AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany

Students get through AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions 3rd Lesson Science of Plants – Botany which are most likely to be asked in the exam.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions 3rd Lesson Science of Plants – Botany

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain how the term Botany has emerged. [AP M -19]
Answer:

  1. The term Botany is derived from the Greek word Bouskein, which means cattle feed.
  2. In course of time Bouskein gave rise to Botane and hence the term Botany is derived.

Question 2.
Name the books written by Parasara and mention the important aspects discussed in those books. [AP M-17, 20]
Answer:
The books written by Parasara are: “Krishi Parasaram” and “Vrikshayurveda”.

  1. Krishiparsaram deals with agriculture and weeds.
  2. Vrikshayurvedam deals with the types of forests and characters of plants including medicinal plants.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany
Question 3.
Who is popularly known as father of Botany? What was the book written by him?
Answer:

  1. Theophrastus is popularly known as Father of Botany. [AP &TS M-16]
  2. The book written by him is deHistoria Plantarum.

Question 4.
Who are Herbalists? What are the books written by them?
Answer:

  1. The scientists who identified and described the Medicinal plants technically are called the Herbalists.
  2. The books written by them are called Herbals.

Question 5.
What was the contribution of Carolus Von Linnaeus for the development of plant taxonomy?
Answer:

  1. “Carolus Von Linnaeus” popularised the “Binomial Nomenclature system”.
  2. He proposed “Sexual system” of classification.

Question 6.
Why is Mendel considered as the father of Genetics? [TS M-17]
Answer:

  1. Mendel conducted hybridisation experiments on pea plants and also introduced the laws of inheritance in 1866.
  2. After this a considerable progress was seen in Botany. So, he is declared as Father of Genetics.

Question 7.
Who discovered the cell and what was the book written by him? [TS May-17,22] [IPE-Mar-14]
Answer:

  1. Robert Hooke discovered the cell.
  2. The book written by him is Micro graphia.

Question 8.
What is Palaeobotany? What is its use? [AP M-17, 22] [TS M- 15,17,20]
Answer:

  1. Palaeobotany is the study of fossil plants.
  2. It helps in understanding the course of evolution in plants.

Question 9.
Name the branches of Botany which deal with the chlorophyllous autotrophic thallophytes and non-chlorophyllous heterotrophic thallophytes.
Answer:

  1. Phycology deals with the study of chlorophyllous autotrophic thallophytes (Algae)
  2. Mycology deals with the study of non-chlorophyllous heterotrophic thallophytes (fungi)

Question 10.
What are the groups of plants that live as symbionts in lichens? Name the study of lichens.
Answer:

  1. The plants that live as symbionts in lichens are algae and fungi.
  2. The study of lichens is called Lichenology.

Question 11.
Which group of plants is called vascular cryptogams? Name the branch of Botany which deals with them? [TSM-19][AP May-19]
Answer:

  1. Pteridophytes are called Vascular cryptogams.
  2. Pteridology is the branch that deals with pteridophytes.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany

Question 12.
Which group of plants is called amphibians of plant kingdom? Name the branch of Botany which deals with them. [TS M-22]
Answer:

  1. Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant kingdom
  2. The branch of botany that deals with bryophytes is Bryology.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the brief the scope of Botany in relation to agriculture, horticulture and medicine.
Answer:
I) Botany in relation to agriculture, and horticulture:

  1. Experiments in hybridization, genetic engineering and techniques of plant breeding are useful to develop high-yielding varieties of crops like rice, wheat, mary gold etc in the field of Agriculture and Horticulture.
  2. Knowledge of plant physiology like the study of role of plant hormones in plant growth helps to improve agriculture and horticulture.
  3. Knowledge of plant pathology helps to control and prevent several plant diseases.

II)Botanyin relation to medicine:

  1. Study of plants like Neem, Arnica, Belladona, Cinchona, Datura, Rauwolfia, Ocimum having medicinal value are important to explore them for human health care. These lead to the development of Ayurvedic & Homoeopathic pharmacies.
  2. Production of antibiotics like Penicillin, bioinsecticides is made possible through study of product yielding plants.

Question 2.
Explain the scope of Botany taking plant physiology as example,
Answer:

  1. Plant physiology helps to known the role of minerals in plant nutrition.
  2. Plant physiology helps in the rational usage of chemical fertilizers and control ofmineral deficiencies.
  3. Role of plant hormones in plant growth and development can be understood.
  4. Herbicidal control of weeds, breaking seed dormancy is dealt in plant physiology.
  5. The other benefits of plant physiology are rooting of stem cuttings for vegetative propagation, artificial ripening of fruits like apple, banana and water melons, enhancement of shelf period of leafy vegetables like spinach.

Question 3.
What are the different branches of Botany that deal with morphology of plants? Give their salient features.
Answer:
1) Morphology deals with the study and description of different organisms of a plant.

2) It is the fundamental requisite for classification of plants. It can be divided into two parts.

  • External Morphology: It is the study and description of external characters of plant organs like roots, stem, leaf, flower, fruit and seed.
  • Internal Morphology: It is the study of internal structure of different plant organs.

It has two branches.

  1. Histology is the study of different tissues present in the plant body.
  2. Anatomy deals with the study of gross internal details of plant organs like root, stem, leaf, flower etc.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give a comprehensive account on the scope of Botany in different fields giving an example for each.
Answer:
1) Scope of Botany in Agriculture:

  1. Enhancement of crop yield through Green revolution solves the problem of ‘decreasing re¬sources and increasing population’.
  2. New techniques of plant breeding are useful to develop hybrid varieties in crop plants like rice, wheat, maize, sugarcane etc.
  3. Soil and water pollution caused by chemical fertilizers can be avoided by using biofertilizers.
  4. Crop cultivation refers to the origin of human civilization.

2) Scope of Botany in Horticulture:

  1. Progress in horticulture is possible through experiments in hybridization and genetic engineering.
  2. Experiments in tissue and organ culture made it possible to produce large number of plants in the laboratory (micro propagation) with in a short duration of time.

3) Scope of Botany in Medicine:

  1. Study on plants like Arnica, Cinchona, Neem, Datura, Ocimum, Rauwolfla, Aloe, Withania having medicinal value are important to explore for human health care.
  2. Production of antibiotics like Penicillin, bioinsecticides, single cell proteins made possible through the study of product yielding plants.

4) Scope of Botany in Plant physiology:

  1. Hybridization and Genetic Engineering experiments improve applied fields like Agriculture, Forestry, Horticulture and Floriculture.
  2. Hybrid varieties in crop plants like Rice, Wheat, Maize is possible through plant breeding.
  3. Knowledge of plant physiology is useful in rational usage of chemical fertilizers.
  4. Plant pathology is helpful in the prevention and eradication of several plant diseases.

5) Scope of Botany in Industries:

  1. Industries like Cloth mills, Paper mills, Ayurvedic pharmacies, Sugar mills could be developed due to Botany.
  2. Knowledge of commercially important plant products like timber, fibres, coffee, tea, rubber, gums, aromatic oils is of great importance for their exploitation.
  3. Fuels like petrol, coke, gasoline, petrol are past formed products of fossil plants.
  4. Petroplants like Jatropa, Pongamia produce bio-diesel.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany

6) Scope of Botany in Environment:

  1. Intensive tree plantation control green house effect.
  2. Usage of biofertilizers like Azolla, Nostoc and recycling of nutrients by saprophytic organisms avoid soil and water pollution.

7) Other uses:

  1. Usage of algae like chlorella as food for astronauts in space research programme and extraction of iodine, agar agar from sea weeds indicate wide scope of Botany for the contemporary world.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Father of Biology is
1) A. P.de Candolle
2) A. W.Eichler
3) Aristotle
4) Theophrastus
Answer:
3) Aristotle

Question 2.
TCA cycle was discovered by
1) Rendel
2) V. Ramdas
3) Bessy
4) Hans Krebs
Answer:
4) Hans Krebs

Question 3.
Herbals are
1. Books written by herbalists
2.Collection of herbaceous plants of a particular area
3. Herbarium of various types of plants
4. Flora of a particular region
Answer:
1. Books written by herbalists

Question 4.
Anatomy deals with the study of
1. Different tissues in the plant body
2. Gross internal structure of plant organs
3. Formation of gametes
4. Vital activites of plants
Answer:
2. Gross internal structure of plant organs

Question 5.
The branch of botany which deals with multiplication of cells is
1) Phytogeography
2) Bryology
3) Cytology
4) Palynology
Answer:
3) Cytology

Question 6.
Ptcridology is the study of
1) Phaenerogams
2) Angiosperms
3) Vascular cryptogams
4) Amphibians of plant kingdom
Answer:
3) Vascular cryptogams

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany

Question 7.
Vrikshayurveda contains information on
1. Medicinal plants
2. Crop plants
3. Fruit trees
4. Flowenng plants
Answer:
1. Medicinal plants

Question 8.
The book written by Theophrastus is
1. The origin of species
2.Genera plantatrum
3. de Historia plantarum
4. Species plantarum
Answer:
3. de Historia plantarum

Question 9.
Bionomial nomenclature of plants was first introduced by
1. Gaspard bauhin
2. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
3. Socrates
4. de Candolle
Answer:
1. Gaspard bauhin

Question 10.
Agar-agar, an inert polysaccha ride is extracted from
1. Green algae
2. Brown algae
3. YelIow algae
4. Red algae
Answer:
4. Red algae

Question 11.
The study of development of male and female gametophytes ¡s
1. Systematic Botony
2. Palaeobotany
3. Palynology
4. Embryology
Answer:
4. Embryology

Question 12.
Identify the correct pair
1. Father of Botony – Aristotle
2. Father of Palaeobotany – Linnaeus
3. Father of Genetics – Mendel
4. Father of Biology – Theophrastus
Answer:
3. Father of Genetics – Mendel

Question 13.
The first descriptions of sexual reproduction in plants wa$ given by
1. Thomas Fair Child
2. Gregor Mendel
3. Camerarius
4. Norman Borlaug
Answer:
3. Camerarius

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany

Question 14.
Which one of the following branches deals with fossil plants?
1. Plants ecology
2. Phytogeography
3. Paleobotany
4. Palynology
Answer:
3. Paleobotany

Question 15.
Identify the medicinal plants among the following
1) Arnica, Neem, Datura, Belladona, Aloe
2) Pisum, Neem, Datura, Lathyrus, Agave
3) Hibiscus, Neem, Datura, Agave
4) Euphorbia, Neem, Datura, Bryophyllum
Answer:
1) Arnica, Neem, Datura, Belladona, Aloe

Question 16.
Single cell proteins are
1) Spirullina, Dolichos
2) Spirullina, Chlorella
3) Euphorbia, Lathyrus
4) Hibiscus, Pisum
Answer:
2) Spirullina, Chlorella

Question 17.
Botany expanded rapidly and accumulated vast amount of knowledge in various aspects of plant life during ……….centuries.
1) 18th, 16th
2) 19th and 20th
3) 17th and 18th
4) 16th and 17th
Answer:
2) 19th and 20th

Question 18.
Identify the correct statement.
1) Phycology gives information about all Thallophytes
2) Anatomy is the branch of Morphology
3) Taxonomy and Histology are same
4) Palaeobotany helps us in understanding the course of evolution in plants
Answer:
4) Palaeobotany helps us in understanding the course of evolution in plants

Question 19.
Cyanobacteria are referred as
1) Actinomycetes
2) Blue green algae
3) Bryophytes
4) Mycoplasmas
Answer:
2) Blue green algae

Question 20.
Identify the scientists relating with tissue culture.
a) Hanning
b) Robert son
c) Shimakura
d) Hugodevrics
e) Skoog
f) Robert brown
g) Nitsch
h) Rendel
1) f, g
2) b, d, f, h
3) b, e, g
4) a, c, e, g
Answer:
4) a, c, e, g

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 3 Science of Plants – Botany

Question 21.
Identify biofertilizers among the following.
a) Canna
b) Anabaena
c) Azolla
d) Brassica
e) Rhizobium
f) Nostoc
1) d, e, f
2) a, d only
3) a, b, d, e
4) b, c, e, f
Answer:
4) b, c, e, f

Question 22.
Identify the physiological aspects of plants.
a) N2 metabolism
b) Photosyntheis
c) Respiration
d) Growth
1) a, c only
2) a, b, c, d
3) b, c only
4) a, c, d only
Answer:
2) a, b, c, d

Question 23.
Phycology is the study of the following
a) Autotrophic thallophytes
b) Heterotrophic thallophytes
c) Chlorophyllous thallophytes
d) Non – Chlorophyllous thallophytes
1) a, c
2) b, d
3) a, d
4) b, c
Answer:
1) a, c

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Students get through AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions 2nd Lesson Biological Classification which are most likely to be asked in the exam.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions 2nd Lesson Biological Classification

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the nature of cell-walls in diatoms? [ TS M-22] [AP M-16, 17]
Answer:

  1. In diatoms, the cell walls form two thin overlapping shells like soap box.
  2. The walls are embedded with silica and thus the walls are indestructible.
  3. The upper shell is called epitheca and the lower one is called hypotheca.

Question 2.
How are ‘Viroids’ different from ‘Viruses’?
Answer:

Viroids Viruses
1) Viroids are infectious agents to plants
2) Protein coat is absent.
3) Viroids contain nucleic acid only.
4) Their nucleic acid consists of only RNA.
1) Viruses are infectious agents to all organisms
2) Protein coat is present.
3) Viruses contain nucleic acid & protein coat.
4) The nucleic acid may be RNA or DNA.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification
Question 3.
What do the terms phycobiont arid mycobiont signify? [APM -17] [IPE Mar- 13]
Answer:

  1. The algal component of lichen is called phycobiont.
  2. The fungal component of lichen is called mycobiont.

Question 4.
What do the term algal bloom and red tides signify? [AP May-19]
Answer:

  1. Algal bloom signifies the excessive growth of algae (members of Cyanophyceae) in the water bodies. This causes eutrophication.
  2. Red tides signifies the rapid multiplication of red dinoflagellates in the marine environment. The red colour of red sea is due to Trichodesmium erythrium, gonulax.

Question 5.
State two economically important uses of heterotrophic bacteria. [TS M-16,20]
Answer:
Heterotrophic bacteria are useful

  1. in making curd from milk, (by lactic acid bacteria)
  2. in the production of alcohol, antibiotics, enzymes and aminoacids.

Question 6.
What is the principle underlying the use of cyanobacteria in agricultural fields for crop improvement ? [ AP M-15,19]
Answer:

  1. Cyano bacteria (like Nostoc and Anabaena)contain dinitrogenase enzyme.
    It can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialised cells called heterocysts.
  2. They help in improving the soil fertility.

Question 7.
Plants are autotrophic. Name some plants which are partially heterotrophic.
Answer:

  1. All green plants are autotrophs because they synthesize the food by photosynthesis.
  2. Partially heterotrophic plants:
    Ex: Viscum (Partial stem parasite), Cuscutta(Complete stem parasite), Striga (Partial root parasite)

Question 8.
Who proposed five kingdom classification? How many kingdoms of this classification contain eukaryotes? [TS M-19]
Answer:

  1. R.H. Whittaker proposed five kingdom classification.
  2. Four kingdoms contain eukaryotes. They are Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia

Question 9.
Give the main criteria used for classification by Whittaker.[AP M-20, 22] [ TS M-15,20]
Answer:
Main criteria used for classification by Whittaker: Cell structure, thallus organisation, mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relations.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 10.
Name two diseases caused by Mycoplasmas. [TS May-17,22]
Answer:
Mycoplasmas cause

  1. ‘Witches broom’ disease in plants.
  2. Pleuropneumonia in cattle
  3. Mycoplasmal urethritis in Flumans.

Question 11.
What are slime moulds? Explain what is meant by piasmodium with reference to slime moulds.
Answer:

  1. Slime moulds are saprophytic protists.
  2. Under suitable conditions, they form an aggregation called piasmodium.
  3. It grows and spreads over several feet and forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What are the characteristic features of Euglenoids? [AF M-16, 20, 22]
Answer:
Characteristic features of Euglenoids: [TS M-17, 20]

  1. Euglenoids belong to kingdom Protista.
  2. They are a group of unicellular flagellate eukaryotes.
  3. They are seen in fresh stagnant water.
  4. Ex: Euglena.
    AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification 2
  5. Their body is covered by a protein layer called pellicle.
  6. They have two flagellae, one is short and other is long. Euglena
  7. The anterior part of their body consists of cytostome, cy topharynx and reservoir.
  8. On eye spot (or stigma) is present on the membrane of the reservoir.
  9. Reproduction in euglinoids is by longitudinal binary fission.
  10. They are autotropic, but in the absence of sunlight they exhibit heterotrophic nutrition.

Question 2.
What are the advan tages and disadvantages of two kingdom classification?
Answer:
I) Advantages:

  1. Two-kingdom classification was the first and most basic classification of living organisms.
  2. It is very easy to understand.

Disadvantages:

  1. Certain organisms do not fit either in plants or animals. Ex: Fungi
  2. No fixed position for organisms which showed both plant & animal characters. Ex: Euglena
  3. This system doesn’t distinguish between Eukaryotes and Prokaryotes (doesn’t contain nuclear membrane).
  4. In this classification, both Photosynthetic & Non-photosynthetic were placed together.

Question 3.
Give the salient features and importance of Chrysophytes. [AP M-15] [IPE Mar- 13]
Answer:
Features and importance ofChrysophytes: [TS M-17,22]

  1. Chrysophytes belong to kingdom Protista.
  2. They are a group of Algae.
  3. They are found both in fresh water and marine water
  4. Ex: Desmides Chrysophyte
    AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification 3
  5. They are small in size, freely floating and photosynthetic.
  6. They have soap box like structure.
  7. Chrysophytes include diatoms and golden algae.
  8. Sillicated walls are seen in diatoms.
  9. Cell wall of diatoms has 2 shells (i) epitheca and (ii) hypotheca.
  10. They reproduce asexually by binary fission and sexually by gamete.

Uses:

  1. Polishing of glasses
  2. Filtration of oils and syrups.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 4.
Give a brief account of Dinoflagellates. [AP May-19] [APM-17,19] [TSM-15,16,19,22]
Answer:

  1. Dinoflagellates belong to kingdom Protista.
  2. They are a large group of flagellate eukaryotes.
  3. Dinoflagellates are seen mostly in marine water.
  4. Ex: Red Dino flagellates like Gonyaulax in Mediterranean sea.
  5. They appear in various colours depending upon their pigments.
  6. The outer surface of their cell wall has stiff cellulose.
  7. They have two flagellae, one lies longitudinally and the other transversely.
  8. The flagellae produces spinning movements, so these are called whirling whips.
  9. The nucleus has condensed chromosomes.
  10. Due to absence of histones, nucleus is called mesokaryon.
  11. Marine dinoflagellates like Noctiluca show bioluminescence.
  12. Toxins released by dinoflagellates may harm to animal cules.

Question 5.
Write the role of Fungi in our daily life. [IPE Mar-14]
Answer:
Role of Fungi in our daily life:
a) Advantages of Fungi:

  1. Yeast is the unicellular fungus. It is used in the commercial preparation of bread and beer.
  2. The Antibiotic ‘penicillin’ is obtained from a fungus called peniciliium.
  3. Mushrooms (Agaricus), morels and truffles are the common edible fungi.

b) Disadvantages of Fungi:

  1. Some fungi cause diseases in plants.
  2. Red rot disease on sugar cane is due to Collectotrichum.
  3. Rust disease on wheat is due to Puccinia.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Give the salient features and comparative account of different classes of fungi studied by you.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification 1

Question 2.
Describe briefly different groups of Monerans you have studied.
Answer:
Kingdom Monera includes all prokaryotes like Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, Mycoplasma and Actinomycetes.
I) Archaebacteria:

  1. These are special monerans as they live in extreme salty areas, hot springs and marshy areas.
  2. Cell wall doesnot contain peptidoglycan but contains pseudomurein.
  3. Cell membrane contain branched chain lipids which enables them to live in extreme condition.
  4. Methanogens are present in the gut of several animals like cows and buffaloes.
  5. They are responsible for the production of methane (biogas) from the dung of these animals.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

II) Eubacteria:

  1. Bacteria are spread almost everywhere.They live in extreme habitats like hot springs, deserts, deep oceans and snow.
  2. They may live as parasites and symbionts also.
  3. Based on the shape, bacteria are classified as spherical [coccus], rod shaped [Bacillus], comma shaped [Vibrium] and spiral [Spirillum],
  4. Rigid cell wall consists of peptidoglycan also called murein or mucopeptide.
  5. In foldings of cell membrane are called mesosomes. .
  6. Genetic material is naked, not enveloped by nuclear membrane.
  7. Cell organellae are the only ribosomes.
  8. Motile bacteria contain one or more flagella.
  9. Based on the nutrition bacteria are two types, (a) Autotrophs (b) Heterotrophs
  10. Autotrophs are of 2 types: (i) Photosynthetic autotrophs (ii) Chemosynthetic autotrophs
  11. Heterotrophs are of 2 types: (i) Saprophytes or decompsers (ii) Parasites
  12. Bacteria reproduce mainly by binary fission.
  13. Sexual reproduction is by the transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to the other.

III) My coplasmas:

  1. Mycoplasmas completely lack cell wall and are pleomorphic.
  2. They are smallest living organisms and can survive without oxygen.
  3. Mycoplasmas are pathogenic in plants and animals.
  4. In plants, they cause witches broom disease.
  5. They cause pleuro pneumonia in cattle and mycoplasmal urethritis in humans.

IV) Actinomycetes:

  1. Actinomycets are branched filamentous bacteria which form radiating colonies in culture.
  2. The cell wall contains mycolic acid.
  3. Most of them are saprophytic and decomposers.
  4. Myco bacterium and corynebacterium are parasites.
  5. Some bacteria like streptomyces produce antibiotics.

Question 3.
Enumerate the salient features of different groups in protista.
Answer:
Different groups in Protista: Chrysophytes, Dinoflagellates, Euglenoids, Slime moulds, Protozoans.
I) Chrysophytes:

  1. Chrysophytes include diatoms and golden algae called desmids.
  2. They are found in fresh water and marine water as plankton.
  3. They are microscopic and float passively in water currents.
  4. Most of them are photosynthetic.
  5. In diatoms the cell walls form two thin over lapping shells, epitheca and hypotheca.
  6. They fit together as in a soap box.
  7. The walls are embedded with silica and are indestructible.
  8. The diatoms have left behind large amount of cell wall deposits in their habitat over billions of years to form diatomaceous earth (or) Kieselghur.
  9. Diatoms are two types – Centrale diatoms and pennales.
  10. They reproduce asexually by binary fission and sexually by the formation of gametes.

II) DinoflageIlates:

  1. Dinoflagellates are mostly marine and photosynthetic organisms.
  2. They appear yellow, green, brown, blue or red depending upon the pigments present in the cells.
  3. The cell wall has stiff cellulose on the outer surface.
  4. They have two flagellae, one lies longitudinally and the other transversely in a furrow between the wall plates.
  5. The flagellae produce spinning movements, so these dinoflagellates are called whirling whips.
  6. The nucleus has condensed chromosomes and do not have histones.
  7. This nucleus is called mesokaryon.
  8. Marine dinoflagellates like Noctiluca show bioluminescence.
  9. Red Dino flagellates like Gonyaulax under go rapid multiplication in the Medeterranian sea and cause red tides.
  10. Toxins released by dinoflagellates may even kill the marine animals like fishes.

III) Euglenoids:

  1. Euglenoids are fresh water organisms found in stagnant water.
  2. They are unicellular and flagellate.
  3. Covered by a protein rich layer called pellicle, which gives flexibility to the body.
  4. They have two flagellae, a short and a long one.
  5. The anterior part of the body consists of cytostome, cytopharynx and reservoir.
  6. On the membrane of the reservoir an eye spot or stigma is present.
  7. In the presence of sunlight they perform photosynthesis.
  8. In the absence of sunlight they predate on smaller organisms and behave as heterotrophs.
  9. The reproduction is by longitudinal binary fission.
  10. Palmella stage is found. Ex: Euglena.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

IV) Slime Moulds:

  1. Slime moulds are saprophytic protists.
  2. Under suitable conditions, they form an aggregation called plasmodium.
  3. It grows and spreads over several feet and forms fruiting bodies bearing spores at their tips.

V) Protozoans:

  1. All protozoans are heterotrophs and live as predators or parasites.
  2. They are believed to be the primitive relatives of animals,
  3. They do not contain cell wall. The protoplasm is surrounded by plasma membrane.
  4. There are four major groups in protozoa.

a) Amoeboid Protozoans:

  1. These organisms live in freshwater, sea water and moist soil.
  2. They move and capture the prey with the help of pseudopodia as in Amoeba.
  3. Marine forms have silica shells on their surface.
  4. Entamoeba like forms are parasites.

b) Flagellated Protozoans:

  1. The members are either free living or parasites, contain flagellae.
  2. Parasite forms cause diseases like sleeping sickness. Ex: Trypanosoma.

c) Ciliated Protozoans:

  1. Aquatic, actively moving organisms because of thousands of cilia on them.
  2. They have a gullet that opens to the out side of cell surface. Ex: Paramecium

d) Sporozoans:

  1. This includes diverse organisms that have an infectious spore like stage in their life cycle.
  2. Ex: Plasmodium which causes malaria fever in man.

Exercise

Question 1.
State two economically important uses of:
(a) Heterotrophic bacteria (b) Archaebacteria
Answer:
a) Heterotrophic bacteria is useful

  1. In making of curd from milk, (by lactic acid bacteria)
  2. in the production of alcohol, antibiotics, enzymes and aminoacids.

b) Archaebacteria is useful in

  1. Production of methane (biogas) from the dung of ruminants
  2. Biotechnology

Question 2.
Give a comparative account of the classes of Kingdom Fungi on the basis of the following:
(i) mode of nutrition
(ii) mode of reproduction
Answer:
(i) Mode of nutrition:

  • Phycomycetes: Obligate parasites
  • Ascomycetes: Saprophytic, decomposers
  • Basidiomycetes: Parasites
  • Deuteromycetes: Saprophytes, decomposers.

(ii) Mode of reproduction:

  • Phycomycetes: Asexually by zoospores or aplanospores, sexually by gametes.
  • Ascomycetes: Asexually by conidia, sexually by ascospores.
  • Basidiomycetes: Asexually by fragmentation, sexually by fusion of two somatic cells.
  • Deuteromycetes: Asexually by conidia.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 3.
Give a brief account of viruses with respect to their structure and nature of genetic material. Also name four common viral diseases.
Answer:
Viruses:

  • Structurally Virus consists of two parts. The outer protein coat is called capsid and the central core consists of genetic material.
  • Genetic material in virus is either DNA or RNA it may be ds or ss.
  • Four Common Viral diseases: (i) Polio (ii) AIDS (iii) Hepatitis (iv) Influenza

Question 4.
Organise a discussion in your class on the topic – Are viruses living or non-living?
Answer:
I) Living characters of Viruses:

  1. Presence of genetic material DNA or RNAnswer:
  2. The ability of multiplication.
  3. Can infect the host.
  4. Host specificity.
  5. Occurrence of mutations.

II) Non-living characters of Viruses:

  1. Behave like particles only out side the host.
  2. Ability to get crystallisation.
  3. Protoplasm is absent.
  4. High specific gravity as in non-living objects.
  5. Metabolic aspects like growth respiration, nutrition are absent.

Conclusion: Viruses are not truly ‘living’. They exist in crystal form outside the host. They are called obligate parasites.

Question 5.
Suppose you accidentally find an old preserved permanent slide without a label and in your effort to identify it, you place the slide under the microscope and observe the following features;
a) unicellular body
b) well-defined nucleus
c) biflagellate condition – one flagellum lying longitudinally and the other transversely
What would you identify it as? Can you name the kingdom it belongs to?
Answer:
a) The permanent slide is identified as a Dinoflagellate.
b) Dinoflagellate belongs to kingdom Protista.

Question 6.
Polluted water bodies have usually high abundance of plants like Nostoc and Oscillatoria. Give reasons.
Answer:
When the nutrients are excess in the polluted water containing an abundance of nostoc and oscillatory, the plants utilise the nutrients, perform growth and reproduction and multiply their number enormously resulting in algal blooms.

Question 7.
Cyanobacteria and heterotrophic bacteria have been clubbed together in Eubacteria of kingdom Monera as per the five kingdom classification, even though the two are vastly different from each other. Is this grouping of the two types of taxa in the same kingdom justified? If so why?
Answer:
Yes, because both are unicellular prokaryotes.

