE Mar- 13]
Answer:

  1. The algal component of lichen is called phycobiont.
  2. The fungal component of lichen is called mycobiont.

Question 4.
What do the term algal bloom and red tides signify? [AP May-19]
Answer:

  1. Algal bloom signifies the excessive growth of algae (members of Cyanophyceae) in the water bodies. This causes eutrophication.
  2. Red tides signifies the rapid multiplication of red dinoflagellates in the marine environment. The red colour of red sea is due to Trichodesmium erythrium, gonulax.

Question 5.
State two economically important uses of heterotrophic bacteria. [TS M-16,20]
Answer:
Heterotrophic bacteria are useful

  1. in making curd from milk, (by lactic acid bacteria)
  2. in the production of alcohol, antibiotics, enzymes and aminoacids.

Question 6.
What is the principle underlying the use of cyanobacteria in agricultural fields for crop improvement ? [ AP M-15,19]
Answer:

  1. Cyano bacteria (like Nostoc and Anabaena)contain dinitrogenase enzyme.
    It can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialised cells called heterocysts.
  2. They help in improving the soil fertility.

Question 7.
Plants are autotrophic. Name some plants which are partially heterotrophic.
Answer:

  1. All green plants are autotrophs because they synthesize the food by photosynthesis.
  2. Partially heterotrophic plants:
    Ex: Viscum (Partial stem parasite), Cuscutta(Complete stem parasite), Striga (Partial root parasite)

Question 8.
Who proposed five kingdom classification? How many kingdoms of this classification contain eukaryotes? [TS M-19]
Answer:

  1. R.H. Whittaker proposed five kingdom classification.
  2. Four kingdoms contain eukaryotes. They are Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia

Question 9.
Give the main criteria used for classification by Whittaker.[AP M-20, 22] [ TS M-15,20]
Answer:
Main criteria used for classification by Whittaker: Cell structure, thallus organisation, mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relations.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 10.
Name two diseases caused by Mycoplasmas. [TS May-17,22]
Answer:
Mycoplasmas cause

  1. ‘Witches broom’ disease in plants.
  2. Pleuropneumonia in cattle
  3. Mycoplasmal urethritis in Flumans.

Question 11.
What are slime moulds? Explain what is meant by piasmodium with reference to slime moulds.
Answer:

  1. Slime moulds are saprophytic protists.
  2. Under suitable conditions, they form an aggregation called piasmodium.
  3. It grows and spreads over several feet and forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the characteristic features of Euglenoids? [AF M-16, 20, 22]
Answer:
Characteristic features of Euglenoids: [TS M-17, 20]

  1. Euglenoids belong to kingdom Protista.
  2. They are a group of unicellular flagellate eukaryotes.
  3. They are seen in fresh stagnant water.
  4. Ex: Euglena.
    AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification 2
  5. Their body is covered by a protein layer called pellicle.
  6. They have two flagellae, one is short and other is long. Euglena
  7. The anterior part of their body consists of cytostome, cy topharynx and reservoir.
  8. On eye spot (or stigma) is present on the membrane of the reservoir.
  9. Reproduction in euglinoids is by longitudinal binary fission.
  10. They are autotropic, but in the absence of sunlight they exhibit heterotrophic nutrition.

Question 2.
What are the advan tages and disadvantages of two kingdom classification?
Answer:
I) Advantages:

  1. Two-kingdom classification was the first and most basic classification of living organisms.
  2. It is very easy to understand.

Disadvantages:

  1. Certain organisms do not fit either in plants or animals. Ex: Fungi
  2. No fixed position for organisms which showed both plant & animal characters. Ex: Euglena
  3. This system doesn’t distinguish between Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes (doesn’t contain nuclear membrane).
  4. In this classification, both Photosynthetic & Non-photosynthetic were placed together.

Question 3.
Give the salient features and importance of Chrysophytes. [AP M-15] [IPE Mar- 13]
Answer:
Features and importance ofChrysophytes: [TS M-17,22]

  1. Chrysophytes belong to kingdom Protista.
  2. They are a group of Algae.
  3. They are found both in fresh water and marine water
  4. Ex: Desmides Chrysophyte
    AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification 3
  5. They are small in size, freely floating and photosynthetic.
  6. They have soap box like structure.
  7. Chrysophytes include diatoms and golden algae.
  8. Sillicated walls are seen in diatoms.
  9. Cell wall of diatoms has 2 shells (i) epitheca and (ii) hypotheca.
  10. They reproduce asexually by binary fission and sexually by gamete.

Uses:

  1. Polishing of glasses
  2. Filtration of oils and syrups.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 4.
Give a brief account of Dinoflagellates. [AP May-19] [APM-17,19] [TSM-15,16,19,22]
Answer:

  1. Dinoflagellates belong to kingdom Protista.
  2. They are a large group of flagellate eukaryotes.
  3. Dinoflagellates are seen mostly in marine water.
  4. Ex: Red Dino flagellates like Gonyaulax in Mediterranean sea.
  5. They appear in various colours depending upon their pigments.
  6. The outer surface of their cell wall has stiff cellulose.
  7. They have two flagellae, one lies longitudinally and the other transversely.
  8. The flagellae produces spinning movements, so these are called whirling whips.
  9. The nucleus has condensed chromosomes.
  10. Due to absence of histones, nucleus is called mesokaryon.
  11. Marine dinoflagellates like Noctiluca show bioluminescence.
  12. Toxins released by dinoflagellates may harm to animal cules.

Question 5.
Write the role of Fungi in our daily life. [IPE Mar-14]
Answer:
Role of Fungi in our daily life:
a) Advantages of Fungi:

  1. Yeast is the unicellular fungus. It is used in the commercial preparation of bread and beer.
  2. The Antibiotic ‘penicillin’ is obtained from a fungus called peniciliium.
  3. Mushrooms (Agaricus), morels and truffles are the common edible fungi.

b) Disadvantages of Fungi:

  1. Some fungi cause diseases in plants.
  2. Red rot disease on sugar cane is due to Collectotrichum.
  3. Rust disease on wheat is due to Puccinia.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give the salient features and comparative account of different classes of fungi studied by you.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification 1

Question 2.
Describe briefly different groups of Monerans you have studied.
Answer:
Kingdom Monera includes all prokaryotes like Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, Mycoplasma and Actinomycetes.
I) Archaebacteria:

  1. These are special monerans as they live in extreme salty areas, hot springs and marshy areas.
  2. Cell wall doesnot contain peptidoglycan but contains pseudomurein.
  3. Cell membrane contain branched chain lipids which enables them to live in extreme condition.
  4. Methanogens are present in the gut of several animals like cows and buffaloes.
  5. They are responsible for the production of methane (biogas) from the dung of these animals.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

II) Eubacteria:

  1. Bacteria are spread almost everywhere.They live in extreme habitats like hot springs, deserts, deep oceans and snow.
  2. They may live as parasites and symbionts also.
  3. Based on the shape, bacteria are classified as spherical [coccus], rod shaped [Bacillus], comma shaped [Vibrium] and spiral [Spirillum],
  4. Rigid cell wall consists of peptidoglycan also called murein or mucopeptide.
  5. In foldings of cell membrane are called mesosomes. .
  6. Genetic material is naked, not enveloped by nuclear membrane.
  7. Cell organellae are the only ribosomes.
  8. Motile bacteria contain one or more flagella.
  9. Based on the nutrition bacteria are two types, (a) Autotrophs (b) Heterotrophs
  10. Autotrophs are of 2 types: (i) Photosynthetic autotrophs (ii) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
  11. Heterotrophs are of 2 types: (i) Saprophytes or decompsers (ii) Parasites
  12. Bacteria reproduce mainly by binary fission.
  13. Sexual reproduction is by the transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to the other.

III) My coplasmas:

  1. Mycoplasmas completely lack cell wall and are pleomorphic.
  2. They are smallest living organisms and can survive without oxygen.
  3. Mycoplasmas are pathogenic in plants and animals.
  4. In plants, they cause witches broom disease.
  5. They cause pleuro pneumonia in cattle and mycoplasmal urethritis in humans.

IV) Actinomycetes:

  1. Actinomycets are branched filamentous bacteria which form radiating colonies in culture.
  2. The cell wall contains mycolic acid.
  3. Most of them are saprophytic and decomposers.
  4. Myco bacterium and corynebacterium are parasites.
  5. Some bacteria like streptomyces produce antibiotics.

Question 3.
Enumerate the salient features of different groups in protista.
Answer:
Different groups in Protista: Chrysophytes, Dinoflagellates, Euglenoids, Slime moulds, Protozoans.
I) Chrysophytes:

  1. Chrysophytes include diatoms and golden algae called desmids.
  2. They are found in fresh water and marine water as plankton.
  3. They are microscopic and float passively in water currents.
  4. Most of them are photosynthetic.
  5. In diatoms the cell walls form two thin over lapping shells, epitheca and hypotheca.
  6. They fit together as in a soap box.
  7. The walls are embedded with silica and are indestructible.
  8. The diatoms have left behind large amount of cell wall deposits in their habitat over billions of years to form diatomaceous earth (or) Kieselghur.
  9. Diatoms are two types – Centrale diatoms and pennales.
  10. They reproduce asexually by binary fission and sexually by the formation of gametes.

II) DinoflageIlates:

  1. Dinoflagellates are mostly marine and photosynthetic organisms.
  2. They appear yellow, green, brown, blue or red depending upon the pigments present in the cells.
  3. The cell wall has stiff cellulose on the outer surface.
  4. They have two flagellae, one lies longitudinally and the other transversely in a furrow between the wall plates.
  5. The flagellae produce spinning movements, so these dinoflagellates are called whirling whips.
  6. The nucleus has condensed chromosomes and do not have histones.
  7. This nucleus is called mesokaryon.
  8. Marine dinoflagellates like Noctiluca show bioluminescence.
  9. Red Dino flagellates like Gonyaulax under go rapid multiplication in the Medeterranian sea and cause red tides.
  10. Toxins released by dinoflagellates may even kill the marine animals like fishes.

III) Euglenoids:

  1. Euglenoids are fresh water organisms found in stagnant water.
  2. They are unicellular and flagellate.
  3. Covered by a protein rich layer called pellicle, which gives flexibility to the body.
  4. They have two flagellae, a short and a long one.
  5. The anterior part of the body consists of cytostome, cytopharynx and reservoir.
  6. On the membrane of the reservoir an eye spot or stigma is present.
  7. In the presence of sunlight they perform photosynthesis.
  8. In the absence of sunlight they predate on smaller organisms and behave as heterotrophs.
  9. The reproduction is by longitudinal binary fission.
  10. Palmella stage is found. Ex: Euglena.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

IV) Slime Moulds:

  1. Slime moulds are saprophytic protists.
  2. Under suitable conditions, they form an aggregation called plasmodium.
  3. It grows and spreads over several feet and forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips.

V) Protozoans:

  1. All protozoans are heterotrophs and live as predators or parasites.
  2. They are believed to be the primitive relatives of animals,
  3. They do not contain cell wall. The protoplasm is surrounded by plasma membrane.
  4. There are four major groups in protozoa.

a) Amoeboid Protozoans:

  1. These organisms live in freshwater, sea water and moist soil.
  2. They move and capture the prey with the help of pseudopodia as in Amoeba.
  3. Marine forms have silica shells on their surface.
  4. Entamoeba like forms are parasites.

b) Flagellated Protozoans:

  1. The members are either free living or parasites, contain flagellae.
  2. Parasite forms cause diseases like sleeping sickness. Ex: Trypanosoma.

c) Ciliated Protozoans:

  1. Aquatic, actively moving organisms because of thousands of cilia on them.
  2. They have a gullet that opens to the out side of cell surface. Ex: Paramecium

d) Sporozoans:

  1. This includes diverse organisms that have an infectious spore like stage in their life cycle.
  2. Ex: Plasmodium which causes malaria fever in man.

Exercise

Question 1.
State two economically important uses of:
(a) Heterotrophic bacteria (b) Archaebacteria
Answer:
a) Heterotrophic bacteria is useful

  1. In making of curd from milk, (by lactic acid bacteria)
  2. in the production of alcohol, antibiotics, enzymes and aminoacids.

b) Archaebacteria is useful in

  1. Production of methane (biogas) from the dung of ruminants
  2. Biotechnology

Question 2.
Give a comparative account of the classes of Kingdom Fungi on the basis of the following:
(i) mode of nutrition
(ii) mode of reproduction
Answer:
(i) Mode of nutrition:

  • Phycomycetes: Obligate parasites
  • Ascomycetes: Saprophytic, decomposers
  • Basidiomycetes: Parasites
  • Deuteromycetes: Saprophytes, decomposers.

(ii) Mode of reproduction:

  • Phycomycetes: Asexually by zoospores or aplanospores, sexually by gametes.
  • Ascomycetes: Asexually by conidia, sexually by ascospores.
  • Basidiomycetes: Asexually by fragmentation, sexually by fusion of two somatic cells.
  • Deuteromycetes: Asexually by conidia.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 3.
Give a brief account of viruses with respect to their structure and nature of genetic material. Also name four common viral diseases.
Answer:
Viruses:

  • Structurally Virus consists of two parts. The outer protein coat is called capsid and the central core consists of genetic material.
  • Genetic material in virus is either DNA or RNA it may be ds or ss.
  • Four Common Viral diseases: (i) Polio (ii) AIDS (iii) Hepatitis (iv) Influenza

Question 4.
Organise a discussion in your class on the topic – Are viruses living or non-living?
Answer:
I) Living characters of Viruses:

  1. Presence of genetic material DNA or RNAnswer:
  2. The ability of multiplication.
  3. Can infect the host.
  4. Host specificity.
  5. Occurrence of mutations.

II) Non-living characters of Viruses:

  1. Behave like particles only out side the host.
  2. Ability to get crystallisation.
  3. Protoplasm is absent.
  4. High specific gravity as in non-living objects.
  5. Metabolic aspects like growth respiration, nutrition are absent.

Conclusion: Viruses are not truly ‘living’. They exist in crystal form outside the host. They are called obligate parasites.

Question 5.
Suppose you accidentally find an old preserved permanent slide without a label and in your effort to identify it, you place the slide under the microscope and observe the following features;
a) unicellular body
b) well-defined nucleus
c) biflagellate condition – one flagellum lying longitudinally and the other transversely
What would you identify it as? Can you name the kingdom it belongs to?
Answer:
a) The permanent slide is identified as a Dinoflagellate.
b) Dinoflagellate belongs to kingdom Protista.

Question 6.
Polluted water bodies have usually high abundance of plants like Nostoc and Oscillatoria. Give reasons.
Answer:
When the nutrients are excess in the polluted water containing an abundance of nostoc and oscillatory, the plants utilise the nutrients, perform growth and reproduction and multiply their number enormously resulting in algal blooms.

Question 7.
Cyanobacteria and heterotrophic bacteria have been clubbed together in Eubacteria of kingdom Monera as per the five kingdom classification, even though the two are vastly different from each other. Is this grouping of the two types of taxa in the same kingdom justified? If so why?
Answer:
Yes, because both are unicellular prokaryotes.