Question 8.
What observable features in Trypanosoma would make you classify it under kingdom Protista?
Answer:

  1. Trypanosoma gambiense is a flagellate parasite.
  2. It causes African sleeping sickness or gambia fever in African people.
  3. It lives in the blood and cerebrospinal fluid of man.
  4. Reason for the inclusion of Trypanosoma under protista are – the cell contain well defined nucleus, membrane bound organelles, flagellum and reproduce asexually by longitudinal binary fission.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 9.
At a stage of their life cycle, ascomycetous fungi produce the fruiting bodies like cleistothecium, perithecium or apothecium. How are these three types of fruiting bodies differ from each other?
Answer:

  1. In members of ascomycetous, sexual spores called ascospores are produced in sac like structures called asci.
  2. The asci are arranged in different types of Suiting bodies called ascocarps.
  3. The globose ascocarp without opening is called cleistothecium
  4. The flask shaped ascocarp with an apical opening is called perithecium.
  5. The cup or saucer shaped ascocarp is called apothecium.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Five Kingdom classification was proposed by
1. R.H.Whittaker
2. Linnaeus
3. Theophrastus
4. Hutchinson
Answer:
1. R.H.Whittaker

Question 2.
Two kingdoms that are common to all biological classifications are
1. Monera and Plantae
2. Plantae and Animalia
3. Protista and Monera
4. Animals and Fungi
Answer:
2. Plantae and Animalia

Question 3.
Five kingdom classification is not based on
1) Complexity of body organisation
2) Presence or absence of a well-defined nucleus
3) Mode of reproduction
4) Types of pigments
Answer:
1) Complexity of body organisation

Question 4.
Among 5-Kingdom classification, eukaryotes are placed in how many kingdoms?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
Answer:
4) 4

Question 5.
Cell walls of fungi are made up of
1. Cellulose
2. Lignin
3. Chitin
4. Suberin
Answer:
3. Chitin

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 6.
The cell wall of fungi contains a
1. Homopolymer
2. Monosaccharide
3. Heteropolymer
4. Cellulos
Answer:
3. Heteropolymer

Question 7.
Atmospheric nitrogen in Nostoc is fixed in
1. Heterocysts
2. Holdfast
3. Hormogonia
4. Akinetes
Answer:
1. Heterocysts

Question 8.
Nitrogen fixing cyanobaterium is
1. Rhizobium
2. Nostoc
3. Chlorella
4. Methanogen
Answer:
2. Nostoc

Question 9.
Chief producers in the oceans are
1. Diatoms
2. Green algae
3. Blue-green algae
4. Bryophytes
Answer:
1. Diatoms

Question 10.
Capsid is found in
1. Viroids
2. Prions
3. Viruses
4. Lichens
Answer:
3. Viruses

Question 11.
Red colour of red sea is due to
1. Porphyra
2. Trichodesmium
3. Polysiphonia
4. Anabaena
Answer:
2. Trichodesmium

Question 12.
Red tides in Medeterranian sea are because of
1. Gonyaulax
2. Trichodesmium
3. Fungi
4. Actinomycetes
Answer:
1. Gonyaulax

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 13.
The smallest living cells which can survive without oxygen are
1. Bacteria
2. Viruses
3. Mycoplasmas
4. Cyanobacteria
Answer:
3. Mycoplasmas

Question 14.
Whirling whips are
1. Chrysophytes
2. Dinoflagellates
3. Euglenoids
4. Slime moulds
Answer:
2. Dinoflagellates

Question 15.
Photosynthetic stigma or eye spot is found in
1. Trypanosoma
2. Amoeba
3. Gonyaulax
4. Euglena
Answer:
4. Euglena

Question 16.
Sleeping sickness disease is caused by
1. Trypanosoma
2. Paramoecium
3. Entamoeba
4. Plasmodium
Answer:
1. Trypanosoma

Question 17.
The DNA of Bacteria (E.coli) is
1) Double stranded & linear
2) double stranded & circular
3) Single stranded & linear
4) Single stranded & circular
Answer:
2) double stranded & circular

Question 18.
Identify the wrong combination
1. Polyporus -Bracket fungus
2. Lycoperdon – Puffball
3. Rhizopus – Bread mould
4. Cuscuta – Autotroph
Answer:
4. Cuscuta – Autotroph

Question 19.
Cell wall of archebacteria is made up of chemicals
1) Peptidoglycans
2) Pseudomurein
3) lip polysaccharide
4) Cellulose
Answer:
2) Pseudomurein

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 20.
Rejuvenatory spores in diatoms are
1. Auxospores
2. Parthenospores
3. Akinetes
4. Conidia
Answer:
1. Auxospores

Question 21.
Identify the mis-match of the following
1. Coccus – Spherical
2. Spirillum – Spiral
3. Bacillus – Rodshaped
4. Vibrio-Filament like
Answer:
4. Vibrio-Filament like

Question 22.
Sexual spores are exogenously produced in
1. Penicillium
2. Albugo
3. Agaricus
4. Colletotrichum
Answer:
3. Agaricus

Question 23.
Asexual spores are generally not formed in
1. Mucor
2. Claviceps
3. Puccinia
4. Altemaria
Answer:
4. Altemaria

Question 24.
A primitive animal is
1. Noctiluca
2. Euglena
3. Gonyaulax
4. Trypanosoma
Answer:
4. Trypanosoma

Question 25.
Nutritionally most of fungi are
1. Saprophytes only
2. Parasites only
3. Symbionts only
4. Saprophytes or parasites
Answer:
4. Saprophytes or parasites

Question 26.
All Protozoans have
1. Pseudopodia
2. Contractile vacuole
3. Cilia
4. Eukaryotic organisation
Answer:
4. Eukaryotic organisation

Question 27.
Cell wall is found in somatic body of
1. Euglena
2. Entamoeba
3. Slime moulds
4. Chlamydomonas
Answer:
4. Chlamydomonas

Question 28.
Characteristic spores of diatoms are
1. Zoospores
2. Ascospores
3. Auxospores
4. Basidiospores
Answer:
3. Auxospores

Question 29.
Diatoms are indestructible because of the presence of
1) CaCO3 in cell wall
2) Siliceous cell wall
3) Mucilagenous cell wall
4) A11 of the above
Answer:
2) Siliceous cell wall

Question 30.
Witches broom in plants is caused by
1. Trichoderma
2. Actinomycetes
3. Mycoplasmas
4. Bacteria
Answer:
3. Mycoplasmas

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 31.
The most primitive organisms showing oxygenic photosynthesis are
1. Green algae
2. Chrysophytes
3. Green and purplesuiphur bacteria
4. Cyanobacteria
Answer:
4. Cyanobacteria

Question 32.
Smut and rust fungi are respectively
1. Puccinia, Ustilago
2. Ustilago, puccinia
3. Polyporus, Lycoperdon
4. Alternaria, Trichoderma
Answer:
2. Ustilago, puccinia

Question 33.
Monera includes
1) All prokaryotic-only unicellular
2) All eukaryotic — only unicellular
3) All prokaryotic-both unicellular & multicellular
4) All the above
Answer:
3) All prokaryotic-both unicellular & multicellular

Question 34.
Vlroids have
1. Nucleic acid & protein
2. DNA only
3. RNA only
4. DNA&RNA
Answer:
3. RNA only

Question 35.
Puccinia is
1. a fungus that produces antibiotic
2. a fungus of class phycomycetes
3. a fungus that causes rust disease
4. an imperfect fungus
Answer:
3. a fungus that causes rust disease

Question 36.
The protein coat of virus is called
1. Capsule
2. Capsomere
3. Capsid
4. Cypsela
Answer:
3. Capsid

Question 37.
The Viruses which infect bacteria are known as
1. Zoophages
2. Bacteriophages
3. Cyanophages
4. Phytophages
Answer:
2. Bacteriophages

Question 38.
Viroids differ from viruses in the
1. absence of RNA
2. presence or DNA
3. absence of a protein coat
4. absence of nucleic acid and protein
Answer:
3. absence of a protein coat

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 39.
Agaricus belongs to the clašs
1. Ascomycetes
2. Phycomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes
Answer:
3. Basidiomycetes

Question 40.
Lichens are
1. Parasites
2. Saprophytes
3. Symbionts
4. Chemotrophs
Answer:
3. Symbionts

Question 41.
Viroids have
1. Single – stranded RNA not enclosed by protein còat
2. Single – stranded DNA not enclosed by protein coat
3. Double strande DNA enclosed by protein coat
4. Double – stranded RNA enclosed by protein coat
Answer:
1. Single – stranded RNA not enclosed by protein còat

Question 42.
Lichens are very good’ air pollution indicators because
1) Their population is high at highly polluted area
2) They are very sensitive to SO2, and die at higher level of SO2
3) They play an important role in soil formation
4) Their population is high at the location with high level of SO2
Answer:
2) They are very sensitive to SO2, and die at higher level of SO2

Question 43.
Zoospores are present In
1. Riccia
2. Anabaena
3. Albugo
4. Nostoc
Answer:
3. Albugo

Question 44.
RNA Is not found in one of the following organisms
1. TMV
2. HIV
3. Viroids
4. Prions
Answer:
4. Prions

Question 45.
Asexual spores are generally not found in
1. Ustilago
2. Neurospora
3. Albugo
4. Trichoderma
Answer:
1. Ustilago

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 46.
Dikaryotic phase is not found in
1. Aspergillus
2. Agaricus
3. Puccinia
4. Mucor
Answer:
4. Mucor

Question 47.
The unique character that unified the kingdom plantae of Linnaeus is
1) all organisms have green pigment
2) All organisms are autotrophic
3) All organisms have well developed nucleus
4) All organisms bear cell wall in their cells
Answer:
4) All organisms bear cell wall in their cells

Question 48.
The bacteria forming blooms in polluted water bodies are nutritionally
1) Photosynthetic autotrophs
2) chemosynthetic autotrophs
3) Heterotrophs
4) Saprophytic
Answer:
1) Photosynthetic autotrophs

Question 49.
Maximum modes of nutrition occur in
1) Monera
2) Fungi
3) Protista
4) Plantae
Answer:
1) Monera

Question 50.
Naked cytoplasm, multi nuculeated and saprophytic nature is the characteristic of
1) Mycoplasma
2) BGA
3) Archaebacteria
4) Slime moulds
Answer:
4) Slime moulds

Question 51.
Mark the mis-matched pair
1) Noctiluca -Bioluminescence
2) Whirling whips-soap box like body structure
3) Diatomite-Kiesulgur
4) Blue green algae -zygotic meiosis
Answer:
4) Blue green algae -zygotic meiosis

Question 52.
Select the incorrect statement w.r.t to virus
1) Connecting link between living and nonliving
2) An inert virus is called virion
3) Viruses are obligatory intracellular parasites
4) They do not have the ability to get crystallized eg TMV.
Answer:
4) They do not have the ability to get crystallized eg TMV.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 53.
Coenocytic vegetative mycelium Is found in .
1) Neurospora
2) Rhizopus
3) Pencillium
4) Ustilago
Answer:
2) Rhizopus

Question 54.
Infectious proteins are present in
1) Prions
2) Viroids
3) Both 1 &2
4) Satellite Viruses
Answer:
1) Prions

Question 55.
Select the correct match
1) Phycomycctes-claviceps
2) Ascomycetes- Alternaria
3) Deuteromycetes- Trichoderma
4) Basidiomycetes-colletotrichum
Answer:
4) Basidiomycetes-colletotrichum

Question 56.
Aplanospores, non motile spores are present in
1) Rhizopus
2) Mucor
3) Both 1 & 2
4) Cyanobacteria
Answer:
3) Both 1 & 2

Question 57.
Mark the odd one recording fungi
1) Mycorrhizal association is symbiotic relation ship
2) Septate, Multicellular mycelium is present in Ascomycetes
3) Palmella stage is found in slime moulds
4) Pellicle is present in Euglena
Answer:
2) Septate, Multicellular mycelium is present in Ascomycetes

Question 58.
Dikaryophase in Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes is
1) Diploid and dikaryotic
2) Haploid and dikaryotic
3) Diploid and monokaryotic
4) Haploid and monokaryotic
Answer:
2) Haploid and dikaryotic

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 59.
Choose the correct one from the following
1) True nucleus is absent in Anabaena
2) A virus has both DNA and RNA
3) TMV is a tadpole shaped phytophage
4) Cercospora is considered as Drosophila of plant kingdom
Answer:
1) True nucleus is absent in Anabaena

Question 60.
Archaébacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different
1) Cell organelles structure
2) Cell wall composition
3) Nuclear structure
4) Ribosomal structure.
Answer:
2) Cell wall composition

Question 61.
Virus envelope is known as –
1) capsid
2) virion
3) nuclJtein
4) core
Answer:
1) capsid

Question 62.
With respect to fungal sexual cycle , choose the correct sequence of events.
1) Karyogamy, plasmogamy and meiosis
2) Meiosis, plasmogamy and karyogamy
3) Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meisosis
4) Meiosis, karyogamy and plasmoganiy
Answer:
3) Plasmogamy, karyogamy and meisosis

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 2 Biological Classification

Question 63.
Which pair is odd?
1) Phycomycetes — Aquatic fungi
2) Basidiomycetes — Sac fungi
3) Ascomycetes — Penicillum
4) Basidiomycetes — Puffballs
Answer:
2) Basidiomycetes — Sac fungi

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter From Mother Earth

Telangana SCERT TS 7th Class English Study Material Pdf Unit 8C A Letter From Mother Earth Textbook Questions and Answers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter From Mother Earth

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
What is the change in the attitude of the human beings towards Mother Earth ?
Answer:
Long ago, humans used to worship Mother Earth as goddess and they used to care her. But now, they cut the big trees down with big axes, they use cars and buses which pollute air with smoke and fumes.

Question 2.
How do forests and mountains help to make rain and keep life on earth moving?
Answer:
Forests and mountains stop the monsoons while moving in particular direction, and give us rains.

Question 3.
Do you love her as much as you love your mother ? If so, what are you doing to save her ?
Answer:
I love Mother Earth as much as my mother. I protest against the people who are cutting down the trees. I advise and motivate my friends and neighbours to plant more trees in front of their houses.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Question 4.
Write a reply to her expressing your concern and display in on the wall magazine.
Answer:
My dear Mother Earth,

We feel very sorry for our thoughtless actions which lead to a great havoc to us. We are repenting what we have done before. We promise you, we take care of you. We never cut down trees indiscriminately. We use bicycles to travel short distances to reduce the pollution of air. We plant so many trees before we cut any tree for our fuel or making a house. We assure you, we will be the ideal citizens of the world.

Yours lovingly,
Children of Mother Earth
(world citizens)

Question 5.
What is the most touching thing that you find in this letter ?
Answer:
The most touching thing in this letter is a plea to all the children by Mother Earth. Even though humans behave foolishly like idiots, she doesn’t get anger. She appeals to all the children to be aware of mother earth and how to take care of her. She explains to them how she helps the humans. She wishes the children to be good citizens and wants them to take care of her.

A Letter From Mother Earth Summary in English

Dear children,

You are all clever. You know me well. Throughout centuries everyone has been praising me. I am 4.6 billion years old. I have been supplying your needs. In ancient days people worshipped me as Goddess. But now people are cutting down my trees and polluting eveything. Unless there are trees and mountains, there is no food. But they are destroying them. I feel sad. I am talking to you so that when you grow old, you may be protective of me.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Glossary:

affection (n) = a feeling of liking and caring about someone or something
Usage: My father shows a lot of affection on pet animals.

billion (n) = 1,000,000,000; one thousand million.
Usage: The earth was formed 4.6 billion years ago.

pollute (v) = to make air, water or land too dirty and dangerous for people to use in a safe way
Usage: Cars and buses pollute our atmosphere.

destroy (v) = to damage to severely that it no longer exists
Usage: Tosrnedos destroyed so many buildings last night.

bountiful (ad) = available in large quantities
Usage: There are bountiful supply of food.

barren (adj) = barren land is dry and plants cannot grow there
Usage: There is a vast tract of barren land outside of Vijayawada.

survive (v) = to stay alive
Usage: Some passengers survived the accident.

Self Assessment:

How well have I understood this unit?

Read and tick (✓) in the appropriate box.

TS 7th Class English Guide 8C A Letter From Mother Earth 2

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Section – A : Reading Comprehension

Please also practise additional exercises given from P.No. 301 to 312

(Questions 1 – 10) : Read the following from the lesson “Snakes in India”.

Only about 50 of the more than 200 species of snakes in India are venomous. Of these, only four – Russell’s viper, saw-scaled viper, Indian cobra and common krait – are really dangerous. They are found across the country, from desert to fertile plains. While all the four are most common in rural India, Indian cobras and common kraits can be found in and around any human dwelling, posing danger even in the suburbs of major cities like Mumbai, Kolkata, and New Delhi.

Of the death-dealing quartet, the Russell’s viper is found from the paddy fields and river valleys of north India to the densely forested hills of Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka in the south. Tan or brownish, thick-bodied, and reaching a length of one metre, it has long, movable fangs that inject a large amount of venom, making it even more dangerous than the Indian cobra.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5 M

Question 1.
How many species of snakes are really dangerous ? ( )
A) 50
B) 4
C) 200
D) 15
Answer:
B) 4

Question 2.
_________ among the following snakes is not dangerous. ( )
A) Indian cobra
B) common krait
C) garden snake
D) Russell’s viper
Answer:
C) garden snake

Question 3.
Russell’s viper is ( )
A) bluish – black
B) black
C) glistening
D) tan or brownish
Answer:
D) tan or brownish

Question 4.
Indian cobras are found ( )
A) only in deserts
B) only in valleys
C) only in densely forested areas
D) throughout India
Answer:
D) throughout India

Question 5.
Al snakes _________ ( )
A) are venomous
B) are not venomous
C) are dangerous
D) black in colour
Answer:
B) are not venomous

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

(6 – 10) Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 5 × 2 = 10M

Question 6.
What is the reason for high death rate due to snake bites ?
Answer:
The reason for high death rate due to snake bites is ignorance about snakes and snake bite prevention.

Question 7.
What precautions should we take to avoid snake bites ?
Answer:
To avoid snake bites we should wear long trousers and shoes while walking through long grass, carry a lantern or torch at night and beat the ground with a long stick as we walk.

Question 8.
Where does the cobra stay for most of its time ?
Answer:
A cobra spends most of its time underground.

Question 9.
When are snakes more active ?
Answer:
Snakes are more active during the monsoon season.

Question 10.
What type of creatures are snakes ?
Answer:
Snakes are timid, nocturnal creatures.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Read the following passage.

Every family with two or more children often experiences sibling rivalry at one time or the other. Children, in general, fight with each other for their parents’ attention. They fight among themselves mostly on trivial issues. If it does not get excessive, this kind of rivalry can, in fact, be a healthy competition that trains children to share, respect one another. They will learn to deal with frustration and displeasures in the maturing process.

The firstborns generally feel that they don’t have to share their parents’ love and attention. But when the next baby or siblings come along, they feel neglected and that changes everything. The first child starts to feel that he/she is no longer the centre of attraction and that he/she is being sidelined because of the new one. Some children might develop negative feelings and emotional imbalance, which may lead to regressive behaviour.

(11 – 12) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 2 × 1 = 2 M

Question 11.
Sibling rivalry is a healthy competition if ( )
A) children have frustrations
B) there are too many fights
C) there are not too many fights
D) children feel neglected
Answer:
C) there are not too many fights

Question 12.
Children fight among themselves over ( )
A) important issues
B) unimportant issues
C) their parent’s belongings
D) competition
Answer:
B) unimportant issues

(13 – 16) Answer the questions in two or three sentences each. 4 × 2 = 8 M

Question 13.
How do fewer fights help children ?
Answer:
Fewer fights help children learn to deal with frustration and displeasures in the maturing process.

Question 14.
What do families with two or more children experience ?
Answer:
Families with two or more children experience sibling rivalry at some time or the other.

Question 15.
What do the first horns feel ?
Answer:
The 1st horns feel that they don’t have to share their parents’ love and affection.

Question 16.
When do the 1st horns feel neglected ?
Answer:
The 1st boms feel neglected when the next baby or sibling comes along.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Section – B : Vocabulary & Grammar

Read the following passage focussing on the parts that are underlined and answer the questions given at the end. Write the answers in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5 M

Did you know that most of us have a few cancer cells floating (17) around in our bodies. They keep a lookout for a weak (18) spot where they can begin their destruction. Our defence (19) system begins to produce antibodies to destroyed (20) them. But the moment this defence mechanism weakens, the cancer cells multiply rapidly (21) and damage major body organs.

Question 17.
Choose the antonym of the word. ( )
A) sinking
B) shallow
C) deep
D) busy
Answer:
A) sinking

Question 18.
Choose the noun form of the word. ( )
A) weakened
B) weakening
C) weakness
D) weak point
Answer:
C) weakness

Question 19.
Choose the synonym of ‘defence’ ( )
A) protect
B) protection
C) attack
D) argue
Answer:
B) protection

Question 20.
Choose the correct form of the word. ( )
A) destruction
B) had destroyed
C) destroyed
D) destroy
Answer:
D) destroy

Question 21.
Choose the opposite of the underlined word ( )
A) quickly
B) gradually
C) immensely
D) temporarily
Answer:
B) gradually

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

(Q. 22 – 26) Complete the following passage choosing right words from those given below it. Each blank is numbered, and for each blank four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5M

Swapna is a very active child who is always running about making a lot of noise. She is _________ (22) youngest of four children in the family. She often gets _________ (23) trouble because of _________ (24) brother David. He is always shouting _________ (25) her. But Swapna never listens _________ (26) him.

Question 22.
A) the
B) a
C) an
D) no article
Answer:
A) the

Question 23.
A) for
B) in
C) into
D) about
Answer:
C) into

Question 24.
A) she
B) her
C) his
D) hers
Answer:
B) her

Question 25.
A) in
B) for
C) from
D) at
Answer:
D) at

Question 26.
A) to
B) at
C) on
D) towards
Answer:
A) to

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

(Q. 27 – 31) Read the following passage. Five sentences are numbered. Each numbered sentence has an error. Find the error and write the correct answer in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5 M

(27) Contrary for what many people believe, most snakes are timid, natural creatures (28) feeding most on rats, mice etc. (29) They attack humans only when actual stepped upon or provoked in some way. (30) Precautions such as wear shoes and (31) long trousers will lessen the risk of being bite.
Answer:
27. Contrary to
28. feeding mostly on
29. when actually
30. wearing shoes
31. risk of being bitten.

Section – C : Conventions of Writing

(Q. 32) Read the following passage carefully and supply punctuation marks (., ? ” “) and capital letters, wherever necessary. Also correct the spelling of the underlined word. 5 M

As he neared the village he met a number of people but he didn’t know any of them. The villagers also stared at him equally surprized who is this man said one i’ve never seen him before said another.
Answer:
As he neared the village, he met a number of people but he didn’t know any of them. The villagers also stared at him equally surprised. “Who is this man ?” said one. “I’ve never seen him before,” said another.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Section – D : Creative Writing (Discourses). – 12 M

Question 33.
The news of Kamal being bitten by a cobra spread around. You are a news reporter of ‘Daily Times’. Write a news report for your news paper reporting Kamal’s case. Include the points mentioned below.

  • What happened to him ?
  • What he did ?
  • What the relatives and the doctor did ?
  • Kamal’s health
  • blood transfusion.

Answer:

A venomous snake bites a farmer

Mumbai, August 12th, 20xx

Tengal Kamal, a 25 year old farmer living near Goregaon was working bare foot when he felt a sharp sting on his right foot. On examining his foot he saw two tiny marks near the ankle. Convinced it was a snake bite, he tied a rope just above his knee and called out to a relative working nearby.

He was immediately taken to a nearby local doctor, in a taxi. Unfortunately, the doctor was not a fully qualified allopathic practitioner and did not know about the anti – snake venom. He prescribed antibiotic tablets and gave him a pain killing injection. Kamal was advised to take rest.

During the next few hours, Kamal felt increasingly giddy and vomited continually. He felt unbearable pain so was immediately rushed to a big public hospital. His condition was very serious. His blood was transfused and finally he is out of danger.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Question 34.
Write a story using the given hints.

Hints : Two friends travelling through a forest – agree to help each other in danger – suddenly a bear appears – one at once climbs up a tree – the other lies down on the ground and holds his breath – the bear comes up to him – smells his face – thinks he is dead – goes away – the first friend now comes down – asks the other what bear said in his ear – answers: “Beware of a friend who runs away in time of danger.”

Answer:

Two Friends and a Bear

There were two friends. They were travelling through a forest. They had agreed that they would help each other in danger. Suddenly there appeared a bear before them. One friend saw the bear and to save himself climbed up a tree. The other didn’t know how to climb. At once to escape from the bear, he lay down on the ground and held his breath. Soon the bear came near him and smelled his face.

He thought him dead and went away without doing anything to him. lt is said that bears do not attack the dead ones. The friend who had climbed up the tree came down and asked him what the bear said in his ear. The other friend told him that the bear said, “Beware of a friend who runs away in time of danger”.

Moral: A friend in need is a friend indeed.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Additional Exercises

Section – A : Reading Comprehension

Questions 1 – 10:

1. Read the following stanzas.

Trees are the kindest Things I know,
They do no harm, they simply grow
And spread a shade for sleepy cows,
And gather birds among their boughs…..

They give us fruit in leaves above,
And wood to make our houses of,
And leaves to burn on Halloween
And in the Spring new buds of green.

They are the first when day’s begun
To touch the beams of morning sun,
They are the last to hold the light
When evening changes into night.

(1 – 5) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The poet calls the trees the kindest things because ( )
A) they grow
B) they do no harm
C) they gather birds
D) they give fruits
Answer:
B) they do no harm

Question 2.
In the spring trees give us ( )
A) wood
B) leaves
C) fruits
D) new green buds
Answer:
D) new green buds

Question 3.
The trees ( )
A) are the first to hold the evening light
B) give new green buds in autumn
C) are the first to touch the beams of the morning sun
D) give wood for firewood
Answer:
C) are the first to touch the beams of the morning sun

Question 4.
_________ form the houses of birds. ( )
A) Leaves of trees
B) Wood from trees
C) Boughs of trees
D) Beams of the sun
Answer:
C) Boughs of trees

Question 5.
Trees _________ a shade for _________ ( )
A) gather, birds
B) give, fruits
C) burn, leaves
D) spread, sleepy cows
Answer:
D) spread, sleepy cows

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

(6 – 10) Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.

Question 6.
What do trees do at night ?
Answer:
At night trees hum a drowsy lullaby of sleepy children long ago.

Question 7.
What do trees give us ?
Answer:
Trees give us fruit, wood to make houses, leaves to bum on Halloween and new green buds in the spring.

Question 8.
What do trees do before anyone else ?
Answer:
Trees touch the beams of the morning sun before anyone else.

Question 9.
Pick 5 pairs of rhyming words.
Answer:
Know-grow, cows – boughs, Halloween – green, begun – sun, light – night.

Question 10.
Why don’t trees harm anyone ?
Answer:
Trees don’t harm anyone because they are very kind.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

2. Read the following passage.

Do you know how old I am ? I am 4.6 billion years old, much older than your father, your grandfather and any of your great grandfathers.

I give you food to eat, like rice, wheat, and fruits. You also wear clothes made of cotton and live in houses made of leaves, wood, and bricks; all of which come from me. Long ago, humans used to worship me as a goddess and they used to care for me. But now they have big axes to cut my trees down; and cars and buses to pollute my air with smoke and fumes.

They don’t respect me any more.

Your teacher must have told you how my forests and mountains help to make rain and keep life on earth going. But nowadays, even my mountains and forests are being destroyed.

(1 – 5) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The Earth is _________ years old. ( )
A) 4.6 billion
B) 4.6 million
C) 4.6 trillian
D) 4.6 arab
Answer:
A) 4.6 billion

Question 2.
Earlier humans used to _________( )
A) pollute air
B) cut trees
C) worship earth
D) live in palatial house
Answer:
C) worship earth

Question 3.
Now people ………………… ( )
A) pray to Mother Earth
B) pollute earth
C) build houses with its leaves
D) eat food
Answer:
B) pollute earth

Question 4.
‘They don’t respect me’. Who are ‘they’? ( )
A) plants
B) animals
C) people earlier
D) people now a days.
Answer:
D) people now a days.

Question 5.
Forests and mountains _________ ( )
A) bring us rain
B) stop floods
C) keep earth cool
D) keep earth fresh
Answer:
A) bring us rain

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

(6 – 10) Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.

Question 6.
Why is Mother Earth sad?
Answer:
Mother Earth is sad because people now are destroying its forests and mountains which keep life on Earth going and are polluting the Earth.

Question 7.
What does Mother Earth want children to do ?
Answer:
Mother Earth wants children to take care of her by planting trees in their houses, schools, towns and villages.

Question 8.
Why do we call Earth ‘Mother’ ?
Answer:
We call the Earth ‘Mother’ because for centuries she has been taking care of people just as a mother takes care of her children.

Question 9.
What have poets done for centuries ?
Answer:
For centuries poets have written in praise of Mother Earth.

Question 10.
How are people harming ‘the Earth’ ?
Answer:
People are harming the Earth by cutting down trees and polluting its air with smoke and fumes released from cars and buses.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Questions 11 – 16:

3. Read the following passage.

Conservation of water in the agricultural sector is essential since water is necessary for the growth of plants and crops. A depleting water table and a rise in salinity due to overuse of chemical fertilisers and pesticides have made matters serious. Various methods of water harvesting and recharging have been and are being applied all over the world to tackle the probelm.

In areas where rainfall is low and water is scarce, the local people have used simple techniques that are suited to their region and reduce the demand for water. In India’s arid and semi-arid areas, the ‘tank’ system is traditionally the backbone of agricultural production. Tanks are constructed either by bunding or by excavating the ground and collecting rainwater.

(11 – 12) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 11.
In arid and semi-arid areas _________ system is used for agriculture. ( )
A) tank
B) river
C) dam
D) bore well
Answer:
A) tank

Question 12.
Over use of pesticides has _________ ( )
A) reduced water levels
B) made water salty
C) made conservation difficult
D) made water essential for agriculture
Answer:
B) made water salty

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.

Question 13.
How are tanks constructed ?
Answer:
Tanks are constructed either by bunding or by excavating the ground and collecting rain water.

Question 14.
What activities have made matters serious ?
Answer:
Over use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides have made matters serious.

Question 15.
Why is water conservation necessary for agriculture ?
Answer:
Conservation of water is necessary for agriculture since water is necessary for the growth of plants.

Question 16.
How is the world tackling water problem ?
Answer:
The world is tackling water problem by harvesting and recharging water.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

4. Read the following passage.

I was taken as a prisoner of war in July 1917 to Colsterdale camp near Masham, and I didn’t want to stay there.

Then one day I had an idea – 1 would walk out through the gate disguised as our English canteen manager, Mr. Budd. So I started watching him as he left the camp every evening. I noticed that the sentries never asked him for the password. Everybody knew Mr. Budd too well for that.

I decided to travel as a woman as every male passenger in those war days had to produce a document when buying a railway ticket.

The day of the escape arrived and I approached the gate disguised as Mr. Budd. Mr. Budd used to leave the camp at about 8 pm, so I decided to leave at about ten mintues to eight. As the sentries were usually changed at eight o’clock sharp, I was sure that the new sentry would not be surprised to see the second and real Mr. Budd leaving the camp. So I walked to the gate smoking my pipe as if I were Mr. Budd after a day’s work at the canteen. I shouted ‘Guard!” as Mr. Budd did. The sentry called out, ‘Who’s there?’ ’Budd,’ I answered. ‘Right,’ he said and opened the big door.

(11 – 12) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 11.
The sentries never asked Mr. Budd for password because ( )
A) he always forgot it
B) he felt hurt if asked
C) Mr. Budd knew everyone
D) Everyone knew Mr. Budd
Answer:
D) Everyone knew Mr. Budd

Question 12.
The narrator decided to dress as a woman because ( )
A) he wanted to escape from jail
B) he wanted to look like Mr. Budd
C) he wanted to travel by train
D) he didnot want to miss the chance of escaping
Answer:
C) he wanted to travel by train

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.

Question 13.
Why did the narrator decide to leave the camp at ten minutes to eight ?
Answer:
The sentries would change at 8 o’clock sharp. They would not be surprised to see the real Mr. Budd as they would not know that the narrator had left in the disguise of Mr. Budd.

Question 14.
What previlege did the female passengers have ?
Answer:
The female passengers didnot have to produce documents while buying a train ticket.

Question 15.
How did the narrator imitate Mr. Budd ?
Answer:
The narrator smoked a pipe as Mr. Budd did. On reaching the gate, he shouted ‘Guard’ like Mr. Budd and answered ‘Budd’ as he did when asked for name.

Question 16.
Who was the narrator ?
Answer:
The narrator was a prisoner of war.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Section – B : Vocabulary & Grammar

Questions 17 – 21:

Read the following passage focussing on the parts that are underlined and answer the questions given at the end. Write the answers in your answer booklet.

5. Music is an incredible (17) means that people can use (18) to communicate things, especially their feelings and emotions. When added to speech (19) in a song, it become (201 a power (21) device of communication.

Question 17.
Choose the synonym of the word ( )
A) believable
B) belief
C) unbelievable
D) habit
Answer:
C) unbelievable

Question 18.
Choose the antonym of the word ( )
A) not use
B) misuse
C) useful
D) disuse
Answer:
B) misuse

Question 19.
Choose the verb form of the word. ( )
A) speak
B) speechless
C) verbal
D) non verbal
Answer:
A) speak

Question 20.
Choose the correct word ( )
A) became
B) had become
C) becoming
D) becomes
Answer:
D) becomes

Question 21.
Choose the correct form of the word ( )
A) powered
B) powerful
C) powering
D) no correction
Answer:
B) powerful

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

6. Aunt Polly was angry (17) and (18) she had to laugh. He’s a bad boy, she said to myself (19) but I must look after (20) him. I don’t like to hit him. But I have to. If I don’t punish (21) him, he will grow up lazy and wicked.

Question 17.
Choose the noun form of the word ( )
A) angrily
B) anger
C) angered
D) agony
Answer:
B) anger

Question 18.
Choose the correct conjunction ( )
A) because
B) as
C) but
D) if
Answer:
C) but

Question 19.
Choose the correct word ( )
A) herself
B) herselves
C) himself
D) oneself
Answer:
A) herself

Question 20.
Choose the meaning of the word ( )
A) see off
B) take care
C) allow
D) neglect
Answer:
B) take care

Question 21.
Choose the antonym ( )
A) praise
B) abuse
C) hit
D) reward
Answer:
D) reward

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Questions 22 – 26:

Complete the following passage choosing right words from those given below. Each blank is numbered, and for each blank four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given. Choose the correct answer and write in your answer booklet.

7. Arctic turn is a well known migratory bird that _________ (22) in the North Pole region _________ (23) winter when the area is full _________ (24) snow, this bird finds it difficult _________ (25) its food _________ (26) it travels towards the south pole.

Question 22.
A) lived
B) living
C) lives
D) will live
Answer:
C) lives

Question 23.
A) At
B) In
C) For
D) From
Answer:
B) In

Question 24.
A) of
B) in
C) without
D) along
Answer:
A) of

Question 25.
A) of getting
B) getting
C) got
D) to get
Answer:
D) to get

Question 26.
A) so
B) because
C) when
D) but
Answer:
A) so

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

8. Man is the only living being _________ (22) can talk to his fellow men. Some birds _________ (23) say words which they hear people say. Animals cannot _________ (24) but _________ (25) make sounds. These sounds _________ (26) made in throats.

Question 22.
A) who
B) which
C) that
D) whom
Answer:
A) who

Question 23.
A) can
B) cannot
C) will not
D) could
Answer:
A) can

Question 24.
A) talk
B) talking
C) talked
D) talks
Answer:
A) talk

Question 25.
A) can
B) could
C) will
D) would
Answer:
A) can

Question 26.
A) is
B) be
C) are
D) would
Answer:
C) are

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Questions 27 – 31:

Read the following passage. Each numbered sentence has an error. Find the error and write the correct answer in your answer booklet.

9. (27) I give you food for eat. (28) You also wearing clothes (29) made of cotton yet live in houses made of leaves, wood and bricks. (30) Long ago humans used to worshiping me as Goddess and (31) them used to care for me.
Answer:
27. food to eat
28. wear clothes
29. and live in
30. used to worship
31. they used to

10. (27) Take what happened for Tengal Kamal (28) on a rain evening (29) on August 1981. (30) Kamal a 25 years old farmer was working barefoot in his fields when (31) he suddenly felt a sharp sting on his right feet.
Answer:
27. happened to
28. a rainy evening
29. in August 1981
30. 25 year old
31. right foot

Section – C : Conventions of Writing

Question 32:

(Q. 32) Read the following passage carefully and supply punctuation marks (., ? ” “) and capital letters, wherever necessary. Also correct the spelling of the underlined word. 5 M

11. One evening a farmer brout with him a tiny mangoose its a baby mangoose said his wife but*will soon be fully groan. He will be a friend to our son.
Answer:
One evening, a farmer brought with him a tiny mangoose. “It’s a baby mangoose,” said his wife, “but will soon be fully grown. He will be a friend to our son.”

12. Prevention is better than cure is the principal we follow today, nearly twenty centuries ago a great man named Charaka in his famous ayurvedic treatise Charakasamhita made certain remarks related to human health.
Answer:
“Prevention is better than cure” is the principle we follow today. Nearly twenty centuries ago a great man named Charaka, in his famous Ayurvedic treatise, ‘Charakasamhita’ made certain remarks related to human health.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Question 33.

13. In the lesson’ Snakes In India’ you read that Tengal Kamal was bitten by a snake and was later taken to a large public hospital. Write a conversation between the doctor in the public hospital and Kamal. Use the following clues.

  • When it happened
  • What had exactly happened
  • What steps were taken
  • Information about blood transfusion
  • risk involved.

Answer:
Doctor : What is your name?
Kamal : Tenga! Kamal.
Doctor : How old are you?
Kamal : I am 25
Doctor : What had exactly happened?
Kamal : While I was working in my field, I felt a sharp sting on my right foot.
Doctor : What did you do then?
Kamal : I realized it was a snake bite. So, I immediately tied a rope above my knee and called my relative.
Doctor : Didn’t they take you to a doctor?
Kamal : They immediately called a taxi and took me to a local dispensary.
Doctor : Did they ? Why didn’t the doctor administer the anti-snake venom?
Kamal : He gave me some tablets but I felt terrible pain even after taking them.
Doctor : Unfortunately, they didnot help you. It is too late. You will have to get your blood transfused.
Kamal : Please save me doctor.
Doctor : I will try my best.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

(OR)
14. After reading the lesson “A Letter from Mother Earth” You must have realised how much man has polluted it. Write an essay on what we should do to save the earth.
Answer:

‘SAVE MOTHER EARTH’

Earth, the only planet which supports life, the planet which is 4.6 billion years old is on the verge of perishing due to the selfish actvities of humans. For centuries the Earth was pollution free and had a balanced ecology.

But times have changed, industrialization, urbanization and technological developments have long begun polluting it. They have polluted it to an extent that economists and scholars predict that it would soon be destroyed.

Deforestation, nuclear weapons, cellphone towers, chemical fertilizers and pesticides, domestic appliances all cause so much pollution that man has started facing the wealth of nature in the form of natural calamities like earth quakes, Tsunamies, cyclones etc.

If man wishes to survive he should save the earth.

“Child Is The Father of Man” The present generation should atleast be sensible and start taking corrective action. They should plant many trees to control global warming and condemn the use of nuclear weapons. Afforestation should be encouraged at every level in every place. Environment friendly appliances should be invented and eco friendly means of transport like bicycles or solar vehicles should be preferred. Solar energy should be used instead of thermal energy and natural fertilizers should replace chemical fertilizers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8C A Letter from Mother Earth

Question 34.

15. Prepare a poster on the topic Stop pollution – Save the Earth”.
Answer:

TS 7th Class English Guide 8C A Letter From Mother Earth 1

(OR)
16. Read the following conversation.
Ajay : May I speak to Varun?
Vijay : Well, Varun is not at home. May I know who is calling?
Ajay : I am Ajay, Varun’s classmate. I couldn’t attend school for a weak as I was ill. I want to know what happened at school during the week.
Vijay : I am Vijay, Varun’s brother. Varun has gone out on some work. I’ll inform him about your call.
Ajay : Thanks ! Please Ask him to call me once he is back.
Vijay : Ya, I’do that. Bye.
You are Vijay. Write a message for Varun.
Answer:

Message

Date: XX.XX.XXXX

Varun

Your friend Ajay called up at 11 : 30 a.m. He wanted to know what was taught at school last week. He said that he was ill and so couldn’t attend school last week. He wants you to call up without fail soon after you return.

Varun

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8B Trees

Telangana SCERT TS 7th Class English Study Material Pdf Unit 8B Trees Textbook Questions and Answers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8B Trees

Read the following poem :

Trees are the kindest Things I know,
They do no harm, they simply grow
And spread a shade for sleepy cows,
And gather birds among their boughs……….

They give us fruit in leaves above,
And wood to make our houses of,
And leaves to bum on Halloween
And in the Spring new buds of green.

They are the first when day’s begun
To touch the beams of morning sun,
They are the last to hold the light
When evening changes in to night,

And when a moon floats on the sky
They hum a drowsy lullaby
Of sleepy children long ago…..
Trees are the kindest things I Know. – Harry Behn

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8B Trees

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Who is ‘I’ in this poem ?
Answer:
The poet is ‘I’ in the poem.

Question 2.
What do trees give us ?
Answer:
The trees give shade for sleepy cows and shelter for birds.

Question 3.
What is the tree compared to in this poem ?
Answer:
The trees is compared to a kind mother. “And when a moon floats on the sky; They hum a drowsy lullaby; of sleepy children long ago” from these lines the tree is a kind mother.

Question 4.
What is the poet’s attitude towards trees ? Pick out lines or words that de¬scribe his attitude.
Answer:
The poet thinks that the trees are the kindest things he knows. From the words of the poem “They do no harm, they simply grow… We can conclude that the poet has a great consideration on trees.

Question 5.
Do you like trees ? Give reasons for your views.
Answer:
Yes, I like trees. They give us cool shade in hot summer. They give us fruits to eat. They give us their wood to construct our houses.

Question 6.
What is the most touching stanza in the poem ? Why do you think so ?
Answer:
The most touching stanza in the poem is “And when a moon floats on the sky”
They hum a drowsy lullaby.
Of sleepy children long ago
The above lines depict the tree as the mother who lulls her sleeping child. She is the kindest of all.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8B Trees

II. Try to write a parallel poem about an animal you like. You may follow the structure of the above poem and start like this :

Cows are the useful animals I know
They give us milk and dung, you know.
………………………………………………..
………………………………………………..
Answer:
They are worshipped as God,
They are useful to us for many ways good,
They eat grass
Yet, they serve us many ways.
Work hard is what a cow tells
A cow is a teacher always.

Project:

Collect the pictures of poisonous, and non-poisonous snakes. Collect related news items from newspapers and paste them on a chart. Make a presentation in the class. Later, display it on the wall magazine.
Answer:

Poisonous Snakes

King Cobra :

TS 7th Class English Guide 8B Trees 1

The King Cobra is a large and powerful snake. King Cobras skin is either olive-green, tan, or black and it has faint, pale yellow cross bands down the length of the body. The belly is cream or pale yellow and the scales are smooth. People treat King Cobra as God in India.

Indian Krait:

TS 7th Class English Guide 8B Trees 2

Found in most of the India. These are also called as Bungarus. These species contain neurotoxin venom that is 16 times more powerful than cobra venom. Krait venom is extremely powerful and quickly induces muscle paralysis.

Russell’s Viper :

TS 7th Class English Guide 8B Trees 3

Head of the Russell’s Viper is flattened, triangular also distinct from the neck. The snout of the Viper is blunt, raised and rounded.

Most considerable thing about this snake is the amount of venoun produced by it. The symptoms of the bite are pain at the bite, immediately followed by swelling of the affected extremity. There is a drop in blood pressure and the heart rate falls.

Non Poisonous Snakes

TS 7th Class English Guide 8B Trees 4

A Young Rat Snake is around 1.5 feet long and is a non venomous snake. It bites, but does not have any venom. It is named Rat Snake because that is what it feeds on.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8B Trees

Trees Summary in English

Trees are the kindest of all because they don’t harm us but give shelter to cows and birds in their shade. They give us fruit, wood, leaves and green buds in spring. They are the first and the last to hold the light of the sun.

Glossary:

boughs (n) = branches (literary use)
Usage: The Banyan tree’s boughs are widely spread.
halloween (n) = the night of 31 October when children dress in special clothes and people try to frighten each other
beams (n) = rays
Usage: The Sim’s beams reflect on river water.
drowsy (adj) = sleepy
Usage: He was drowsy in the class.
lullaby (n) = a song we sing to help a child fall asleep.
Usage: Her teaching is like a lullaby to the students.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Telangana SCERT TS 7th Class English Study Material Pdf Unit 8A Snakes in India Textbook Questions and Answers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Read the following poem and answer the questions that follow :

GARDEN SNAKE

I saw a snake and ran away…
Some snakes are dangerous, they say;
But mother says, that kind is good,
And eats up insects for his food.
So when he wiggles in the grass
I’ll stand aside and watch his pass
And tell myself, “There is no mistake,
It’s just a harmless garden snake.”

Question 1.
Where do you normally find snakes ?
Answer:
Generally, I find snakes in thorny bushes, rocky areas in our gardens. I have seen snakes many times.

Question 2.
Name the snakes that you know.
Answer:
Cobra, Krait, Russell’s viper and Python.

Question 3.
In what way(s) are snakes useful ?
Answer:
Snakes eat rats who spoil the plants in the fields and paddy in our granaries. So, in this way snakes are useful for us.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Oral Discourse:

Talk on – Talk about your reaction when you see a snake.
Answer:
If I see a snake, I will be very scared. If I see the snake in our house, I will hide behind
my mother. If there is no one else at home I don’t provoke it. I keep calm and try to be in a safe place. If I am outside on the road or in the park, I will look for a safe place and hide there. I will even alert others about the presence of a snake.

Comprehension:

I. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
Why do many people die of snakebite ?
Answer:
Many people die of snakebite because of widespread ignorance about snakes and snake bite prevention. Moreover proper medical treatment is often delayed or unobtainable.

Question 2.
If 100 people died in a year in India, how many people may have died in the rest of the world ?
Answer:
If 100 people died in a year because of snake bite in India, 50 people may have died in the rest of the world.

Question 3.
What opinion do you form about the first doctor who treated Kamal ?
Answer:
The doctor was not a fully qualified allopathic practitioner and didn’t know about antivenin serum or how to administer it.

Question 4.
What does a Russell’s Viper do when provoked ?
Answer:
When a Russell’s Viper is provoked, it injects a large amount of venom.

Question 5.
What is the death-dealing quartet ?
Answer:
The death dealing quartet is the set of Russell’s viper, sawscaled viper, Indian cobra and common krait.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Question 6.
What are the poisonous and non-poisonous snakes ?
Answer:
Russell’s viper, Cobra, Common Krait are the poisonous snakes. Brown water snake, mud snake, green snake, Indian rock python are non-poisonous snakes.

Question 7.
What is the writer’s opinion about snakes ?
Answer:
All snakes are not poisonous. A few snakes are poisonous. The rest of them are non-poisonous. We must take care when we go out in the dark. We should follow some precautionary methods to avoid snake bite. The snakes unnecessarily bite humans, if they are not provoked.

Question 8.
What are people’s misconceptions about snakes ?
Answer:
People’s misconceptions about snakes are
a) all the snakes try to kill us.
b) the snakes skin is cold and slimy.
c) they try to take revenge.
d) they are very fast.
e) a snake – bite person can be cured by mantras.
f) snakes are aggressive and they chase people.

Question 9.
What precautions should we take if we want to lessen the risk of snake bite?
Answer:
If we want to lessen the risk of snake bite, we must wear shoes and long trousers when walking through high grass and undergrowth. We have to carry a lantern or a torch when we venture out at night.

Question 10.
If you had been in Kamal’s position, what would you have done ?
Answer:
If I had been in Kamal’s position, I would have tied a rope just above my knee and cut the skin with blade and allow bleeding the poisonous blood. Later I would have gone to better hospital for treatment.

Question 11.
Why do you think some people worship cobras even though they are poisonous and very harmful ?
Answer:
Some people feel that they are the incarnation of Gods. Because of their blind beliefs, they worship them even though they are poisonous and very harmful. There is another side to this aspect. All the animals are part and parcel of God’s creation. They are essential to maintain ecological balance. We should not kill them indiscriminately. So, to maintain ecological balance in nature, we worship these snakes.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Vocabulary:

I. Fill in the blanks with words given below :

TS 7th Class English Guide 8A Snakes in India 1

Sometimes cyclones _________ (1) in the ocean. _________ (2) to our opinion fishermen are never _________ (3) that it is dangerous to _________ (4) into the ocean during the cyclones. They _________ (5) the same mistake and lose their precious lives.
Answer:
1 – occur
2 – Contrary
3 – convinced
4 – venture
5 – repeat

II. Look at the following words from the text: 1. precaution 2. dangerous

The word ‘precaution’ consists of two parts – ‘pre’ and ‘caution’ (prefix + root).
The word ‘dangerous’ consists of two parts ‘danger’ and ‘-ous’ (root + suffix)

Add appropriate prefixes / suffixes to the following roots to make new words. The first one is done for you.

TS 7th Class English Guide 8A Snakes in India 2

Answer:

TS 7th Class English Guide 8A Snakes in India 3

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Fill in the blanks in the following sentences with suitable forms (after adding a prefix/suffix) of the words in brackets.

Question 1.
He was acting in a very _________ way. (child)
Answer:
childish

Question 2.
This word is very difficult to spell, and even worse, it’s _________. (pronounce)
Answer:
pronunciation

Question 3.
You shouldn’t have done that! It was very _________ of you. (think)
Answer:
unthinkable

Question 4.
He didn’t pass his exam. He was _________ in the second attempt, (succeed)
Answer:
successful

Question 5.
Some of the Indian cities are dreadfully _________ . (crowd)
Answer:
over crowded

Question 6.
The team won the _________ . (champion)
Answer:
championship

Question 7.
There is a very high _________ that they will be late. (likely)
Answer:
likelihood

Question 8.
I couldn’t find any _________ in his theory. (weak)
Answer:
weakness

Question 9.
There was a three-hour _________ because of the strike. (stop)
Answer:
stoppage

Question 10.
You need a _________ of motivation, organization and revision to learn English. (combine)
Answer:
combination

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Grammar:

I. Read the following sentences.

1. The snakes move around as long as they have rats to feed on.
2. He told him to rest at home until the pain subsides.

  • ‘ Until’ refers to a point of time or ah event.
  • ‘As long as’ refers to a period of time (duration) over which an activity lasts.

Fill in the blanks with ‘until’ or ‘as long as’.

Question 1.
Kamal went on playing foot ball ___________ there was light.
Answer:
as long as

Question 2.
We went on watching TV ___________ 10 p.m.
Answer:
until

Question 3.
The cricket match continued ___________ the rain stopped it.
Answer:
until

Question 4.
You should go on taking this medicine ___________ you have the pain.
Answer:
as long as

Question 5.
Do not wait ___________ luck knocks at your door. If you start work, you will get lucky.
Answer:
until

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

II. Look at the following sentences from the text.

1. Kamal (1) examined his foot. (2)
2. It (1) was a snake-bite. (2)

Normally all sentences have a subject and a predicate. In the above sentences, the first part is called the subject and the second part is called the predicate. The subject is usually a noun or a pronoun. It gives information about the doer of the action. The predicate gives information about the subject. You will notice sometime there may be sentences that may not have a subject as in ‘Shut the door.’ Here, the subject should be taken as ‘you.’

Now observe some more examples :

1. Nagamani (1) came. (2)
2. She (1) taught a wonderful lesson (2)
3. A number of students (1) liked it. (2)

The subjects in these sentences are a noun, a pronoun, and a noun phrase respectively. So the subject of a sentence can be a noun, a pronoun, or a noun phrase.

The predicate in the first sentence consists of a single word, which is a verb. In sentences 2 and 3, the predicate consists of more than one word but it has essentially a verb. So, the predicate can consist of one or more words but it must contain a verb.

Now read the following sentences and pick out the subject and the predicate in each sentence. The first one is done for you.

(1) Poisonous snakes are very dangerous.
(2) Cobra is poisonous snake.
(3) Many people die of snake bite.
(4) Some snakes are timid and harmless.
(5) Doctors can save snake bite victims.
(6) We should be cautious of poisonous snakes.

TS 7th Class English Guide 8A Snakes in India 4

Answer:

Subject Predicate
1. Poisonous snakes are very dangerous
2. Cobra is a poisonous snake
3. Many people die of snake bite
4. Some snakes are timid and harmless
5. Doctors can save snake bite victims
6. We should be cautious of poisonous snakes

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Editing:

Editing – Read the following passage. Every numbered sentence has an error.Identify and edit it.

(1) Mr.Narayan Rao slowly bent and sit in his armed chair. (2) He leaned back removing his spectacle. (3) He said, “Koushik, can you bring down my old box from the upper shelf in me bedroom?” The boy mounted a chair as quick as a lizard and brought the box down. (4) “What do it contain?” he murmured and tried to open it. (5) His sister snatched it on his hands and ran away.
Answer:
1. and sat in his armed chair
2. removing his spectacles
3. in my bed room
4. What does it contain?
5. from his hands

Writing:

I. Prepare a poster giving a list of Dos and Don’ts when a snake bites. Here are two Dos and two Don’ts.

Dos :
Keep the person calm.
Keep the affected area below the heart level to reduce the flow of venom towards other parts of the body.

Don’ts :
Don’t let the person move at all.
Do not wait to see if the bite causes any problems. Treat it straight away.

Answer:

TS 7th Class English Guide 8A Snakes in India 5

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Study Skills:

Study the bar-chart and answer the following questions :

Month-wise distribution of 1379 snake bite incidences during the period 1999-2003.

TS 7th Class English Guide 8A Snakes in India 6

Source : Department of Bio chemistry, University College of Science, Osmania University, Hyderabad.

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
What is this bar-chart about ?
Answer:
Percentage of snake bites during the period 1999-2003.

Question 2.
Which months record the highest number of snakebite cases ?
Answer:
June and July months record the highest number of snakebite cases.

Question 3.
The lowest percent of snakebite cases occurred in
Answer:
The lowest percent of snakebite cases occurred in January and December.

Question 4.
In which month did 8% of snakebites occur ?
Answer:
8% snakebites occurred in the months of May and November.

Question 5.
What is the average percentage of snakebites in T.S. per month ?
Answer:
The average percentage of snake bites in T.S. is 8.3% per month.

Question 6.
What other inferences can you draw from this chart ?
Answer:
The occurrence of snakebite is high during June, July and August months,that is monsoon season.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Listening and Speaking:

The Farmer and the Cobra

At the far end of the village lived a poor farmer. He lived in a small hut, in the middle of a small piece of land. Years before, when he had come to live in the village, people had tried to be friendly – but the farmer was a strange man. He did not talk much to the people. Soon they went about doing their own work and left him to himself.

Near the farmer’s hut was an old tree. The tree had a hole, and in the hole lived a cobra. When the days were hot, the cobra would come out of its hole and coil itself up in the shade of the tree. The farmer sat on the groung near by until the sun had set and he would then return to his house.

One day, the man who owned the place came to the farmer and said to him, “I must have firewood for my home. I want you to cut down the tree. Tomorrow I will ask a man to come and help you with the cutting.” And then the land owner left. The farmer watched him as he disappeared down the road.

The farmer stood there thinking. His tree was to go – his tree which gave him shade and comfort! And the cobra ? Yes, what about the cobra ? It the tree were cutdown, he would lose more than shade. He would lose the cobra too, his friend of the summer days.

The farmer sat on the ground in the cool shade of the tree to think. Near the opening of the hole, the cobra lay coiled and the two remained in complete stillness. The sun set, but the man did not return to his house. The cobra sank into its coils as if it understood the great trouble of its friend. The next day, a man came to the farmer’s hut. “I’ve been sent by the land owner to help you cut down the trees, he said.” “Well,” the farmer said sadly, “if it must be so, let’s begin.”

They walked from the hut towards the tree, the farmer stopped suddenely and his heart sank. In front of its hole lay the cobra, cold and dead.

Your teacher will read the story ‘The Farmer and the Cobra’ Listen to your teacher and answer the questions given below.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

I. Say whether the following statements are true or false.

Question 1.
The farmer returned home in the afternoon. [ ]
Answer:
False

Question 2.
The owner of the tree wanted to have the tree to construct a house. [ ]
Answer:
False

Question 3.
The farmer did not like the tree to be cut down. [ ]
Answer:
True

Question 4.
The farmer died when the tree was cut down. [ ]
Answer:
False

Question 5.
The cobra died in front of its hole. [ ]
Answer:
True

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

II. Listen to the story and answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Why did the people leave the farmer to himself ?
Answer:
The people tried to be friendly with the farmer but he was a strange man. He did not talk much to the people. So, the people left the farmer to himself.

Question 2.
Did the farmer talk to the cobra ? Why did he refer to the cobra as a friend ?
Answer:
No, the farmer didn’t talk to the cobra. Both the farmer and the cobra took rest under the shade of the tree when the days were hot. They spent the time there until the sunset. So, he treated it as his friend.

Question 3.
What kind of a man was the farmer? Support your answer.
Answer:
The farmer was a kind hearted man. He had great consideration about the snake. When the land owner wanted to cut off the tree for firewood, the farmer thought about cobra’s shelter. He felt very sad about it.

III. Work in groups and discuss the following:

Question 1.
If you were the farmer, would you feel sorry for the cobra?
Answer:
If I were the farmer, I would feel sorry for the cobra, because, afterall they are also creatures like us.

Question 2.
Would you like to make friends with a cobra as the farmer did? Why?
Answer:
I wouldn’t like to make friendship with a cobra as the farmer did because it is a poisonous creature. At any time a danger will fall on me because of snake.

Question 3.
Do you think the farmer is really a peculiar person? Do you find any person of this kind in your locality? Share your ideas with your friends.
Answer:
Yes. I think the farmer is really a peculiar person. If he had not been a peculiar person, he would have talked to the villagers and he would not have treated the cobra as his friend. I’ve never found such type of person in our locality.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

IV. Imagine that you are a reporter of a local television channel. You want to cover the celebration of “Nagula Chavithi” in your area. One of you can act as a TV reporter and some of you can act as devotees. (Compering)
Answer:
Swathi : Hai everybody. I’m Swathi, a news reporter in D-channel. Today
(D-channel our team has come to cover a great festival Nagula Chavithi. Let’s Reporter) go and ask those devotees. Hai!
Devotee-I : Hai!
Swathi : You seem different today. What’s the special today ?
Devotee-I : Today is Nagula Chavithi, I’m going to offer milk in an ant – hill (pamula putta).
Swathi : Won’t you be afraid of poisonous snakes ?
Devotee-I : We treat snakes as the incarnation of God Subrahmanya. So, we don’t worry about it.
Swathi : Here comes another devotee. Let’s ask. Hai!
Devotee-II : Hai!
Swathi : Where are you from ?
Devotee-II : I am coming from an ant – hill. As it is Nagula Chavithi I have offered milk in the ant – hill.
Swathi : Will you tell me what do you today?
Devotee-II : We will be on fast the whole day and offer pooja to Subrahmanye- swara in the form of snake. The next day we take meal. We follow all these things very strictly. We maintain utmost piousness.
Swathi : Can you say is there any other inner meaning to follow all these things ?
Devotee-II : Actually, snakes are needed to maintain ecological balance. Unless there are snakes, the population of rats increase and destroy crops. The inner idea of Nagula Chaviti is to care and respect all creatures. No creature is less important.
Swathi : Bye!.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Snakes in India Summary in English

Of all the dangerous animals in the Indian sub continent, snakes are most dangerous. Many people are dying because of their ignorance of preventive measures against snakes or unavailability of medical help.

Tengal Kamal, a young man belonging to Gorgaon was bitten by a snake while working bare-footed in his field. He tied a rope above his knee and he was rushed to a local dispensary. As the doctor was not qualified, he gave pain-killer and antibiotic tablets. Later he was treated in a hospital in Mumbai. Anti-venom injections were given to him many times and blood-transfusion was done 15 times. He was discharged after fifteen days.

Only 50 out of 200 species of snakes are venomous. Russell’s viper, Saw-scaled viper, Indian Cobra and Krait are most venomous. They usually live in villages. Russell’s viper lives in North Indian fields whereas Cobra and Viper live in South India. One can identify a Cobra by its spectacles. Cobra lives underground or between logs and eat frogs and rats.

Snakes are timid. They move during nights only. They don’t attack people unless they are stepped on or provoked. The venom of the Krait is more toxic. One has to wear chappals and pants and carry light during nights. One has to walk tapping the ground with a stick. The surroundings should be rat-free.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

Glossary:

ignorance (n) = lack of knowledge or information about something
Usage: Ignorance is the root cause of all evils in life.

convinced (v) = completely sure about
Usage: I am convinced of her sincere efforts in learning music.

giddy (adj) = feeling that everything is moving and that you are going to fall
Usage: He felt giddy.

unbearable (adj) = too painful, annoyingly unpleasant
Usage: I have got unbearable head ache.

reasonable (adj) = acceptable
Usage: The management conceded all the reasonable demands.

toxic (adj) = containing poison, poisonous
Usage: We become toxic when stung by a poisonous creature.

nocturnal (adj) = active only during the night
Usage: The bat is a nocturnal creature.

frequently = often
Usage: I frequently visit my native place.

estimate = evaluate
Usage: My estimation in this regard is correct.

survive = live after
Usage: Those who survived during the floods were given shelter.

subsides = reduces
Usage: Pain subsides when we use pain-killers.

venomous (adj) = poisonous
Usage: There are so many venomous snakes are around our house.

prevention (n) = action of preventing
Usage: Prevention is better than cure.

agony (n) = severe mental pain
Usage: The wounded man was in agony.

hastily (adv) = quickly
Usage: He speaks hastily.

dispensary (n) = a place where the medicine are given to the sick;
Usage: Mother Teresa ran so many dispensaries in Kolkatta.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 8A Snakes in India

transfusion (n) = act or process of putting one person’s blood into another person’s body
Usage: The injured man is in need of transfusion.

glisten (v) = shine brightly
Usage: Grass glisten with dew drops.

lessen (v) = reduce
Usage: Antibiotic lessens the infection in the body.

venture (n) = an adventurous project; ready to face dangerous or unpleasant results
Usage: The mountaineers ventured the expedition.

slither (v) = slide or slip unsteadily
Usage: We slithered down on icy slope.

perceive (v) = become aware of; notice; observe
Usage: I perceived a change in his behaviour.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Students get through AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions 1st Lesson The Living World which are most likely to be asked in the exam.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions 1st Lesson The Living World

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What does ICBN stand for? [TS M-22] [AP May 19]
Answer:
ICBN stands for International Code for Botanical Nomenclature.