Question 8.
What observable features in Trypanosoma would make you classify it under kingdom Protista?
Answer:

  1. Trypanosoma gambiense is a flagellate parasite.
  2. It causes African sleeping sickness or gambia fever in African people.
  3. It lives in the blood and cerebrospinal fluid of man.
  4. Reason for the inclusion of Trypanosoma under protista are – the cell contain well defined nucleus, membrane bound organelles, flagellum and reproduce asexually by longitudinal binary fission.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 9.
At a stage of their life cycle, ascomycetous fungi produce the fruiting bodies like cleistothecium, perithecium or apothecium. How are these three types of fruiting bodies differ from each other?
Answer:

  1. In members of ascomycetous, sexual spores called ascospores are produced in sac like structures called asci.
  2. The asci are arranged in different types of Suiting bodies called ascocarps.
  3. The globose ascocarp without opening is called cleistothecium
  4. The flask shaped ascocarp with an apical opening is called perithecium.
  5. The cup or saucer shaped ascocarp is called apothecium.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Five Kingdom classification was proposed by
1. R.H.Whittaker
2. Linnaeus
3. Theophrastus
4. Hutchinson
Answer:
1. R.H.Whittaker

Question 2.
Two kingdoms that are common to all biological classifications are
1. Monera and Plantae
2. Plantae and Animalia
3. Protista and Monera
4. Animals and Fungi
Answer:
2. Plantae and Animalia

Question 3.
Five kingdom classification is not based on
1) Complexity of body organisation
2) Presence or absence of a well-defined nucleus
3) Mode of reproduction
4) Types of pigments
Answer:
1) Complexity of body organisation

Question 4.
Among 5-Kingdom classification, eukaryotes are placed in how many kingdoms?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Answer:
4) 4

Question 5.
Cell walls of fungi are made up of
1. Cellulose
2. Lignin
3. Chitin
4. Suberin
Answer:
3. Chitin

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 6.
The cell wall of fungi contains a
1. Homopolymer
2. Monosaccharide
3. Heteropolymer
4. Cellulos
Answer:
3. Heteropolymer

Question 7.
Atmospheric nitrogen in Nostoc is fixed in
1. Heterocysts
2. Holdfast
3. Hormogonia
4. Akinetes
Answer:
1. Heterocysts

Question 8.
Nitrogen fixing cyanobaterium is
1. Rhizobium
2. Nostoc
3. Chlorella
4. Methanogen
Answer:
2. Nostoc

Question 9.
Chief producers in the oceans are
1. Diatoms
2. Green algae
3. Blue-green algae
4. Bryophytes
Answer:
1. Diatoms

Question 10.
Capsid is found in
1. Viroids
2. Prions
3. Viruses
4. Lichens
Answer:
3. Viruses

Question 11.
Red colour of red sea is due to
1. Porphyra
2. Trichodesmium
3. Polysiphonia
4. Anabaena
Answer:
2. Trichodesmium

Question 12.
Red tides in Medeterranian sea are because of
1. Gonyaulax
2. Trichodesmium
3. Fungi
4. Actinomycetes
Answer:
1. Gonyaulax

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 13.
The smallest living cells which can survive without oxygen are
1. Bacteria
2. Viruses
3. Mycoplasmas
4. Cyanobacteria
Answer:
3. Mycoplasmas

Question 14.
Whirling whips are
1. Chrysophytes
2. Dinoflagellates
3. Euglenoids
4. Slime moulds
Answer:
2. Dinoflagellates

Question 15.
Photosynthetic stigma or eye spot is found in
1. Trypanosoma
2. Amoeba
3. Gonyaulax
4. Euglena
Answer:
4. Euglena

Question 16.
Sleeping sickness disease is caused by
1. Trypanosoma
2. Paramoecium
3. Entamoeba
4. Plasmodium
Answer:
1. Trypanosoma

Question 17.
The DNA of Bacteria (E.coli) is
1) Double stranded & linear
2) double stranded & circular
3) Single stranded & linear
4) Single stranded & circular
Answer:
2) double stranded & circular

Question 18.
Identify the wrong combination
1. Polyporus -Bracket fungus
2. Lycoperdon – Puffball
3. Rhizopus – Bread mould
4. Cuscuta – Autotroph
Answer:
4. Cuscuta – Autotroph

Question 19.
Cell wall of archebacteria is made up of chemicals
1) Peptidoglycans
2) Pseudomurein
3) lip polysaccharide
4) Cellulose
Answer:
2) Pseudomurein

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 20.
Rejuvenatory spores in diatoms are
1. Auxospores
2. Parthenospores
3. Akinetes
4. Conidia
Answer:
1. Auxospores

Question 21.
Identify the mis-match of the following
1. Coccus – Spherical
2. Spirillum – Spiral
3. Bacillus – Rodshaped
4. Vibrio-Filament like
Answer:
4. Vibrio-Filament like

Question 22.
Sexual spores are exogenously produced in
1. Penicillium
2. Albugo
3. Agaricus
4. Colletotrichum
Answer:
3. Agaricus

Question 23.
Asexual spores are generally not formed in
1. Mucor
2. Claviceps
3. Puccinia
4. Altemaria
Answer:
4. Altemaria

Question 24.
A primitive animal is
1. Noctiluca
2. Euglena
3. Gonyaulax
4. Trypanosoma
Answer:
4. Trypanosoma

Question 25.
Nutritionally most of fungi are
1. Saprophytes only
2. Parasites only
3. Symbionts only
4. Saprophytes or parasites
Answer:
4. Saprophytes or parasites

Question 26.
All Protozoans have
1. Pseudopodia
2. Contractile vacuole
3. Cilia
4. Eukaryotic organisation
Answer:
4. Eukaryotic organisation

Question 27.
Cell wall is found in somatic body of
1. Euglena
2. Entamoeba
3. Slime moulds
4. Chlamydomonas
Answer:
4. Chlamydomonas

Question 28.
Characteristic spores of diatoms are
1. Zoospores
2. Ascospores
3. Auxospores
4. Basidiospores
Answer:
3. Auxospores

Question 29.
Diatoms are indestructible because of the presence of
1) CaCO3 in cell wall
2) Siliceous cell wall
3) Mucilagenous cell wall
4) A11 of the above
Answer:
2) Siliceous cell wall

Question 30.
Witches broom in plants is caused by
1. Trichoderma
2. Actinomycetes
3. Mycoplasmas
4. Bacteria
Answer:
3. Mycoplasmas

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 31.
The most primitive organisms showing oxygenic photosynthesis are
1. Green algae
2. Chrysophytes
3. Green and purplesuiphur bacteria
4. Cyanobacteria
Answer:
4. Cyanobacteria

Question 32.
Smut and rust fungi are respectively
1. Puccinia, Ustilago
2. Ustilago, puccinia
3. Polyporus, Lycoperdon
4. Alternaria, Trichoderma
Answer:
2. Ustilago, puccinia

Question 33.
Monera includes
1) All prokaryotic-only unicellular
2) All eukaryotic — only unicellular
3) All prokaryotic-both unicellular & multicellular
4) All the above
Answer:
3) All prokaryotic-both unicellular & multicellular

Question 34.
Vlroids have
1. Nucleic acid & protein
2. DNA only
3. RNA only
4. DNA&RNA
Answer:
3. RNA only

Question 35.
Puccinia is
1. a fungus that produces antibiotic
2. a fungus of class phycomycetes
3. a fungus that causes rust disease
4. an imperfect fungus
Answer:
3. a fungus that causes rust disease

Question 36.
The protein coat of virus is called
1. Capsule
2. Capsomere
3. Capsid
4. Cypsela
Answer:
3. Capsid

Question 37.
The Viruses which infect bacteria are known as
1. Zoophages
2. Bacteriophages
3. Cyanophages
4. Phytophages
Answer:
2. Bacteriophages

Question 38.
Viroids differ from viruses in the
1. absence of RNA
2. presence or DNA
3. absence of a protein coat
4. absence of nucleic acid and protein
Answer:
3. absence of a protein coat

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 39.
Agaricus belongs to the clašs
1. Ascomycetes
2. Phycomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes
Answer:
3. Basidiomycetes

Question 40.
Lichens are
1. Parasites
2. Saprophytes
3. Symbionts
4. Chemotrophs
Answer:
3. Symbionts

Question 41.
Viroids have
1. Single – stranded RNA not enclosed by protein còat
2. Single – stranded DNA not enclosed by protein coat
3. Double strande DNA enclosed by protein coat
4. Double – stranded RNA enclosed by protein coat
Answer:
1. Single – stranded RNA not enclosed by protein còat

Question 42.
Lichens are very good’ air pollution indicators because
1) Their population is high at highly polluted area
2) They are very sensitive to SO2, and die at higher level of SO2
3) They play an important role in soil formation
4) Their population is high at the location with high level of SO2
Answer:
2) They are very sensitive to SO2, and die at higher level of SO2

Question 43.
Zoospores are present In
1. Riccia
2. Anabaena
3. Albugo
4. Nostoc
Answer:
3. Albugo

Question 44.
RNA Is not found in one of the following organisms
1. TMV
2. HIV
3. Viroids
4. Prions
Answer:
4. Prions

Question 45.
Asexual spores are generally not found in
1. Ustilago
2. Neurospora
3. Albugo
4. Trichoderma
Answer:
1. Ustilago

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 46.
Dikaryotic phase is not found in
1. Aspergillus
2. Agaricus
3. Puccinia
4. Mucor
Answer:
4. Mucor

Question 47.
The unique character that unified the kingdom plantae of Linnaeus is
1) all organisms have green pigment
2) All organisms are autotrophic
3) All organisms have well developed nucleus
4) All organisms bear cell wall in their cells
Answer:
4) All organisms bear cell wall in their cells

Question 48.
The bacteria forming blooms in polluted water bodies are nutritionally
1) Photosynthetic autotrophs
2) chemosynthetic autotrophs
3) Heterotrophs
4) Saprophytic
Answer:
1) Photosynthetic autotrophs

Question 49.
Maximum modes of nutrition occur in
1) Monera
2) Fungi
3) Protista
4) Plantae
Answer:
1) Monera

Question 50.
Naked cytoplasm, multi nuculeated and saprophytic nature is the characteristic of
1) Mycoplasma
2) BGA
3) Archaebacteria
4) Slime moulds
Answer:
4) Slime moulds

Question 51.
Mark the mis-matched pair
1) Noctiluca -Bioluminescence
2) Whirling whips-soap box like body structure
3) Diatomite-Kiesulgur
4) Blue green algae -zygotic meiosis
Answer:
4) Blue green algae -zygotic meiosis

Question 52.
Select the incorrect statement w.r.t to virus
1) Connecting link between living and nonliving
2) An inert virus is called virion
3) Viruses are obligatory intracellular parasites
4) They do not have the ability to get crystallized eg TMV.
Answer:
4) They do not have the ability to get crystallized eg TMV.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 53.
Coenocytic vegetative mycelium Is found in .
1) Neurospora
2) Rhizopus
3) Pencillium
4) Ustilago
Answer:
2) Rhizopus

Question 54.
Infectious proteins are present in
1) Prions
2) Viroids
3) Both 1 &2
4) Satellite Viruses
Answer:
1) Prions

Question 55.
Select the correct match
1) Phycomycctes-claviceps
2) Ascomycetes- Alternaria
3) Deuteromycetes- Trichoderma
4) Basidiomycetes-colletotrichum
Answer:
4) Basidiomycetes-colletotrichum

Question 56.
Aplanospores, non motile spores are present in
1) Rhizopus
2) Mucor
3) Both 1 & 2
4) Cyanobacteria
Answer:
3) Both 1 & 2

Question 57.
Mark the odd one recording fungi
1) Mycorrhizal association is symbiotic relation ship
2) Septate, Multicellular mycelium is present in Ascomycetes
3) Palmella stage is found in slime moulds
4) Pellicle is present in Euglena
Answer:
2) Septate, Multicellular mycelium is present in Ascomycetes

Question 58.
Dikaryophase in Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes is
1) Diploid and dikaryotic
2) Haploid and dikaryotic
3) Diploid and monokaryotic
4) Haploid and monokaryotic
Answer:
2) Haploid and dikaryotic

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 59.
Choose the correct one from the following
1) True nucleus is absent in Anabaena
2) A virus has both DNA and RNA
3) TMV is a tadpole shaped phytophage
4) Cercospora is considered as Drosophila of plant kingdom
Answer:
1) True nucleus is absent in Anabaena

Question 60.
Archaébacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different
1) Cell organelles structure
2) Cell wall composition
3) Nuclear structure
4) Ribosomal structure.
Answer:
2) Cell wall composition

Question 61.
Virus envelope is known as –
1) capsid
2) virion
3) nuclJtein
4) core
Answer:
1) capsid

Question 62.
With respect to fungal sexual cycle , choose the correct sequence of events.
1) Karyogamy, plasmogamy and meiosis
2) Meiosis, plasmogamy and karyogamy
3) Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meisosis
4) Meiosis, karyogamy and plasmoganiy
Answer:
3) Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meisosis

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 63.
Which pair is odd?
1) Phycomycetes — Aquatic fungi
2) Basidiomycetes — Sac fungi
3) Ascomycetes — Penicillum
4) Basidiomycetes — Puffballs
Answer:
2) Basidiomycetes — Sac fungi

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter From Mother Earth

Telangana SCERT TS 7th Class English Study Material Pdf Unit 8C A Letter From Mother Earth Textbook Questions and Answers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter From Mother Earth

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
What is the change in the attitude of the human beings towards Mother Earth ?
Answer:
Long ago, humans used to worship Mother Earth as goddess and they used to care her. But now, they cut the big trees down with big axes, they use cars and buses which pollute air with smoke and fumes.

Question 2.
How do forests and mountains help to make rain and keep life on earth moving?
Answer:
Forests and mountains stop the monsoons while moving in particular direction, and give us rains.

Question 3.
Do you love her as much as you love your mother ? If so, what are you doing to save her ?
Answer:
I love Mother Earth as much as my mother. I protest against the people who are cutting down the trees. I advise and motivate my friends and neighbours to plant more trees in front of their houses.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Question 4.
Write a reply to her expressing your concern and display in on the wall magazine.
Answer:
My dear Mother Earth,

We feel very sorry for our thoughtless actions which lead to a great havoc to us. We are repenting what we have done before. We promise you, we take care of you. We never cut down trees indiscriminately. We use bicycles to travel short distances to reduce the pollution of air. We plant so many trees before we cut any tree for our fuel or making a house. We assure you, we will be the ideal citizens of the world.

Yours lovingly,
Children of Mother Earth
(world citizens)

Question 5.
What is the most touching thing that you find in this letter ?
Answer:
The most touching thing in this letter is a plea to all the children by Mother Earth. Even though humans behave foolishly like idiots, she doesn’t get anger. She appeals to all the children to be aware of mother earth and how to take care of her. She explains to them how she helps the humans. She wishes the children to be good citizens and wants them to take care of her.

A Letter From Mother Earth Summary in English

Dear children,

You are all clever. You know me well. Throughout centuries everyone has been praising me. I am 4.6 billion years old. I have been supplying your needs. In ancient days people worshipped me as Goddess. But now people are cutting down my trees and polluting eveything. Unless there are trees and mountains, there is no food. But they are destroying them. I feel sad. I am talking to you so that when you grow old, you may be protective of me.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Glossary:

affection (n) = a feeling of liking and caring about someone or something
Usage: My father shows a lot of affection on pet animals.

billion (n) = 1,000,000,000; one thousand million.
Usage: The earth was formed 4.6 billion years ago.

pollute (v) = to make air, water or land too dirty and dangerous for people to use in a safe way
Usage: Cars and buses pollute our atmosphere.

destroy (v) = to damage to severely that it no longer exists
Usage: Tosrnedos destroyed so many buildings last night.

bountiful (ad) = available in large quantities
Usage: There are bountiful supply of food.

barren (adj) = barren land is dry and plants cannot grow there
Usage: There is a vast tract of barren land outside of Vijayawada.

survive (v) = to stay alive
Usage: Some passengers survived the accident.

Self Assessment:

How well have I understood this unit?

Read and tick (✓) in the appropriate box.

TS 7th Class English Guide 8C A Letter From Mother Earth 2

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Section – A : Reading Comprehension

Please also practise additional exercises given from P.No. 301 to 312

(Questions 1 – 10) : Read the following from the lesson “Snakes in India”.

Only about 50 of the more than 200 species of snakes in India are venomous. Of these, only four – Russell’s viper, saw-scaled viper, Indian cobra and common krait – are really dangerous. They are found across the country, from desert to fertile plains. While all the four are most common in rural India, Indian cobras and common kraits can be found in and around any human dwelling, posing danger even in the suburbs of major cities like Mumbai, Kolkata, and New Delhi.

Of the death-dealing quartet, the Russell’s viper is found from the paddy fields and river valleys of north India to the densely forested hills of Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka in the south. Tan or brownish, thick-bodied, and reaching a length of one metre, it has long, movable fangs that inject a large amount of venom, making it even more dangerous than the Indian cobra.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5 M

Question 1.
How many species of snakes are really dangerous ? ( )
A) 50
B) 4
C) 200
D) 15
Answer:
B) 4

Question 2.
_________ among the following snakes is not dangerous. ( )
A) Indian cobra
B) common krait
C) garden snake
D) Russell’s viper
Answer:
C) garden snake

Question 3.
Russell’s viper is ( )
A) bluish – black
B) black
C) glistening
D) tan or brownish
Answer:
D) tan or brownish

Question 4.
Indian cobras are found ( )
A) only in deserts
B) only in valleys
C) only in densely forested areas
D) throughout India
Answer:
D) throughout India

Question 5.
Al snakes _________ ( )
A) are venomous
B) are not venomous
C) are dangerous
D) black in colour
Answer:
B) are not venomous

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

(6 – 10) Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 5 × 2 = 10M

Question 6.
What is the reason for high death rate due to snake bites ?
Answer:
The reason for high death rate due to snake bites is ignorance about snakes and snake bite prevention.

Question 7.
What precautions should we take to avoid snake bites ?
Answer:
To avoid snake bites we should wear long trousers and shoes while walking through long grass, carry a lantern or torch at night and beat the ground with a long stick as we walk.

Question 8.
Where does the cobra stay for most of its time ?
Answer:
A cobra spends most of its time underground.

Question 9.
When are snakes more active ?
Answer:
Snakes are more active during the monsoon season.

Question 10.
What type of creatures are snakes ?
Answer:
Snakes are timid, nocturnal creatures.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Read the following passage.

Every family with two or more children often experiences sibling rivalry at one time or the other. Children, in general, fight with each other for their parents’ attention. They fight among themselves mostly on trivial issues. If it does not get excessive, this kind of rivalry can, in fact, be a healthy competition that trains children to share, respect one another. They will learn to deal with frustration and displeasures in the maturing process.