Question 2.
What is flora? [ TS M 15]
Answer:
Flora is the actual account of habitat, distribution and systematic listing of plants of a given area.

Question 3.
Define metabolism. What is the difference between anabolism and catabolism?
Answer:
Metabolism is the sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring in the body of an organism.

Anabolism Catabolism
1) It is a constructive metabolic process.
2)   Here, complex molecules are formed from simpler molecules by Photosynthesis.
1) It is a destructive metabolic process.
2) Here, complex molecules are broken down into simpler molecules by respiration.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World
Question 4.
Which is the largest botanical garden in the World? Name a few well known botanical gardens in India. [TS M 49]
Answer:

  1. Royal Botanical Garden(RBG) at Kew(England) is the Largest Botanical garden in the World.
  2. Well-known botanical gardens in India:
    (i) Indian Botanical Garden, Howrah (Kolkata)
    (ii) National Botanical Research Institute, Lucknow.

Question 5.
Define the terms ’couplet* and ‘lead* in taxonomic key. [AP & TS M-16, APM-15]
Answer:

  1. Couplet: The keys based on the contrasting characters in a pair are called couplet.
  2. Lead; Each statement in the key is called a lead.

Question 6.
What is meant by manuals and monographs? [APM-17]
Answer:

  1. Manual is a small book designed for ready reference. It provides information for identification of names of species found in an area.
  2. Monograph is a specialist book written on a single (any one) taxon.

Question 7.
What is systematics?
Answer:

  1. Systematics is the study of different kinds of organisms, their diversities and also relationship among them.
  2. The word systematics is derived from the Latin word systema which means systematic arrangement of organisms.

Question 8.
Why are living organisms classified?
Answer:

  1. There exists vast number of organisms which differ very greatly in their form, structure and mode of life.
  2. In order to study these vast number of organisms easily, they are classified into various groups.

Question 9.
What is the basic unit of classification? Define it.[TS M-20]jAP M -17,2022]
Answer:

  1. Species is the basic unit of classification.
  2. Species is a group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities.

Question 10.
Give the scientific name of Mango. Identify the generic name and specific epithet.
Answer:

  1. The scientific name of mango is Mangifera indica. [TS Mar-17]
  2. Its generic name is Mangifera and its specific epithet is indica.

Question 11.
What is growth? What is the difference between the growth in living organisms and growth in non-living objects?
Answer:

  1. Growth is a permanent and irreversible increase in the size & dry weight of a living organism.
  2. The growth in living organisms occurs by cell division; where as growth is non-living objects occurs by the accumulation of materials. Ex: Mountains, boulders.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by identification and nomenclature? How is a key helpful in the identification and classification of an organism?
Answer:
Identification: The determination of a collected organism whether is entirely new or already known, is called Identification.

Nomenclature: Providing a universal scientific name to an identified organism is called Nomenclature.

  1. Key is a taxonomical aid used for identification of plants and animals based on the similarities and dissimilarities.
  2. The keys based on the contrasting characters generally in a pair are called couplets.
  3. It represents the choice made between two opposite options. This results in acceptance of only one and rejection of the other.
  4. Each statement in the key is called a lead.
  5. In plants, identification can be done by directly comparing the characters with an authentic herbarium specimen or indirectly with the help of keys in floras.
  6. Separate taxonomic keys are required for each taxonomic category such as family, genus and species for identification purposes.

Question 2.
What are taxonomical aids? Give the importance of herbaria and museums.
Answer:
Taxonomical aids are the collection of actual specimens of plant and animal species.
These are used to preserve information regarding various species.
Ex: Herbarium, Botanical gardens, Zoological parks and Museums.
Herbarium is a store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets.

  1. These sheets are arranged according to a universally accepted system of classification.
  2. These specimens, along with their descriptions become a store house for future use.
  3. The herbarium sheets carry a label providing information about the date and place of collection, local and botanical names, family, collector’s name etc.
  4. Herbaria also serve as quick referral systems in taxonomical studies.

Museum:

  1. Museums have collection of preserved plant and animal specimens for study and research.
  2. These are established in educational institutes such as schools and colleges.
  3. Specimens are preserved in the containers or jars in preservative solutions.
  4. Plant and animal specimens may also be preserved as dry specimens.

Question 3.
Define a taxon. Give some examples of taxa at different hierarchial levels.
Answer:

  1. Taxon is a unit or category in a taxonomic system.
  2. Classification involves hierarchy of steps in which each step represents a rank or category.
  3. All categories together constitute the taxonomic hierarchy.
    Taxon Examples
    Kingdom
    Plantae, Animalia
    Division
    Spermatophyta, Bryophyta, Thallophyta
    Class
    Dicotyledonae, Monocotyledonae
    Order
    Sapindales, Poales
    Family
    Anacardiaceae, Poaceae
    Genus
    Mangifera, Triticum
    Species indica, vulgare

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 4.
How are botanical gardens useful in conserving biodiversity? Define the terms Flora, manuals, monographs and catalogues.
Answer:

  1. Botanical gardens are the specialised gardens having collection of plants for scientific study, public education and recreation.
  2. Each plant is labelled with its common, botanical names and its family.
  3. They are provided with suitable soil and environmental conditions for growing the rate, endangered and endemic plant species. Hence, they are useful in conserving biodiversity.
  4. Flora is a book containing the actual account of habitat, distribution and systematic listing of plants of a given area.
  5. Manual is a small book specially designed for ready reference for identification of names of plant species of an area.
  6. Monograph is a specialist book written on a single (any one) taxon.
  7. Catalogue is a book useful for correct identification of plants.

Question 5.
Explain binomial nomenclature. [TS M 22]
Answer:
1) Binomial nomenclature: The system which provides a correct scientific name for a plant with two components is called binomial nomenclature.

2) The first one is generic name and second one is specific name (epithet).

3) Universal rules:

  1. The scientific name should be in Latin and must be underlined or printed in Italics.
  2. The generic name starts with a capital letter.
  3. The specific name starts with a small letter.
  4. Ex: The scientific name of ‘Brinjal’ is Solanum melongena.
  5. In this, Solanum is the name of the genus and melongena is the name of its species.
  6. Name of the author (the scientist who gave that name) may be written at the end.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by ‘living’? Give a detailed account of any four defining features of life forms.
Answer:
The meaning of ‘living’ refers to the distinctive characters exhibited by living organisms like growth, reproduction, metabolism, ability to sense environment (consciousness), ability to self- replicate, interaction and emergence.

Defining features of life forms:
1) Metabolism:

  1. All living organisms are made of chemicals of different sizes and functions. They are constantly being made and changed into some other biomolecules. These conversions are called metabolic reactions.
  2. Thus, the ‘sum total’ of all chemical reactions occurring in the body is called metabolism.
  3. All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit metabolism.

2) Consciousness:

  1. All living organisms are able to sense their surroundings.
  2. They respond to the environmental stimuli which may be physical, chemical or biological.
  3. Plants respond to external factors like light, water, temperature etc.
  4. Human being is the only one who is aware of himself i.e., has self consciousness.

3) Interactions:

  1. All living phenomena arise due to underlying interactions.
  2. Properties of tissues are due to the result of interactions among the cells.
  3. Properties of cellular organelles are not present in the molecular components comprising the organelle. Such under lying molecular interactions are also apparent in macro molecules such as starch.
  4. These interactions result in emergent properties of a higher level of organisation.

4) Reproduction:

  1. Reproduction refers to the production of progeny, possessing features more or less similar to those of parents.
  2. It is a characteristic feature of living organisms which is not found in non-living things.
  3. Organisms generally reproduce by sexual and asexual means.
  4. Fungi multiply and spread easily due to the production of a millions of asexual spores.
  5. In lower organisms like Yeast and Hydra, budding is observed.
  6. In unicellular forms like bacteria, amoeba and some unicellular algae, reproduction is synonymous with growth i.e., both refer to increase in the number of individuals.
  7. Certain organisms like mules, worker honeybees, infertile human couples do not reproduce.

Question 2.
Define the following terms with examples
(i) Class (ii) Family (iii) Order (iv) Genus (v) Division
Answer:
i) Class: A group of related orders constitutes class.
Ex: The class Dicotyledonae consists of oders like Mavales, Rosales, Polemoniales etc.

ii) Family: A group of related Genera is called family. Families are characterised on the basis both vegetative and reproductive features.
Ex: The family Soalnaceae consists of three different genera; Solanum, Nicotiana and Datura

iii) Order: Order is the assemblage of families which exhibit a few similar characters. The similar characters are less in number as compared to different genera included in a family. Ex:The order polemoniales based on the floral characters consists of Plant families like Cortvolvulaceae, Solanaceae.

iv) Genus: Genus is an aggregate of closely related species.
Ex: Genus Solanum consists of potato and brinjal.

v) Division (or) Phylum: A group of related classes is called Division.
Ex: The division spermatophyta consists of Dicotyledonae and Monocotyledonae with a few similar characters.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Exercise

Question 1.
Some of the properties of tissues are not constituents of their cells. Give two examples to support the statement.
Answer:
Some properties of tissues are not found in the constituent cells. They arise due to the interaction among the cells of which they are made of.
Examples:

  1. The properties of cellular organelles do not occur in molecular constituents of organelles.
  2. Collenchyma is a living mechanical tissue which provides tensile mechanical strength. But Sclerenchyma is a dead tissue, which is purely mechanical in function.

Question 2.
What do we learn from identification of individuals and populations?
Answer:

  1. Identification helps us to determine whether a collected plant is entirely new or already known.
  2. Identification is useful in agriculture, forestry to know our bioresources and their biodiversity.
  3. We can learn the scientific name and correct description from the identification of individuals.

Question 3.
Given below is the scientific name of Mango. Identify the correctly written name.
Mangifera Indica
Mangifera indica
Answer:
Mangifera indica (Because the scientific name should start with small letter ‘i’.)

Question 4.
Can you identify the correct sequence of taxonomicai categories?
a) Species, Order, Division, Kingdom
b) Genus, Species, Order, Kingdom
c) Species, Genus, Order, Phylum
Answer:
(c) Species, Genus, Order, Phylum

Question 5.
Define the following terms:
(i) Species (ii) Class (iii) Family (iv) Order (v) Genus
Answer:
i) Species: The species is a group ofindividual organisms with fundamental similarities.

ii) Class : A group of related orders constitutes class.

iii) Genus: It is an aggregate of closely related species. Among plants, potato and brinjal are two different species, but belong to the genus Solanum.

iv) Family: A group of related Genera is called family.

v) Order: Order is the assemblage of families which exhibit a few similar characters. vfiGenus: Genus is an aggregate of closely related species.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 6.
Illustrate the taxonomicai hierarchy with suitable examples of a plant.
Answer:
Taxonomicai hierarchy is the arrangement of organisms in a definite sequence of categories. In descending order, organisms are arranged from kingdom to species, where as in ascending order from species to kingdom.
AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World 1

Question 7.
What are the distinctive characteristics exhibited by living organisms? Describe them in brief.
Answer:
The distinctive characters exhibited by living organisms are growth, reproduction, consciousness, metabolism, interaction and emergence.
1) Growth: In plants growth is by cell division. It occurs continuously throughout their life span. In animals, growth is seen only upto a certain age. Unicellular organisms also grow in size until they divide by cell division. Cell division occurs in certain tissues to replace lost cells.

2) Reproduction: Production of progeny possessing similar features to those of parents is called reproduction. It may be by vegetative, asexual and sexual methods.

3) Consciousness: All living organisms have the ability to sense their surroundings. This response is called irritability. Plants respond to external factors like light, temperature, water, pollutants etc. All living organisms are aware of their surroundings and this is called consciousness.

4) Metabolism: The sum total of all the chemical reactions occurring in the body of a living organism is called metabolism.

Question 8.
Life forms exhibit ‘unity in diversity’ – Discuss with your teacher.
Answer:
1) We see a large variety of living organisms around us such as potted plants, insects, birds, pets or other animals and plants. There are also several organisms that we cannot see with our naked eye.

2) If we were to increase the area that we make observations, the range and variety of organ¬isms would also increase. If we were to visit a dense forest, we would probably see a much greater number and kinds of living organisms in it.

3) Each different kind of plant, animal or any organism represents a species. The number of species that are known and described ranges between 1.7-1.8 million.

4) This refers to biodiversity or the number and types of organisms present on earth.

Question 9.
List out the principles followed to provide scientific names for newly found organism?
Answer:
Universal rules to provide scientific names for newly found organism:

  1. For a newly found organism there should be one specific scientific name.
  2. The scientific name should be in Latin and must be underlined or printed in Italics.
  3. The generic name starts with a capital letter.
  4. The specific name starts with a small letter.
  5. Name of the author( the scientist who gave that name) may be written at the end.
  6. Ex: The scientific name of ‘Brinjal’ is Solanum melongena.
  7. In this, Solanum is the name of the genus and melongena is the name of its species.

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Father of Botany is
1) Aristotle
2) Leeuwenhoek
3) Theophrastus
4) Linnaeus
Answer:
3) Theophrastus

Question 2.
A defining characteristic of living organisms is
1) Growth
2) Reproduction
3) Fragmentation
4) Response to external stimuli
Answer:
4) Response to external stimuli

Question 3.
The response to ‘environmental stimuli’ is called
1) Metabolism
2) Irritability
3) Chemical reaction
4) Consciousness
Answer:
2) Irritability

Question 4.
Which feature(s) cannot be taken as defining properties of living organisms
1) Metabolism
2) Growth
3) Reproduction
4) 2&3
Answer:
4) 2&3

Question 5.
All plants, animals, fungi and microbes exhibit
1) Self-consciousness
2) Metabolism
3) Sexual reproduction
4) Asexual reproduction
Answer:
2) Metabolism

Question 6.
Metabolic reaction involves
1) Synthesis ofbiomolecules only
2) Breakdown of some biomolecules only
3) All physical changes which occur in objects around us
4) All chemical reactions which occur inside an organism
Answer:
4) All chemical reactions which occur inside an organism

Question 7.
Which of the following is incorrect regarding reproduction
1) Unicellular organisms reproduce by cell division
2) Reproduction is a characteristic of all living organisms
3) In unicellular organisms, reproduction and growth are linked together
4) Non – living objects are incapable of reproducing
Answer:
2) Reproduction is a characteristic of all living organisms

Question 8.
Identify the organism which do not show the reproduction
1) Yeast
2) Sterile worker bee
3) Amoeba
4) Fertile human couple
Answer:
2) Sterile worker bee

Question 9.
In plants, cell growth occurs……whereas in animals, it occurs
1) only upto a certain age, continuously
2) continuously, only upto a certain age
3) continuously in both
4) only upto a certain age in both
Answer:
2) continuously, only upto a certain age

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 10.
Number of species that are known and described lie between
1) 1.2 —1.3 million
2) 1.7 -1.8 billion
3) 1.2-1.3 billion
4) 1.7-1.8 million
Answer:
4) 1.7-1.8 million

Question 11.
The first step in taxonomy is
1) Nomenclature
2) Identification
3) Description
4) Classification
Answer:
2) Identification

Question 12.
ICBN stands for
1) International code of Botanical Nomenclature
2) International Congress of Biological Names.
3) Indian code of Botanical Nomenclature
4) Indian Congress of Biological Names
Answer:
1) International code of Botanical Nomenclature

Question 13.
Phylogenetic system of classification is based on
1) morphological features
2) chemical constituents
3) floral characters
4) evolutionary relationships
Answer:
4) evolutionary relationships

Question 14.
Which one of the following is not universal rule of nomenclature?
1) Biological names are printed in italics, irrespective of their origin
2) First word represents genus while the second component denotes specific epithet
3) Both the words when handwritten, are separately underlined
4) The first word and specific epithet starts with a capital letter
Answer:
4) The first word and specific epithet starts with a capital letter

Question 15.
The term ‘Systematics’ refers to
1) Identification and study of organ systems
2) Identification and preservation of plants and animals
3) Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relation ship
4) Study of habitats of organisms and their classification
Answer:
3) Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relation ship

Question 16.
A taxonomic category refers to
1) The basic unit of classification
2) A rank or level in a taxonomic hierarchy
3) Group of related organisms able to interbreed
4) A group of related organisms but unable to interbreed
Answer:
2) A rank or level in a taxonomic hierarchy

Question 17.
Each category found in taxonomic hierarchy is known as
1) Genus
2) Family
3) Species
4) Taxon
Answer:
4) Taxon

Question 18.
The fundamental taxonomic category or basic unit of classification is
1) Genus
2) Species
3) Sub-species
4) Variety
Answer:
2) Species

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 19.
The highest taxon in taxonomic hierarchy is
1) Species
2) Genus
3) Order
4) Kingdom
Answer:
4) Kingdom

Question 20.
Genus represents
1) An individual plant or animal
2) A collection of plants or animals
3) Group of related species of plants or animals
4) A group of plants in a given area
Answer:
3) Group of related species of plants or animals

Question 21.
In a taxonomic hierarchy, family is interpolated between
1) kingdom and class
2) class and order
3) order and genus
4) class and genus
Answer:
3) order and genus

Question 22.
The taxon which includes related families is
1) class
2) phylum
3) order
4) genus
Answer:
3) order

Question 23.
Identify the correct sequence of taxonomic categories.
1) Species → phylum → order → kingdom
2) Genus → Species → Order → kingdom
3) Species → Genus → Order → Class
4) Division → Family → Order → Genus
Answer:
3) Species → Genus → Order → Class

Question 24.
Select the correct matching related to man
1) Genus-Homonidae
2) Order-Primata
3) Family-Mammalia
4) Division-Chordata
Answer:
2) Order-Primata

Question 25.
Identify the correct matching
1) Tiger-tigris, species
2) Cuttlefish-mollusca, elass
3) Humans-primata, family
4) Housefly-Musca, order
Answer:
1) Tiger-tigris, species

Question 26.
Collection of plants that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets is called
1) Herbarium
2) Botanical gardens
3) Museums
4) Zoological parks
Answer:
1) Herbarium

Question 27.
Quick referral system in taxonomic studies is
1) Botanical garden
2) Herbarium
3) Monograph
4) Manual
Answer:
1) Botanical garden

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 28.
The largest Herbarium of the world is
1) Royal Botanical Gardens
2) Museum of Natural history
3) Indian Botanical Garden
4) National Botanical Gardens
Answer:
1) Royal Botanical Gardens

Question 29.
The label of a Herbarium sheet does not carry information on
1) date of collection
2) name of collector
3) local names
4) height of the plant
Answer:
4) height of the plant

Question 30.
The famous international Botanical garden is at
1) England
2) USA
3) Holland
4) India
Answer:
1) England

Question 31.
Botanical gardens have
1) Living plants and animals for reference
2) Collection of living plants for reference
3) Preserved plant specimens
4) Living and preserved plants
Answer:
2) Collection of living plants for reference

Question 32.
Botanical gardens mainly serve the purpose of providing
1) Beautiful area of reaction
2) Reservoir for tropical plants
3) Ex situ conservation of germplasm
4) Natural habitat for wild life
Answer:
4) Natural habitat for wild life

Question 33.
Museums have
1) Preserved specimens of plants and animals
2) Collections of living plants and mammals only
3) Skeletons of animals only
4) Collected and dried plant specimens only
Answer:
1) Preserved specimens of plants and animals

Question 34.
Algae are preserved in
1) Flora
2) Museum
3) Zoo
4) Pune
Answer:
2) Museum

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 35.
Taxonomic keys are. based on the
1) Morphological characters
2) Reproductive characters
3) Anatomical characters
4) Contrasting characters
Answer:
4) Contrasting characters

Question 36.
Each statement in the key is called
1) Set
2) Lead
3) Cement
4) Statement
Answer:
2) Lead

Question 37.
A pair of contrasting characters in keys are called
1) Doublet
2) Duplet
3) Couplet
4) Triplet
Answer:
3) Couplet

Question 38.
Lead is a (an)
1) statement in the key
2) information given in floras
3) contrasting character in the key
4) description of a single taxon
Answer:
1) statement in the key

Question 39.
Taxonomic key is one of the taxonomic tools in the identification and classification of plants and animals. It is used in the preparation of
1) Museums
2) Flora
3) Both 1&2
4) Neither (1) nor (2)
Answer:
2) Flora

Question 40.
Biological organisation starts with
1) Cellular level
2) Organismic level
3) atomic level
4) submicroscopic molecular level
Answer:
4) submicroscopic molecular level

Question 41.
……….group of organisms multiply by fragmentation
1) Amoeba, fungi
2) Fungi, bacteria .
3) Fungi,filamentous algae, protonema of mosses
4) Amoeba, Hydra, bacteria
Answer:
3) Fungi,filamentous algae, protonema of mosses

Question 42.
The organisms which do not reproduce are
i) Mules ii) Sterile worker bees iii) Infertile human couples
1) i and ii only
2) i and iii only
3) ii and iii only
4) i, ii and iii
Answer:
4) i, ii and iii

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 43.
When organisms are in the same class but not in same family, the taxonomic term is called as
1) Order
2) Genus
3) Family
4) Species
Answer:
1) Order

Question 44.
Potato, tomato, brinjal differ in… …taxon
1) Species
2) Genus
3) Family
4) Order
Answer:
1) Species

Question 45.
As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common characteristics
1) will decrease
2) will increase
3) remain same
4) may increase (or) decrease
Answer:
1) will decrease

Question 46.
The taxonomic aid, key is
1) Useful in classification of plants and animals
2) Based on similarities and dissimilarities
3) Common for identification of taxonomic categories like family, genus
4) An index to flora of particular area
Answer:
3) Common for identification of taxonomic categories like family, genus

AP Inter 1st Year Botany Important Questions Chapter 1 The Living World

Question 47.
Collections of preserved plant and animal specimens for study and reference are kept in
1) Museum
2) Botanical Garden
3) Zoological Park
4) Herbarium
Answer:
1) Museum

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Telangana SCERT TS 7th Class English Study Material Pdf Unit 7C Koneru Humpy Textbook Questions and Answers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
What was Humpy’s first remarkable achievement ?
Answer:
Humpy got an International Master Title in the year 1999 at the age of 12 years. It was her first remarkable achievement.

Question 2.
At present, who do you think is the youngest woman grandmaster ? Why ?
Answer:
Hou Yifan is the youngest woman grandmaster. Humpy got this title at the age of 15 years 1 month and 29 days. But Hou Yifan broke her record at the age of 14 years 6 months.

Question 3.
Was Humpy’s father right in giving up his job for Humpy ? What would you have done ? Support your answer.
Answer:
Yes, Humpy’s father was right in giving up his job for Humpy. If I were in that position. I would do like Humpy’s father.

Question 4.
What qualities helped Humpy to reach the top in chess ? Do they help you in any way ? Share your ideas in groups.
Answer:
Humpy had extraordinary skills in the game, her dedication and devotion led her to the top in chess. Such qualities will help me to achieve success.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Koneru Humpy Summary in English

In the Women’s Chess, Koneru Humpy stood second in the world on par with Viswanath Anand.

Early life and entry into the game:
Humpy was bom in Gudivada on 31st March, 1987. Her father Ashok finding her skill in chess, resigned his job of a chemistry lecturer and being a chess champion himself concentrated on her. In 1995 Humpy became a champion in the under eight National Chess Tournament.

International level:

Humpy entered the International level and got titles in under 10, 12 and 14 years games. At the age of 12 she got International Master Title in 1999. She became a Grand Master in the tournament conducted in Budapest. She got the International Grand Master title at the age of 15. She was defeated by Hou Ifan. In 2001 she became the World Junior Champion. She reached the semifinal stage in 2006 and 2008. She achieve the second place in a FIDE Women’s Grand Prix and qualified for Women’s World Championship games. In 2006, in Doha Asian Competitions she got two gold medals – individually as well as a team. In Luxemburgh she got the second place in the International Competitions.

Awards:

As she became the Pride of the Nation, she was awarded the Arjuna Award in 2003, Padmasree in 2007 and Raja-laxmi Award in 2008.

Glossary:

considered = thought
on par = equal
attracted = interested
conditioned = shaped
prowess = skill
clinching = achieving
participate = take part
bagging = getting
coveted = most desired

Self Assessment:

How well have I understood this unit?

Read and tick (✓) in the appropriate box.

TS 7th Class English Guide 7C Koneru Humpy 1

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Section – A: Reading Comprehension

Please also practise additional exercises given from P.No. 266 to 278

(Questions 1 – 10) : Read the following passage from “The wonderful world of chess”.

Just like any other game, chess is also governed by rules. The pieces or the chessmen like the rook, the knight, the bishop, etc., move on the board in quite a restricted way, The movement of each piece is important because if a piece can move to a square, it can capture the piece in that square, whoever it may be.

The king (raju) and the queen (mantri) can move in any direction. Nevertheless, the king cannot go beyond one square whereas the queen has no such restrictions.

The bishop (sakatu) and the rook (enugu) can move to any square provided it is on their path. The bishop goes diagonally whereas the rook goes straight.

The knight (gurram) and the pawn (bantu) are very special in their own ways. The night is the only piece that can jump over other pieces. He goes two squares forward (or backward) and one square sideways (to the left or to the right). The pawn, like a brave soldier, marches only forward.

(1 – 5) Now answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5M

Question 1.
The queen can ( )
A) move by one square
B) move by 4 squares
C) jump over other pieces
D) move by any number of squares.
Answer:
D) move by any number of squares.

Question 2.
The movement of each piece in the game is important because ( )
A) it has its own direction
B) it can capture the piece in that square
C) it is governed by rules
D) it goes diagonally
Answer:
B) it can capture the piece in that square

Question 3.
The only piece that can jump over other pieces is the _________ ( )
A) bishop
B) pawn
C) knight
D) queen
Answer:
C) knight

Question 4.
The _________ marches only forward. ( )
A) king
B) pawn
C) knight
D) bishop
Answer:
B) pawn

Question 5.
The _________ moves diagonally by any number of squares.
A) bishop
B) pawn
C) rook
D) king
Answer:
A) bishop

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

(6 – 10) Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 5 x 2 = 10M

Question 6.
What is a checkmate?
Answer:
When a player marches his chessmen forward and captures the opponent’s king it is called ‘Checkmate’.

Question 7.
What did the inventor of chess ask in return as a reward?
Answer:
The inventor of chess asked the king to give him 1 grain for the 1st square, 2 for the 2nd square, 4 for the 3rd square and so on.

Question 8.
What are the benefits of playing chess ?
Answer:
Chess improves the player’s memory, concentration, logical thinking, mathematical abilities and problem solving skills.

Question 9.
What was chess called in the olden days ? What did it mean ?
Answer:
In the olden days chess was called ‘Chaturanga’ meaning the four divisions of the military.

Question 10.
Write the names of chessmen ?
Answer:
The king, the queen, the knight, the bishop, the rook and the soldiers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

(Questions 11 -16) : Read the following passage.

Mind management is a way to control one’s mind.To do this, we need to be cautious about our thinking process and also need a high level of understanding and mediation as well. Understanding is wisdom – 80 percent of people are knowledgeable, while 20 per cent are wise. Knowledgeable men take sides without reason.They feel sad seeing deprived people but jealous when they see happy people. They work in the guidance of other’s inspiration, take unnecessary responsibility to keep themselves disturbed.

A wise person does not stand for or against any idea without concrete reason. He works according to the situation and capacity. He looks at everything intellectually. To him, failure is a stepping stone for future success. So depression and conflict are not seen. Like the phrase ‘Stop, Look, Go’, first one should see, and this needs patience. Meditation is necessary to control and manage mind which then becomes an easy task.

(11 -12) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 2 × 1 = 2 M

Question 11.
A wise person always bases on ( )
A) knowledge
B) concrete reason
C) meditation
D) failures
Answer:
B) concrete reason

Question 12.
For a wise person failure leads to ( )
A) depression
B) conflict
C) patience
D) future success
Answer:
D) future success

Answer the questions in two or three sentences each. 4 × 2 = 8 M

Question 13.
What do we need for proper mind management ?
Answer:
For proper mind management we need a high level of understanding, meditation and we need to be cautious about our thinking process.

Question 14.
How are 80% of the people ? How do they feel ?
Answer:
80% of the people are knowledgeable. They feel sad on seeing deprived people but feel jeal¬ous on seeing happy people.

Question 15.
Why doesn’t a wise person feel depressed ?
Answer:
A wise person doesn’t feel depressed because he treats failure as a stepping stone for future success.

Question 16.
Why is meditation necessary ?
Answer:
Meditation is necessary to control and manage one’s mind.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Section – B : Vocabulary & Grammar:

(Questions 17 – 21) : Read the following passage focussing on the parts that are underlined and answer the questions given at the end. Write the answers in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5M

The kidneys of nearly (17) five percent of people under the age of 20 are not functioning normally, (18) a study shows. The youngsters have albumin in the wine, which indicates for (19) they could develop (20) a serious kidney disease later in their live (21).

Question 17.
The underlined word means
A) exactly
B) completely
C) more than
D) approximately
Answer:
D) approximately

Question 18.
The antonym of the underlined word
A) above normal
B) extraordinary
C) abnormal
D) unnormal
Answer:
C) abnormal

Question 19.
Choose the correct preposition
A) that
B) in
C) at
D) from
Answer:
A) that

Question 20.
Choose the noun form of the word
A) developed
B) developing
C) develop
D) development
Answer:
D) development

Question 21.
Choose the correct word
A) life
B) lives
C) lifes
D) lived
Answer:
B) lives

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

(Q. 22 – 26) Complete the following passage choosing right words from those given below it. Each blank is numbered, and for each blank four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5M

One day a man was walking _________ (22) a forest _________ (23) suddently he _________ (24) someone crying out for help. He _________ (25) in the direction of the sound and _________ (26) upon a well that was dried up.

Question 22.
A) by
B) through
C) in
D) from
Answer:
B) through

Question 23.
A) or
B) through
C) when
D) but
Answer:
C) when

Question 24.
A) heard
B) hear
C) hears
D) hearing
Answer:
A) heard

Question 25.
A) go
B) went
C) goes
D) going
Answer:
B) went

Question 26.
A) came
B) come
C) comes
D) coming
Answer:
A) came

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

(Q. 27 – 31) Read the following passage. Five sentences are numbered. Each numbered sentence has an error. Find the error and write the correct answer in your answer booklet. 5 × 2 = 10 M

Just like any other game (27), chess is also governed at rules. The pieces or the chessmen like the rook, the knight, the bishop etc. (28) move towards the board (29) in quite a restrict way. (30) The movement of each piece is importance because if a piece can move to a square (31) it can capture the piece in those square.
Answer:
27. governed by rules
28. move on the board
29. a restricted way
30. is important because
31. in that square.

Section – C : Conventions of Writing

(Q. 32) Read the following passage carefully and supply the punctuation marks (. , ? ” “) and capital letters, wherever necessary. Also correct the spelling of the underlined word. 5M

Gopal and raman are friends once they met at a mall gopal asked where are you working Raman replied i work as a computer programer for infosys.
Answer:
Gopal and Raman are friends. Once they met at a mall. Gopal asked, “Where are you working?” Raman replied, “I work as a computer programmer for Infosys”.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Section – D : Creative Writing – 12 M

Question 33.
Write an essay on “The Game of Chess”
Answer:

The Game of Chess

The game chess – “The Gift of India to the world” was invented in the 5th century by a scholar in North – India according to historian, H.J.R. Murray.

It was earlier called “chaturanga” – the four divisions of the military. It is an indoor game which was played by the Rajas in the olden days.

It is a game played at the international level. It is a very good exercise to the mind. It improves the players memory, concentration and logical thinking.

It also increases the player’s mathematical ability and problem solving skills. It is taught as a school subject in as many as 30 countries.

Like any other game chess also has its rules and regulations. A player has to follow all the rules and regulations while playing the game. The pieces in the game are called by different names and have their own steps to take in the game.

Eg: The pawn moves by one step forward, the queen can move in any direction and by any number of steps.
These days man can even play chess with computers. Even computers are programmed to play excellently with their artificial intelligence.

Question 34. – 8 M
The following is a telephonic conversation between Archana and Vani. Soon Vani had to go out and she wrote a message for mother. Write the message.

Archana : I’m Archana. Is that Vani ?
Vani : Yes.
Archana : May I speak to aunty please ?
Vani : She has gone out, will be back soon. Do you want to leave a message ?
Archana : Yes, tell aunty that I wanted to come over. She had promised me to teach me to make a pineapple cake. I have all the ingredients ready.
Vani : Why don’t you come after an hour ?
Archana : O.K. I’ll do that. Bye.

Answer:

MESSAGE

Mummy, Archana will be coming to learn making pineapple cake. She has all the ingredients ready. She will be here within an hour.

Vani

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Additional Exercises:

Section – A : Reading Comprehension

Questions 1 – 10:

1. Read the following stanza.

I like to think chess is a courteous game,
I play it with family and friends.
I like to think chess is a peaceful game,
Nobody gets hurt when it ends.
I never distract my opponent,
I don’t want to act like a pest.
I hope they behave in the very same way,
So both of us play at our best.
I know chess is not really gentle,
It’s more like a war or a fight.
I always shake hands at the start and the end,
So we can stay friends day and night.

(1 – 5) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The poet considers chess to be a peaceful game because ( )
A) opponents are not distracted
B) nobody acts as a pest
C) there is no winner or loser
D) nobody is physically injured.
Answer:
D) nobody is physically injured.

Question 2.
In the 7th line the poet says ‘they’ behave. Who are they ? ( )
A) opponents
B) proponents
C) players
D) spectators
Answer:
A) opponents

Question 3.
Shaking hands at the start and end shows ( )
A) kindness
B) courteousness
C) competitive spirit
D) distraction
Answer:
C) competitive spirit

Question 4.
Who is a pest according to the poet ? ( )
A) one who fights
B) one who hurts others
C) one who distracts
D) one who plays at his best
Answer:
C) one who distracts

Question 5.
Chess is not a gentle game because ( )
A) it is nearly like a war or fight
B) both the players behave in the same way
C) nobody gets hurt
D) it can be played with family and friends.
Answer:
A) it is nearly like a war or fight

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

(6 – 10) Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.

Question 6.
What attitude of the poet is seen in the poem ?
Answer:
The poet’s competitive spirit and peace loving attitude are seen in the poem.

Question 7.
Pick out atleast 3 pairs of rhyming words.
Answer:
friends – ends, pest – best, fight – night

Question 8.
Why do you think there is no peace on the chess board ?
Answer:
I think there is no peace on the chess board because the players are in a continuous struggle to defeat the opponent and they try to kill the opponent’s pieces.

Question 9.
What does the poet do to retain friends ?
Answer:
In order to retain friends the poet shakes hands with the opponent at the start and at the end of the game.

Question 10.
How are things different on & off the chess board ?
Answer:
People who are enemies on the chess board are friends off the chess board. There is never peace on the chess board but off the board things are peaceful because they are friends.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

2. Read the following passage.

Soon after proving her excellence at the national level, Koneru entered the International Chess Circuit. After taking the world by storm by clinching the World Chess titles in the Under 10, Under 12 and Under 14 age groups, Humpy got an International Master title in the year 1999, at the age of 12 years. Further, she achieved her 3rd Grandmaster norm in the Elekes Memorial Grandmaster Tournament held at Budapest, Hungary.

Koneru created a world record by earning the International Grandmaster title at the age of 15 years 1 month and 29 days. She broke Judit Polgar’s record to achieve the feat, and became the youngest woman ever to have earned the coveted title. Later, Hou Yifan broke Humpy’s record by earning the title at the age of 14 years 6 months in the year 2008. Koneru Humpy has been the First Indian Woman to have received an International Grandmaster title in the game of chess.

(1 – 5) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
Humpy achieved her 3rd Grand Master norm in ( )
A) Hungary
B) Luscenbourg
C) Kaupthing
D) Gudivada
Answer:
A) Hungary

Question 2.
Humpy won world chess titles in except ( )
A) under 12
B) under 10
C) under 16
D) under 14
Answer:
C) under 16

Question 3.
Humpy won the Grand master title at the age of ( )
A) 10
B) 12
C) 14
D) 15
Answer:
D) 15

Question 4.
Humpy is the 1st Indian woman to ( )
A) play chess
B) enter the International chess circuit
C) play at Hungary
D) receive an International Grand master title
Answer:
D) receive an International Grand master title

Question 5.
Humpy broke …………………..’s record of being the youngest woman of being the International Grandmaster title. ( )
A) Hou Yifan
B) Judit Polgar
C) Vishwanathan Anand
D) Susan Polgar
Answer:
B) Judit Polgar

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

(6 – 10) Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.

Question 6.
Name the awards won by Humpy ?
Answer:
Humpy won the Arjuna Award, Padma Sri Award, Raja-Lakshmi Award and many more.

Question 7.
Where was Humpy born ?
Answer:
Humpy was born at Gudivada in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 8.
How was 1995 remarkable for Humpy ?
Answer:
In 1995 Humpy won the under-8 National Chess Championship and caught everyone’s attention.

Question 9.
Which rank does Humpty hold for chess?
Answer:
Humpy hold World No. 2 rank among female players for chess.

Question 10.
Who conferred the Raja – Lakshmi Award on Humpy ?
Answer:
Raja-Lakshmi Foundation of Chennai conferred the Raja-Lakshmi Award.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Questions 11 – 16:

3. Read the following passage.

The Mahabharata carries a lesser known but interesting myth. Krishna tells Yudhishthara, who was curious to know Holi’s origin, how once when Raghu, an illustrious ancestor of Rama, ruled, there was a female demon Dhodhi, indulging in evil acts. She could not be killed as she was protected by a boon. She feared none except small children playing in streets.

One day, Guru Vashishtha, the royal priest, revealed that she could be eliminated if children carrying small pieces of wood in their hands went to the outskirts of the town, piled them along with dry grass, burnt the heap and danced around, sang, clapped and beat drums.

It was done, and what mighty weapons failed to do, the children’s innocent merriment accomplished. The day came to be celebrated as a festival that symbolises the victory of an innocent heart over evil. Whatever the truth behind this story, it shows that the festival of Holi preceded the Mahabharata.

(11 – 12) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 11.
Raghu was ( )
A) the one who killed Dhodhi
B) curious to know the origin of Holi
C) Rama’s ancestor
D) a demon
Answer:
C) Rama’s ancestor

Question 12.
Dhodhi feared ………………
A) the sage
B) strong men
C) holy Women
D) small children
Answer:
D) small children

(13 – 16) Answer the following questions in one or two sentences in your own words.

Question 13.
What did Krishna tell Yudhishthara ?
Answer:
Krishna told Yudhishthara about the origin of Holi festival.

Question 14.
What did the children have to do to kill Dhodhi ?
Answer:
In order to kill Dhodhi, children had to go to the outskirts with pieces of wood in their hands, pile them up with dry grass, burn the heap, sing, clap, beat drums and dance around.

Question 15.
What does Holi symbolize ?
Answer:
Holi symbolizes the victory of an innocent heart over evil.

Question 16.
Why couldn’t Dhodhi be killed ?
Answer:
Dhodhi couldn’t be killed because she was protected by a boon.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

4. Read the following passage.

Tigers hunt large animals such as deer and wild pigs, which will provide food for a few days. They slink up on their prey unseen, only charging when they are within about 20m (65 ft). Tigers kill their prey by biting the back, its neck or throat, then dragging it away into thick cover to feed. When they have eaten enough, they conceal the carcass with leaves so they can return to it later on. Male tigers can eat up to 40 kg (85 lb) of meat in one meal.

Tigers love water and often bathe or cool off in rivers and pools during the heat of the day. They usually hunt at night and rest during the day. Most tigers live alone, although mothers with cubs or young siblings sometimes hunt together. A male tiger roams a territory of up to 100 sq. km (60 sq miles) in area, defining its boundaries with scent markings, droppings and scratch marks on boulders or trees.

These signals tell other tigers about its sex and size as well as its territory. Tigers also communicate by roaring and moaning.They defend their territory fiercely against rival males, but wil I tolerate some overlap with the smaller territories of females.

(11 – 12) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 11.
Tigers hunt big animals because ……………………… ( )
A) it is easy to hunt them
B) their meat is tasty
C) the meat will last for them a few days
D) they are easily available
Answer:
C) the meat will last for them a few days

Question 12.
Tigers drag their prey into the bush …………………….. ( )
A) so that nobody can disturb them
B) it is cool under a bush
C) other animals may snatch their prey
D) to conceal it
Answer:
D) to conceal it

(13 – 16) Answer the following questions in one or two sentences in your own words.

Question 13.
Where do tigers attack their prey ?
Answer:
Tigers attack their prey on their back, neck or throat.

Question 14.
How do male tigers define their territory ?
Answer:
Male tigers define their territory by scent markings, droppings and making scratch marks on boulders or trees.

Question 15.
What do tigers do during hot days ?
Answer:
During hot days tigers bathe or cool off in rivers and pools.

Question 16.
What helps a tiger to hunt in the dark ?
Answer:
Tiger’s excellent eyesight and hearing helps it hunt in the dark.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Section – B : Vocabulary & Grammar

Questions 17 – 21:

Read the following passage focussing on the parts that are underlined and answer the questions given at the end. Write the answers in your answer booklet.

5. In the 18th and 19th centuries, people went to bed early (17), soon after it was dark (18). Their sleep habits were fixed by the alternation of day and night, light and darkness. They woke up by day-break (19). But today a large number of people are not sleeping enough and sleep deficit affects their health (20) and their perform (21).

Question 17.
Antonym of ‘early’ ( )
A) soon
B) late
C) lately
D) latter
Answer:
B) late

Question 18.
Antonym of ‘dark’ ( )
A) bright
B) sunny
C) interesting
D) dull
Answer:
A) bright

Question 19.
Replace the underlined word with the same meaning. ( )
A) dusk
B) dawn
C) sunshine
D) sunset
Answer:
B) dawn

Question 20.
A person who has health is ( )
A) health
B) strong
C) healthy
D) heavy
Answer:
C) healthy

Question 21.
Replace the correct word. ( )
A) performing
B) performed
C) had perform
D) performance
Answer:
D) performance

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

6. Spiders are man’s friends. They are among our best friends. They destroy many harmful (17) insects, including some of our worst (18) enemies. There are the insects that devour (19) our crops, cause diseases both and torment (20) our skins. Spiders do not prey on specific insects. They kill but (21) eat whatever insects are available.

Question 17.
Antonym of ‘harmful’ ( )
A) harmless
B) unharmed
C) harmfree
D) protected
Answer:
A) harmless

Question 18.
Choose the positive degree of ‘worst’ ( )
A) worse
B) bad
C) better
D) good
Answer:
B) bad

Question 19.
The synonym of the underlined word is ( )
A) harm
B) affect
C) protect
D) eat up
Answer:
D) eat up

Question 20.
The synonym of ‘torment’ is ( )
A) cause
B) destroy
C) torture
D) annoy
Answer:
C) torture

Question 21.
Choose the correct conjunction ( )
A) or
B) as
C) because
D) and
Answer:
D) and

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Questions 22 – 26:

Complete the following passage choosing right words from those given below it. Each blank is numbered, and for each blank four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write in your answer booklet.

7. Dear Mom,

I hope all’s well …………………. (22) you. I’m sorry, I …………………. (23) write to you earlier as I was busy with my exams …………………. (24) are now almost over. I’m sure you’ll be glad to …………………. (25) that I’ve written my exams well. My last exam is …………………. (26) the 14th of March.

Question 22.
A) at
B) with
C) of
D) from
Answer:
B) with

Question 23.
A) didn’t
B) wouldn’t
C) couldn’t
D) just
Answer:
C) couldn’t

Question 24.
A) They
B) All
C) It
D) Some
Answer:
A) They

Question 25.
A) knew
B) will know
C) known
D) know
Answer:
D) know

Question 26.
A) for
B) of
C) on
D) in
Answer:
C) on

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

8. Dhanush …………………. (22) Vijay went (23) the cinema on Saturday. …………………. (24) was a long queue. It was a cold evening and they …………………. (25) to stand in the queue for nearly …………………. (26) hour.

Question 22.
A) or
B) and
C) but
D) so
Answer:
B) and

Question 23.
A) to
B) for
C) by
D) into
Answer:
A) to

Question 24.
A) their
B) there
C) they
D) the
Answer:
B) there

Question 25.
A) have
B) had
C) has
D) will have
Answer:
B) had

Question 26.
A) an
B) in
C) a
D) the
Answer:
A) an

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Questions 27 – 31:

Read the following passage. Five sentences are numbered. Each numbered sentence has an error. Find the error and write the correct answer in your answer booklet.

9. (27) The Hindus believing that it was invented by Queen Mandodari (28), the wives of
Ravana. (29) In those day it is called ‘chaturanga’ (30) the four divisions for the military. Legend has it that (31) this inventor was ordered by the ruler to ask for a reward for his invent.
Answer:
27. The Hindus believe
28. the wife of
29. it was called
30. divisions of the military
31. for his invention

10. Some say it refreshes their mind while. (27) others say it improve their memory, (28) concentrate and (29) logic thinking. Infact, some (30) experiments have proved that it do all these things. Since chess involves a number of calculations, it increases our mathematical abilities and (31) problem solve skills.
Answer:
27. it improves
28. concentration
29. logical thinking
30. it does all these
31. problem solving skills

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Section – C : Conventions of Writing

Question 32:

Read the following passage carefully and supply the punctuation marks (., ? ” “) and capital letters, wherever necessary. Also correct the spelling of the underlined word.

11. vijay chadda was thriled when he won a maruti 800 at a hyderabad raffle in September 1988.
Answer:
Vijay Chadda was thrilled when he won a Maruti 800 at a Hyderabad raffle in September 1988.

12. Years after wait disney first had the idea, disney land opened in anaheim, California. Admision cost a dollar. By its tenth anniversary 50 million visitors had come to ‘the magic kingdom’.
Answer:
Years after Walt Disney first had the idea, Disney Land opened in Anaheim, California. Admission cost a dollar. By its tenth anniversary 50 million visitors had come to ‘The Magic Kingdom’.

Section – D: Creative Writing

Question 33.
Write the biographical sketch of Koneru Humpy basing on the following information.
Date of birth – 31st March, 1987 Gudivada, Andhra Pradesh
Father – Koneru Ashok, Chess player
Carrer – Under 8 National Chess Championship -1995.
– Titles in under 10, under 12, under 14 age groups.
– International Master title age 12.
– World record – earned International Grandmaster title – 15 years
– 1st Indian woman to receive International Grand master title in chess
– No. 2 rank female chess players.
Awards – 2003 Arjuna Award, Padma Sri – 2007, Raja Lakshmi Award – 2008.
Answer:
Koneru Humpy is the 1st Indian woman to receive International Grand master title in chess. She was born on 31st March, 1987, at Gudivada in Andhra Pradesh. Her father Koneru Ashok was also a chess player. Her career as a national player began in 1995 when she won the under-8 National chess championship. She won titles in under 10, under 12 and under 14 age groups.

At the tender age of 12, she won the International Master title. She created a world record by earning the International Grand master title at the age of 15. She holds world 2nd rank among the female chess players. In recognition of her achievements the government of India awarded her with the Arjuna Award in 2003 and Padma Sri Award in 2007. Raja Lakshmi Foundation of Chennai conferred the Raja Lakshmi Award on her in 2008. She makes every Indian woman feel proud.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

(Or)
14. Imagine you are a reporter who got a chance to interview Koneru Humpy. Write an imaginary interview between you and Humpy.
Answer:
Reporter : Good evening ma’m, I’m a reporter from the Young World. I’ve come to interview you.
Humpy : Good evening, please take a seat.
Reporter : How did you develop interest in playing chess?
Humpy : Well, my father himself was a chess player. I used to watch him play the game.
Reporter : When did you start taking the formal training for it?
Humpy : At the age of 5 my dad observed my keen interest and a few special skills in the
game. He then decided to train me professionally.
Reporter : What was your 1 achievement?
Humpy : I won the under-8 National Chess Championship in 1985.
Reporter : How did you feel then?
Humpy : I was quite excited and happy.
Reporter : You must have spent most of your time on chess. How did you manage your academics?
Humpy : Well, my father has been my mentor all through the way. He used to teach me at home and helped me even in my studies.
Reporter : How do you feel about your achievements today, after receiving so many prestigious awards?
Humpy : I feel happy but I do rememeber that I still have a long way to go.
Reporter : Thankyouma’m.

(Or)
15. You are Nilesh. You joined summer coaching classes for chess. You feel them to be great. Write a letter to your friend about how you feel after joining the classes, what you have learnt there etc.
Answer:

Hyderabad,
Date : XX.XX.XXXX

My dear Suhaas,

I’m very delighted to share this news with you. I have joined chess coaching classes. These are special classes conducted in summer.

I have been going there for a month now and I feel quite excited about it. I was initially not much interested .1 have started understanding the game and its rules and regulations. I have developed a special enthusiasm on it now.

The game has taught me to be patient, sportive and has even changed my way of thinking.

Every piece in the game is so disciplined and has its own path to move. It is an amazing game which not only increases our intellectual ability but also leads to logical thinking.

I suggest that you too should join coaching classes and see the difference.

Your friend
Nilesh.

To
K. Suhaas,
S/o, K. Suresh,
420, Pinnavari St,
WARANGAL.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

Question 34.

16. Read the following conversation between a student named Pavan and teacher’s mother Mrs. Bharati. After the conversation she had to leave home and before leaving she left a message for her daughter. Write the message for her daughter (the teacher).

Pavan : Is this 2724412, Madam Rakhi’s number ?
Mrs. Bharati : That’s right. She is not at home but she will be back within ten minutes.
Pavan : Yes, I wanted to come over. I first wanted to confirm it.
Mrs. Bharati : Come after half an hour or so. She will be definitely back by then.
Pavan : O.K. Thanks!

Answer:

MESSAGE

Rakhi, your student named Payan called. He wanted to come over and just wanted to confirm whether you are at home or not, I told him come within hatf an hour. So please stay at home.

Mummy.

(Or)
17. You have lost a wrist watch. Write a notice for your school notice-board giving the necessary details.
Answer:
LOST

I have lost a Timex Wrist watch. It is gold coloured one with a broad strap. If anybody finds it, kindly return it to the undersigned.

Ramana,
No. 416,
Class X.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7C Koneru Humpy

(Or)
18. Prepare a poster to awaken people to save the earth by saving trees.
Answer:

TS 7th Class English Guide 7C Koneru Humpy 2

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7B Chess

Telangana SCERT TS 7th Class English Study Material Pdf Unit 7B Chess Textbook Questions and Answers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7B Chess

I like to think chess is a courteous game.
I play it with family and friends’.
I like to think chess is a peaceful game.
Nobody gets hurt when it ends.
I never distract my opponent,
I don’t want to act like a pest.
I hope they behave in the very same way.
So both of us play at our best.
I know chess is not really gentle,
It’s more like a war or a fight.
I always shake hands at the start and the end,
So we can stay friends day and night.
On the board we’re enemies,
Off the board we’re friends.
On the board there’s never peace,
But that is just pretend.
On the board we’re enemies,
Off the board we’re friends.
On the board there’s never peace,
But off the board I hope for peace that never, never ends
I like to think chess is a courteous game
I play it with family and friends
I like to think chess is a peaceful game,
Nobody gets hurt when it ends. – Nathan J. Goldberg

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7B Chess

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
How does the poet consider chess; a game of peace or a game of war ?
Answer:
The poet feels that chess is a courteous and peaceful game. He plays it with his friends and family. Nobody gets hurt when it ends. He says he never diverts his opponent from the game.

Question 2.
Which line strongly supports that chess is a peaceful game ?
Answer:
“I like to think chess is a peaceful game.
Nobody gets hurt when it ends.”
The above lines support the strong idea of the poet that chess is a peaceful game.

Question 3.
Why does the author shake hands at the start and at the end ?
Do you think that the writer is special in doing that ? Do you find this happen in other games ?
Answer:
The author shakes hands at the start and the end of the game because it is a friendly signal. In any game or sport friendship will be developed. In this game, at the end nobody gets hurt. So, the author does so. Sports and games are meant to promote goodwill among players.

Question 4.
What happens if you are distracted while playing chess ? Do players try to distract their opponents to have the advantage ? Is it fair ?
Answer:
Players never try to distract their opponents to have the advantage. It is not fair. The game is meant for promoting friendly relations among the countries or individuals.

Question 5.
Stanza 4, line 1 says, “On the board we’re enemies”. Line 3 of the same stanza says, “On the board there’s no peace”. Then how can it be a peaceful game ?
Answer:
Concerning to the game, they are like enemies. They have to think deeply and play with a great skill. At that time their feelings are not attached to their mind and soul. They find a lot of enjoyment. So, chess is a peaceful game.

Question 6.
Stanza 1, line 1 says that chess is a courteous game. Is the author courteous? Support your answer quoting from the poem.
Answer:
Chess is a courteous game. At the same time the author is also a courteous man by quoting the following lines. We say he is courteous.
“I like to think chess is a courteous game,
I play it with family and friends.
I like to think chess is a peaceful game,
Nobody gets hurt when it ends”.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7B Chess

II. You know that words like ‘friends‘ and ‘ends‘ rhyme with each other. But do you know that complete lines can also rhyme with one another? For example, lines 1 and 3 in stanza 1 rhyme with each other. Both the lines have the same structure. This is called parallelism. Sometimes, they carry the same theme too- like these two lines. But they can contrast with each other too. There is such a pair in this poem. Pick it out.
Answer:
On the board we’re enemies,
Off the board we’re friends.

III. Parallelism is used in prose too. The author uses this technique to reinforce ideas of importance or to make the text more pleasurable to the reader, or both. Pick out the lines that show parallelism. What is its purpose ?
Answer:
The author described the greatness of chess and the large number of possible ways of playing to win the game. To reinforce this idea he quoted the following lines.
Mathematicians say that around 10120 unique games are possible in chess. Compare this jumbo number with the earlier number 264-1. How big is this? There aren’t even that many electrons in this universe.

IV. ‘Repetition’ is another poetic device used by poets to reinforce ideas or to make a poem pleasing to the ears or both. In this poem you will find complete stanzas repeated. What are they? What is the purpose of repetition here ?
Answer:
In the first stanza and sixth stanza the poet reiterated the same thing as follows.
I like to think chess is a courteous game,
I play with family and friends.
I like to think chess is a peaceful game,
Nobody gets hurt when it ends.

In the same way 4th stanza and 5th stanza are the same.
On the board we’re enemies,
off the board we’re friends,
On the board there’s never peace,
But that is just pretend.

The purpose of repetition is to reinforce his idea about chess is a courteous and peaceful game.

V. Try to write a parody replacing ‘chess‘ with ‘cricket‘ or any other game of your choice.
Answer:
A football is made round
You can buy them for a new pound
get them anywhere in your town
When kicked up they come down
It’s kicked upon the ground
with very little or no sound
You can kick them with some power
And keep them up with volleys for an hour
there round and small there not large and tall
That’s why they got the name football.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7B Chess

PROJECT:

I. How many of your friends play chess ? Is there any remarkable player in your school, mandal or district ? Write a short profile of that person and display it on your wall magazine.
Answer:

Vasudev – A Genius Chess player

In our school a boy named Vasudev is a wonderful chess champion. His father is a farmer. When he was seven years old, he over heard about Dronavalli Harika.Instantly, he decided to learn chess. His father joined him S.R.R. Chess Coaching Centre in Vijayawada. The coach Mr. Ravi identified his extraordinary skills in playing chess. He encouraged him.

Vasudev became a centre splash when he bagged 1st place in district level chess tournament. Afterwards he never looked back. He participated in many competitions in state level under 13, under 12, under 10 championships. He proved himself there. He stood first in all above competitions. His only ambition is to become the youngest grandmaster in the world.

Chess Summary in English

The poet feels that chess is a courteous and peaceful game. He plays it with his friends and family. Nobody gets hurt when it ends.

He says he never distracts his opponent from the game.

While playing chess, the poet and his opponent feel as if they are enemies. After the game is completed, they are friends.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7B Chess

Glossary:

courteous (adj) = polite and respectful, well-mannered
Usage : His courteous conduct conquered my heart.
opponent = enemy
pest = a small insect that destroys crops.
distract(v) = to take somebody’s attention away from what they are trying to do
Usage : The noise of the traffic distracts my attention from writing.
pretend = imaginary or not real.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7A The Wonderful World of Chess

Telangana SCERT TS 7th Class English Study Material Pdf Unit 7A The Wonderful World of Chess Textbook Questions and Answers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7A The Wonderful World of Chess

Pre-Reading:

Look at the following pictures.

TS 7th Class English Guide 7A The Wonderful World of Chess 1

Question 1.
Name the games and sports that you see in the picture.
Answer:
1. Highjump
2. Tennis
3. Cricket
4. Weight lifting
5. Hockey
6. Shuttle badminton
7. Volleyball
8. Discus throw
9. Javelin throw
10. Longjump
11. Chess
12. Hurdles
13. Basketball
14. Relay
15. Football
16. Table-tennis
17. Hopscotch
18. Gilli-danda
19. Skipping
20. Carrom
21. Hide & seek
22. Chess
23. Kho-kho
24. Kabaddi.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7A The Wonderful World of Chess

Question 2.
Name the games and sports that you play.
Answer:
I play chess, basket ball, throw ball, carroms, table tennis, cricket, skipping, hide and seek, kho-kho, kabaddi and shuttle badminton.

Question 3.
Write the names under appropriate picture.
Answer:

TS 7th Class English Guide 7A The Wonderful World of Chess 2

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7A The Wonderful World of Chess

Oral Discourse:

Talk on : Your favorite game or sport.
Answer:
My favourite game is Shuttle badminton. I love playing the game. It keeps me physically and mentally fit. It can be played by two or four players. It is played with a rocket and a cock and is played in a court. It is strictly a disciplined game. It refreshes both the mind and body. It rejuvinates the player and keeps him active throughout the day. I feel fresh after playing the game and feel active the whole day.

I. Read quickly and answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Is chess played only in a few countries or all over the world ?
Answer:
Chess is played all over the world. It has won the hearts of every thinking animal on earth.

Question 2.
Who invented chess ?
Answer:
According to Puranas Mandodari, the wife of Ravana Brahma invented chess. (or)
According to H.J.R. Murray, a historian said that it was invented by a scholar from North-west India around 5th century.

Question 3.
Is chess an expensive game ?
Answer:
No, chess is not an expensive game. It is an indoor game. Anybody can play it by spending a little amount to buy board and coins.

Question 4.
Can the chessmen move in any way they like ?
Answer:
No, chessmen can not move anyway they like. The rook, the knight, the bishop etc. move on the board in quite a restricted way.

Question 5.
What is the national body for chess ?
Answer:
The national body for chess is All India Chess Federation which is affiliated to the World Chess Federation.

Question 6.
Do we have good chess players in India? Name a few.
Answer:
Yes, we have very good chess players such as Viswanathan Anand, Dibyendu Barua, Manuel Aaron, Krishnan Sasikiran, Koneru Flampi, Dronavalli Harika etc.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7A The Wonderful World of Chess

II. Now read the essay paying special attention to the words in bold print. Guess their meanings and check them with the glossary.
Answer:
Refer Glossary.

Answer the following questions individually. Then, discuss your answers with the members of your group.

Question 1.
Who do you think invented chess, Mandodari or the scholar from North-west India ? Why ?
Answer:
I think Chess was invented by a scholar from North-west India around fifth century. A famous historian called H.J.R. Murray declared this after making a lot of research.

Question 2.
The story did not tell anything about what the king had done. What do you think had happened ? What would you have done if you were the inventor (or the king) ?
Answer:
The King might have been surprised and wondered. He might be in speechless condition. He might have lost his power of reason, presence of mind and so he didn’t do anything.

Question 3.
Can a pawn capture the queen ? Support your answer quoting from the essay.
Answer:
Yes, pawn can capture the queen. It can go one square diagonally when it captures one of his opponent’s men; even if it is the mighty king.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7A The Wonderful World of Chess

Question 4.
In what way are the rook and the bishop similar ?
Answer:
The bishop and the rook can move to any square provided it is on their path. In this way the rook and bishop are similar.