The firstborns generally feel that they don’t have to share their parents’ love and attention. But when the next baby or siblings come along, they feel neglected and that changes everything. The first child starts to feel that he/she is no longer the centre of attraction and that he/she is being sidelined because of the new one. Some children might develop negative feelings and emotional imbalance, which may lead to regressive behaviour.

(11 – 12) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 2 × 1 = 2 M

Question 11.
Sibling rivalry is a healthy competition if ( )
A) children have frustrations
B) there are too many fights
C) there are not too many fights
D) children feel neglected
Answer:
C) there are not too many fights

Question 12.
Children fight among themselves over ( )
A) important issues
B) unimportant issues
C) their parent’s belongings
D) competition
Answer:
B) unimportant issues

(13 – 16) Answer the questions in two or three sentences each. 4 × 2 = 8 M

Question 13.
How do fewer fights help children ?
Answer:
Fewer fights help children learn to deal with frustration and displeasures in the maturing process.

Question 14.
What do families with two or more children experience ?
Answer:
Families with two or more children experience sibling rivalry at some time or the other.

Question 15.
What do the first horns feel ?
Answer:
The 1st horns feel that they don’t have to share their parents’ love and affection.

Question 16.
When do the 1st horns feel neglected ?
Answer:
The 1st boms feel neglected when the next baby or sibling comes along.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Section – B : Vocabulary & Grammar

Read the following passage focussing on the parts that are underlined and answer the questions given at the end. Write the answers in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5 M

Did you know that most of us have a few cancer cells floating (17) around in our bodies. They keep a lookout for a weak (18) spot where they can begin their destruction. Our defence (19) system begins to produce antibodies to destroyed (20) them. But the moment this defence mechanism weakens, the cancer cells multiply rapidly (21) and damage major body organs.

Question 17.
Choose the antonym of the word. ( )
A) sinking
B) shallow
C) deep
D) busy
Answer:
A) sinking

Question 18.
Choose the noun form of the word. ( )
A) weakened
B) weakening
C) weakness
D) weak point
Answer:
C) weakness

Question 19.
Choose the synonym of ‘defence’ ( )
A) protect
B) protection
C) attack
D) argue
Answer:
B) protection

Question 20.
Choose the correct form of the word. ( )
A) destruction
B) had destroyed
C) destroyed
D) destroy
Answer:
D) destroy

Question 21.
Choose the opposite of the underlined word ( )
A) quickly
B) gradually
C) immensely
D) temporarily
Answer:
B) gradually

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

(Q. 22 – 26) Complete the following passage choosing right words from those given below it. Each blank is numbered, and for each blank four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5M

Swapna is a very active child who is always running about making a lot of noise. She is _________ (22) youngest of four children in the family. She often gets _________ (23) trouble because of _________ (24) brother David. He is always shouting _________ (25) her. But Swapna never listens _________ (26) him.

Question 22.
A) the
B) a
C) an
D) no article
Answer:
A) the

Question 23.
A) for
B) in
C) into
D) about
Answer:
C) into

Question 24.
A) she
B) her
C) his
D) hers
Answer:
B) her

Question 25.
A) in
B) for
C) from
D) at
Answer:
D) at

Question 26.
A) to
B) at
C) on
D) towards
Answer:
A) to

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

(Q. 27 – 31) Read the following passage. Five sentences are numbered. Each numbered sentence has an error. Find the error and write the correct answer in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5 M

(27) Contrary for what many people believe, most snakes are timid, natural creatures (28) feeding most on rats, mice etc. (29) They attack humans only when actual stepped upon or provoked in some way. (30) Precautions such as wear shoes and (31) long trousers will lessen the risk of being bite.
Answer:
27. Contrary to
28. feeding mostly on
29. when actually
30. wearing shoes
31. risk of being bitten.

Section – C : Conventions of Writing

(Q. 32) Read the following passage carefully and supply punctuation marks (., ? ” “) and capital letters, wherever necessary. Also correct the spelling of the underlined word. 5 M

As he neared the village he met a number of people but he didn’t know any of them. The villagers also stared at him equally surprized who is this man said one i’ve never seen him before said another.
Answer:
As he neared the village, he met a number of people but he didn’t know any of them. The villagers also stared at him equally surprised. “Who is this man ?” said one. “I’ve never seen him before,” said another.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Section – D : Creative Writing (Discourses). – 12 M

Question 33.
The news of Kamal being bitten by a cobra spread around. You are a news reporter of ‘Daily Times’. Write a news report for your news paper reporting Kamal’s case. Include the points mentioned below.

  • What happened to him ?
  • What he did ?
  • What the relatives and the doctor did ?
  • Kamal’s health
  • blood transfusion.

Answer:

A venomous snake bites a farmer

Mumbai, August 12th, 20xx

Tengal Kamal, a 25 year old farmer living near Goregaon was working bare foot when he felt a sharp sting on his right foot. On examining his foot he saw two tiny marks near the ankle. Convinced it was a snake bite, he tied a rope just above his knee and called out to a relative working nearby.

He was immediately taken to a nearby local doctor, in a taxi. Unfortunately, the doctor was not a fully qualified allopathic practitioner and did not know about the anti – snake venom. He prescribed antibiotic tablets and gave him a pain killing injection. Kamal was advised to take rest.

During the next few hours, Kamal felt increasingly giddy and vomited continually. He felt unbearable pain so was immediately rushed to a big public hospital. His condition was very serious. His blood was transfused and finally he is out of danger.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Question 34.
Write a story using the given hints.

Hints : Two friends travelling through a forest – agree to help each other in danger – suddenly a bear appears – one at once climbs up a tree – the other lies down on the ground and holds his breath – the bear comes up to him – smells his face – thinks he is dead – goes away – the first friend now comes down – asks the other what bear said in his ear – answers: “Beware of a friend who runs away in time of danger.”

Answer:

Two Friends and a Bear

There were two friends. They were travelling through a forest. They had agreed that they would help each other in danger. Suddenly there appeared a bear before them. One friend saw the bear and to save himself climbed up a tree. The other didn’t know how to climb. At once to escape from the bear, he lay down on the ground and held his breath. Soon the bear came near him and smelled his face.

He thought him dead and went away without doing anything to him. lt is said that bears do not attack the dead ones. The friend who had climbed up the tree came down and asked him what the bear said in his ear. The other friend told him that the bear said, “Beware of a friend who runs away in time of danger”.

Moral: A friend in need is a friend indeed.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Additional Exercises

Section – A : Reading Comprehension

Questions 1 – 10:

1. Read the following stanzas.

Trees are the kindest Things I know,
They do no harm, they simply grow
And spread a shade for sleepy cows,
And gather birds among their boughs…..

They give us fruit in leaves above,
And wood to make our houses of,
And leaves to burn on Halloween
And in the Spring new buds of green.

They are the first when day’s begun
To touch the beams of morning sun,
They are the last to hold the light
When evening changes into night.

(1 – 5) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The poet calls the trees the kindest things because ( )
A) they grow
B) they do no harm
C) they gather birds
D) they give fruits
Answer:
B) they do no harm

Question 2.
In the spring trees give us ( )
A) wood
B) leaves
C) fruits
D) new green buds
Answer:
D) new green buds

Question 3.
The trees ( )
A) are the first to hold the evening light
B) give new green buds in autumn
C) are the first to touch the beams of the morning sun
D) give wood for firewood
Answer:
C) are the first to touch the beams of the morning sun

Question 4.
_________ form the houses of birds. ( )
A) Leaves of trees
B) Wood from trees
C) Boughs of trees
D) Beams of the sun
Answer:
C) Boughs of trees

Question 5.
Trees _________ a shade for _________ ( )
A) gather, birds
B) give, fruits
C) burn, leaves
D) spread, sleepy cows
Answer:
D) spread, sleepy cows

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

(6 – 10) Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.

Question 6.
What do trees do at night ?
Answer:
At night trees hum a drowsy lullaby of sleepy children long ago.

Question 7.
What do trees give us ?
Answer:
Trees give us fruit, wood to make houses, leaves to bum on Halloween and new green buds in the spring.

Question 8.
What do trees do before anyone else ?
Answer:
Trees touch the beams of the morning sun before anyone else.

Question 9.
Pick 5 pairs of rhyming words.
Answer:
Know-grow, cows – boughs, Halloween – green, begun – sun, light – night.

Question 10.
Why don’t trees harm anyone ?
Answer:
Trees don’t harm anyone because they are very kind.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

2. Read the following passage.

Do you know how old I am ? I am 4.6 billion years old, much older than your father, your grandfather and any of your great grandfathers.

I give you food to eat, like rice, wheat, and fruits. You also wear clothes made of cotton and live in houses made of leaves, wood, and bricks; all of which come from me. Long ago, humans used to worship me as a goddess and they used to care for me. But now they have big axes to cut my trees down; and cars and buses to pollute my air with smoke and fumes.

They don’t respect me any more.

Your teacher must have told you how my forests and mountains help to make rain and keep life on earth going. But nowadays, even my mountains and forests are being destroyed.

(1 – 5) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The Earth is _________ years old. ( )
A) 4.6 billion
B) 4.6 million
C) 4.6 trillian
D) 4.6 arab
Answer:
A) 4.6 billion

Question 2.
Earlier humans used to _________( )
A) pollute air
B) cut trees
C) worship earth
D) live in palatial house
Answer:
C) worship earth

Question 3.
Now people ………………… ( )
A) pray to Mother Earth
B) pollute earth
C) build houses with its leaves
D) eat food
Answer:
B) pollute earth

Question 4.
‘They don’t respect me’. Who are ‘they’? ( )
A) plants
B) animals
C) people earlier
D) people now a days.
Answer:
D) people now a days.

Question 5.
Forests and mountains _________ ( )
A) bring us rain
B) stop floods
C) keep earth cool
D) keep earth fresh
Answer:
A) bring us rain

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

(6 – 10) Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.

Question 6.
Why is Mother Earth sad?
Answer:
Mother Earth is sad because people now are destroying its forests and mountains which keep life on Earth going and are polluting the Earth.

Question 7.
What does Mother Earth want children to do ?
Answer:
Mother Earth wants children to take care of her by planting trees in their houses, schools, towns and villages.

Question 8.
Why do we call Earth ‘Mother’ ?
Answer:
We call the Earth ‘Mother’ because for centuries she has been taking care of people just as a mother takes care of her children.

Question 9.
What have poets done for centuries ?
Answer:
For centuries poets have written in praise of Mother Earth.

Question 10.
How are people harming ‘the Earth’ ?
Answer:
People are harming the Earth by cutting down trees and polluting its air with smoke and fumes released from cars and buses.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Questions 11 – 16:

3. Read the following passage.

Conservation of water in the agricultural sector is essential since water is necessary for the growth of plants and crops. A depleting water table and a rise in salinity due to overuse of chemical fertilisers and pesticides have made matters serious. Various methods of water harvesting and recharging have been and are being applied all over the world to tackle the probelm.

In areas where rainfall is low and water is scarce, the local people have used simple techniques that are suited to their region and reduce the demand for water. In India’s arid and semi-arid areas, the ‘tank’ system is traditionally the backbone of agricultural production. Tanks are constructed either by bunding or by excavating the ground and collecting rainwater.

(11 – 12) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 11.
In arid and semi-arid areas _________ system is used for agriculture. ( )
A) tank
B) river
C) dam
D) bore well
Answer:
A) tank

Question 12.
Over use of pesticides has _________ ( )
A) reduced water levels
B) made water salty
C) made conservation difficult
D) made water essential for agriculture
Answer:
B) made water salty

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.

Question 13.
How are tanks constructed ?
Answer:
Tanks are constructed either by bunding or by excavating the ground and collecting rain water.

Question 14.
What activities have made matters serious ?
Answer:
Over use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides have made matters serious.

Question 15.
Why is water conservation necessary for agriculture ?
Answer:
Conservation of water is necessary for agriculture since water is necessary for the growth of plants.

Question 16.
How is the world tackling water problem ?
Answer:
The world is tackling water problem by harvesting and recharging water.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

4. Read the following passage.

I was taken as a prisoner of war in July 1917 to Colsterdale camp near Masham, and I didn’t want to stay there.

Then one day I had an idea – 1 would walk out through the gate disguised as our English canteen manager, Mr. Budd. So I started watching him as he left the camp every evening. I noticed that the sentries never asked him for the password. Everybody knew Mr. Budd too well for that.

I decided to travel as a woman as every male passenger in those war days had to produce a document when buying a railway ticket.

The day of the escape arrived and I approached the gate disguised as Mr. Budd. Mr. Budd used to leave the camp at about 8 pm, so I decided to leave at about ten mintues to eight. As the sentries were usually changed at eight o’clock sharp, I was sure that the new sentry would not be surprised to see the second and real Mr. Budd leaving the camp. So I walked to the gate smoking my pipe as if I were Mr. Budd after a day’s work at the canteen. I shouted ‘Guard!” as Mr. Budd did. The sentry called out, ‘Who’s there?’ ’Budd,’ I answered. ‘Right,’ he said and opened the big door.

(11 – 12) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 11.
The sentries never asked Mr. Budd for password because ( )
A) he always forgot it
B) he felt hurt if asked
C) Mr. Budd knew everyone
D) Everyone knew Mr. Budd
Answer:
D) Everyone knew Mr. Budd

Question 12.
The narrator decided to dress as a woman because ( )
A) he wanted to escape from jail
B) he wanted to look like Mr. Budd
C) he wanted to travel by train
D) he didnot want to miss the chance of escaping
Answer:
C) he wanted to travel by train

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.

Question 13.
Why did the narrator decide to leave the camp at ten minutes to eight ?
Answer:
The sentries would change at 8 o’clock sharp. They would not be surprised to see the real Mr. Budd as they would not know that the narrator had left in the disguise of Mr. Budd.

Question 14.
What previlege did the female passengers have ?
Answer:
The female passengers didnot have to produce documents while buying a train ticket.

Question 15.
How did the narrator imitate Mr. Budd ?
Answer:
The narrator smoked a pipe as Mr. Budd did. On reaching the gate, he shouted ‘Guard’ like Mr. Budd and answered ‘Budd’ as he did when asked for name.

Question 16.
Who was the narrator ?
Answer:
The narrator was a prisoner of war.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Section – B : Vocabulary & Grammar

Questions 17 – 21:

Read the following passage focussing on the parts that are underlined and answer the questions given at the end. Write the answers in your answer booklet.

5. Music is an incredible (17) means that people can use (18) to communicate things, especially their feelings and emotions. When added to speech (19) in a song, it become (201 a power (21) device of communication.

Question 17.
Choose the synonym of the word ( )
A) believable
B) belief
C) unbelievable
D) habit
Answer:
C) unbelievable

Question 18.
Choose the antonym of the word ( )
A) not use
B) misuse
C) useful
D) disuse
Answer:
B) misuse

Question 19.
Choose the verb form of the word. ( )
A) speak
B) speechless
C) verbal
D) non verbal
Answer:
A) speak

Question 20.
Choose the correct word ( )
A) became
B) had become
C) becoming
D) becomes
Answer:
D) becomes

Question 21.
Choose the correct form of the word ( )
A) powered
B) powerful
C) powering
D) no correction
Answer:
B) powerful

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

6. Aunt Polly was angry (17) and (18) she had to laugh. He’s a bad boy, she said to myself (19) but I must look after (20) him. I don’t like to hit him. But I have to. If I don’t punish (21) him, he will grow up lazy and wicked.

Question 17.
Choose the noun form of the word ( )
A) angrily
B) anger
C) angered
D) agony
Answer:
B) anger

Question 18.
Choose the correct conjunction ( )
A) because
B) as
C) but
D) if
Answer:
C) but

Question 19.
Choose the correct word ( )
A) herself
B) herselves
C) himself
D) oneself
Answer:
A) herself

Question 20.
Choose the meaning of the word ( )
A) see off
B) take care
C) allow
D) neglect
Answer:
B) take care

Question 21.
Choose the antonym ( )
A) praise
B) abuse
C) hit
D) reward
Answer:
D) reward

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Questions 22 – 26:

Complete the following passage choosing right words from those given below. Each blank is numbered, and for each blank four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given. Choose the correct answer and write in your answer booklet.

7. Arctic turn is a well known migratory bird that _________ (22) in the North Pole region _________ (23) winter when the area is full _________ (24) snow, this bird finds it difficult _________ (25) its food _________ (26) it travels towards the south pole.

Question 22.
A) lived
B) living
C) lives
D) will live
Answer:
C) lives

Question 23.
A) At
B) In
C) For
D) From
Answer:
B) In

Question 24.
A) of
B) in
C) without
D) along
Answer:
A) of

Question 25.
A) of getting
B) getting
C) got
D) to get
Answer:
D) to get

Question 26.
A) so
B) because
C) when
D) but
Answer:
A) so

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

8. Man is the only living being _________ (22) can talk to his fellow men. Some birds _________ (23) say words which they hear people say. Animals cannot _________ (24) but _________ (25) make sounds. These sounds _________ (26) made in throats.

Question 22.
A) who
B) which
C) that
D) whom
Answer:
A) who

Question 23.
A) can
B) cannot
C) will not
D) could
Answer:
A) can

Question 24.
A) talk
B) talking
C) talked
D) talks
Answer:
A) talk

Question 25.
A) can
B) could
C) will
D) would
Answer:
A) can

Question 26.
A) is
B) be
C) are
D) would
Answer:
C) are

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Questions 27 – 31:

Read the following passage. Each numbered sentence has an error. Find the error and write the correct answer in your answer booklet.

9. (27) I give you food for eat. (28) You also wearing clothes (29) made of cotton yet live in houses made of leaves, wood and bricks. (30) Long ago humans used to worshiping me as Goddess and (31) them used to care for me.
Answer:
27. food to eat
28. wear clothes
29. and live in
30. used to worship
31. they used to

10. (27) Take what happened for Tengal Kamal (28) on a rain evening (29) on August 1981. (30) Kamal a 25 years old farmer was working barefoot in his fields when (31) he suddenly felt a sharp sting on his right feet.
Answer:
27. happened to
28. a rainy evening
29. in August 1981
30. 25 year old
31. right foot

Section – C : Conventions of Writing

Question 32:

(Q. 32) Read the following passage carefully and supply punctuation marks (., ? ” “) and capital letters, wherever necessary. Also correct the spelling of the underlined word. 5 M

11. One evening a farmer brout with him a tiny mangoose its a baby mangoose said his wife but*will soon be fully groan. He will be a friend to our son.
Answer:
One evening, a farmer brought with him a tiny mangoose. “It’s a baby mangoose,” said his wife, “but will soon be fully grown. He will be a friend to our son.”

12. Prevention is better than cure is the principal we follow today, nearly twenty centuries ago a great man named Charaka in his famous ayurvedic treatise Charakasamhita made certain remarks related to human health.
Answer:
“Prevention is better than cure” is the principle we follow today. Nearly twenty centuries ago a great man named Charaka, in his famous Ayurvedic treatise, ‘Charakasamhita’ made certain remarks related to human health.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Question 33.

13. In the lesson’ Snakes In India’ you read that Tengal Kamal was bitten by a snake and was later taken to a large public hospital. Write a conversation between the doctor in the public hospital and Kamal. Use the following clues.

  • When it happened
  • What had exactly happened
  • What steps were taken
  • Information about blood transfusion
  • risk involved.

Answer:
Doctor : What is your name?
Kamal : Tenga! Kamal.
Doctor : How old are you?
Kamal : I am 25
Doctor : What had exactly happened?
Kamal : While I was working in my field, I felt a sharp sting on my right foot.
Doctor : What did you do then?
Kamal : I realized it was a snake bite. So, I immediately tied a rope above my knee and called my relative.
Doctor : Didn’t they take you to a doctor?
Kamal : They immediately called a taxi and took me to a local dispensary.
Doctor : Did they ? Why didn’t the doctor administer the anti-snake venom?
Kamal : He gave me some tablets but I felt terrible pain even after taking them.
Doctor : Unfortunately, they didnot help you. It is too late. You will have to get your blood transfused.
Kamal : Please save me doctor.
Doctor : I will try my best.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

(OR)
14. After reading the lesson “A Letter from Mother Earth” You must have realised how much man has polluted it. Write an essay on what we should do to save the earth.
Answer:

‘SAVE MOTHER EARTH’

Earth, the only planet which supports life, the planet which is 4.6 billion years old is on the verge of perishing due to the selfish actvities of humans. For centuries the Earth was pollution free and had a balanced ecology.

But times have changed, industrialization, urbanization and technological developments have long begun polluting it. They have polluted it to an extent that economists and scholars predict that it would soon be destroyed.

Deforestation, nuclear weapons, cellphone towers, chemical fertilizers and pesticides, domestic appliances all cause so much pollution that man has started facing the wealth of nature in the form of natural calamities like earth quakes, Tsunamies, cyclones etc.

If man wishes to survive he should save the earth.

“Child Is The Father of Man” The present generation should atleast be sensible and start taking corrective action. They should plant many trees to control global warming and condemn the use of nuclear weapons. Afforestation should be encouraged at every level in every place. Environment friendly appliances should be invented and eco friendly means of transport like bicycles or solar vehicles should be preferred. Solar energy should be used instead of thermal energy and natural fertilizers should replace chemical fertilizers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Question 34.

15. Prepare a poster on the topic Stop pollution – Save the Earth”.
Answer:

TS 7th Class English Guide 8C A Letter From Mother Earth 1

(OR)
16. Read the following conversation.
Ajay : May I speak to Varun?
Vijay : Well, Varun is not at home. May I know who is calling?
Ajay : I am Ajay, Varun’s classmate. I couldn’t attend school for a weak as I was ill. I want to know what happened at school during the week.
Vijay : I am Vijay, Varun’s brother. Varun has gone out on some work. I’ll inform him about your call.
Ajay : Thanks ! Please Ask him to call me once he is back.
Vijay : Ya, I’do that. Bye.
You are Vijay. Write a message for Varun.
Answer:

Message

Date: XX.XX.XXXX

Varun

Your friend Ajay called up at 11 : 30 a.m. He wanted to know what was taught at school last week. He said that he was ill and so couldn’t attend school last week. He wants you to call up without fail soon after you return.

Varun

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8B Trees

Telangana SCERT TS 7th Class English Study Material Pdf Unit 8B Trees Textbook Questions and Answers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8B Trees

Read the following poem :

Trees are the kindest Things I know,
They do no harm, they simply grow
And spread a shade for sleepy cows,
And gather birds among their boughs……….

They give us fruit in leaves above,
And wood to make our houses of,
And leaves to bum on Halloween
And in the Spring new buds of green.

They are the first when day’s begun
To touch the beams of morning sun,
They are the last to hold the light
When evening changes in to night,

And when a moon floats on the sky
They hum a drowsy lullaby
Of sleepy children long ago…..
Trees are the kindest things I Know. – Harry Behn

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8B Trees

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Who is ‘I’ in this poem ?
Answer:
The poet is ‘I’ in the poem.

Question 2.
What do trees give us ?
Answer:
The trees give shade for sleepy cows and shelter for birds.

Question 3.
What is the tree compared to in this poem ?
Answer:
The trees is compared to a kind mother. “And when a moon floats on the sky; They hum a drowsy lullaby; of sleepy children long ago” from these lines the tree is a kind mother.

Question 4.
What is the poet’s attitude towards trees ? Pick out lines or words that de¬scribe his attitude.
Answer:
The poet thinks that the trees are the kindest things he knows. From the words of the poem “They do no harm, they simply grow… We can conclude that the poet has a great consideration on trees.

Question 5.
Do you like trees ? Give reasons for your views.
Answer:
Yes, I like trees. They give us cool shade in hot summer. They give us fruits to eat. They give us their wood to construct our houses.

Question 6.
What is the most touching stanza in the poem ? Why do you think so ?
Answer:
The most touching stanza in the poem is “And when a moon floats on the sky”
They hum a drowsy lullaby.
Of sleepy children long ago
The above lines depict the tree as the mother who lulls her sleeping child. She is the kindest of all.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8B Trees

II. Try to write a parallel poem about an animal you like. You may follow the structure of the above poem and start like this :

Cows are the useful animals I know
They give us milk and dung, you know.
………………………………………………..
………………………………………………..
Answer:
They are worshipped as God,
They are useful to us for many ways good,
They eat grass
Yet, they serve us many ways.
Work hard is what a cow tells
A cow is a teacher always.

Project:

Collect the pictures of poisonous, and non-poisonous snakes. Collect related news items from newspapers and paste them on a chart. Make a presentation in the class. Later, display it on the wall magazine.
Answer:

Poisonous Snakes

King Cobra :

TS 7th Class English Guide 8B Trees 1

The King Cobra is a large and powerful snake. King Cobras skin is either olive-green, tan, or black and it has faint, pale yellow cross bands down the length of the body. The belly is cream or pale yellow and the scales are smooth. People treat King Cobra as God in India.

Indian Krait:

TS 7th Class English Guide 8B Trees 2

Found in most of the India. These are also called as Bungarus. These species contain neurotoxin venom that is 16 times more powerful than cobra venom. Krait venom is extremely powerful and quickly induces muscle paralysis.

Russell’s Viper :

TS 7th Class English Guide 8B Trees 3

Head of the Russell’s Viper is flattened, triangular also distinct from the neck. The snout of the Viper is blunt, raised and rounded.

Most considerable thing about this snake is the amount of venoun produced by it. The symptoms of the bite are pain at the bite, immediately followed by swelling of the affected extremity. There is a drop in blood pressure and the heart rate falls.

Non Poisonous Snakes

TS 7th Class English Guide 8B Trees 4

A Young Rat Snake is around 1.5 feet long and is a non venomous snake. It bites, but does not have any venom. It is named Rat Snake because that is what it feeds on.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8B Trees

Trees Summary in English

Trees are the kindest of all because they don’t harm us but give shelter to cows and birds in their shade. They give us fruit, wood, leaves and green buds in spring. They are the first and the last to hold the light of the sun.

Glossary:

boughs (n) = branches (literary use)
Usage: The Banyan tree’s boughs are widely spread.
halloween (n) = the night of 31 October when children dress in special clothes and people try to frighten each other
beams (n) = rays
Usage: The Sim’s beams reflect on river water.
drowsy (adj) = sleepy
Usage: He was drowsy in the class.
lullaby (n) = a song we sing to help a child fall asleep.
Usage: Her teaching is like a lullaby to the students.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Telangana SCERT TS 7th Class English Study Material Pdf Unit 8A Snakes in India Textbook Questions and Answers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow :

GARDEN SNAKE

I saw a snake and ran away…
Some snakes are dangerous, they say;
But mother says, that kind is good,
And eats up insects for his food.
So when he wiggles in the grass
I’ll stand aside and watch his pass
And tell myself, “There is no mistake,
It’s just a harmless garden snake.”

Question 1.
Where do you normally find snakes ?
Answer:
Generally, I find snakes in thorny bushes, rocky areas in our gardens. I have seen snakes many times.

Question 2.
Name the snakes that you know.
Answer:
Cobra, Krait, Russell’s viper and Python.

Question 3.
In what way(s) are snakes useful ?
Answer:
Snakes eat rats who spoil the plants in the fields and paddy in our granaries. So, in this way snakes are useful for us.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Oral Discourse:

Talk on – Talk about your reaction when you see a snake.
Answer:
If I see a snake, I will be very scared. If I see the snake in our house, I will hide behind
my mother. If there is no one else at home I don’t provoke it. I keep calm and try to be in a safe place. If I am outside on the road or in the park, I will look for a safe place and hide there. I will even alert others about the presence of a snake.

Comprehension:

I. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Why do many people die of snakebite ?
Answer:
Many people die of snakebite because of widespread ignorance about snakes and snake bite prevention. Moreover proper medical treatment is often delayed or unobtainable.

Question 2.
If 100 people died in a year in India, how many people may have died in the rest of the world ?
Answer:
If 100 people died in a year because of snake bite in India, 50 people may have died in the rest of the world.

Question 3.
What opinion do you form about the first doctor who treated Kamal ?
Answer:
The doctor was not a fully qualified allopathic practitioner and didn’t know about antivenin serum or how to administer it.

Question 4.
What does a Russell’s Viper do when provoked ?
Answer:
When a Russell’s Viper is provoked, it injects a large amount of venom.

Question 5.
What is the death-dealing quartet ?
Answer:
The death dealing quartet is the set of Russell’s viper, sawscaled viper, Indian cobra and common krait.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Question 6.
What are the poisonous and non-poisonous snakes ?
Answer:
Russell’s viper, Cobra, Common Krait are the poisonous snakes. Brown water snake, mud snake, green snake, Indian rock python are non-poisonous snakes.

Question 7.
What is the writer’s opinion about snakes ?
Answer:
All snakes are not poisonous. A few snakes are poisonous. The rest of them are non-poisonous. We must take care when we go out in the dark. We should follow some precautionary methods to avoid snake bite. The snakes unnecessarily bite humans, if they are not provoked.

Question 8.
What are people’s misconceptions about snakes ?
Answer:
People’s misconceptions about snakes are
a) all the snakes try to kill us.
b) the snakes skin is cold and slimy.
c) they try to take revenge.
d) they are very fast.
e) a snake – bite person can be cured by mantras.
f) snakes are aggressive and they chase people.

Question 9.
What precautions should we take if we want to lessen the risk of snake bite?
Answer:
If we want to lessen the risk of snake bite, we must wear shoes and long trousers when walking through high grass and undergrowth. We have to carry a lantern or a torch when we venture out at night.

Question 10.
If you had been in Kamal’s position, what would you have done ?
Answer:
If I had been in Kamal’s position, I would have tied a rope just above my knee and cut the skin with blade and allow bleeding the poisonous blood. Later I would have gone to better hospital for treatment.

Question 11.
Why do you think some people worship cobras even though they are poisonous and very harmful ?
Answer:
Some people feel that they are the incarnation of Gods. Because of their blind beliefs, they worship them even though they are poisonous and very harmful. There is another side to this aspect. All the animals are part and parcel of God’s creation. They are essential to maintain ecological balance. We should not kill them indiscriminately. So, to maintain ecological balance in nature, we worship these snakes.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Vocabulary:

I. Fill in the blanks with words given below :

TS 7th Class English Guide 8A Snakes in India 1

Sometimes cyclones _________ (1) in the ocean. _________ (2) to our opinion fishermen are never _________ (3) that it is dangerous to _________ (4) into the ocean during the cyclones. They _________ (5) the same mistake and lose their precious lives.
Answer:
1 – occur
2 – Contrary
3 – convinced
4 – venture
5 – repeat

II. Look at the following words from the text: 1. precaution 2. dangerous

The word ‘precaution’ consists of two parts – ‘pre’ and ‘caution’ (prefix + root).
The word ‘dangerous’ consists of two parts ‘danger’ and ‘-ous’ (root + suffix)

Add appropriate prefixes / suffixes to the following roots to make new words. The first one is done for you.

TS 7th Class English Guide 8A Snakes in India 2

Answer:

TS 7th Class English Guide 8A Snakes in India 3

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Fill in the blanks in the following sentences with suitable forms (after adding a prefix/suffix) of the words in brackets.

Question 1.
He was acting in a very _________ way. (child)
Answer:
childish

Question 2.
This word is very difficult to spell, and even worse, it’s _________. (pronounce)
Answer:
pronunciation

Question 3.
You shouldn’t have done that! It was very _________ of you. (think)
Answer:
unthinkable

Question 4.
He didn’t pass his exam. He was _________ in the second attempt, (succeed)
Answer:
successful

Question 5.
Some of the Indian cities are dreadfully _________ . (crowd)
Answer:
over crowded

Question 6.
The team won the _________ . (champion)
Answer:
championship

Question 7.
There is a very high _________ that they will be late. (likely)
Answer:
likelihood

Question 8.
I couldn’t find any _________ in his theory. (weak)
Answer:
weakness

Question 9.
There was a three-hour _________ because of the strike. (stop)
Answer:
stoppage

Question 10.
You need a _________ of motivation, organization and revision to learn English. (combine)
Answer:
combination

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Grammar:

I. Read the following sentences.

1. The snakes move around as long as they have rats to feed on.
2. He told him to rest at home until the pain subsides.

  • ‘ Until’ refers to a point of time or ah event.
  • ‘As long as’ refers to a period of time (duration) over which an activity lasts.

Fill in the blanks with ‘until’ or ‘as long as’.

Question 1.
Kamal went on playing foot ball ___________ there was light.
Answer:
as long as

Question 2.
We went on watching TV ___________ 10 p.m.
Answer:
until

Question 3.
The cricket match continued ___________ the rain stopped it.
Answer:
until

Question 4.
You should go on taking this medicine ___________ you have the pain.
Answer:
as long as

Question 5.
Do not wait ___________ luck knocks at your door. If you start work, you will get lucky.
Answer:
until

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

II. Look at the following sentences from the text.

1. Kamal (1) examined his foot. (2)
2. It (1) was a snake-bite. (2)

Normally all sentences have a subject and a predicate. In the above sentences, the first part is called the subject and the second part is called the predicate. The subject is usually a noun or a pronoun. It gives information about the doer of the action. The predicate gives information about the subject. You will notice sometime there may be sentences that may not have a subject as in ‘Shut the door.’ Here, the subject should be taken as ‘you.’

Now observe some more examples :

1. Nagamani (1) came. (2)
2. She (1) taught a wonderful lesson (2)
3. A number of students (1) liked it. (2)

The subjects in these sentences are a noun, a pronoun, and a noun phrase respectively. So the subject of a sentence can be a noun, a pronoun, or a noun phrase.