Question 5.
Which of the chessmen do you think is the most powerful one ? Why ?
Answer:
The queen (Mantri) is powerful one. It can move in any direction.

Question 6.
The possible positions of some chessmen (represented by a four-point star) are dotted in the following pictures. Match them with the appropriate piece.

TS 7th Class English Guide 7A The Wonderful World of Chess 6

Answer:

TS 7th Class English Guide 7A The Wonderful World of Chess 3

Question 7.
A rook, a knight, and a bishop are shown in the picture. Put a cross in all the squares that the rook can go. Put a tick in all the squares that the knight can go.

TS 7th Class English Guide 7A The Wonderful World of Chess 5

Answer:
Look the picture

TS 7th Class English Guide 7A The Wonderful World of Chess 4

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7A The Wonderful World of Chess

Vocabulary:

I. In an expository essay like this, you often find many clues that help you guess the meaning of unfamiliar words: if there arc any. For example, in the first two sentences, if the word ‘vanish’ is unfamiliar to you, you can guess its meaning from the next sentence. Both the sentences arc similar.

You know that ‘kings’ in the second sentence is related to ‘kingdoms’ in the first sentence. Hence you can guess the meaning of ‘vanished’ from ‘gone’. This is supported by bbut and ‘remained with us’ in the third sentence. While guessing the meaning, the overall theme, the meaning of the paragraph, and the meaning of other sentences help you.

Look at the following sentences taken from the essay. Discuss them ¡n your group and discover the clues that help you guess the meaning of unfamiliar words. The next time you read a text, try to guess the meaning using the available clues.

TS 7th Class English Guide 7A The Wonderful World of Chess 14

II. You have learnt that the king, the queen, the bishop, etc. are called ‘chessmen’. So, you can call any of them a ‘chessman’. This is a special word that represents six names. Such a word that includes the meanings of other particular words is called a ‘superordinate’ word of a ‘hypernym’. The words that are included in a hypernym are called hyponyms. In the above example, chessman is the hypernym.

Its hyponyms are ‘king’, ‘queen’, ‘bishop’, ‘knight’, ‘rook’, and ‘pawn’. A hypernym can be a hyponym of another hypernym. For example, rose, brick red, dark red, and crimson are hyponyms of ‘red’. But red is a hyponym of ‘colour’. This can be illustrated like this.

TS 7th Class English Guide 7A The Wonderful World of Chess 7

Look at the 25 pictures and the words given at the start of the unit and identify hypernyms and hyponyms. Use the diagram given below. You can add some more words from your vocabulary.

III. In groups, draw similar diagrams on charts to show hypernyms and hyponyms related to sports, strength sports, athletics, runs, sprints, relays, jumps, and throws. Display them in the class.

TS 7th Class English Guide 7A The Wonderful World of Chess 8

Answer:

TS 7th Class English Guide 7A The Wonderful World of Chess 9

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7A The Wonderful World of Chess

Grammar:

I. Study these sentences:

1. If you want an idea of how big this number is, imagine you have this much money.
2. Then, if you spend one crore rupees every second of your life, it takes approximately 60,000 years for you to spend all the money.
3. If she does that, she calls out ‘checkmate’ and wins the game.
4. If you are on the lookout, you will find many invitation tournaments conducted at school, village, mandal, district and state levels.

In the above sentences, a condition is expressed using ‘if-clauses’. Notice the comma at the end of the clause. The clause that follows it is the main clause.

Notice the tense in both the clauses – it is simple present. However, sentence 4 has ‘will’, denoting ‘future’.

Sentences 2 and 3 talk about what happens when the condition is met, whereas the first sentence asks the listener/reader to do something when the condition is met with (notice the imperative in the main clause).

If – clauses: type 0 and 1

Sentences 2 and 3 talk about what is certain according to mathematics and according to the rules of chess respectively. This type of condition is called if- clause type 0. This is also used to talk about universal truths, common sense, experience, and facts decided by science. Eg. 1. If you heat ice, it melts. 2. If you put blue litmus paper in any acid, it turns red. 3. If you step on a snake, it bites.

Sentence 4 is an example of if-clause typel. Here ‘will’ is used in the main clause to talk about the possibility of an action in the future.

Sentence 1 has an imperative in the main clause. We do not know whether it will be fulfilled or not. Since this too expresses possibility, it comes under if-clause type 1.

Notice that if-clause type 0 does not talk about possibility. Usually, it talks about certainty. It does not use ‘will’ or any other auxiliary in the main clause.

II. Read the following sentences and underline the if-clauses. Then, decide whether they are type 0 or type 1. Discuss and then write ’O’ or T against each sentence. The first one is done for you.

1. You need not buy pink colour. If you mix red and white, you get pink. – 0
2. Listen to your father. If you do not listen to him, you will be in trouble.
3. My brother said, “If you want to get good marks, why don’t you study harder?”
4. Do not take away my homework book. If you do it once again, I will take you to the headmaster.
5. I have a number in my mind. If you divide it by 2 you get zero. If you multiply it by 2, you still get zero. What is it ?
6. My science teacher said, “If you keep phosphorous in air, it catches fire.”
7. It is getting late. If we do not take a taxi, we will not catch the train.
8. Miss Bhanu is very strict. If I am late, she will stand me in the comer.
9. My social teacher said, “If the demand increases, the prices go up.”
10. My English teacher said, “If you want to learn English, read a lot.”
Answer:
Key:
1 – 0
2 – 1
3 – 0
4 – 1
5 – 0
6 – 0
7 – 1
8 – 1
9 – 0
10 – 1

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7A The Wonderful World of Chess

III. Take three type 0 clauses and three type 1 clauses. Replace ‘if with ‘when1 and write the sentences. What did you observe ? Which sentence sounds natural ?

type – 0 clauses
1. If you heat water, it turns into vapour.
When you heat water, it turns into vapour.
2. If the door bell rings, the dog barks.
When the door bell rings, the dog barks.
3. If you heat iron, it expands.
When you heat iron, it expands.

type -1 clauses
1. If it rains, the reception will take place indoors.
When it rains, the reception will take place indoors.
2. If we miss the train, we can get the next one.
When we miss the train, we can get the next one.
3. If I see him, I will give him a lift.
When I see him, I will give him a lift.

From the above sentences, type-0 condition sounds natural.

IV. Write ten sentences with if clause type – 0 and type – 1. Use the following clues if you like.

1. boil – water – turn – steam
2. divide an even number by two – zero
3. disturb a snake – bite
4. save money – help in old age
5. keep quiet – tell a story
6. take medicine – get well
7. meet Ravi Varma – ask – see me
8. buy – two pairs – one pair free
9. help me with English – help with maths
10. miss bus – what you do ?
Answer:
1. If you boil water, it turns into steam – type 0
2. If you divide an even number by two, you will get zero as remainder – type 0
3. If you disturb a snake, it will bite you – type 1
4. If you save money, it will help in old age – type 1
5. If you keep quiet, I will tell a story – type 1
6. If you take medicine, you will get well – type 0
7. If you meet Ravi Varma, ask him to see me – type 0
8. If you buy two pairs, onepair is free – type 0
9. If you help me with English, I will help you with maths – type 1
10. If you miss bus, what will you do ? – type 1

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7A The Wonderful World of Chess

Writing:

I. Collect some more information about your favourite sport or game and write a brief essay on it.
Answer:
My favourite game is chess. The birth place of chess is India. In olden days it was called Chaturanga.

There are rules for the game. The king can go one square in any direction. The queen can go in any direction any number of squares. The bishop can move diagonally. The rook can go on any number of squares in a straight line. The knight jumps two squares straight and one square sideways. The pawn goes only one square but in killing opponent power, it goes comerwise. If any chessman conquers The king, it is called checkmate. This is a complicated game.

There are associations in district and state level which are affiliated to All India Chess Federation and World Chess Federation. A player can raise to the level of the Grand Master. According to the ratings, Viswanathan Anand was the first Indian to earn the title of Grand Master, as well as World Champion. The game of Chess increases memory power, concentration and logical thinking. Since Chess involves a number of calculations, it increases our mathematical abilities and problem solving skills.

II. The following paragraph has some errors in capitalization, punctuation, prepositions and forms of verb. Correct them and rewrite the paragraph in your notebook.

“Health is wealth.” If we understand this, we can kept ourselves fit. apart from a balanced diet, sports is necessary to maintain our health We may feel that, if we spend our time in playing, when should we study. Here is solution study on the morning as the mind is fresh, after you return home from school, play for about one to two hours as the mind is tired. Then you can study again. So friends, always remember the proverb, “all study and no play makes Jack a dull boy”. This proverb not only apply to jack but for all of us.
Answer:
‘Health is wealth’. If we understand this, we can keep ourselves fit. Apart from a balanced diet, sports are necessary to maintain our health. We may feel that, if we spend our time in playing, when should we study ? Here is a solution. Study in the morning as the mind is fresh.

After you return home from school, play about one or two hours, as the mind is tired. Then you can study again. So friends, always remember the proverb “All study and no play makes Jack a dull boy”. This proverb applies not only for Jack but also for all of us.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7A The Wonderful World of Chess

Study Skills:

I. Reference material is usually available in the following forms (See the box below.) Each of them serves a specific purpose. If we know what is what, we will be able to get the information we want without much effort.

manual: a book which gives you practical instructions on how to do something or how to use something, such as a machine

handbook or companion or blue book: a manual which summarizes a subject and is useful for ready reference

directory: a list of references, used for case of locating their subject

atlas: a set of maps, often of geographical locations

dictionary or lexicon : (the latter generally provides more grammatical analysis) : an alphabetical listing of words and their definitions

compendium: a short but complete account of a particular subject

encyclopedia: a book or set of books containing many articles arranged in alphabetical order which deal either with the whole of human knowledge or with a particular part of it:

almanac: a book of information in specific fields, often by date

thesaurus: a list of words with similar, related, or opposite meanings

II. Some books on chess are given below (T.B p.113). The name of the author is in regular font and the title of the book is in italics. The year of publication is within the brackets. Using this information and the information given in the above box, try to answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Who wrote Chess Training for Budding Champions ?
Answer:
Hall, Jesper wrote chess training for Budding Champions.

Question 2.
When was The Diary of a Chess Queen written ?
Answer:
The Diary of a Chess Queen was written in the year 2009.

Question 3.
Name two authors who wrote books for children ?
Answer:
Chandler, Murray & Kidder, Harvey wrote books for children.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7A The Wonderful World of Chess

Question 4.
You do not know chess. You want to learn it. Which books will you choose?
Answer:
To learn play chess, I will choose the books such as ‘Learn Chess’, ‘Essential Chess Lessons’ and Chess Training for Budding Champions.

Question 5.
You have come across an unknown term like’King’s Indian’while reading a book. Which book do you consult ?
Answer:
I will consult the book “The Official Blue Book and Encyclopedia of Chess.” When I come across an unknown term like ‘King’s Indian’ while reading a book.

Question 6.
You are learning chess, and you want to know the rules. Which book do you turn to?
Answer:
I will turn to ‘Official Chess Rule Book’ to know the rules of the game chess.

Question 7.
Name a few books which are good for people who are already good players.
Answer:
‘How to use computers to improve your chess’; “Twelve great chess players and their best games’; ‘The complete Idiot’s guide to chess’ etc. books are good for the people who are already good players.

Question 8.
What do you expect to see in the book ‘How Computers Play Chess’ ?
Answer:
I expect the things like how computers work in playing chess and what sort of programmes are incorporated in them.

Question 9.
Pick out the books that give biographical sketches of chess players.
Answer:
‘Twelve Great Chess Players and Their Best Games’; ‘How I Became a Grandmaster at Age 14’ etc. are the biographical sketches of chess players.

Question 10.
Look at the title of the book, How I Became a Grandmaster at Age 14. What does T refer to? Give the name of the person.
Answer:
‘I’ refers to Kosteniuk Alexandra, the author of the book. It is a biography of him.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7A The Wonderful World of Chess

Listening and Speaking :

Health and Strength

Hello children! My name is Health and my husband’s name is Strength. The world is our home. We have two daughters. Their names are Games and Sports. They are twins. They look alike. People often mistake Games for Sports and Sports for Games. But if you observe carefully, you will know who is who.

Sports has grace and dignity in every movement and she likes a lot of physical activity. She is not proud, but she doesn’t like the company of others much. Therefore you hardly find any body with her except on festive occasions.

Games, unlike her sister, likes the company of others. You will find at least 2 or 3; and sometimes, as many as people with her. They talk to each other, encourage one another, and enjoy themselves by taking sides and playing against each other. One day games told me that she wanted to marry pleasure, who loved her so much. I remember his name. He is the son my close relative Entertainment.

I performed their marriage in a big stadium. Soon, they had a lot of children (some of them are twins). She gave her wonderful names. I’ll just tell you the names as they come to my mind. OK. ? Here you are. Volleyball, Football, Cricket, Carrom, Kabaddi, Hocky, Table-tennis, ooooom Ah! Yes, Chess. That’s it for now.

OK. Now, let me tell you about my second daughter. One day, as I was taking my evening walk. I found her with a young and energetic boy called Confidence. He is the son of my distant relative from my husband’s side. “They will make a good couple,” I thought. Soon they were married in a very big place called Olympiad. They too had children. In fact as many as Games had.

Confidence, my son-in-law, is very much interested in giving children fancy names. I can never tell you all the names unless you give me enough time. For now, I’ll give you a few. Right ! Here you are. Where can I start ? oooooom. Let me start with my dynamic girl Running. Yes, then you have High jump, Long Jump, Hurdles, Discus Throw, Swimming, Javelin Throw …………… Ah! My memory fails me. Ok children.

Though I cannot give you the names of all my grandchildren, I can show you some pictures of them. I’m sure you will recognize them since they have become popular all over the world. O.K. That’s it for now. Bye!

I. Your teacher will read a story about Health and Strength. Listen to her carefully. When she reads it for the second item, fill in the blanks in the family tree.

TS 7th Class English Guide 7A The Wonderful World of Chess 10

Answer:

TS 7th Class English Guide 7A The Wonderful World of Chess 11

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7A The Wonderful World of Chess

II. Work in groups. Ask and answer the following questions and complete the table.

TS 7th Class English Guide 7A The Wonderful World of Chess 12

Answer:

TS 7th Class English Guide 7A The Wonderful World of Chess 13

Chess is an indoor game played worldwide by two players. It is played on a square board 8×8 black and white squares. The game is played with chessmen like king, queen, knight, bishop, soldier etc. It is a mind nourshing game. It originated in India.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7A The Wonderful World of Chess

The Wonderful World of Chess Summary in English

Chess was played by Kings in ancient days. But still it remains and will remain. All thinking people like this game whatever country they belong to. Many people praise it many ways saying that it betters life.

Chess is India’s gift to the world. It was believed that Mandodari, the wife of Ravana, invented this game. But Murray says that it was invented by a scholar in North West India. When the king wanted to give him a gift, he requested the king to give him one grain of rice for one square, double that in the second square until he reached the 64th square. That was a very large number like 18, 446, 774, 073, 709,551, 615. If one spends one crore of money every second of his life, he would spend his money for 60,000 years.

There are rules for the game. The king can go one square in any direction. The queen can go in any direction any number of squares. The bishop can move diagonally. The rook can go on any number of squares in a straight line. The knight jumps two squares straight and one square sideways. The pawn goes only one square but in killing it goes in a cornerwise. If any chessman conquers the king, it is called checkmate. This is a complicated game.

There are associations in district and state level which are affiliated to All India Chess Federation and World Chess Federation. A player can raise to the level of the Grand Master. According to the ratings, Viswanathan Anand was the first Indian to earn the title of Grand Master, as well as World Champion (2817-rating).

There were Dibyendu Barua (2460), Krishnan Sasikiran (2689), and Negi (2631) at the age of 13. There are Koneru Humpy (2600), Pendyala Hari Krishna (2672) and Dronavalli Harika (2505).

The game of Chess increases memory power, concentration and logical thinking.

Glossary:

vanish (v) = to disappear or stop being present or existing
Usage : The ghost vanished into the air.

pauper (n) = a very poor person
Usage : There are many paupers in our country.

penetrate (v) = to move into or through something
Usage : Light rays cannot penetrate through opaque things.

opponent (n) = a person being competed against in a game or a sport
Usage : Mumbai won the match over his opponent.

accountant (n) = some one who keeps the records of money received, paid and owned
Usage : Mr. Suresh is an accountant in our office.

awe-struck (adj) = Filled with feelings of admiration or respect
Usage : The students were awe-struck when the principal entered the class suddenly.

figure (n) = number
Usage : Add the total of these figures.

gigantic (adj) = enormous, extremely large
Usage : I saw a gigantic hound in a dog’s show yesterday.

restricted (adj) = limited, especially by rules, laws etc.
Usage : Cell phones usage is restricted in the temples.

capture (v) = to take some one as a prisoner, especially by force
Usage: Chatrapati Sivaji captured so many forts.

affiliated (v) = become part of a larger group or organization
Usage : Our college is affiliated to J.N.T.U. Hyderabad.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 7A The Wonderful World of Chess

the limelight = public attention
Usage : P.T.Usha became a limelight when she won the gold medals.

involve (v) = include
Usage : He is also involved in political activities.

probably = perhaps
Usage : Probably, I may go to Chennai tomorrow.

grain = particle
Usage: You cannot count the grains in the sand.

approximately = nearly
Usage : The amount in the bag is approximately a thousand.

diagonally = cornerwise
Usage : Why do you walk diagonally ? Walk straight.

tournaments = matches
Usage : Tournaments are being conducted in every game.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Students get through AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions 8th Lesson Ecology and Environment which are most likely to be asked in the exam.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions 8th Lesson Ecology and Environment

Very Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define the term ecology and its branches.
Answer:

  1. Ecology is defined as “the study of the relationship of organisms with their environment”.
  2. It has two main branches:
    • Autecology- Ecology of one species or population in relation to its environment.
    • Synecology- It is the study of the structure, development and distribution ecological communities.

Question 2.
What is an Autecology?
Answer:

  1. Autecology: It is the study of a ‘single species (population)’ in relation to their environment.
  2. It is also known as ‘species ecology’.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment
Question 3.
What do you call the study of interactions of organisms of a community?
Answer:

  1. The study of interactions of organisms of a community is known as synecology.
  2. It deals with the structure, development and distribution of ecological communities living in a specified area.

Question 4.
What is an ecological population?
Answer:

  1. Ecological population is the population of a group of organisms of same species living in a specific area at a specific time.
  2. Ex: Species of catla catla living in a pond at a given time is catla population.

Question 5.
Define a community?
Answer:

  1. Community is an association of interacting populations of different species in a particular area.
    In a community there will be a dominant population and the community is named after it.
  2. Ex: Himalayan region is called pine-Deodar community.

Question 6.
What is an ecosystem?
Answer:

  1. Ecosystem is a functional unit of biosphere in which the members of community interact among themselves and also with the surrounding environment, in relation to ‘flow of energy’.
  2. Ex: Lake, Pond .

Question 7.
Distinguish between ecosystem and biome.
Answer:

  1. Ecosystem is a functional unit of biological community. It is generally small.
    Ex: Aquarium, Pond etc.
  2. Biome is a large community of plants and animals. It occupies a vast region.
    Ex: Desert, rain forest, tundra

Question 8.
What is biome? Name any two biomes you studied.
Answer:

  1. Biome is a large community of plants and animals. It occupies a vast region.
  2. Ex 1: Desert, rain forest, tundra
    Ex 2: Aquatic biomes which include fresh water biomes and marine biomes.

Question 9.
What is meant by ecosphere?
Answer:

  1. Ecosphere (or biosphere) includes all the habitable zones of earth. It is the part of earth that supports life.
  2. It extends upto several kilometers into air and several meters below the earth surface and deep into bottom of the oceans.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 10.
Define the term habitat?
Answer:

  1. Habitat: It is the place in which an organism lives.
  2. It is just like the address of a person.
  3. Ex : The habitat of Lion is forest; Habitat of fish is a pond (or) lake (or) Sea.

Question 11.
Explain the difference between the ‘niche’ of an organism and its ‘habitat’.
Answer:

 Niche Habitat
1)  Niche is the functional role of the organism in the ecosystem.

2)   It is just like occupation of a person.

3)   Ex: Rose bush is a producer.

1)    Habitat is a place where an organism lives in the ecosystem

2)     It is just like address of a person.

3)     Ex: Habitat of a fish in a pond or lake.

Question 12.
A population has more genetically similar organisms than those on biotic community. Justify the statement.
Answer:

  1. Population is a group of similar organisms belonging to the same species with a similar karyotype (genetic unit). So, in a population there are more genetically similar organisms.
  2. A community is an association of populations of two or more species with different karyotypes in a particular area. So, in a community there are less genetically similar organisms.

Question 13.
Among the red, green and brown algae that inhabit the sea, which is likely to be found in the deepest waters? why?
Answer:

  1. Red algae is found in the deepest water.
  2. Red light has longest wavelength which can penetrate to the deepest waters.
  3. The pigment called phycoerythrin in red algae absorbs blue colour and reflects red colour.

Question 14.
What is the source of energy for deep sea inhabitants?
Answer:

  1. The source of energy and food for deep sea inhabitants are the ‘other organisms’.
  2. Reason: In deep sea regions, producers are absent and only consumers are present.

Question 15.
How do the fish living in Antarctic waters manage to keep their body fluids from freezing?
Answer:

  • Fish living in Antarctic water manage their body fluids from freezing
  • By staying in deeper zones, where temperature is above freezing point i.e., above 4°C They reduce their oxygen consumption by reducing metabolic rate.
  • They produce an antifreezing protein called antifreeze glyco-protein (AFGP). It prevents the growth of ice crystals in their body fluids which prevents their body fluids from freezing.

Question 16.
How docs your body solve the problem of altitude sickness, when you ascend fall mountains?
Answer:

  1. At high altitudes like tall mountains, the partial pressure of oxygen is low due to the low atmospheric pressure.
  2. The body compensates the low oxygen availability by increasing the RBC count and increasing the rate of breathing.

Question 17.
Name the structural components of an ecosystem.
Answer:
Structural components of ecosystem: (a) abiotic factors (b) biotic factors.

  • Abiotic factors: Light, temperature, water, pressure, O2 etc.
  • Biotic factors: Producers, Consumers and decomposers.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 18.
What is the effect of light on body pigmentation?
Answer:

  1. Light influences the colour of the skin. Animals living in low intensity light are pale in colour and animals living in high intensity of light are dark coloured.
  2. Proteus anguinus is pale coloured when in caves. When it is brought into sunlight, skin colour becomes dark over a period of time.

Question 19.
Distinguish the terms phototaxis and photokinesis. [TS M-19]
Answer:

  1. Phototaxis is the influence of light on directional movement of organism either towards or away from light. Ex: Euglena exhibits positive phototaxis. It moves towards light.
    Cockroach exhibits negative phototaxis. It moves away from light.
  2. Photokinesis is the influence of intensity light on non-directional movement of organism. Ex: Larvae of Pinnotheres maculatus (mussel crab) moves fast with increasing intensity of light in its own direction.

Question 20.
What is the primardial source of energy for all organisms?
Answer:

  1. ‘Sun light’ is the primardial source of energy for all organisms.
  2. It is also transferred from one trophic level to another trophic level.

Question 21.
What are biological rhythms?
Answer:

  1. Biological Rhythms: The behavioural activities which repeat at regular intervals in the bodies of organisms are called Biological rhythms.
  2. Ex: Circadian rhythms – Like sleep wake cycle which occurs in the interval of 24 hours.

Question 22.
What arc circadian rhythms? |TS M-15,22|
Answer:

  1. The biological rhythms that occur in a time period of 24 hours are called Circadian rhythms.
  2. Biological rhythms are behavior activities that are repeated at regular intervals.

Question 23.
What is Photoperiod ism?
Answer:

  1. Response shown by the organisms for the photoperiod is called Photoperiodism.
  2. Ex: Migration of birds. During winter, Siberian birds migrate southward to get more sunlight because the day time is short in Siberia for breeding and feeding.

Question 24.
Distinguish between photoperiod and critical photoperiod.
Answer:

  1. Photoperiod is the duration of light hours in a day.
  2. Critical Photoperiod is the specific day length that is essential for initiation of seasonal events.

Question 25.
Explain bioiuminescence.
Answer:

  1. Production of light by certain living organisms is called bioiuminescence.
  2. It is devoide of infrared rays. So it is called cold-light.
  3. It is for intra – specific communication like sexual attraction, sending protective warning signals.
  4. Ex : Firefly, Jelly fishes, Chaetopterus, squids, pyrosoma etc.,

Question 26.
Mention the advantages of some UV rays to us. [TS M-16,20] [IPE-14]
Answer:

  1. UV rays kill micro organisms on the body surface of animals.
  2. UV rays convert the sterols in the skin to vitamin D.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 27.
Distinguish between the terms heat and temperature.
Answer:

Heat Temperature
1) Heat is a form of energy
2)  Heat flows from hotter object to cooler object.
3)  Heat is measured by calorimeter.
1) Temperature is a measure of the intensity of heat energy.
2) Temperature rises when heated and falls when cooled.
3) Temperature is measured by thermometer.

Question 28.
Distinguish between minimum effective temperature and maximum effective temperature.
Answer:

Minimum effective Temperature Maximum effective Temperature
1) It is the ‘lowest temperature’ at which an organisms can live indefinitely.
2) Below this temperature the organism enters into ‘chill coma’.
1) It is the ‘maximum temperature’ at which a species can live indefinitely in an active state.
2) Above this temperature the organism enters into ‘heat coma’.

Question 29.
What is optimum temperature?
Answer:

  1. Optimum temperature: The temperature at which the metabolic activities occur at the ‘greatest level’ is called the optimum temperature.
  2. The optimum temperature of human body is 98.4F (or) 37°C.

Question 30.
What is cyciomorphosis? Explain its importance in Daphnia. [APM-19,22] [TS May-17]
Answer:

  1. Cyciomorphosis: The cyclic seasonal morphological changes of organisms is called cyciomorphosis. Ex: Daphnia (water flea).
  2. Importance: In Daphnia, it is an adaptation for the changing densities of water.
  3. In winter its head is round. In spring season, a hood starts developing.
  4. In summer, a prominent hood is formed. In autumn the hood starts receding.
  5. By the winter, the head becomes round again.These changes are helpful for the Daphnia to keep floating easily.

Question 31.
What are ’regulators’?
Answer:

  1. Regulators are the animals which maintain constant body temperature and osmotic concentration.
  2. Thus they maintain homostasis by physiological or behavioral means. Ex: Birds and mammals.

Question 32.
What are ‘conformers’?
Answer:

  1. Conformers are the animals whose body temperature changes according to the surrounding temperature. Ex: Invertebrates and lower vertebrates.
  2. In aquatic conformers, their osmotic concentration changes along with surround water.

Question 33.
Define commensalism. Give one example. [AP May-17]
Answer:

  1. Commensalism is a type of interaction between different species in which one is benefited and the other is neither benefited nor harmed.
  2. Ex: Barnacles growing on the back of a whale benefit, while the whale derives no noticeable benefit.

Question 34.
Define mutualism. Give one example. [AP M-15][TS M-17]
Answer:

  1. Mutualism is a type of interaction between different species in which both are benefited.
  2. Ex: Bees and flowering plant. Bees get nector, pollen and plants get pollinated

Question 35.
Define parasitism. Give one example.
Answer:

  1. Parasitism: It is the interaction between two organisms of different species, in which one gets benefited and the other gets harmed.
  2. Ex : Plasmodium vivax (Malarial parasite) in the body of a man.

Question 36.
Define amensalism. Give one example.
Answer:

  1. Amensalism: It is a type of interaction between different species in which one is harmed and the other is not affected. Ex: Ibex and weevils on the plant.
  2. Ibex feeds on the leaves of the plant. Weevils are attached to the leaves. So the weevils are also taken along with leaves. The weevils are harmed but Ibex is not affected.

Question 37.
What is predation? Give an example.
Answer:

  1. Predation is a feeding strategy, between two different species in which predator gets benefited at the cost of the prey.
  2. Ex : Lion (Predator) & Deer( Prey).

Question 38.
What is meant by interspecific competition? Give one example.
Answer:

  1. Inter specific competition is the competition between different species for the same resource.
    Ex: Flamingoes and fishes. Both of them compete for the same food that is zoo plankton.
  2. When one species is efficient in collecting food then the other species gets eliminated.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 39.
Distinguish between predation and parasitism.
Answer:

Predation Parasitism
1) It is a feeding strategy, between two different species in which predator gets benefited at the cost of the prey.
2) Usually predator is large in size and low in number.
3) Ex : Lion(Predator) & Deer (Prey).
1)  It is the interaction between two organisms of different species, in which one gets benefited and the other gets harmed.
2)  Usually Parasite is small in size and high in number.
3) Ex: Plasmodium vivax (Malarial parasite) in the body of a man.

Question 40.
Distinguish between the interactions commensalism and amensalism.
Answer:

Commensalism Amensalism
1) It is an association in which commensal gets benefit and the host is neither benefit nor harmed.
2) Ex:Bamacles growing on the back of a whale.
1) It is an association in which ammensal gets harmed and the host is neither benefit nor harmed.
2) Ex: Ibex and weevils on a plant.

Question 41.
In an ecological food chain, what types of interactions exist between trophic levels?
Answer:
Types of interactions that exist between various trophic levels are mutualism, commensalism, parasitism, amensalism and predation.

Question 42.
What is camouflage? Give its significance. [AP M-19]
Answer:

  1. Camouflage is the phenomenon exhibited by some animals and insects which change colours according to the surrounding. Some are naturally coloured which suit their surroundings.
    Ex: Chameleon, leaf insect, stick insect.
  2. Significance: Then animals exhibiting camouflage can hide from their predators.

Question 43.
What is Gause’s principle? When does it applicable?
Answer:

  1. Gause’s principle: Two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the competitively inferior one will be eliminated in due course of time.
  2. It is applicable only when the resources are limited.

Question 44.
Name the association that exists in micqrrhiza.
Answer:

  1. The association that exists in micorrhizae is ‘mutualism’ in which both the organisms mutually benefitted.
  2. Ex: Fungi and Plants. Fungi help in absorption of essential nutrients from soil. Plants provide the fungi with energy-yielding carbohydrates.