The predicate in the first sentence consists of a single word, which is a verb. In sentences 2 and 3, the predicate consists of more than one word but it has essentially a verb. So, the predicate can consist of one or more words but it must contain a verb.

Now read the following sentences and pick out the subject and the predicate in each sentence. The first one is done for you.

(1) Poisonous snakes are very dangerous.
(2) Cobra is poisonous snake.
(3) Many people die of snake bite.
(4) Some snakes are timid and harmless.
(5) Doctors can save snake bite victims.
(6) We should be cautious of poisonous snakes.

TS 7th Class English Guide 8A Snakes in India 4

Answer:

Subject Predicate
1. Poisonous snakes are very dangerous
2. Cobra is a poisonous snake
3. Many people die of snake bite
4. Some snakes are timid and harmless
5. Doctors can save snake bite victims
6. We should be cautious of poisonous snakes

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Editing:

Editing – Read the following passage. Every numbered sentence has an error.Identify and edit it.

(1) Mr.Narayan Rao slowly bent and sit in his armed chair. (2) He leaned back removing his spectacle. (3) He said, “Koushik, can you bring down my old box from the upper shelf in me bedroom?” The boy mounted a chair as quick as a lizard and brought the box down. (4) “What do it contain?” he murmured and tried to open it. (5) His sister snatched it on his hands and ran away.
Answer:
1. and sat in his armed chair
2. removing his spectacles
3. in my bed room
4. What does it contain?
5. from his hands

Writing:

I. Prepare a poster giving a list of Dos and Don’ts when a snake bites. Here are two Dos and two Don’ts.

Dos :
Keep the person calm.
Keep the affected area below the heart level to reduce the flow of venom towards other parts of the body.

Don’ts :
Don’t let the person move at all.
Do not wait to see if the bite causes any problems. Treat it straight away.

Answer:

TS 7th Class English Guide 8A Snakes in India 5

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Study Skills:

Study the bar-chart and answer the following questions :

Month-wise distribution of 1379 snake bite incidences during the period 1999-2003.

TS 7th Class English Guide 8A Snakes in India 6

Source : Department of Bio chemistry, University College of Science, Osmania University, Hyderabad.

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
What is this bar-chart about ?
Answer:
Percentage of snake bites during the period 1999-2003.

Question 2.
Which months record the highest number of snakebite cases ?
Answer:
June and July months record the highest number of snakebite cases.

Question 3.
The lowest percent of snakebite cases occurred in
Answer:
The lowest percent of snakebite cases occurred in January and December.

Question 4.
In which month did 8% of snakebites occur ?
Answer:
8% snakebites occurred in the months of May and November.

Question 5.
What is the average percentage of snakebites in T.S. per month ?
Answer:
The average percentage of snake bites in T.S. is 8.3% per month.

Question 6.
What other inferences can you draw from this chart ?
Answer:
The occurrence of snakebite is high during June, July and August months,that is monsoon season.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Listening and Speaking:

The Farmer and the Cobra

At the far end of the village lived a poor farmer. He lived in a small hut, in the middle of a small piece of land. Years before, when he had come to live in the village, people had tried to be friendly – but the farmer was a strange man. He did not talk much to the people. Soon they went about doing their own work and left him to himself.

Near the farmer’s hut was an old tree. The tree had a hole, and in the hole lived a cobra. When the days were hot, the cobra would come out of its hole and coil itself up in the shade of the tree. The farmer sat on the groung near by until the sun had set and he would then return to his house.

One day, the man who owned the place came to the farmer and said to him, “I must have firewood for my home. I want you to cut down the tree. Tomorrow I will ask a man to come and help you with the cutting.” And then the land owner left. The farmer watched him as he disappeared down the road.

The farmer stood there thinking. His tree was to go – his tree which gave him shade and comfort! And the cobra ? Yes, what about the cobra ? It the tree were cutdown, he would lose more than shade. He would lose the cobra too, his friend of the summer days.

The farmer sat on the ground in the cool shade of the tree to think. Near the opening of the hole, the cobra lay coiled and the two remained in complete stillness. The sun set, but the man did not return to his house. The cobra sank into its coils as if it understood the great trouble of its friend. The next day, a man came to the farmer’s hut. “I’ve been sent by the land owner to help you cut down the trees, he said.” “Well,” the farmer said sadly, “if it must be so, let’s begin.”

They walked from the hut towards the tree, the farmer stopped suddenely and his heart sank. In front of its hole lay the cobra, cold and dead.

Your teacher will read the story ‘The Farmer and the Cobra’ Listen to your teacher and answer the questions given below.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

I. Say whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
The farmer returned home in the afternoon. [ ]
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The owner of the tree wanted to have the tree to construct a house. [ ]
Answer:
False

Question 3.
The farmer did not like the tree to be cut down. [ ]
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The farmer died when the tree was cut down. [ ]
Answer:
False

Question 5.
The cobra died in front of its hole. [ ]
Answer:
True

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

II. Listen to the story and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Why did the people leave the farmer to himself ?
Answer:
The people tried to be friendly with the farmer but he was a strange man. He did not talk much to the people. So, the people left the farmer to himself.

Question 2.
Did the farmer talk to the cobra ? Why did he refer to the cobra as a friend ?
Answer:
No, the farmer didn’t talk to the cobra. Both the farmer and the cobra took rest under the shade of the tree when the days were hot. They spent the time there until the sunset. So, he treated it as his friend.

Question 3.
What kind of a man was the farmer? Support your answer.
Answer:
The farmer was a kind hearted man. He had great consideration about the snake. When the land owner wanted to cut off the tree for firewood, the farmer thought about cobra’s shelter. He felt very sad about it.

III. Work in groups and discuss the following:

Question 1.
If you were the farmer, would you feel sorry for the cobra?
Answer:
If I were the farmer, I would feel sorry for the cobra, because, afterall they are also creatures like us.

Question 2.
Would you like to make friends with a cobra as the farmer did? Why?
Answer:
I wouldn’t like to make friendship with a cobra as the farmer did because it is a poisonous creature. At any time a danger will fall on me because of snake.

Question 3.
Do you think the farmer is really a peculiar person? Do you find any person of this kind in your locality? Share your ideas with your friends.
Answer:
Yes. I think the farmer is really a peculiar person. If he had not been a peculiar person, he would have talked to the villagers and he would not have treated the cobra as his friend. I’ve never found such type of person in our locality.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

IV. Imagine that you are a reporter of a local television channel. You want to cover the celebration of “Nagula Chavithi” in your area. One of you can act as a TV reporter and some of you can act as devotees. (Compering)
Answer:
Swathi : Hai everybody. I’m Swathi, a news reporter in D-channel. Today
(D-channel our team has come to cover a great festival Nagula Chavithi. Let’s Reporter) go and ask those devotees. Hai!
Devotee-I : Hai!
Swathi : You seem different today. What’s the special today ?
Devotee-I : Today is Nagula Chavithi, I’m going to offer milk in an ant – hill (pamula putta).
Swathi : Won’t you be afraid of poisonous snakes ?
Devotee-I : We treat snakes as the incarnation of God Subrahmanya. So, we don’t worry about it.
Swathi : Here comes another devotee. Let’s ask. Hai!
Devotee-II : Hai!
Swathi : Where are you from ?
Devotee-II : I am coming from an ant – hill. As it is Nagula Chavithi I have offered milk in the ant – hill.
Swathi : Will you tell me what do you today?
Devotee-II : We will be on fast the whole day and offer pooja to Subrahmanye- swara in the form of snake. The next day we take meal. We follow all these things very strictly. We maintain utmost piousness.
Swathi : Can you say is there any other inner meaning to follow all these things ?
Devotee-II : Actually, snakes are needed to maintain ecological balance. Unless there are snakes, the population of rats increase and destroy crops. The inner idea of Nagula Chaviti is to care and respect all creatures. No creature is less important.
Swathi : Bye!.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Snakes in India Summary in English

Of all the dangerous animals in the Indian sub continent, snakes are most dangerous. Many people are dying because of their ignorance of preventive measures against snakes or unavailability of medical help.

Tengal Kamal, a young man belonging to Gorgaon was bitten by a snake while working bare-footed in his field. He tied a rope above his knee and he was rushed to a local dispensary. As the doctor was not qualified, he gave pain-killer and antibiotic tablets. Later he was treated in a hospital in Mumbai. Anti-venom injections were given to him many times and blood-transfusion was done 15 times. He was discharged after fifteen days.

Only 50 out of 200 species of snakes are venomous. Russell’s viper, Saw-scaled viper, Indian Cobra and Krait are most venomous. They usually live in villages. Russell’s viper lives in North Indian fields whereas Cobra and Viper live in South India. One can identify a Cobra by its spectacles. Cobra lives underground or between logs and eat frogs and rats.

Snakes are timid. They move during nights only. They don’t attack people unless they are stepped on or provoked. The venom of the Krait is more toxic. One has to wear chappals and pants and carry light during nights. One has to walk tapping the ground with a stick. The surroundings should be rat-free.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Glossary:

ignorance (n) = lack of knowledge or information about something
Usage: Ignorance is the root cause of all evils in life.

convinced (v) = completely sure about
Usage: I am convinced of her sincere efforts in learning music.

giddy (adj) = feeling that everything is moving and that you are going to fall
Usage: He felt giddy.

unbearable (adj) = too painful, annoyingly unpleasant
Usage: I have got unbearable head ache.

reasonable (adj) = acceptable
Usage: The management conceded all the reasonable demands.

toxic (adj) = containing poison, poisonous
Usage: We become toxic when stung by a poisonous creature.

nocturnal (adj) = active only during the night
Usage: The bat is a nocturnal creature.

frequently = often
Usage: I frequently visit my native place.

estimate = evaluate
Usage: My estimation in this regard is correct.

survive = live after
Usage: Those who survived during the floods were given shelter.

subsides = reduces
Usage: Pain subsides when we use pain-killers.

venomous (adj) = poisonous
Usage: There are so many venomous snakes are around our house.

prevention (n) = action of preventing
Usage: Prevention is better than cure.

agony (n) = severe mental pain
Usage: The wounded man was in agony.

hastily (adv) = quickly
Usage: He speaks hastily.

dispensary (n) = a place where the medicine are given to the sick;
Usage: Mother Teresa ran so many dispensaries in Kolkatta.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

transfusion (n) = act or process of putting one person’s blood into another person’s body
Usage: The injured man is in need of transfusion.

glisten (v) = shine brightly
Usage: Grass glisten with dew drops.

lessen (v) = reduce
Usage: Antibiotic lessens the infection in the body.

venture (n) = an adventurous project; ready to face dangerous or unpleasant results
Usage: The mountaineers ventured the expedition.

slither (v) = slide or slip unsteadily
Usage: We slithered down on icy slope.

perceive (v) = become aware of; notice; observe
Usage: I perceived a change in his behaviour.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Students get through AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions 1st Lesson The Living World which are most likely to be asked in the exam.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions 1st Lesson The Living World

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What does ICBN stand for? [TS M-22] [AP May 19]
Answer:
ICBN stands for International Code for Botanical Nomenclature.

Question 2.
What is flora? [ TS M 15]
Answer:
Flora is the actual account of habitat, distribution and systematic listing of plants of a given area.

Question 3.
Define metabolism. What is the difference between anabolism and catabolism?
Answer:
Metabolism is the sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring in the body of an organism.

Anabolism Catabolism
1) It is a constructive metabolic process.
2)   Here, complex molecules are formed from simpler molecules by Photosynthesis.
1) It is a destructive metabolic process.
2) Here, complex molecules are broken down into simpler molecules by respiration.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World
Question 4.
Which is the largest botanical garden in the World? Name a few well known botanical gardens in India. [TS M 49]
Answer:

  1. Royal Botanical Garden(RBG) at Kew(England) is the Largest Botanical garden in the World.
  2. Well-known botanical gardens in India:
    (i) Indian Botanical Garden, Howrah (Kolkata)
    (ii) National Botanical Research Institute, Lucknow.

Question 5.
Define the terms ’couplet* and ‘lead* in taxonomic key. [AP & TS M-16, APM-15]
Answer:

  1. Couplet: The keys based on the contrasting characters in a pair are called couplet.
  2. Lead; Each statement in the key is called a lead.

Question 6.
What is meant by manuals and monographs? [APM-17]
Answer:

  1. Manual is a small book designed for ready reference. It provides information for identification of names of species found in an area.
  2. Monograph is a specialist book written on a single (any one) taxon.

Question 7.
What is systematics?
Answer:

  1. Systematics is the study of different kinds of organisms, their diversities and also relationship among them.
  2. The word systematics is derived from the Latin word systema which means systematic arrangement of organisms.

Question 8.
Why are living organisms classified?
Answer:

  1. There exists vast number of organisms which differ very greatly in their form, structure and mode of life.
  2. In order to study these vast number of organisms easily, they are classified into various groups.

Question 9.
What is the basic unit of classification? Define it.[TS M-20]jAP M -17,2022]
Answer:

  1. Species is the basic unit of classification.
  2. Species is a group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities.

Question 10.
Give the scientific name of Mango. Identify the generic name and specific epithet.
Answer:

  1. The scientific name of mango is Mangifera indica. [TS Mar-17]
  2. Its generic name is Mangifera and its specific epithet is indica.

Question 11.
What is growth? What is the difference between the growth in living organisms and growth in non-living objects?
Answer:

  1. Growth is a permanent and irreversible increase in the size & dry weight of a living organism.
  2. The growth in living organisms occurs by cell division; where as growth is non-living objects occurs by the accumulation of materials. Ex: Mountains, boulders.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by identification and nomenclature? How is a key helpful in the identification and classification of an organism?
Answer:
Identification: The determination of a collected organism whether is entirely new or already known, is called Identification.

Nomenclature: Providing a universal scientific name to an identified organism is called Nomenclature.

  1. Key is a taxonomical aid used for identification of plants and animals based on the similarities and dissimilarities.
  2. The keys based on the contrasting characters generally in a pair are called couplets.
  3. It represents the choice made between two opposite options. This results in acceptance of only one and rejection of the other.
  4. Each statement in the key is called a lead.
  5. In plants, identification can be done by directly comparing the characters with an authentic herbarium specimen or indirectly with the help of keys in floras.
  6. Separate taxonomic keys are required for each taxonomic category such as family, genus and species for identification purposes.

Question 2.
What are taxonomical aids? Give the importance of herbaria and museums.
Answer:
Taxonomical aids are the collection of actual specimens of plant and animal species.
These are used to preserve information regarding various species.
Ex: Herbarium, Botanical gardens, Zoological parks and Museums.
Herbarium is a store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets.

  1. These sheets are arranged according to a universally accepted system of classification.
  2. These specimens, along with their descriptions become a store house for future use.
  3. The herbarium sheets carry a label providing information about the date and place of collection, local and botanical names, family, collector’s name etc.
  4. Herbaria also serve as quick referral systems in taxonomical studies.

Museum:

  1. Museums have collection of preserved plant and animal specimens for study and research.
  2. These are established in educational institutes such as schools and colleges.
  3. Specimens are preserved in the containers or jars in preservative solutions.
  4. Plant and animal specimens may also be preserved as dry specimens.

Question 3.
Define a taxon. Give some examples of taxa at different hierarchial levels.
Answer:

  1. Taxon is a unit or category in a taxonomic system.
  2. Classification involves hierarchy of steps in which each step represents a rank or category.
  3. All categories together constitute the taxonomic hierarchy.
    Taxon Examples
    Kingdom
    Plantae, Animalia
    Division
    Spermatophyta, Bryophyta, Thallophyta
    Class
    Dicotyledonae, Monocotyledonae
    Order
    Sapindales, Poales
    Family
    Anacardiaceae, Poaceae
    Genus
    Mangifera, Triticum
    Species indica, vulgare

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 4.
How are botanical gardens useful in conserving biodiversity? Define the terms Flora, manuals, monographs and catalogues.
Answer:

  1. Botanical gardens are the specialised gardens having collection of plants for scientific study, public education and recreation.
  2. Each plant is labelled with its common, botanical names and its family.
  3. They are provided with suitable soil and environmental conditions for growing the rate, endangered and endemic plant species. Hence, they are useful in conserving biodiversity.
  4. Flora is a book containing the actual account of habitat, distribution and systematic listing of plants of a given area.
  5. Manual is a small book specially designed for ready reference for identification of names of plant species of an area.
  6. Monograph is a specialist book written on a single (any one) taxon.
  7. Catalogue is a book useful for correct identification of plants.

Question 5.
Explain binomial nomenclature. [TS M 22]
Answer:
1) Binomial nomenclature: The system which provides a correct scientific name for a plant with two components is called binomial nomenclature.

2) The first one is generic name and second one is specific name (epithet).