Question 45.
What are lichens?
Answer:

  1. Lichen: A lichen is not a single organism.
  2. It is a symbiosis between a fungus and an alga with an intimate mutualistic relation.
  3. Ex: Parmita, usnea.

Question 46.
Name the major types of ecosystem?
Answer:
Major types of Ecosystem:

  1. Ecosystems are of two types (i) natural (ii) artificial.
  2. Natural ecosystems : (i) Aquatic (ii) Terrestrial
  3. Artificial ecosystems : (i) Agricultural ecosystem (ii) Aquaculture ponds.

Question 47.
Distinguish between natural ecosystem and an artificial ecosystem.
Answer:

Natural ecosystem Artificial ecosystem
1) It is naturally occurring ecosystem, with no role of humans in its formation. 1) It is a man made ecosystem
2) Ex : Deserts, forests, lakes. 2) Ex : Aqua ponds, Aquariums etc

Question 48.
What is an estuary?
Answer:

  1. Estuary: It is the zone where river water joins the sea water.
  2. Sea water ascends up into the river, twice a day.
  3. Estuarine waters show fluctuations in salinities depending upon the seasons.
  4. During rainy season water is less saline and in summer water is more saline.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 49.
How does an estuarine ecosystem differ from fresh water ecosystem?
Answer:

Estuarine Ecosystem Fresh water ecosystem
1) It is the zone where river water joins the sea water.lt shows fluctuations in salinity depending on the seasons.
2)  Estuarine organisms are capable of withstanding the fluctuations in salinity.
1) It is the smallest aquatic ecosystem which show’s less salinity.
2) Fresh water organisms are not capable of withstanding the fluctuations in salinity.

Question 50.
Distinguish between lotic and lentic habitats. [AP-18]
Answer:

  1. Lentic ecosystems: The still water bodies like ponds, lakes and reservoirs are the lentic eco systems.
  2. Lotic ecosystems: The flowing waterbodies like streams and rivers are the lotic eco systems.

Question 51.
What is limnology?
Answer:

  1. Limnology: It is the study of fresh water ecosystem.
  2. Ex: Lake ecosystem, river ecosystem.

Question 52.
What is Euphotic zone?
Answer:

  1. Euphotic zone: The water zone in a lake, in which good light penetration happens is called Euphotic zone.
  2. It is the shallow part of the lake, closer to the lake.
  3. It is an oxygen rich and vegetarian rich zone with higher rate of photosynthesis.

Question 53.
What is zone of compensation in an aquatic ecosystem?
Answer:

  1. Zone of compensation: The imaginary line that separates the limnetic zone from profundal zone is called zone of compensation. It is the zone of effective light penetration.
  2. In the zone of compensation, rate of photosynthesis equals to rate of respiration.

Question 54.
Distinguish between phytoplankton and zooplankton.
Answer:

  1. Floating micro organisms with chlorophyll are called phytoplankton.
    Ex: Diatoms, green algae, Euglenoids and dinoflagellates.
  2. Floating micro organisms without chlorophyll are called zooplankton.
    Ex: Water flees, rotifers and ostracoids.

Question 55.
Distinguish between neuston and nekton.
Answer:

  1. Neustons are animals living at the ‘air-water interface’.
    Ex 1: Water striders, beetles and water bugs (they live above water surface)-epineuston
    Ex 2: Mosquito larvae (they live below the water surface)- hyponeuston
  2. Nektons are animals capable of swimming. Ex: Fishes, amphibians, water snakes.

Question 56.
What is periphyton?
Answer:

  1. The animals that live on or attached to aquatic plants are called periphyton.
  2. Ex: Bryozoans, turbellarians, hydras, nymphs of insects.

Question 57.
What is benthos?
Answer:

  1. Benthos: It refers to all the ‘attached, creeping (or) burrowing organisms’ that inhabit the bottom of rivers, lakes and sea.
  2. Ex: Red annelids, Cray fishes, amphipods etc.

Question 58.
Write three examples for man-made ecosystems.
Answer:
Man-made artificial ecosystems are

  1. Cropland ecosystem
  2. Aquaculture ponds
  3. Aquaria

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 59.
What is meant by osmotrophic nutrition? [AP M-17]
Answer:

  1. Osmotrophic Nutrition is the mode of nutrition in which organisms take pre-digested food through their body wall from the surrounding medium.
  2. Ex: Fungi secrete enzymes and breakdown dead and waste materials and absorb the digested material.

Question 60.
Explain the process of’leaching’.
Answer:
Leaching is the process in which water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated as unavailable salts.

Question 61.
What is catabolism?
Answer:
Catabolism: It is a process in which ‘bacterial and fungal enzymes’ degrade ‘detrites into simpler inorganic substances’.

Question 62.
What is humification? Name the organisms which act on it.
Answer:

  1. Humification is the development of humas from dead and decaying organic matter.
  2. Microbes act on humas.

Question 63.
What is PAR?
Answer:

  1. PAR is Photosynthetically Active Radiation. Plants capture only 2-10% of PAR.
  2. PAR is less than 50% of incident solar radiation available on earth.

Question 64.
What is the percentage of PAR, in the incident solar radiation.
Answer:
PAR is less than 50% of incident solar radiation available on earth.

Question 65.
Define entropy?
Answer:

  1. Entropy is the degraded unavailable heat energy for work.
  2. According to second law of thermodynamics, ‘energy loss’ is inevitable in any energy changing process. Thus some amount of energy is converted into unused heat energy.

Question 66.
What is standing crop?
Answer:

  1. Standing crop is the mass of living material at a particular time at each trophic level.
  2. It is measured as the number of organisms per unit area.

Question 67.
If you were to count the number of insects feeding on a big tree, and asked to graphically represent the relation of structure and function between the tree and insects. What kind of pyramid does it form?
Answer:

  1. It forms ‘inverted pyramid of numbers’.
  2. It’s pyramid of energy is upright.

Question 68.
Explain the terms GPP, NPP.
Answer:

  1. GPP is Gross Primary Productivity. It is rate of productivity organic matter during photosynthesis.
  2. NPP is Net Primary Productivity. It is gross primary productivity minus respiratory loss(R). Thus, N.P.P = G.P.P – R .

Question 69.
Distinguish between GFC and DFC.
Answer:

Grazing food chain(GFC) Detrites food chain(BFC)
1) It begins with green plants. 1) It begins with dead organic matter
2) It is madeup of herbivores,carnivores. 2) It is made up of decomposers. (Fungi & bacteria)
3) Ex:Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk 3) Ex:Dead animals → Flies and maggots → frogs → snakes

Question 70.
Name the trophic level (s) at which ’decomposers’ feed.
Answer:

  1. Decomposers feed at the first trophic level.
  2. Decomposers are the heterotrophic organisms, which live on dead & decaying matters.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 71.
Distinguish between production and decomposition.
Answer:

Production Decomposition
1) The process of fixation of energy from food by producers is called production.
2) Example of producers: Green plants.
1) The process of Break down of ‘complex organic matter’ into ’simple inorganic substances’ is known as ‘Decomposition.’
2) Example of Decomposers: Microbes.

Question 72.
Distinguish between upright and inverted ecological pyramids.
Answer:

Upright pyramid Inverted pyramid
1) The ecological pyramid in which the number, biomass, energy decrease from lower to higher trophic levels is called upright pyramid.
2)   Ex: Pyramid of energy.
1) The ecological pyramid in which the number, biomass, energy increase from lower to’ higher trophic levels is called inverted pyramid.
2)Ex: Pyramid of numbers in parasitic food chain.

Question 73.
Distinguish between food chain and food web?
Answer:

Food chain Food web
1)  A food chain follows only one straight path for the flow of energy.                         j
2)  If one group gets disturbed then the whole chain will be disturbed.
3)  Ex:Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk
1) A food web consists of many food chains
2) Food web doesnot get disturbed by the removal of one group of organisms.
3) Ex: Man, Bear, Crow

Question 74.
Distinguish between litter and detritus.
Answer:

Litter Detritus
Litter is simply the scattered fallen leaves and broken twigs. Detritus is humus formed of dead animals, leaves and animal excreta. .

Question 75.
Distinguish between primary and secondary productivity.
Answer:

Primary productivity Secondary productivity
Primary productivity is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a period of time by plants during photosynthesis. Secondary productivity is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers by utilizing primary productivity of the producers.

Question 76.
What is the effect of carbon monoxide pollution on human beings?
Answer:

  1. Effects of CO on human beings are headache and blurred vision at lower concentrations and in higher concentrations it leads to coma and death.
  2. Haemoglobin has greater affinity for CO and carbon monoxide competitively interferes with oxygen transport.

Question 77.
What is Green House effect?
Answer:

  1. Green House effect is the naturally phenomenon that warms the earth’s surface and atmosphere.
  2. It is called green house effect because the exchange of incoming and outgoing radiations that warms the planet is very similar way to a green house.
  3. Green house gases: Carbondioxide and methane.

Question 78.
Which air pollutants are chiefly responsible for acid rains? [AP M-16]
Answer:

  1. Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides are the major air pollutants of acid rains.
  2. Acid rains cause acidification of lakes, streams.
  3. It accelerates corrosion of buildings and monuments.

Question 79.
What is BOD?
Answer:

  1. BOD is Biological Oxygen Demand. It is an index for measuring pollution load in sewage.
  2. BOD indicates the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by aerobic biological organisms in water body to breakdown organic material present in a given water sample at certain temperature over a specific time period.

Question 80.
What is biological magnification? [APM-20]
Answer:

  1. Gradual increase in the concentration of pollutants at successive trophic levels in an aquatic food chain is called Bio-magnification.
  2. Ex: DDT concentration in a sample water is 0.003 ppb through biomagnification it reaches to 5 ppm in fish eating birds.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 81.
Distinguish between ‘Global warming’ and ‘Thermal pollution’ ?
Answer:

Global warming Thermal pollution
1)  Increase in the level of green house gases has led to considerable heating of the earth leading to ‘Global w’arming’
2)  It causes climatic changes.
1)          Thermal pollution is caused by the release of hot water from industries and Thermal power plants.
2)         It is harmful to aquatic organisms.

Question 82.
Why are incinerators used in hospitals?
Answer:
Hospitals generate hazardous wastes like disinfectants, chemicals, pathogenic microorganisms. Before they are disposed they must be treated, otherwise they cause heavy pollution in the surroundings. Incinerators are used in hospitals for disposal of hospital waste.

Question 83.
Why are catalytic converters used in automobiles?
Answer:

  1. Catalytic converters are used to reduce emission of poisonous gases..
  2. Catalytic converters have expensive metals like platinum, palladium and rhodium.

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write about ecological hierarchy.
Answer:

  1. ‘Hierarchy’means arrangement of things in a’graded series’.
  2. Ecological hierarchy includes eleven integrative levels, starting from cell to ecosphere. They are (i) cell (ii) tissue (iii) organ, (iv) organ – system, (v) organism, (vi) population, (vii) community, (viii) ecosystem, (ix) landscape, (x) biome and (xi) ecosphere (Biosphere).
  3. Population: It is a group of organisms of the same species living in a specific area at a special time regulated by a set of factors such as natality, mortality and population density.
  4. Community: It is an association of the living biotic component of an ecosystem.
  5. Ecosystem: It is a ‘functional unit of the Biosphere’.
  6. Landscape:It is the unit of land containing different ecosystems surrounded by natural bound aries.
  7. Biome: It is a large community of plants and animals that occupies a vast region.
  8. Ecosphere (Biosphere): All the habitual zones of the earth are called ecosphere. It is the part of the Earth that supports life.

Question 2.
Write a note on habitat and Medium.
Answer:

  1. Habitat: It is the place in which an organism lives.
    It is just like the address of a person.
    Ex: The habitat of Lion is forest; Habitat of fish is a pond (or) lake (or) Sea.
  2. Medium The surroundings of the organism’s body is called medium.
    Ex: The medium of fish is water. The medium of lion is air.

Question 3.
Considering the benefits of a constant internal environment to the organism, we tend to ask ourselves why the conformers had not evolved to become regulators?
Answer:

  1. Only two main groups namely birds and mammals have become regulators. All the other groups remained conformers.
  2. Originally the animals were completely aquatic. There was no need except osmoregulation, for temperature regulation.
  3. Temperature regulation has become necessary only in land forms. Amphibians remained partially aquatic.
  4. Reptiles are distributed in temperate and tropical climatis only. They escape or hide, to tide over extreme temperatures.
  5. Further thermo regulation is an expensive process especially in small animals.
  6. Small animals have relatively more surface area and lose body heat very fast.
  7. They have to spend more energy to maintain constant temperatures.
  8. If the stressful conditions are localized or only for short duration, the animals either migrate or suspend life activities.

Question 4.
The individuals have fallen through the ice and been submerged under cold water for long periods can sometimes be revived- explain.
Answer:

  1. When the individuals have fallen through ice they enter into a condition called chill coma and remain in coma while they are in chill water.
  2. When temperature is gradually raised from minimum effective temperature to optimum temperature the individual regain metabolic activities and survive in some cases.
  3. The suspension of life activities generally takes place in lower aquatic form but not in air breathing forms.

Question 5.
What is summer stratification? Explain. [AP,TS M-20][TS May-17]
Answer:
Summer Stratification: During summer, in temporate lakes, the formation of three layers of water is called Summer stratification.

During summer the temperature of lakes rises upto 25°C. Hence, periodic circulation of water takes place. Then three types of layers are formed. 1.Epilimnion 2. Thermocline 3. Hypolimnion

  1. Epilimnion: The upper, warm, oxygen rich layer of water having a temperature range of 21°C-25°C is called epilimnion.
  2. Thermocline: The below layer of epilimnion is called thermocline or metalimnion.
    Here, the temperature decreases at the rate of 1°C per meter.
  3. Hypolimnion:The bottom layer where the temperature is about 7°C is called Hypolimnion.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

In this layer, the water is stagnant, relatively cool, nutrient rich, low oxygen content due to absence of Photosynthetic activity.
Summer stratification is followed by autumn overturn:

  • During Autumn the temperature of surface water falls to 4°C.
  • The water becomes heavy when the temperature is at 4°C. It sinks to the bottom. The bottom water comes to the surface with many nutrients. This circulation is called autumn (fall) over turn.
  • Due to autumn overturn uniform temperature and uniform distribution of nutrients and oxygen
    in the lakes take place.

Question 6.
What is the significance of stratification in lakes?
Answer:
Significance of Stratification:

  1. In temperate regions there will be seasonal variations of temperature. These temperature variations cause thermal layers in water. This phenomenon is called thermal stratification.
  2. Water has maximum density at 4°C. During summer the temperature of surface water increases upto 25°C.
  3. The upper layer is epilimnion. The middle layer is metalimnion. The bottom layer is hypolimnion.
  4. During autumn the surface water temperature falls to 4°C. The water becomes heavy and goes down. The bottom water with nutrients comes to surface. This circulation of water is autumn or fall overturn.
  5. During winter the temperature of surface water falls below 4°C and ice is formed. Below the ice there is water. The animals that live in such water, reduce their oxygen consumption and metabolic activity and survive in winter.
  6. At the onset of spring the ice becomes water and sinks down bringing nutrient rich water to surface. It is called spring overturn.
  7. The stratifications and overturns help survival of organisms at all levels as they help in redistribution of oxygen and nutrients.

Question 7.
Explain Van’t Hoff rule. [APM-19]
Answer:

  1. According to Van’t Hoffs rule, with the increase in every 10°C, the rate of metabolic activities of the animal doubles.
  2. If stated in reverse, for every decrease of 10°C of temperature the rate of metabolic reactions is halved.
  3. The temperature effect on the rate of reaction is expressed interms of temperature coefficient Q10
  4. Q10 is the ratio between the rate of reaction at X°C and rate of reaction at (X-10°C).
  5. In living organisms, the value of Q10 is about 2.0. That means, the rate of metabolism doubles for every 10°C increasing temperature.

Question 8.
Unlike mammals the reptiles cannot tolerate environmental fluctuations in temperature. How do they adapt to survive in desert conditions?
Answer:

  1. Reptiles are cold blooded animals. Ex: Crocodiles, Lizards.
  2. Their body temperature changes in tune with surrounding temperature to certain extent.
  3. When the temperature is low they bask (staying in the warmth of the sun light).
  4. When the temperature is high they go to shades or underground burrows.
  5. The desert lizards bask in the sun when the temperature is low.
  6. They escape to shades and burrow when the temperature is beyond their optimum temperature.

Question 9.
Write a short note on soil as an ecological abiotic factor?
Answer:

  1. Abiotic factor is a condition or thing that determines which species of organisms survive in a given environment
  2. Soil is a major ecological abiotic factor.
  3. The study of soil is called soil science (or) Pedology.
  4. Soil is a complex physical biological system providing support, water, nutrient and oxygen for the plants.
  5. Soil is formed from rocks. So rocks are the parent materials of soil.
  6. The process of formation of soil from rock is called pedogenesis.
  7. Soil is abridge between inorganic and organic material
  8. Soil composition, grain size and aggregation determine the percolation and water holding capacity of soil.
  9. PH, mineral composition etc determine the vegetation in any area.

Question 10.
How do terrestrial animals protect themselves from the danger of dehydration of bodies? [TS M-22]
Answer:

  1. Water is very important ingredient of the body.
  2. So, any reduction in the amount of water leads to dehydration of the body and the animal dies.
  3. Animals have evolved several adaptations to conserve water.
  4. Certain desert animals are active during night only to prevent dehydration.
  5. Reptiles have dry scaly skin which prevents escape of w’ater.
  6. Birds have dry skin which prevents escape of water.
  7. Insects (arthropods) have cuticle to prevent escape of water.
  8. All these groups of animals release dry uric acid as their excretory product.

Question 11.
How do marine animats adapt to hypertonic seawater?
Answer:

  1. Sea water is high in salt content compared to that of body fluids.
  2. So the marine animals continuously lose water through their body surface by exosmosis.
  3. To overcome this problem, marine fishes have
    • Aglomerular kidneys with less number of nephrons to minimise water loss through urine.
    • The fish drinks water to compensate loss of water. But the salt content is increased due to this.
    • To remove the excess salts, salt secreting cells are present in gills.
  4. In many sea animals, salts enter the body along with the food.
  5. To remove the salts, sea gulls and penguins have salt secreting cells in nose and release drops of salts.
  6. Turtles and crocodiles have salt glands near eyes which release salt drops.
  7. Cartilaginous fishes retain urea and trimethylamine oxide (TMO) in their blood to keep the body fluid isotonic to the sea water.

Question 12.
Discuss the various types of adaptations in fresh water animals.
Answer:
The osmotic pressure of fresh water is very low than that of body fluids of fresh water animals. So water tends to enter the bodies by endosmosis. Fresh water organisms have evolved several adaptations to encounter endosmosis.

Adaptations of Fresh water animals:

  1. In fresh water protozoans, contractile vacuoles remove the excess water from their body.
  2. In fresh water fishes, well developed glomerular kidneys remove excess water from the body through urine.
  3. In summer, most of the ponds dry up. To overcome this protozoans developed encystment .
  4. Fresh water sponges produce gemmules, to survive in summer.
  5. African lung fish undergoes aestivation by forming a gelatinous cocoon, to survive in summer.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 13.
Compare the adaptations of animals with freshwater and seawater mode of life.
Answer:
Adaptations of Fresh water animals: [TS M-I6]

  1. Fresh water organisms undergo endosmosis.
  2. Fresh water fishes developed glomerular kidneys to remove excess water from the body through urine.
  3. Fresh water sponges produce gemmules, to survive in summer.
  4. African lung fish undergoes aestivation by forming a gelatinous cocoon, to survive in summer.

Adaptations of Sea water animals:

  1. Sea water is high in salt content compared to the body fluids. So, marine animals continuously lose water from their bodies by exosmosis.
  2. Marine forms developed Aglomerular kidneys, with less number of nephrons, salt secreting chloride Cells in gills.
  3. Marine birds and penguins eliminate salt drops through nostrils.
  4. Sharks retain urea and limethylamine oxide in fishes to maintain salt balance in body fluids.

Question 14.
Distinguish between euryhaline and stenohaline animals. [TS M-22]
Answer:

Euryhaline animals are adapted to withstand wide fluctuations of salinity.
Ex: Brackish water fishes (Salmon, Hilsa) withstand with fresh water during low tide and saline water during high tide. Migrating fishes migrate from sea to fresh water (anadromous migration) for breeding.

2) Stenohaline animals are unable to tolerate fluctuations in salinity.
Ex: Marine fishes die when placed in fresh water and fresh water fishes die when placed in sea water.

Question 15.
How do the non – migratory animals over come the unfavorable climatic conditions?
Answer:

  1. Non-migratory animals overcome the unfavourable climatic conditions by escaping in time.
  2. For example polar bears go into hibernation during winter.
  3. Some snails and fish go into aestivation to avoid summer-related problems heat and desiccation.
  4. Freshwater protists undergo encystment.

Question 16.
Many tribes living in high altitude of Himalayas normally have higher red blood cell count (or) total haemoglobin than the people living in the plains. Explain?
Answer:

  1. When people visit high altitudes such as Rohtang pass near Manali or Manasarovar in Tibet they are subjected to altitude sickness.
  2. The symptoms are nausea, fatigue and heart palpitations. This is due to less oxygen in atmosphere and low pressure.
  3. But there are several tribal people who have been living there for thousands of years. They are acclimatized and do not experience altitude sickness.
  4. Their body compensates low oxygen availability by increasing red blood cell production and increasing the rate of breathing.

Question 17.
An orchid plant is growing on the branch of mango tree. How do you describe this interaction between the orchid and mango tree?
Answer:

  1. The inter specific relationship between and Mango and Archid is commensalism.
  2. Archid is an epiphyte by growing on high branches of mango plants it gets sunlight.
  3. The mango plant is neither benefited nor harmed.
  4. Archid is a commensal on the mango host.

Question 18.
Do you believe that an ideal parasite should be able to thrive within the host without harming it. Then why did n’t natural selection lead to the evolution of such totally harmless parasites?
Answer:

  1. Yes. It may be possible that an ideal parasite should be able to thrive with in the host without harming it.
  2. The success of an ideal parasite may not simply depend upon adaptiveness of the parasite in host.
  3. The adaptiveness of the host is relatively to that ideal parasite may be not allowing that ideal parasite to continuous generations.
  4. The changing adaptiveness of hosts is different generations may be an obstacle for the adaptiveness parasite.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 19.
The female mosquitp is not considered completely a parasite although it needs our blood for reproduction. Can you explain why?
Answer:

  1. Female mosquitoes use two different food sources.
  2. They need sugar for energy, which is taken from sources such as nectar.
  3. They need blood as a source of protein for egg development
  4. Once blood is in the stomach, the midgut of the female synthesizes proteolytic enzymes that hydrolyze the blood proteins into free amino acids.
  5. These are used as building blocks for the synthesis of egg yolk proteins.

Question 20.
Predation is not an association. Support the statement.
Answer:

  1. In association, a group of organisms live together in a geographical region and constitute a community with a few dominant species.
  2. Predation is not an association. It is a just feeding strategy.
  3. It is an interaction between two different species.
  4. The predator gets benefit at the cost of the prey and the interaction is detrimental to the other species.
  5. It is a nature’s way of transferring the energy fixed by plants to higher trophic lends.
  6. By predation we recollect that lion eats deer. But a sparrow eating seeds also a type of predation.

Question 22.
Predation has a significant role in maintaining of species diversity discuss.
Answer:
1) Predators maintain species diversity in a community. It is done by reducing the intensity of competition among competing prey species.
Ex: In the American pacific coast there are intertidal communities.

2) The starfish pisaster is an important predator. In a field experiment the star fish is removed from the intertidal area. After a specific time (one year) it was found that more then 10 species of prey became extinct.

3) In the absence of predator there was severe inter specific competition and more than 10 species could not survive the competition and became extinct.

4) If the predator was present it would have predate on all the types of prey equally, reducing their number. Then all the prey species would have survived.

Question 23.
What is the biological principle behind the biological control method of managing pest insects?
Answer:
Biological control methods adopted in agricultural pest control are based on the ‘ability of the predators’ to regulate prey population.
There are 3 basic types;

  1. Importation
  2. Augmentation and
  3. Conservation.

1) Importation: Introduction pest’s natural enemies to a new area where they do not occur naturally. Ex: Icerya purchase a cottony scale of California was controlled by Rodolia cardinalis from Australia.

2) Augmentation: Supplemental releasing of natural enemy, boosting natural population.
Ex: Encarsia formosa are used to control green house whitefly.

3) Conservation: Conservation of existing natural enemies because they are already adapted to the habitat. They are provided shelters, nectar rich plants etc.

Question 24.
Name important defence mechanisms in plants against herbivory.
Answer:

  1. Herbivores are the predators of plants.
  2. Phytophagous condition is the feeding on plant sap and other parts of plants by all insects
  3. Plants have some morphological and chemical defences against herbivores.
  4. Some ‘cactus plants’ show thorns for morphological defence.
    Ex: Acacia, Bougainvillea
  5. Many plants produce and store chemicals which make herbivores sick when eaten, inhibit feeding or digestion, disrupt its reproduction (or) even kill it.
  6. A weed calotropis produces highly poisonous cardiac glycosides. So cattle (or) goats never browns these plants.
  7. A wide variety of chemical substances like nicotine, caffeine, quinine extracted strychnine, opium etc., are from plants. They exhibit defence against grazing and browsing animals.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 25.
Discuss competitive releases.
Answer:
1) Competitive releases: Competition is present among species can be clearly shown by the phenomenon competitive release. When one of the competing species is removed from the area, the other species have grown in number because the factor that is preventing its growth is released.

2) A species which is occupying only small area when subjected competitive release, dramatically expands its territory. Ex: Balanus dominates the intertidal zone of Scotland.
When this Balanus is experimentally removed the smaller barnacle Chathamalus increased its population.
In general herbivores and plants appear to be more adversely affected by competition than carnivores.

Question 26.
Write a short note on the parasitic adaptations.
Answer:
In order to lead a successful parasite life, parasites evolved special adaptations.

  1. Loss of sense organs, which are not necessary when they are inside the host.
  2. Development of suckers and hooks to cling to host’s body parts. Ex: Tape worm, liver fluke.
  3. Loss of digestive system- Tapeworm.
  4. Enormous increase of reproductive system Ex: Tapeworm.
  5. Release of plenty of eggs so that at least few can reach the host. Ex: Round worm, Tapeworm,
  6. Complex life cycles involving more hosts.
    Ex: Malarial parasite has two hosts, man and mosquito.

Question 27.
Explain brood parasitism with a suitable example.
Answer:
1) Brood parasitism: Certain birds like koel do not a build a nest. It lays its egg in the nest of crowr The koel’s egg hatches earlier than the crow’s eggs.

2) The koel hatchling pushes the crow’ eggs out of nest. Because its colour and cooing resembles that of crow hatchling the parent crows believe that its their offspring.

3) The crow parent feed the koel hatchling till it begins cooing like koel. So the hatchling of koel . is parasitic on crow and the phenomenon is called brood parasitism.

4) Similar example is found between cuckoo and sparrows of Europe. In this case the cuckoo hatchling over grows the size of sparrows. Both parents some times find it difficult it to feed cuckoo hatchling.

Question 28.
How do predators act as biological control?
Answer:
1) Predator as biological control: In prey and predator interactions the number of prey and predators show correlation. In early 1920 the pricklypear cactus was introduced in Australia. It spread rapidly into millions of hectares.

2) This cactus was brought under control after a ‘cactus feeding moth’ was introduced.

3) This type of biological control methods adapted in agriculture pest control are based on the ability of predator to control the prey.

Question 29.
Explain the interaction mechanism between fig trees and wasps.
Answer:

  1. The interaction mechanism between fig trees and wasp is a’Mutualism’.
  2. Many species of fig trees can be pollinated only by its ‘partner’ wasp, no other species.
  3. The female wasp uses the fruit not only as a site for egg laying site (oviposition) but also uses developing seeds for nourishing its larvae.
  4. In fig plants, pollination is occurred by the wasp while searching for suitable egg – laying sites, in return.
  5. Fig offers developing seeds as food for developing wasp larvae.

Question 30.
Write notes on the structure and functioning of an ecosystem.
Answer:
1) Structure and functioning of an Ecosystem: An ecosystem is a community of living organisms in relation with non living components interacting as a system. The biotic and abiotic components are linked together through nutrient cycles and energy flows. Energy and carbon enter ecosystem through photosynthesis.

2) The energy and carbon are incorporated into living tissue and they are released through respiration as CO2 most mineral nutrients are recycled with in ecosystem. Ecosystems are controlled by external factors like climate, underlying soil material and topography.

3) The internal factors are decomposition, competition and succession of types.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 31.
Explain the different types of aquatic ecosystems.
Answer:
Aquatic Ecosystems: Aquatic Ecosystems are classified based on salinity into three types Marine.
Estuarine and Freshwater ecosystems.
1) Marine Ecosystem: It is largest of all aquatic ecosystems. It is the most stable ecosystem.

2) Estuarine Ecosystem: Estuary is the zone where river meets the sea. The salinity depends on season and nature of tides. During the rainy season the estuary is less saline. In summer it is more saline. Estuarine organism can withstand these fluctuations in salinity.

3) Freshwater Ecosystem: It is the smallest ecosystem. It includes rivers, lakes, ponds etc. It is divided into lentic and lotic systems. Lentic systems are still water systems like lakes and ponds. Lotic systems are flowing water systems like rivers and streams. The study of freshwater ecosystems is called Limnology.

Question 32.
Explain the different types of terrestrial ecosystems.
Answer:
The land ecosystems are terrestrial ecosystems. They are forest, grass land and desert ecosystems.
1) Forest ecosystem: Two important types of forests are present in India, a) Tropical rain forest b) Tropical deciduous forest.

2) Grass land ecosystem: They are present in the himalayan region. In western Rajasthan they occupy large areas of sandy and saline soils.

3) Desert ecosystem: The areas having less than 25cm rainfall per year are called deserts. They have characteristic flora and fauna. There are two types of deserts namely hot type and cold type. Desert of Rajasthan is hot type desert. Desert near Ladakh is cold type.