3) Universal rules:

  1. The scientific name should be in Latin and must be underlined or printed in Italics.
  2. The generic name starts with a capital letter.
  3. The specific name starts with a small letter.
  4. Ex: The scientific name of ‘Brinjal’ is Solanum melongena.
  5. In this, Solanum is the name of the genus and melongena is the name of its species.
  6. Name of the author (the scientist who gave that name) may be written at the end.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by ‘living’? Give a detailed account of any four defining features of life forms.
Answer:
The meaning of ‘living’ refers to the distinctive characters exhibited by living organisms like growth, reproduction, metabolism, ability to sense environment (consciousness), ability to self- replicate, interaction and emergence.

Defining features of life forms:
1) Metabolism:

  1. All living organisms are made of chemicals of different sizes and functions. They are constantly being made and changed into some other biomolecules. These conversions are called metabolic reactions.
  2. Thus, the ‘sum total’ of all chemical reactions occurring in the body is called metabolism.
  3. All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit metabolism.

2) Consciousness:

  1. All living organisms are able to sense their surroundings.
  2. They respond to the environmental stimuli which may be physical, chemical or biological.
  3. Plants respond to external factors like light, water, temperature etc.
  4. Human being is the only one who is aware of himself i.e., has self consciousness.

3) Interactions:

  1. All living phenomena arise due to underlying interactions.
  2. Properties of tissues are due to the result of interactions among the cells.
  3. Properties of cellular organelles are not present in the molecular components comprising the organelle. Such under lying molecular interactions are also apparent in macro molecules such as starch.
  4. These interactions result in emergent properties of a higher level of organisation.

4) Reproduction:

  1. Reproduction refers to the production of progeny, possessing features more or less similar to those of parents.
  2. It is a characteristic feature of living organisms which is not found in non-living things.
  3. Organisms generally reproduce by sexual and asexual means.
  4. Fungi multiply and spread easily due to the production of a millions of asexual spores.
  5. In lower organisms like Yeast and Hydra, budding is observed.
  6. In unicellular forms like bacteria, amoeba and some unicellular algae, reproduction is synonymous with growth i.e., both refer to increase in the number of individuals.
  7. Certain organisms like mules, worker honeybees, infertile human couples do not reproduce.

Question 2.
Define the following terms with examples
(i) Class (ii) Family (iii) Order (iv) Genus (v) Division
Answer:
i) Class: A group of related orders constitutes class.
Ex: The class Dicotyledonae consists of oders like Mavales, Rosales, Polemoniales etc.

ii) Family: A group of related Genera is called family. Families are characterised on the basis both vegetative and reproductive features.
Ex: The family Soalnaceae consists of three different genera; Solanum, Nicotiana and Datura

iii) Order: Order is the assemblage of families which exhibit a few similar characters. The similar characters are less in number as compared to different genera included in a family. Ex:The order polemoniales based on the floral characters consists of Plant families like Cortvolvulaceae, Solanaceae.

iv) Genus: Genus is an aggregate of closely related species.
Ex: Genus Solanum consists of potato and brinjal.

v) Division (or) Phylum: A group of related classes is called Division.
Ex: The division spermatophyta consists of Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae with a few similar characters.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Exercise

Question 1.
Some of the properties of tissues are not constituents of their cells. Give two examples to support the statement.
Answer:
Some properties of tissues are not found in the constituent cells. They arise due to the interaction among the cells of which they are made of.
Examples:

  1. The properties of cellular organelles do not occur in molecular constituents of organelles.
  2. Collenchyma is a living mechanical tissue which provides tensile mechanical strength. But Sclerenchyma is a dead tissue, which is purely mechanical in function.

Question 2.
What do we learn from identification of individuals and populations?
Answer:

  1. Identification helps us to determine whether a collected plant is entirely new or already known.
  2. Identification is useful in agriculture, forestry to know our bioresources and their biodiversity.
  3. We can learn the scientific name and correct description from the identification of individuals.

Question 3.
Given below is the scientific name of Mango. Identify the correctly written name.
Mangifera Indica
Mangifera indica
Answer:
Mangifera indica (Because the scientific name should start with small letter ‘i’.)

Question 4.
Can you identify the correct sequence of taxonomicai categories?
a) Species, Order, Division, Kingdom
b) Genus, Species, Order, Kingdom
c) Species, Genus, Order, Phylum
Answer:
(c) Species, Genus, Order, Phylum

Question 5.
Define the following terms:
(i) Species (ii) Class (iii) Family (iv) Order (v) Genus
Answer:
i) Species: The species is a group ofindividual organisms with fundamental similarities.

ii) Class : A group of related orders constitutes class.

iii) Genus: It is an aggregate of closely related species. Among plants, potato and brinjal are two different species, but belong to the genus Solanum.

iv) Family: A group of related Genera is called family.

v) Order: Order is the assemblage of families which exhibit a few similar characters. vfiGenus: Genus is an aggregate of closely related species.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 6.
Illustrate the taxonomicai hierarchy with suitable examples of a plant.
Answer:
Taxonomicai hierarchy is the arrangement of organisms in a definite sequence of categories. In descending order, organisms are arranged from kingdom to species, where as in ascending order from species to kingdom.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World 1

Question 7.
What are the distinctive characteristics exhibited by living organisms? Describe them in brief.
Answer:
The distinctive characters exhibited by living organisms are growth, reproduction, consciousness, metabolism, interaction and emergence.
1) Growth: In plants growth is by cell division. It occurs continuously throughout their life span. In animals, growth is seen only upto a certain age. Unicellular organisms also grow in size until they divide by cell division. Cell division occurs in certain tissues to replace lost cells.

2) Reproduction: Production of progeny possessing similar features to those of parents is called reproduction. It may be by vegetative, asexual and sexual methods.

3) Consciousness: All living organisms have the ability to sense their surroundings. This response is called irritability. Plants respond to external factors like light, temperature, water, pollutants etc. All living organisms are aware of their surroundings and this is called consciousness.

4) Metabolism: The sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring in the body of a living organism is called metabolism.

Question 8.
Life forms exhibit ‘unity in diversity’ – Discuss with your teacher.
Answer:
1) We see a large variety of living organisms around us such as potted plants, insects, birds, pets or other animals and plants. There are also several organisms that we cannot see with our naked eye.

2) If we were to increase the area that we make observations, the range and variety of organ¬isms would also increase. If we were to visit a dense forest, we would probably see a much greater number and kinds of living organisms in it.

3) Each different kind of plant, animal or any organism represents a species. The number of species that are known and described ranges between 1.7-1.8 million.

4) This refers to biodiversity or the number and types of organisms present on earth.

Question 9.
List out the principles followed to provide scientific names for newly found organism?
Answer:
Universal rules to provide scientific names for newly found organism:

  1. For a newly found organism there should be one specific scientific name.
  2. The scientific name should be in Latin and must be underlined or printed in Italics.
  3. The generic name starts with a capital letter.
  4. The specific name starts with a small letter.
  5. Name of the author( the scientist who gave that name) may be written at the end.
  6. Ex: The scientific name of ‘Brinjal’ is Solanum melongena.
  7. In this, Solanum is the name of the genus and melongena is the name of its species.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Father of Botany is
1) Aristotle
2) Leeuwenhoek
3) Theophrastus
4) Linnaeus
Answer:
3) Theophrastus

Question 2.
A defining characteristic of living organisms is
1) Growth
2) Reproduction
3) Fragmentation
4) Response to external stimuli
Answer:
4) Response to external stimuli

Question 3.
The response to ‘environmental stimuli’ is called
1) Metabolism
2) Irritability
3) Chemical reaction
4) Consciousness
Answer:
2) Irritability

Question 4.
Which feature(s) cannot be taken as defining properties of living organisms
1) Metabolism
2) Growth
3) Reproduction
4) 2&3
Answer:
4) 2&3

Question 5.
All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit
1) Self-consciousness
2) Metabolism
3) Sexual reproduction
4) Asexual reproduction
Answer:
2) Metabolism

Question 6.
Metabolic reaction involves
1) Synthesis ofbiomolecules only
2) Breakdown of some biomolecules only
3) All physical changes which occur in objects around us
4) All chemical reactions which occur inside an organism
Answer:
4) All chemical reactions which occur inside an organism

Question 7.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding reproduction
1) Unicellular organisms reproduce by cell division
2) Reproduction is a characteristic of all living organisms
3) In unicellular organisms, reproduction and growth are linked together
4) Non – living objects are incapable of reproducing
Answer:
2) Reproduction is a characteristic of all living organisms

Question 8.
Identify the organism which do not show the reproduction
1) Yeast
2) Sterile worker bee
3) Amoeba
4) Fertile human couple
Answer:
2) Sterile worker bee

Question 9.
In plants, cell growth occurs……whereas in animals, it occurs
1) only upto a certain age, continuously
2) continuously, only upto a certain age
3) continuously in both
4) only upto a certain age in both
Answer:
2) continuously, only upto a certain age

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 10.
Number of species that are known and described lie between
1) 1.2 —1.3 million
2) 1.7 -1.8 billion
3) 1.2-1.3 billion
4) 1.7-1.8 million
Answer:
4) 1.7-1.8 million

Question 11.
The first step in taxonomy is
1) Nomenclature
2) Identification
3) Description
4) Classification
Answer:
2) Identification

Question 12.
ICBN stands for
1) International code of Botanical Nomenclature
2) International Congress of Biological Names.
3) Indian code of Botanical Nomenclature
4) Indian Congress of Biological Names
Answer:
1) International code of Botanical Nomenclature

Question 13.
Phylogenetic system of classification is based on
1) morphological features
2) chemical constituents
3) floral characters
4) evolutionary relationships
Answer:
4) evolutionary relationships

Question 14.
Which one of the following is not universal rule of nomenclature?
1) Biological names are printed in italics, irrespective of their origin
2) First word represents genus while the second component denotes specific epithet
3) Both the words when handwritten, are separately underlined
4) The first word and specific epithet starts with a capital letter
Answer:
4) The first word and specific epithet starts with a capital letter

Question 15.
The term ‘Systematics’ refers to
1) Identification and study of organ systems
2) Identification and preservation of plants and animals
3) Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relation ship
4) Study of habitats of organisms and their classification
Answer:
3) Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relation ship

Question 16.
A taxonomic category refers to
1) The basic unit of classification
2) A rank or level in a taxonomic hierarchy
3) Group of related organisms able to interbreed
4) A group of related organisms but unable to interbreed
Answer:
2) A rank or level in a taxonomic hierarchy

Question 17.
Each category found in taxonomic hierarchy is known as
1) Genus
2) Family
3) Species
4) Taxon
Answer:
4) Taxon

Question 18.
The fundamental taxonomic category or basic unit of classification is
1) Genus
2) Species
3) Sub-species
4) Variety
Answer:
2) Species

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 19.
The highest taxon in taxonomic hierarchy is
1) Species
2) Genus
3) Order
4) Kingdom
Answer:
4) Kingdom

Question 20.
Genus represents
1) An individual plant or animal
2) A collection of plants or animals
3) Group of related species of plants or animals
4) A group of plants in a given area
Answer:
3) Group of related species of plants or animals

Question 21.
In a taxonomic hierarchy, family is interpolated between
1) kingdom and class
2) class and order
3) order and genus
4) class and genus
Answer:
3) order and genus

Question 22.
The taxon which includes related families is
1) class
2) phylum
3) order
4) genus
Answer:
3) order

Question 23.
Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic categories.
1) Species → phylum → order → kingdom
2) Genus → Species → Order → kingdom
3) Species → Genus → Order → Class
4) Division → Family → Order → Genus
Answer:
3) Species → Genus → Order → Class

Question 24.
Select the correct matching related to man
1) Genus-Homonidae
2) Order-Primata
3) Family-Mammalia
4) Division-Chordata
Answer:
2) Order-Primata

Question 25.
Identify the correct matching
1) Tiger-tigris, species
2) Cuttlefish-mollusca, elass
3) Humans-primata, family
4) Housefly-Musca, order
Answer:
1) Tiger-tigris, species

Question 26.
Collection of plants that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets is called
1) Herbarium
2) Botanical gardens
3) Museums
4) Zoological parks
Answer:
1) Herbarium

Question 27.
Quick referral system in taxonomic studies is
1) Botanical garden
2) Herbarium
3) Monograph
4) Manual
Answer:
1) Botanical garden

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 28.
The largest Herbarium of the world is
1) Royal Botanical Gardens
2) Museum of Natural history
3) Indian Botanical Garden
4) National Botanical Gardens
Answer:
1) Royal Botanical Gardens

Question 29.
The label of a Herbarium sheet does not carry information on
1) date of collection
2) name of collector
3) local names
4) height of the plant
Answer:
4) height of the plant

Question 30.
The famous international Botanical garden is at
1) England
2) USA
3) Holland
4) India
Answer:
1) England

Question 31.
Botanical gardens have
1) Living plants and animals for reference
2) Collection of living plants for reference
3) Preserved plant specimens
4) Living and preserved plants
Answer:
2) Collection of living plants for reference

Question 32.
Botanical gardens mainly serve the purpose of providing
1) Beautiful area of reaction
2) Reservoir for tropical plants
3) Ex situ conservation of germplasm
4) Natural habitat for wild life
Answer:
4) Natural habitat for wild life

Question 33.
Museums have
1) Preserved specimens of plants and animals
2) Collections of living plants and mammals only
3) Skeletons of animals only
4) Collected and dried plant specimens only
Answer:
1) Preserved specimens of plants and animals

Question 34.
Algae are preserved in
1) Flora
2) Museum
3) Zoo
4) Pune
Answer:
2) Museum

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 35.
Taxonomic keys are. based on the
1) Morphological characters
2) Reproductive characters
3) Anatomical characters
4) Contrasting characters
Answer:
4) Contrasting characters

Question 36.
Each statement in the key is called
1) Set
2) Lead
3) Cement
4) Statement
Answer:
2) Lead

Question 37.
A pair of contrasting characters in keys are called
1) Doublet
2) Duplet
3) Couplet
4) Triplet
Answer:
3) Couplet

Question 38.
Lead is a (an)
1) statement in the key
2) information given in floras
3) contrasting character in the key
4) description of a single taxon
Answer:
1) statement in the key

Question 39.
Taxonomic key is one of the taxonomic tools in the identification and classification of plants and animals. It is used in the preparation of
1) Museums
2) Flora
3) Both 1&2
4) Neither (1) nor (2)
Answer:
2) Flora

Question 40.
Biological organisation starts with
1) Cellular level
2) Organismic level
3) atomic level
4) submicroscopic molecular level
Answer:
4) submicroscopic molecular level

Question 41.
……….group of organisms multiply by fragmentation
1) Amoeba, fungi
2) Fungi, bacteria .
3) Fungi,filamentous algae, protonema of mosses
4) Amoeba, Hydra, bacteria
Answer:
3) Fungi,filamentous algae, protonema of mosses

Question 42.
The organisms which do not reproduce are
i) Mules ii) Sterile worker bees iii) Infertile human couples
1) i and ii only
2) i and iii only
3) ii and iii only
4) i, ii and iii
Answer:
4) i, ii and iii

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 43.
When organisms are in the same class but not in same family, the taxonomic term is called as
1) Order
2) Genus
3) Family
4) Species
Answer:
1) Order

Question 44.
Potato, tomato, brinjal differ in… …taxon
1) Species
2) Genus
3) Family
4) Order
Answer:
1) Species

Question 45.
As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common characteristics
1) will decrease
2) will increase
3) remain same
4) may increase (or) decrease
Answer:
1) will decrease

Question 46.
The taxonomic aid, key is
1) Useful in classification of plants and animals
2) Based on similarities and dissimilarities
3) Common for identification of taxonomic categories like family, genus
4) An index to flora of particular area
Answer:
3) Common for identification of taxonomic categories like family, genus

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 47.
Collections of preserved plant and animal specimens for study and reference are kept in
1) Museum
2) Botanical Garden
3) Zoological Park
4) Herbarium
Answer:
1) Museum

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Telangana SCERT TS 7th Class English Study Material Pdf Unit 7C Koneru Humpy Textbook Questions and Answers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
What was Humpy’s first remarkable achievement ?
Answer:
Humpy got an International Master Title in the year 1999 at the age of 12 years. It was her first remarkable achievement.

Question 2.
At present, who do you think is the youngest woman grandmaster ? Why ?
Answer:
Hou Yifan is the youngest woman grandmaster. Humpy got this title at the age of 15 years 1 month and 29 days. But Hou Yifan broke her record at the age of 14 years 6 months.

Question 3.
Was Humpy’s father right in giving up his job for Humpy ? What would you have done ? Support your answer.
Answer:
Yes, Humpy’s father was right in giving up his job for Humpy. If I were in that position. I would do like Humpy’s father.

Question 4.
What qualities helped Humpy to reach the top in chess ? Do they help you in any way ? Share your ideas in groups.
Answer:
Humpy had extraordinary skills in the game, her dedication and devotion led her to the top in chess. Such qualities will help me to achieve success.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Koneru Humpy Summary in English

In the Women’s Chess, Koneru Humpy stood second in the world on par with Viswanath Anand.

Early life and entry into the game:
Humpy was bom in Gudivada on 31st March, 1987. Her father Ashok finding her skill in chess, resigned his job of a chemistry lecturer and being a chess champion himself concentrated on her. In 1995 Humpy became a champion in the under eight National Chess Tournament.

International level:

Humpy entered the International level and got titles in under 10, 12 and 14 years games. At the age of 12 she got International Master Title in 1999. She became a Grand Master in the tournament conducted in Budapest. She got the International Grand Master title at the age of 15. She was defeated by Hou Ifan. In 2001 she became the World Junior Champion. She reached the semifinal stage in 2006 and 2008. She achieve the second place in a FIDE Women’s Grand Prix and qualified for Women’s World Championship games. In 2006, in Doha Asian Competitions she got two gold medals – individually as well as a team. In Luxemburgh she got the second place in the International Competitions.

Awards:

As she became the Pride of the Nation, she was awarded the Arjuna Award in 2003, Padmasree in 2007 and Raja-laxmi Award in 2008.

Glossary:

considered = thought
on par = equal
attracted = interested
conditioned = shaped
prowess = skill
clinching = achieving
participate = take part
bagging = getting
coveted = most desired

Self Assessment:

How well have I understood this unit?

Read and tick (✓) in the appropriate box.

TS 7th Class English Guide 7C Koneru Humpy 1

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Section – A: Reading Comprehension

Please also practise additional exercises given from P.No. 266 to 278

(Questions 1 – 10) : Read the following passage from “The wonderful world of chess”.

Just like any other game, chess is also governed by rules. The pieces or the chessmen like the rook, the knight, the bishop, etc., move on the board in quite a restricted way, The movement of each piece is important because if a piece can move to a square, it can capture the piece in that square, whoever it may be.

The king (raju) and the queen (mantri) can move in any direction. Nevertheless, the king cannot go beyond one square whereas the queen has no such restrictions.

The bishop (sakatu) and the rook (enugu) can move to any square provided it is on their path. The bishop goes diagonally whereas the rook goes straight.

The knight (gurram) and the pawn (bantu) are very special in their own ways. The night is the only piece that can jump over other pieces. He goes two squares forward (or backward) and one square sideways (to the left or to the right). The pawn, like a brave soldier, marches only forward.

(1 – 5) Now answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5M

Question 1.
The queen can ( )
A) move by one square
B) move by 4 squares
C) jump over other pieces
D) move by any number of squares.
Answer:
D) move by any number of squares.

Question 2.
The movement of each piece in the game is important because ( )
A) it has its own direction
B) it can capture the piece in that square
C) it is governed by rules
D) it goes diagonally
Answer:
B) it can capture the piece in that square

Question 3.
The only piece that can jump over other pieces is the _________ ( )
A) bishop
B) pawn
C) knight
D) queen
Answer:
C) knight

Question 4.
The _________ marches only forward. ( )
A) king
B) pawn
C) knight
D) bishop
Answer:
B) pawn

Question 5.
The _________ moves diagonally by any number of squares.
A) bishop
B) pawn
C) rook
D) king
Answer:
A) bishop

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

(6 – 10) Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 5 x 2 = 10M

Question 6.
What is a checkmate?
Answer:
When a player marches his chessmen forward and captures the opponent’s king it is called ‘Checkmate’.

Question 7.
What did the inventor of chess ask in return as a reward?
Answer:
The inventor of chess asked the king to give him 1 grain for the 1st square, 2 for the 2nd square, 4 for the 3rd square and so on.

Question 8.
What are the benefits of playing chess ?
Answer:
Chess improves the player’s memory, concentration, logical thinking, mathematical abilities and problem solving skills.

Question 9.
What was chess called in the olden days ? What did it mean ?
Answer:
In the olden days chess was called ‘Chaturanga’ meaning the four divisions of the military.

Question 10.
Write the names of chessmen ?
Answer:
The king, the queen, the knight, the bishop, the rook and the soldiers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

(Questions 11 -16) : Read the following passage.

Mind management is a way to control one’s mind.To do this, we need to be cautious about our thinking process and also need a high level of understanding and mediation as well. Understanding is wisdom – 80 percent of people are knowledgeable, while 20 per cent are wise. Knowledgeable men take sides without reason.They feel sad seeing deprived people but jealous when they see happy people. They work in the guidance of other’s inspiration, take unnecessary responsibility to keep themselves disturbed.

A wise person does not stand for or against any idea without concrete reason. He works according to the situation and capacity. He looks at everything intellectually. To him, failure is a stepping stone for future success. So depression and conflict are not seen. Like the phrase ‘Stop, Look, Go’, first one should see, and this needs patience. Meditation is necessary to control and manage mind which then becomes an easy task.

(11 -12) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 2 × 1 = 2 M

Question 11.
A wise person always bases on ( )
A) knowledge
B) concrete reason
C) meditation
D) failures
Answer:
B) concrete reason

Question 12.
For a wise person failure leads to ( )
A) depression
B) conflict
C) patience
D) future success
Answer:
D) future success

Answer the questions in two or three sentences each. 4 × 2 = 8 M

Question 13.
What do we need for proper mind management ?
Answer:
For proper mind management we need a high level of understanding, meditation and we need to be cautious about our thinking process.

Question 14.
How are 80% of the people ? How do they feel ?
Answer:
80% of the people are knowledgeable. They feel sad on seeing deprived people but feel jeal¬ous on seeing happy people.

Question 15.
Why doesn’t a wise person feel depressed ?
Answer:
A wise person doesn’t feel depressed because he treats failure as a stepping stone for future success.

Question 16.
Why is meditation necessary ?
Answer:
Meditation is necessary to control and manage one’s mind.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Section – B : Vocabulary & Grammar:

(Questions 17 – 21) : Read the following passage focussing on the parts that are underlined and answer the questions given at the end. Write the answers in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5M

The kidneys of nearly (17) five percent of people under the age of 20 are not functioning normally, (18) a study shows. The youngsters have albumin in the wine, which indicates for (19) they could develop (20) a serious kidney disease later in their live (21).

Question 17.
The underlined word means
A) exactly
B) completely
C) more than
D) approximately
Answer:
D) approximately

Question 18.
The antonym of the underlined word
A) above normal
B) extraordinary
C) abnormal
D) unnormal
Answer:
C) abnormal

Question 19.
Choose the correct preposition
A) that
B) in
C) at
D) from
Answer:
A) that

Question 20.
Choose the noun form of the word
A) developed
B) developing
C) develop
D) development
Answer:
D) development

Question 21.
Choose the correct word
A) life
B) lives
C) lifes
D) lived
Answer:
B) lives

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

(Q. 22 – 26) Complete the following passage choosing right words from those given below it. Each blank is numbered, and for each blank four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5M

One day a man was walking _________ (22) a forest _________ (23) suddently he _________ (24) someone crying out for help. He _________ (25) in the direction of the sound and _________ (26) upon a well that was dried up.

Question 22.
A) by
B) through
C) in
D) from
Answer:
B) through

Question 23.
A) or
B) through
C) when
D) but
Answer:
C) when

Question 24.
A) heard
B) hear
C) hears
D) hearing
Answer:
A) heard

Question 25.
A) go
B) went
C) goes
D) going
Answer:
B) went

Question 26.
A) came
B) come
C) comes
D) coming
Answer:
A) came

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

(Q. 27 – 31) Read the following passage. Five sentences are numbered. Each numbered sentence has an error. Find the error and write the correct answer in your answer booklet. 5 × 2 = 10 M

Just like any other game (27), chess is also governed at rules. The pieces or the chessmen like the rook, the knight, the bishop etc. (28) move towards the board (29) in quite a restrict way. (30) The movement of each piece is importance because if a piece can move to a square (31) it can capture the piece in those square.
Answer:
27. governed by rules
28. move on the board
29. a restricted way
30. is important because
31. in that square.

Section – C : Conventions of Writing

(Q. 32) Read the following passage carefully and supply the punctuation marks (. , ? ” “) and capital letters, wherever necessary. Also correct the spelling of the underlined word. 5M

Gopal and raman are friends once they met at a mall gopal asked where are you working Raman replied i work as a computer programer for infosys.
Answer:
Gopal and Raman are friends. Once they met at a mall. Gopal asked, “Where are you working?” Raman replied, “I work as a computer programmer for Infosys”.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Section – D : Creative Writing – 12 M

Question 33.
Write an essay on “The Game of Chess”
Answer:

The Game of Chess

The game chess – “The Gift of India to the world” was invented in the 5th century by a scholar in North – India according to historian, H.J.R. Murray.

It was earlier called “chaturanga” – the four divisions of the military. It is an indoor game which was played by the Rajas in the olden days.

It is a game played at the international level. It is a very good exercise to the mind. It improves the players memory, concentration and logical thinking.

It also increases the player’s mathematical ability and problem solving skills. It is taught as a school subject in as many as 30 countries.

Like any other game chess also has its rules and regulations. A player has to follow all the rules and regulations while playing the game. The pieces in the game are called by different names and have their own steps to take in the game.

Eg: The pawn moves by one step forward, the queen can move in any direction and by any number of steps.
These days man can even play chess with computers. Even computers are programmed to play excellently with their artificial intelligence.

Question 34. – 8 M
The following is a telephonic conversation between Archana and Vani. Soon Vani had to go out and she wrote a message for mother. Write the message.

Archana : I’m Archana. Is that Vani ?
Vani : Yes.
Archana : May I speak to aunty please ?
Vani : She has gone out, will be back soon. Do you want to leave a message ?
Archana : Yes, tell aunty that I wanted to come over. She had promised me to teach me to make a pineapple cake. I have all the ingredients ready.
Vani : Why don’t you come after an hour ?
Archana : O.K. I’ll do that. Bye.

Answer:

MESSAGE

Mummy, Archana will be coming to learn making pineapple cake. She has all the ingredients ready. She will be here within an hour.

Vani

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Additional Exercises:

Section – A : Reading Comprehension

Questions 1 – 10:

1. Read the following stanza.

I like to think chess is a courteous game,
I play it with family and friends.
I like to think chess is a peaceful game,
Nobody gets hurt when it ends.
I never distract my opponent,
I don’t want to act like a pest.
I hope they behave in the very same way,
So both of us play at our best.
I know chess is not really gentle,
It’s more like a war or a fight.
I always shake hands at the start and the end,
So we can stay friends day and night.

(1 – 5) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The poet considers chess to be a peaceful game because ( )
A) opponents are not distracted
B) nobody acts as a pest
C) there is no winner or loser
D) nobody is physically injured.
Answer:
D) nobody is physically injured.

Question 2.
In the 7th line the poet says ‘they’ behave. Who are they ? ( )
A) opponents
B) proponents
C) players
D) spectators
Answer:
A) opponents

Question 3.
Shaking hands at the start and end shows ( )
A) kindness
B) courteousness
C) competitive spirit
D) distraction
Answer:
C) competitive spirit

Question 4.
Who is a pest according to the poet ? ( )
A) one who fights
B) one who hurts others
C) one who distracts
D) one who plays at his best
Answer:
C) one who distracts

Question 5.
Chess is not a gentle game because ( )
A) it is nearly like a war or fight
B) both the players behave in the same way
C) nobody gets hurt
D) it can be played with family and friends.
Answer:
A) it is nearly like a war or fight

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

(6 – 10) Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.

Question 6.
What attitude of the poet is seen in the poem ?
Answer:
The poet’s competitive spirit and peace loving attitude are seen in the poem.

Question 7.
Pick out atleast 3 pairs of rhyming words.
Answer:
friends – ends, pest – best, fight – night

Question 8.
Why do you think there is no peace on the chess board ?
Answer:
I think there is no peace on the chess board because the players are in a continuous struggle to defeat the opponent and they try to kill the opponent’s pieces.

Question 9.
What does the poet do to retain friends ?
Answer:
In order to retain friends the poet shakes hands with the opponent at the start and at the end of the game.

Question 10.
How are things different on & off the chess board ?
Answer:
People who are enemies on the chess board are friends off the chess board. There is never peace on the chess board but off the board things are peaceful because they are friends.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

2. Read the following passage.

Soon after proving her excellence at the national level, Koneru entered the International Chess Circuit. After taking the world by storm by clinching the World Chess titles in the Under 10, Under 12 and Under 14 age groups, Humpy got an International Master title in the year 1999, at the age of 12 years. Further, she achieved her 3rd Grandmaster norm in the Elekes Memorial Grandmaster Tournament held at Budapest, Hungary.

Koneru created a world record by earning the International Grandmaster title at the age of 15 years 1 month and 29 days. She broke Judit Polgar’s record to achieve the feat, and became the youngest woman ever to have earned the coveted title. Later, Hou Yifan broke Humpy’s record by earning the title at the age of 14 years 6 months in the year 2008. Koneru Humpy has been the First Indian Woman to have received an International Grandmaster title in the game of chess.

(1 – 5) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
Humpy achieved her 3rd Grand Master norm in ( )
A) Hungary
B) Luscenbourg
C) Kaupthing
D) Gudivada
Answer:
A) Hungary

Question 2.
Humpy won world chess titles in except ( )
A) under 12
B) under 10
C) under 16
D) under 14
Answer:
C) under 16

Question 3.
Humpy won the Grand master title at the age of ( )
A) 10
B) 12
C) 14
D) 15
Answer:
D) 15

Question 4.
Humpy is the 1st Indian woman to ( )
A) play chess
B) enter the International chess circuit
C) play at Hungary
D) receive an International Grand master title
Answer:
D) receive an International Grand master title

Question 5.
Humpy broke …………………..’s record of being the youngest woman of being the International Grandmaster title. ( )
A) Hou Yifan
B) Judit Polgar
C) Vishwanathan Anand
D) Susan Polgar
Answer:
B) Judit Polgar

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

(6 – 10) Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.

Question 6.
Name the awards won by Humpy ?
Answer:
Humpy won the Arjuna Award, Padma Sri Award, Raja-Lakshmi Award and many more.

Question 7.
Where was Humpy born ?
Answer:
Humpy was born at Gudivada in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 8.
How was 1995 remarkable for Humpy ?
Answer:
In 1995 Humpy won the under-8 National Chess Championship and caught everyone’s attention.

Question 9.
Which rank does Humpty hold for chess?
Answer:
Humpy hold World No. 2 rank among female players for chess.

Question 10.
Who conferred the Raja – Lakshmi Award on Humpy ?
Answer:
Raja-Lakshmi Foundation of Chennai conferred the Raja-Lakshmi Award.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Questions 11 – 16:

3. Read the following passage.

The Mahabharata carries a lesser known but interesting myth. Krishna tells Yudhishthara, who was curious to know Holi’s origin, how once when Raghu, an illustrious ancestor of Rama, ruled, there was a female demon Dhodhi, indulging in evil acts. She could not be killed as she was protected by a boon. She feared none except small children playing in streets.

One day, Guru Vashishtha, the royal priest, revealed that she could be eliminated if children carrying small pieces of wood in their hands went to the outskirts of the town, piled them along with dry grass, burnt the heap and danced around, sang, clapped and beat drums.

It was done, and what mighty weapons failed to do, the children’s innocent merriment accomplished. The day came to be celebrated as a festival that symbolises the victory of an innocent heart over evil. Whatever the truth behind this story, it shows that the festival of Holi preceded the Mahabharata.

(11 – 12) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 11.
Raghu was ( )
A) the one who killed Dhodhi
B) curious to know the origin of Holi
C) Rama’s ancestor
D) a demon
Answer:
C) Rama’s ancestor

Question 12.
Dhodhi feared ………………
A) the sage
B) strong men
C) holy Women
D) small children
Answer:
D) small children

(13 – 16) Answer the following questions in one or two sentences in your own words.

Question 13.
What did Krishna tell Yudhishthara ?
Answer:
Krishna told Yudhishthara about the origin of Holi festival.

Question 14.
What did the children have to do to kill Dhodhi ?
Answer:
In order to kill Dhodhi, children had to go to the outskirts with pieces of wood in their hands, pile them up with dry grass, burn the heap, sing, clap, beat drums and dance around.

Question 15.
What does Holi symbolize ?
Answer:
Holi symbolizes the victory of an innocent heart over evil.

Question 16.
Why couldn’t Dhodhi be killed ?
Answer:
Dhodhi couldn’t be killed because she was protected by a boon.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

4. Read the following passage.

Tigers hunt large animals such as deer and wild pigs, which will provide food for a few days. They slink up on their prey unseen, only charging when they are within about 20m (65 ft). Tigers kill their prey by biting the back, its neck or throat, then dragging it away into thick cover to feed. When they have eaten enough, they conceal the carcass with leaves so they can return to it later on. Male tigers can eat up to 40 kg (85 lb) of meat in one meal.

Tigers love water and often bathe or cool off in rivers and pools during the heat of the day. They usually hunt at night and rest during the day. Most tigers live alone, although mothers with cubs or young siblings sometimes hunt together. A male tiger roams a territory of up to 100 sq. km (60 sq miles) in area, defining its boundaries with scent markings, droppings and scratch marks on boulders or trees.

These signals tell other tigers about its sex and size as well as its territory. Tigers also communicate by roaring and moaning.They defend their territory fiercely against rival males, but wil I tolerate some overlap with the smaller territories of females.

(11 – 12) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 11.
Tigers hunt big animals because ……………………… ( )
A) it is easy to hunt them
B) their meat is tasty
C) the meat will last for them a few days
D) they are easily available
Answer:
C) the meat will last for them a few days

Question 12.
Tigers drag their prey into the bush …………………….. ( )
A) so that nobody can disturb them
B) it is cool under a bush
C) other animals may snatch their prey
D) to conceal it
Answer:
D) to conceal it

(13 – 16) Answer the following questions in one or two sentences in your own words.

Question 13.
Where do tigers attack their prey ?
Answer:
Tigers attack their prey on their back, neck or throat.

Question 14.
How do male tigers define their territory ?
Answer:
Male tigers define their territory by scent markings, droppings and making scratch marks on boulders or trees.

Question 15.
What do tigers do during hot days ?
Answer:
During hot days tigers bathe or cool off in rivers and pools.

Question 16.
What helps a tiger to hunt in the dark ?
Answer:
Tiger’s excellent eyesight and hearing helps it hunt in the dark.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Section – B : Vocabulary & Grammar

Questions 17 – 21:

Read the following passage focussing on the parts that are underlined and answer the questions given at the end. Write the answers in your answer booklet.

5. In the 18th and 19th centuries, people went to bed early (17), soon after it was dark (18). Their sleep habits were fixed by the alternation of day and night, light and darkness. They woke up by day-break (19). But today a large number of people are not sleeping enough and sleep deficit affects their health (20) and their perform (21).

Question 17.
Antonym of ‘early’ ( )
A) soon
B) late
C) lately
D) latter
Answer:
B) late

Question 18.
Antonym of ‘dark’ ( )
A) bright
B) sunny
C) interesting
D) dull
Answer:
A) bright

Question 19.
Replace the underlined word with the same meaning. ( )
A) dusk
B) dawn
C) sunshine
D) sunset
Answer:
B) dawn

Question 20.
A person who has health is ( )
A) health
B) strong
C) healthy
D) heavy
Answer:
C) healthy

Question 21.
Replace the correct word. ( )
A) performing
B) performed
C) had perform
D) performance
Answer:
D) performance

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

6. Spiders are man’s friends. They are among our best friends. They destroy many harmful (17) insects, including some of our worst (18) enemies. There are the insects that devour (19) our crops, cause diseases both and torment (20) our skins. Spiders do not prey on specific insects. They kill but (21) eat whatever insects are available.

Question 17.
Antonym of ‘harmful’ ( )
A) harmless
B) unharmed
C) harmfree
D) protected
Answer:
A) harmless

Question 18.
Choose the positive degree of ‘worst’ ( )
A) worse
B) bad
C) better
D) good
Answer:
B) bad

Question 19.
The synonym of the underlined word is ( )
A) harm
B) affect
C) protect
D) eat up
Answer:
D) eat up

Question 20.
The synonym of ‘torment’ is ( )
A) cause
B) destroy
C) torture
D) annoy
Answer:
C) torture

Question 21.
Choose the correct conjunction ( )
A) or
B) as
C) because
D) and
Answer:
D) and

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Questions 22 – 26:

Complete the following passage choosing right words from those given below it. Each blank is numbered, and for each blank four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write in your answer booklet.

7. Dear Mom,

I hope all’s well …………………. (22) you. I’m sorry, I …………………. (23) write to you earlier as I was busy with my exams …………………. (24) are now almost over. I’m sure you’ll be glad to …………………. (25) that I’ve written my exams well. My last exam is …………………. (26) the 14th of March.

Question 22.
A) at
B) with
C) of
D) from
Answer:
B) with

Question 23.
A) didn’t
B) wouldn’t
C) couldn’t
D) just
Answer:
C) couldn’t

Question 24.
A) They
B) All
C) It
D) Some
Answer:
A) They

Question 25.
A) knew
B) will know
C) known
D) know
Answer:
D) know

Question 26.
A) for
B) of
C) on
D) in
Answer:
C) on

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

8. Dhanush …………………. (22) Vijay went (23) the cinema on Saturday. …………………. (24) was a long queue. It was a cold evening and they …………………. (25) to stand in the queue for nearly …………………. (26) hour.

Question 22.
A) or
B) and
C) but
D) so
Answer:
B) and

Question 23.
A) to
B) for
C) by
D) into
Answer:
A) to

Question 24.
A) their
B) there
C) they
D) the
Answer:
B) there

Question 25.
A) have
B) had
C) has
D) will have
Answer:
B) had

Question 26.
A) an
B) in
C) a
D) the
Answer:
A) an

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Questions 27 – 31:

Read the following passage. Five sentences are numbered. Each numbered sentence has an error. Find the error and write the correct answer in your answer booklet.

9. (27) The Hindus believing that it was invented by Queen Mandodari (28), the wives of
Ravana. (29) In those day it is called ‘chaturanga’ (30) the four divisions for the military. Legend has it that (31) this inventor was ordered by the ruler to ask for a reward for his invent.
Answer:
27. The Hindus believe
28. the wife of
29. it was called
30. divisions of the military
31. for his invention

10. Some say it refreshes their mind while. (27) others say it improve their memory, (28) concentrate and (29) logic thinking. Infact, some (30) experiments have proved that it do all these things. Since chess involves a number of calculations, it increases our mathematical abilities and (31) problem solve skills.
Answer:
27. it improves
28. concentration
29. logical thinking
30. it does all these
31. problem solving skills

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Section – C : Conventions of Writing

Question 32:

Read the following passage carefully and supply the punctuation marks (., ? ” “) and capital letters, wherever necessary. Also correct the spelling of the underlined word.

11. vijay chadda was thriled when he won a maruti 800 at a hyderabad raffle in September 1988.
Answer:
Vijay Chadda was thrilled when he won a Maruti 800 at a Hyderabad raffle in September 1988.

12. Years after wait disney first had the idea, disney land opened in anaheim, California. Admision cost a dollar. By its tenth anniversary 50 million visitors had come to ‘the magic kingdom’.
Answer:
Years after Walt Disney first had the idea, Disney Land opened in Anaheim, California. Admission cost a dollar. By its tenth anniversary 50 million visitors had come to ‘The Magic Kingdom’.

Section – D: Creative Writing

Question 33.
Write the biographical sketch of Koneru Humpy basing on the following information.
Date of birth – 31st March, 1987 Gudivada, Andhra Pradesh
Father – Koneru Ashok, Chess player
Carrer – Under 8 National Chess Championship -1995.
– Titles in under 10, under 12, under 14 age groups.
– International Master title age 12.
– World record – earned International Grandmaster title – 15 years
– 1st Indian woman to receive International Grand master title in chess
– No. 2 rank female chess players.
Awards – 2003 Arjuna Award, Padma Sri – 2007, Raja Lakshmi Award – 2008.
Answer:
Koneru Humpy is the 1st Indian woman to receive International Grand master title in chess. She was born on 31st March, 1987, at Gudivada in Andhra Pradesh. Her father Koneru Ashok was also a chess player. Her career as a national player began in 1995 when she won the under-8 National chess championship. She won titles in under 10, under 12 and under 14 age groups.

At the tender age of 12, she won the International Master title. She created a world record by earning the International Grand master title at the age of 15. She holds world 2nd rank among the female chess players. In recognition of her achievements the government of India awarded her with the Arjuna Award in 2003 and Padma Sri Award in 2007. Raja Lakshmi Foundation of Chennai conferred the Raja Lakshmi Award on her in 2008. She makes every Indian woman feel proud.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

(Or)
14. Imagine you are a reporter who got a chance to interview Koneru Humpy. Write an imaginary interview between you and Humpy.
Answer:
Reporter : Good evening ma’m, I’m a reporter from the Young World. I’ve come to interview you.
Humpy : Good evening, please take a seat.
Reporter : How did you develop interest in playing chess?
Humpy : Well, my father himself was a chess player. I used to watch him play the game.
Reporter : When did you start taking the formal training for it?
Humpy : At the age of 5 my dad observed my keen interest and a few special skills in the
game. He then decided to train me professionally.
Reporter : What was your 1 achievement?
Humpy : I won the under-8 National Chess Championship in 1985.
Reporter : How did you feel then?
Humpy : I was quite excited and happy.
Reporter : You must have spent most of your time on chess. How did you manage your academics?
Humpy : Well, my father has been my mentor all through the way. He used to teach me at home and helped me even in my studies.
Reporter : How do you feel about your achievements today, after receiving so many prestigious awards?
Humpy : I feel happy but I do rememeber that I still have a long way to go.
Reporter : Thankyouma’m.

(Or)
15. You are Nilesh. You joined summer coaching classes for chess. You feel them to be great. Write a letter to your friend about how you feel after joining the classes, what you have learnt there etc.
Answer:

Hyderabad,
Date : XX.XX.XXXX

My dear Suhaas,

I’m very delighted to share this news with you. I have joined chess coaching classes. These are special classes conducted in summer.

I have been going there for a month now and I feel quite excited about it. I was initially not much interested .1 have started understanding the game and its rules and regulations. I have developed a special enthusiasm on it now.

The game has taught me to be patient, sportive and has even changed my way of thinking.

Every piece in the game is so disciplined and has its own path to move. It is an amazing game which not only increases our intellectual ability but also leads to logical thinking.

I suggest that you too should join coaching classes and see the difference.

Your friend
Nilesh.

To
K. Suhaas,
S/o, K. Suresh,
420, Pinnavari St,
WARANGAL.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Question 34.

16. Read the following conversation between a student named Pavan and teacher’s mother Mrs. Bharati. After the conversation she had to leave home and before leaving she left a message for her daughter. Write the message for her daughter (the teacher).

Pavan : Is this 2724412, Madam Rakhi’s number ?
Mrs. Bharati : That’s right. She is not at home but she will be back within ten minutes.
Pavan : Yes, I wanted to come over. I first wanted to confirm it.
Mrs. Bharati : Come after half an hour or so. She will be definitely back by then.
Pavan : O.K. Thanks!

Answer:

MESSAGE

Rakhi, your student named Payan called. He wanted to come over and just wanted to confirm whether you are at home or not, I told him come within hatf an hour. So please stay at home.

Mummy.

(Or)
17. You have lost a wrist watch. Write a notice for your school notice-board giving the necessary details.
Answer:
LOST

I have lost a Timex Wrist watch. It is gold coloured one with a broad strap. If anybody finds it, kindly return it to the undersigned.

Ramana,
No. 416,
Class X.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

(Or)
18. Prepare a poster to awaken people to save the earth by saving trees.
Answer:

TS 7th Class English Guide 7C Koneru Humpy 2

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7B Chess

Telangana SCERT TS 7th Class English Study Material Pdf Unit 7B Chess Textbook Questions and Answers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7B Chess

I like to think chess is a courteous game.
I play it with family and friends’.
I like to think chess is a peaceful game.
Nobody gets hurt when it ends.
I never distract my opponent,
I don’t want to act like a pest.
I hope they behave in the very same way.
So both of us play at our best.
I know chess is not really gentle,
It’s more like a war or a fight.
I always shake hands at the start and the end,
So we can stay friends day and night.
On the board we’re enemies,
Off the board we’re friends.
On the board there’s never peace,
But that is just pretend.
On the board we’re enemies,
Off the board we’re friends.
On the board there’s never peace,
But off the board I hope for peace that never, never ends
I like to think chess is a courteous game
I play it with family and friends
I like to think chess is a peaceful game,
Nobody gets hurt when it ends. – Nathan J. Goldberg

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7B Chess

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
How does the poet consider chess; a game of peace or a game of war ?
Answer:
The poet feels that chess is a courteous and peaceful game. He plays it with his friends and family. Nobody gets hurt when it ends. He says he never diverts his opponent from the game.

Question 2.
Which line strongly supports that chess is a peaceful game ?
Answer:
“I like to think chess is a peaceful game.
Nobody gets hurt when it ends.”
The above lines support the strong idea of the poet that chess is a peaceful game.

Question 3.
Why does the author shake hands at the start and at the end ?
Do you think that the writer is special in doing that ? Do you find this happen in other games ?
Answer:
The author shakes hands at the start and the end of the game because it is a friendly signal. In any game or sport friendship will be developed. In this game, at the end nobody gets hurt. So, the author does so. Sports and games are meant to promote goodwill among players.

Question 4.
What happens if you are distracted while playing chess ? Do players try to distract their opponents to have the advantage ? Is it fair ?
Answer:
Players never try to distract their opponents to have the advantage. It is not fair. The game is meant for promoting friendly relations among the countries or individuals.

Question 5.
Stanza 4, line 1 says, “On the board we’re enemies”. Line 3 of the same stanza says, “On the board there’s no peace”. Then how can it be a peaceful game ?
Answer:
Concerning to the game, they are like enemies. They have to think deeply and play with a great skill. At that time their feelings are not attached to their mind and soul. They find a lot of enjoyment. So, chess is a peaceful game.

Question 6.
Stanza 1, line 1 says that chess is a courteous game. Is the author courteous? Support your answer quoting from the poem.
Answer:
Chess is a courteous game. At the same time the author is also a courteous man by quoting the following lines. We say he is courteous.
“I like to think chess is a courteous game,
I play it with family and friends.
I like to think chess is a peaceful game,
Nobody gets hurt when it ends”.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7B Chess

II. You know that words like ‘friends‘ and ‘ends‘ rhyme with each other. But do you know that complete lines can also rhyme with one another? For example, lines 1 and 3 in stanza 1 rhyme with each other. Both the lines have the same structure. This is called parallelism. Sometimes, they carry the same theme too- like these two lines. But they can contrast with each other too. There is such a pair in this poem. Pick it out.
Answer:
On the board we’re enemies,
Off the board we’re friends.

III. Parallelism is used in prose too. The author uses this technique to reinforce ideas of importance or to make the text more pleasurable to the reader, or both. Pick out the lines that show parallelism. What is its purpose ?
Answer:
The author described the greatness of chess and the large number of possible ways of playing to win the game. To reinforce this idea he quoted the following lines.
Mathematicians say that around 10120 unique games are possible in chess. Compare this jumbo number with the earlier number 264-1. How big is this? There aren’t even that many electrons in this universe.

IV. ‘Repetition’ is another poetic device used by poets to reinforce ideas or to make a poem pleasing to the ears or both. In this poem you will find complete stanzas repeated. What are they? What is the purpose of repetition here ?
Answer:
In the first stanza and sixth stanza the poet reiterated the same thing as follows.
I like to think chess is a courteous game,
I play with family and friends.
I like to think chess is a peaceful game,
Nobody gets hurt when it ends.

In the same way 4th stanza and 5th stanza are the same.
On the board we’re enemies,
off the board we’re friends,
On the board there’s never peace,
But that is just pretend.

The purpose of repetition is to reinforce his idea about chess is a courteous and peaceful game.

V. Try to write a parody replacing ‘chess‘ with ‘cricket‘ or any other game of your choice.
Answer:
A football is made round
You can buy them for a new pound
get them anywhere in your town
When kicked up they come down
It’s kicked upon the ground
with very little or no sound
You can kick them with some power
And keep them up with volleys for an hour
there round and small there not large and tall
That’s why they got the name football.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7B Chess

PROJECT:

I. How many of your friends play chess ? Is there any remarkable player in your school, mandal or district ? Write a short profile of that person and display it on your wall magazine.
Answer:

Vasudev – A Genius Chess player

In our school a boy named Vasudev is a wonderful chess champion. His father is a farmer. When he was seven years old, he over heard about Dronavalli Harika.Instantly, he decided to learn chess. His father joined him S.R.R. Chess Coaching Centre in Vijayawada. The coach Mr. Ravi identified his extraordinary skills in playing chess. He encouraged him.

Vasudev became a centre splash when he bagged 1st place in district level chess tournament. Afterwards he never looked back. He participated in many competitions in state level under 13, under 12, under 10 championships. He proved himself there. He stood first in all above competitions. His only ambition is to become the youngest grandmaster in the world.

Chess Summary in English

The poet feels that chess is a courteous and peaceful game. He plays it with his friends and family. Nobody gets hurt when it ends.

He says he never distracts his opponent from the game.

While playing chess, the poet and his opponent feel as if they are enemies. After the game is completed, they are friends.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7B Chess

Glossary:

courteous (adj) = polite and respectful, well-mannered
Usage : His courteous conduct conquered my heart.
opponent = enemy
pest = a small insect that destroys crops.
distract(v) = to take somebody’s attention away from what they are trying to do
Usage : The noise of the traffic distracts my attention from writing.
pretend = imaginary or not real.