Question 33.
Draw a diagram of the lake ecosystem and its physical (or) Ecological divisions.
Answer:
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment 1

Question 34.
Write about the producers of the littoral zone with suitable examples.
Answer:

  1. Littoral zone is the shallow part of the lake, where light penetrates up to the bottom.
  2. It is ‘Euphotic’ – with good light, rich vegetation and higher rate of photosynthesis with rich O2.
    Producers of Littoral Zone:
  3. Littoral zone is rich with pedonic flora. It is abundant with firmly fixed roots of emergent vegetation called amphibious plants
    Ex: Cattails (Typha), bulrushes (Scirpus), arrowheads (Sagittaria)
  4. Water lilies (Nymphaea), Nelumbo, Trapa etc are slightly deeper rooted plants.
  5. Submerged plants such as Hydrilla, chara, potamogeton etc., are also present in littoral zone.
  6. Pistia, Wolffia, lemna (duck weed), Azolla, Eichhomia etc., are the free floating vegetation of these zone.
  7. Phytoplankton of littoral zone is diatoms (coscinodiscus, Nitzschia, etc.,), green algae (volvox, Spirogyra etc.,) euglenoids (Euglena, phacus etc.,) and dinoflagellates (Gymnodinium, cystodiniumetc.,)

Question 35.
Write a short note on the limnetic zone of a lake ecosystem.
Answer:

  1. Limnetic Zone: It is the open water zone away from the shore, which extends upto the effective light penetration level.
  2. Zone of compensation (or) compensation point (or) light compensation level is the imaginary line that separates the limnetic zone and profundal zone.
  3. There is no contact with bottom of the lake . Rate of photosynthesis and respiration are same
  4. It is the largest zone of a lake ecosystem.
  5. Rapid variations occur in the level of water, temperature, oxygen availability etc., from time to time.
  6. There is more availability of photosynthesis plants (autotrophs) euglenoids, diatoms, cyanobacteria, dinoflagellates and green algae are the chief phytoplankton of this region.
  7. Zooplanktonic organisms like copepods, fishes, frogs and water snakes etc are nekton of this zone.

Question 36.
Write a short note on the profundal zone of the lake ecosystem.
Answer:

  1. Profundal zone: It is the deep water zone below the limnetic zone.
  2. Light is absent. Photosynthesis does not take place. It is poor in oxygen.
  3. Organisms that live in this zone are decomposers, chironomid larvae, chaoborus (Phantom larva) red annelids, clams etc.,
  4. This zone releases nutrients to the biotic communities of both littoral and limnetic zone (recycling of minerals).

Question 37.
Give a brief account of a lake ecosystem?
Answer:
Lake Ecosystem: Lakes are large inland water bodies containing still water. They contain water throughout the year. The lake ecosystem performs all functions of ecosystems. They are photosynthesis, heterotrops feeding on autotrops, decomposition, mineralization and recycling of minerals and circulation of nutrients.

Deep water lakes contain three distinct zones. They are
I) Littoral zone II) Limnetic zone III) Profundal zone.
1) Littoral zone: It is the shallow part of the lake and is close to the shore. Light reaches upto its bottom. Hence it is Euphotic(good light zone). It has rich vegetation and high rate of photosynthesis. It is rich in oxygen.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

II) Limnetic zone: It is the central largest and open zone away from shore and it does not touch the bottom. It extends vertically upto effective light penetration level. Zone of compensation separates the limnetic zone from the profundal zone. Here, the rate of photosynthesis is equal to the rate of respiration.

III) Profundal zone: It is the deep water zone below the limnetic zone. Light is absent. Photosynthesis does not take place. It is poor in oxygen.

Question 38.
How is a lake ecosystem described as a ’Micro – model’ for the Entire biosphere?
Answer:

  1. The lake ecosystem performs all the functions of any ecosystem and of the biosphere as whole that is conversion of inorganic substances into organic material.
  2. With the help of radiant solar energy by the autotrophs.
  3. Consumption of the autotrophs by the heterotrophs.
  4. Decomposition and mineralization of the dead matter to release them back of reuse by the autotrophs. Hence lake ecosystem can describe as a ‘Micro-model’ for the entire biosphere.

Question 39.
In GFCs the number of trophic levels is restricted. Give reason.
Answer:

  1. Grazing Food Chain (GFC) is also called as Predatory food chain.
  2. It starts with producers (green plants) and ends with secondary carnivores.
  3. Generally in a grazing chain, at the 1st trophic level green plants perform photosynthesis.
  4. At the first trophic level only one percent of the solar energy is converted into chemical energy.
  5. GPP, NPP herbivores at second trophic level are not efficient in using the NPPand converting them into GSP and a lot of energy is wasted .
  6. So if there are many trophic levels in a grazing food, the subsequent energy transfers will be more, which may not completely fulfill the energy needs of the much more higher trophic levels.
  7. So the number of trophic levels in GFC’s is restricted.

Question 40.
What are the ecological limitations for ecological pyramids?
Answer:
Limitations for ecological pyramid concept:

  1. It does not take into account the same species belonging to two (or) more trophic levels.
  2. It assumes a simple food chain, something that almost never exists in nature.
  3. It does not accommodate a food web.
  4. Saprophytes play a vital role in the ecosystem eventhough they are not given any place in ecological pyramids.

Question 41.
How is the second law of thermodynamics applicable to the functional part of an eco¬system.
Answer:

  1. Second law of thermodynamics states that no process involving energy transformation will spontaneously occur unless there is degradation of energy.
  2. Energy dispersed in the form of unavailable heat energy which constitutes the entropy.
  3. The organisms need a constant supply of energy to synthesize the molecules they require.
  4. The amount of energy available decreases at successive trophic levels.
  5. When an organism dies, it is converted to detritus or dead biomass that serves as a source of energy for the decomposers.

Question 42.
Discuss the main reason for the low productivity of ocean.
Answer:
1) Production of ocean: Most primary producers of ocean require nitrogen and phosphorus which are abundant. Two principal categories of producers are pelagic phytoplankton and benthic micro and macro algae. Benthic plants grow only on the fringe of oceans.

2) Chaemo autotrophs are producers of deep sea. Primary productivity is determined by measuring the uptake of CO2 and output of O2. Production rates are expressed as grams of organic carbon per unit area per time.

3) The productivity of the entire ocean is estimated to be approximately 16 xlO10 tons of carbon per year which is about eight times that of land. Upwelling and seasonal cycles of production are two important factors. Low productivity is recorded when these two factors fail.

Question 43.
Explain the terms saprotrophs, detritivores and mineralizers.
Answer:
1) Saprotrophs: These are organisms that break down dead and waste materials and meet their energy and nutrient requirements. Ex: Fungi and bacteria.

2) Detritivores: They feed on detritus. They break down the detritus into smaller particles. Ex: Earthworm.

3) Mineralizers: Decomposition of detritus takes place by humification and mineralization. Humus is formed by humification. It is highly resistant microbial action. It serves as reservoir of nutrients. It is further degraded (slowly) by some microbes which release inorganic nutrients. This process is called mineralization.

Question 44.
Discuss the factors that influence the process of decomposition.
Answer:

  1. Decomposition: It is the process in which complex organic matter breaks down into simple inorganic substances like CO2, water and nutrients.
  2. It requires large amount of oxygen and it is controlled by (i) chemical composition of the detritus and (ii) climatic factory.
  3. Decomposition rate is slow, if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
  4. It is fast with nitrogen and water soluble substances like sugars.
  5. Temperature and soil moisture are most important climatic factors that regulate decomposition.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 45.
Define decomposition and describe the process and products of decomposition.
Answer:
1) Decomposition: The organic material in the soil is detritus. It is subjected to decomposition.
Decomposition is an oxygen requiring process. The rate of decomposition is controlled by
a) Chemical decomposition of detritus b) Climatic factors.

2) Decomposition rate is slower if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin. Decomposition rate is quicker if the detritus is rich in nitrogen and water soluble substance (sugars).

3) Decomposition is regulated by important climatic factors namely temperature and soil moisture.
Warm and moist environment favours decomposition. Low temperature and anaerobic environment inhibit decomposition. The decomposers are micro consumers(micro-scopic form).

Question 46.
Explain GFC.
Answer:

  1. GFC means Grazing Food Chain. It is also known as predatory food chain.
  2. The first trophic level begins with the green plants (producers). Ex: Rose bush
  3. The second trophic level is occupied by primary consumers like herbivores.Ex: Aphids.
  4. The third trophic level is occupied by secondary consumers like carnivores. Ex: Spider
  5. The fourth trophic level is occupied by tertiary consumers like top carnivores. Ex: Small birds.
  6. In some food chains there is yet another trophic level called climax camivores.Ex: hawk.
  7. Rose bush→Aphids→Spider→ Small birds →hawk

Question 47.
Write a short notes on the various trophic levels in a typical ecosystem.
Answer:

  1. Energy flows into biological systems (ecosystems) from the sun.
  2. The biological systems of environment include several food levels called trophic levels.
  3. A trophic level is composed of those organisms which have the same source of energy.

Various trophic levels in a typical ecosystem:

  1. The first trophic level begins with the green plants (producers). Ex: Rose bush
  2. The second trophic level is occupied by primary consumers like herbivores.Ex: Aphids.
  3. The third trophic level is occupied by secondary consumers like carnivores. Ex: Spider
  4. The fourth trophic level is occupied by tertiary consumers like top carnivores. Ex: Small birds.

Question 48.
Give examples for GFCs with three, four and five trophic levels from your locality. Explain the parasitic food chain. How does it differ from GFC.
Answer:
In GFCs 3rd , 4th and 5th tropic levels are occupied by primary, secondary and tertiary carni¬vores respectively.

  1. 3 trophic levels → Grass → Grasshopper → Garden lizard.
  2. 4 trophic levels → Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Hawk
  3. 5 trophic levels → Phytoplankton → Zooplankton → Water insects → Frog → Snake → Hawk

Parasite food chain (PFC) :

  1. PFC is a part of the GFC. It starts with producers. Energy passed from large organisms to small organisms.
  2. 1st trophic level producers provide shelter and food for many birds and insects. These birds host many ecto – parasites and Endoparasites.
  3. PFC is differ from GFC in the path of the flow of energy. PFC energy flows from lower trophic levels (Large sized organisms) to successive higher trophic levels(small sized organisms)

Question 49.
Write a note on DFC. Give the significance in a terrestrial ecosystem. [AP,TS-18]
Answer:

  1. DFC is Detritus Food Chain. It is an important food chain in terrestrial ecosystem.
  2. Detritus is formed from leaf litter, dead bodies, and faeces of animals.
  3. Detritus has decomposers which are heterotrophic organisms. Ex: Fungi and bacteria.
  4. They meet their energy and nutrition requirements by degrading detritus.
  5. These organisms are called saprotrophs.
  6. Decomposers secrete enzymes that break down detritus into simple absorbable substances.
  7. Detritus food chains are as follows:
    (i) Detritus – Earthworms – Frogs – Snakes.
    (ii) Dead animals – Flies and maggots – Frogs – Snakes.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 50.
What is primary productivity? Give a brief description of the factors that affect primary productivity.
Answer:

  1. The rate of production of biomass is called productivity.
  2. It is divided in primary productivity and secondary productivity.
  3. Primary productivity is defined as the amount of biomass produced, in an unit area, over a period of time during photosynthesis.
  4. The primary productivity can be divided into Gross Primary Productivity(GPP) and Net Primary Productivity(NPP).
  5. Gross primary productivity (GPP) of an ecosystem in the rate of total production of organic matter during photosynthesis. About 20-25% of GPP is used for respiration.
  6. The net primary productivity is the biomass available for the consumption of herbivores and decomposers. Clouds and pollution affect gross primary productivity.
  7. Net primary productivity (NPP) is the resultant productivity after the amount used for respiration is deducted from gross primary productivity.
    NPP= G.P.P. – Respiration(R)

Question 51.
Define ecological pyramids and describe with examples, pyramids of numbers and biomass. [TSM-19]
Answer:

  1. Ecological Pyramids: It is a graphic representation of the trophic structure and function of an ecosystem
  2. The pyramids were first studied by Elton. Hence those are known as Eltonian pyramids.
  3. Types of Pyramids: (i) Pyramid of number (ii) Pyramid of biomass (iii) Pyramid of energy.
    AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment 2
  4. Pyramid of numbers: A pyramid of numbers is a graphical representation that shows the number of organisms at each trophic level. It is an upright pyramid where the producers are always more in number than other trophic levels.
  5. Pyramid of Biomass: A pyramid of biomass is a graphical representation of biomass present in a unit area of various trophic levels. It shows the relationship between biomass and trophic level quantifying the biomass available in each trophic level at a given time.
  6. Pyramid of energy: An energy pyramid is a graphical model of energy flow in a community. The different levels represent different groups of organisms that might compose a food chain.
  7. The base of each pyramid represents the producers or the first trophic level.
  8. The top of pyramid represents top order consumer.
  9. Producers are more in number than herbivores and herbivores are more in number than carnivores.
  10. Similarly biomass and energy is more at lower levels than at higher levels.

Question 52.
Can you work out the number of trophic levels at which human – beings can function in a food chain?
Answer:

  1. A vegetarian man who takes only vegetarian food occupies the second trophic level as herbivore.
  2. A non-vegetarian who also takes chicken and mutton occupies third trophic level as primary carnivore.
  3. A non vegetarian who also takes fish occupies fourth trophic level as secondary carnivore.
  4. So total number of trophic levels at which human beings can function in a food chain are two or three levels.

Question 53.
Measurements of biomass interms of dry weight is more accurate justify?
Answer:

  1. Each trophic level has certain mass of living material at a particular time is called ‘standing crop.
  2. The standing crop is measured as the “biomass” of living organisms.
  3. Biomass is the number of organisms per unit area.
  4. The biomass of a species is expressed in terms of fresh or dry weight which is more accurate because water contains no usable energy.

Question 54.
What are the deleterious effects of depletion of ozone in the stratosphere? [IPE-14]
Answer:

  • When ozone layer is depleted marketedly, it leads to ozone hole. [APM-19,20]
  • Then ozone layer becomes very thin and it can’t prevent the UV radiation completely.
  • Then the UV radiations with shorter wavelengths (UV-B) enter the earth surface.

Deleterious(Harmful) effects of depletion of ozone:

  1. UV rays damage DNA and may induce mutations.
  2. They cause aging of skin, damage to skin cells and cause skin cancer.
  3. High concentrations of UV-B radiation results in inflammation of cornea.
  4. This leads to snow blindness and cataract. Some times it permanently damages cornea.

Question 55.
Write a note on ’algal blooms’?
Answer:

  1. Algal blooms: It is a rapid increase (or) accumulation in the population of algae in an aquatic system.
  2. Algal blooms increases the death rate of the fishes
  3. Algal booms impart distinct colour to the water bodies and deteriote the quality of water.
  4. It causes blocks in water ways by its excessive growth. It is also called “Terror of Bengal”
  5. Algal blooms of some algae members are toxic to human beings and animals.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 56.
Describe Green House Effect. [AP M-20] [AP Mar,May-17] [IPE-14]
Answer:
Green bouse effect: ‘Green house effect’ is a naturally occurring phenomenon, that is responsible for heating of the Earth’s surface and atmosphere.

  1. When sunlight reaches the outer most layer of the atmosphere, it absorbs some radiation.
  2. About one fourth of solar radiation is reflected back by clouds and gases and only half of the incoming solar radiation reaches the earth surface and earth gets heated.
  3. Then a small portion of heat is reflected back into the atmosphere. Due to the presence of green house gases CO2 and methane a major part of the radiation again reflects back to the earth surface.
  4. Due to this, earth surface heats up once again (Global warming). This phenomenon is called Green house effect.

Question 57.
Write notes on the following.
a) Radioactive waste disposal b) E-wastes management.
Answer:
a) Radioactive waste disposal:

  1. Initially, nuclear energy was hailed as a non-polluting way for generating electricity.
  2. Later on it was realised that the use of nuclear energy has two serious problems.
    (i) Accidental leakages, (ii) Safe disposal
  3. Radiation, that is released from nuclear waste is extremely dangerous to biological organisms, because it induces mutations.
  4. Exposure to high doses of nuclear radiation is lethal as it can lead to cancers (Ex: Leukemia).
  5. So, nuclear waste is an extremely potent pollutant and has to be dealt with utmost caution.
  6. Storage of nuclear wastes should be done in suitably shielded containers and buried deep in the soil or oceans about 500 meters depth.

b) E – wastes (Electronic wastes) Management:

  1. E – wastes consist of irreparable computers and electronic goods which are the modem day pollutants.
  2. E – wastes are buried in landfills (or) incinerated.
  3. Developing countries like China, India and Pakistan are importing the half of the E – wastes from developed world.
  4. Metals like Copper, iron, silicon, nickel and gold are recovered during recycling process.
  5. Eventually recycling is the only solution for the treatment of e-wastes provided it is carried out in an environmental friendly manner.

Question 58.
Discuss the role of women and communities in protection and conservation of forests in India.
Answer:

  1. In 1974, local women Garhwal Himalayas showed enormous bravery in protecting trees from the axe of contractors by hugging trees.
  2. People all over the world have acclaimed the Chipko movement.
  3. Realising the significance of participation by local communities the Government of India in 1980s has introduced the concept of Joint Forest Management (JFM) so as to work closely with the local communities for protecting and managing forest.
  4. In return for the services to the forest, the communities get benefit of various forest products like fruits, gum, rubber, medicine.

Question 59.
Discuss briefly the following: (a) Green house gases (b) Noise pollution (c) organic farming (d) Municipal solid wastes.
Answer:
(a) Green house gases: Gases like carbondioxide and methane are known as green house gases. Like a green house, these gases allow only the passage of light onto the Earth but not escape of heat from the Earth. Thus they result in the increase of Earth’s temperature.

(b) Noise pollution: Sound is measured in decibels. Human ear is sensible to sounds ranging from 0-180 dB. Any noise above 120dB is considered as noise pollution. Noise also causes, auditory fatigue, anxiety, sleeplessness, increased heart rate and B.P. etc. High sounds may damage ear drums.

(c) Organic Farming: It is an almost zero-waste procedure where, recycling of waste products is efficiently carried out.

  • There is maximum utilization of resource and increased production.
  • R.C.Dagar managed bee keeping, dairy, water harvesting, composting and agriculture as a chain reaction.
  • Crop waste and cattle waste is used as natural fertilizer.
  • Biogas is used for energy needs.

(d) Municipal solid wastes:

  • Wastes from homes, offices, institutions, shops, hotels and restaurants in towns and cities are the municipal solid wastes.
  • They are generally consists of paper, food waste, plastic, rubber, glass, metals, leather, textiles etc.
  • The wastes are burnt to reduce the volume. They can be categorised into biodegradable, recyclable and non biodegradable.

Question 60.
Discuss the causes and effects of global warming. What measures need to be taken to control ‘Global Warming’? [TS M-15] [AP M-15,16]
Answer:
1) Global Warming: Rise of temperature above normal level in the atmosphere is called global warming. This happens due to the increase in the emission of green house gases.

2) Causes of Global Warming:
(a) Air pollutant (CO2) is the major responsible factor for global warming.
(b) It is produced by

  1. incomplete combustion of fossil fuels,
  2. Automobile exhausts
  3. Factory fumes
  4. Emissions from power plants
  5. Forest fires

3) Effects of Global Warming:

  1. Climatic changes
  2. Elnino effect
  3. Melting of snow caps of mountains resulting in submergence of coastal areas.

4) Control measures:

  1. Reducing the use of fossil fuels.
  2. Improving efficiency of energy usage.
  3. Planting of trees and avoiding deforestation.
  4. Slowing down the growth of human population.
  5. Kyoto protocol: To save earth from the dangers of global warming. 191 countries have signed the protocol in Kyoto of Japan to reduce the emission of green house gases to the level of 1990.

Question 61.
Write critical notes on the following: (a) Eutrophication (b) Biological magnification
(c) Ground water depletion and ways for its replenishment
Answer:
(a) Eutrophication:

  • Natural aging of lakes by nutrient enrichment of its water is Eutrophication.
  • In a young lake the water is cold and clear with little flora and fauna.
  • Gradually nitrates and phosphates are carried into lakes via streams.
  • Consequently aquatic algae, plants and animals reach the lake. After several thousands of years the lake become shallower due to silt and organic debris.
  • The water becomes warm. Marsh plants appear and lake gives way to large masses of floating plants (bog). Gradually water dries up and land emerges. This process may take thousands of years.
  • But due to human interference (the pollutants) there is cultural or accelerated eutrophication.
  • In the past century many lakes were severely atrophied by sewage, agricultural and industrial wastes.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

(b) Biological Magnification:

  • Gradual accumulation and concentration of pollutants from producers to top consumers is called biological magnification.
  • This phenomenon is well known in DDT and mercury pollution.
  • In water the DDT concentration was 0.003 ppb. It passed through producers, primary consumer, secondary consumer and reach the fishing eating birds to a concentration of 5 ppm.
  • This high concentration of DDT causes
    (i) Disturbance of calcium metabolism.
    Ex: Thin egg shells and premature breaking of shell.
    (ii) Reduction in the population of these birds.

(c) Ground water depletion:
Causes for ground water depletion:

  1. No seasonal rains
  2. Prolonged summer
  3. Excessive usage of water by pumpsets

Effects of ground water depiction:

  1. Drying up of wells
  2. Reduction of water in streams and lakes.
  3. Decrease in water quality

Ways for ground water replenishment:

  1. Constructing recharge wells for proper storage of rain water.
  2. Constructing waste water treatment plants in each town and village.
  3. Growing trees to allow water lagging.

Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Write an essay on temperature as an ecological factor.
Answer:
Temperature as an ecological factor:
Temperature is a measure of intensity of heat. Temperatures vary greatly on land from equator to poles and sea level to high altitudes. Temperatures in water vary very little.
1) Thermal stratification in temperature and lakes: Temperature variations are more pronounced in temperate lakes.

2) Summer Stratification:

  • During summer the temperature of surface water reaches upto 25°C.
  • The surface layer is called epilimnion.
  • The middlelayer is thermocline or metalimnion.
  • The temperature decreases at the rate of 1 °C per meter down the depth.
  • The bottom layer is hypolimnion. The water is cool, stagnant with low oxygen.

3) Autumn over turn:

  • During autumn (fall)epilimnion cools down to 4°C. Water is more dense at 4°C.
  • Surface water becomes heavy and sinks to the bottom. The bottom water comes up.
  • This circulation is called autumn or fall over turn.

4) Winter Stratification:

  • During winter the surface temperature reaches 0°C and water freezes.
  • Below the surface, water is present.
  • In this condition organisms survive by reducing their metabolic rate and oxygen consumption.

5) Spring Overturn:

  • In the following spring the surface warms upto 4°C. The heavy water goes down bringing up nutrient water. This overturn is spring over turn.
  • Thus temperature circulates the water, distributing oxygen and nutrients in a temperate lake. The lakes which show overturns twice a year are called dimictic lake.

6) Biological effects:

  • Eury thermal: Some animals can tolerate wide range of temperature. They are Eurythermal animals. Birds & Mammals.
  • Stenothermal: Some animals cannot tolerate fluctuations in temperature. They are stenothermal. Fishes & Corals.

7) Metabolism:

  • Temperature changes the activity of enzymes.
  • Optimum temperature is the temperature at which the activity of animal is at peak.
  • Minimum effective temperature, below which animal cannot survive and undergoes Chill coma
  • Maximum effective temperature, above which animal undergoes heat coma.

8) Van’t Hoffs rule: For every increase of 10°C the metabolic rate doubles.

  • Q10 = X-{X—10°C) Q10= Temperature coefficient.
  • It the value of Q10 is 2.0 then it means that the rate of metabolism is doubled.

9) Cyclomorphosis: Temperature through seasonal changes bring about morphological changes
in animals like Daphnia (water flea).

  • In winter head of Daphnia is round.
  • During spring a helmet begins to grow
  • In summer there is a large helmet.
  • In autumn the helmet gradually decreases.
  • By winter the head becomes round.
  • The density of water changes with temperature.
  • Cyclomorphosis is an adaptation to changing densities so that the animal can float freely.

10) Adaptations Behaviour: The reptiles bask in sunlight during cold days. They burrow in soil and hide in crevices during summer.

11) Morphological adaptations: Animal living in colder climates and cold water have a thick layer of fat below the skin (blubber).

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

12) Bergman’s rule: Animals of colder regions have larger bodes than their counter parts in warmer region. It is the Bergman’s rule. Large sized animals have less surface area. Hence heat loss is less.

13) Allen’s rule: Mammals in colder region have small ear lobes (pinnae). Their counterparts in warmer region have large pinnae. It is called Allen’s rule. Ex: Fox. Temperature loss is less in small ear lobes.

14) Physiological adaptations: All the animals try to maintain constant body temperature and constant inner fluid concentration.

15) Regulators: Birds and mammals maintain homeostasis i.e., thermoregulation and osmoregulation. Ex: Sweating in summer. Closure of sweat pore in winter and shivering.

16) Conformers: in many animals the body temperature vary to certain extent according to outside temperature. Ex: Invertebrates, Fishes, Frogs and reptiles. Camel is apartial regulator.

17) Migration: Animals move from one place to another to escape from severe climate in search of food and reproduction. Ex: Birds of Siberia.

18) Suspension of life activity: Thick walled spores are formed to tide over unfavourable conditions. Ex: Bacteria, fungi and lower plants.
Higher forms undergo aestivation in summer and hibernation in winter to escape severe temperature.

19) Diapause: Certain organisms delay their development in unfavourable conditions. Ex: Insect and embryos of fish.

Question 2.
Write an essay on water as an ecological factor.
Answer:
Water as an ecological factor:
1) Water: Water is an important ecological factor that influences the life of organisms.
Salt concentration is high in sea water and very low in fresh water.

2) Eury haline: Some organisms can tolerate wide fluctuations of salinity. They are eury haline Ex: Estuarine animals.

3) Steno halinc: Many organisms cannot tolerate fluctuations in salinity. They are stenohaline. Ex: Fresh water fishes & Marine fishes.

4) Adaptations of fresh Water animals: The salt concentration of body fluids is much higher than surrounding fresh water. So endosmosis takes place to send out excess water.

  1. Protozoans have contractile vacuoles.
  2. Fresh water fishes have large glomerular kidneys. Along with water, salts are also lost.
  3. Fishes have salt absorbing chloride cells in gills which absorb salts from surrounding water,
  4. Ponds dry up during summer. So, to survive in summer,
    a) Protozoans undergo encystment.
    b) Sponges produce gemmules.
    c) Fishes like protopterus aestivate.

5) Adaptations of Sea water animals: Salt concentration sea of water is more than that of body fluids. So exosmosis takes place and to prevent dehydration.

  1. Fishes have aglomerular kidneys with few nephrons.
  2. They drink water. So salts accumulate inside the body.
  3. Excess salts are sent out through salt secreting chloride cells in gills.
  4. Sea gulls and penguins secrete salt drops through nose.
  5. Turtles and crocodiles have salt secreting glands near eyes.
  6. Sharks maintain salt concentration by having urea and TMO in their blood.

6) Adaptations of Brackish water: Animals of estuaries are euryhaline. Salmon and Hilsa are anadromous & Anguilla is catadromous. They can adjust their kidneys according to changing salinity. The chloride cells either absorb or secrete salt according to situation.

7) Terrestrial adaptations: Deserts have very less amount of water. Kangaroo rat utilizes its metabolic water for its water needs. It releases concentrated urine to prevent water loss.

Question 3.
Give an account of various types of interactions among the animal species of an ecosystem.
Answer:
Types of interactions among the animal species:
I) Inter-specific Interaction: It arises from population of two different species.
It is divided into four types, (i) mutualism, (ii)commensalism, (iii)parasitism & (iv) amensalism.

  1. Mutualism Both the species get benefited with each other.
  2. Commensalism : One gets benefited and the other one is neither benefited nor harmed.
  3. Parasitism : in both of these only one species benefits and the other one is detrimental.
  4. Amensalism : One species is harmed and the other one is unaffected.

II) Predation Predation is a feeding strategy, between two different species in which predator gets benefited at the cost of the prey.Ex : Lion (Predator) & Deer( Prey).
Important functions of Predation:

  1. Energy transfer: Predators take the basic role of energy transfer in trophic level.
  2. Biological Control: The ability of the Predators regulate the population of the prey.
  3. Species diversity: Predators reduce the intensity of competition among the prey species.
  4. Predators are prudent: if a predator is too efficient and overexploits its prey, then the prey might become extinct and following it, the predator will also become extinct due to lack of food. This is the reason why predators in nature are prudent.
  5. Preys develop defensive mechanism to avoid their predators.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

III) Competition: inter specific competition is the competition between different species for the same resource.
Ex: Flamingos and fishes. Both of them compete for the same food, zoo plankton.
Darwin convinced that ‘interspecific competition’ is a ‘potent force’ in the process of organic evolution involving natural selection.
Types of Competition:
(i) Competition among unrelated species: It is a process in which the fitness of one species is significantly lower in the presence of another species.

(ii) Competitive exclusion : Gause & other ecologists experiments explained that when sources are limited, superior species will eliminate the other species.
Ex: Greater browsing efficiency of the goats in Galaspagos Islands, eliminates the Abingdon tortoise,

(iii) Competitive release; It occurs when one of the two competing species is removed from an area, thereby releasing the remaining species from one of the factors that limited its population size.

(iv) Coexistence: Gausse’s principal of exclusion states that two closely related species competing for the same resource, could avoide competition by choosing, for instance, different times for feeding (or) food collecting patterns.

IV) Parasitism : It is the interaction between two organisms of different species, in which one gets benefited and the other gets harmed.
Ex: Plasmodium vivax (Malarial parasite) in the body of a man.
Types of Parasites:

  1. Ectoparasites: They feed outside the body of the host. Ex : Ticks on dogs, lice on humans.
  2. Endoparasites: They live inside the body of the host. Ex : Malaria parasite.
  3. Brood parasites: During breeding season cuckoo (koel) lays it eggs in the host (crow) for incubation.

V) Commensalism : It is the interaction in which one species benefits and the other neither harmed nor benefited.
Ex : 1) Bannacles growing on the back of a whale benefit while the whale is not benefited.
2) Orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch gets benefited, while the mango tree does not benefited.

(VI) Mutuaslism : In this interaction both species get benefited.
Ex : 1) Plants need the help of animals for pollination & seed dispersals where as animals get nectar & juicy and nutrients from fruits.
2) Lichens are the association of fungus and algae members. Fungi gives essential nutrients and water to the algae where as fungi gets shelter and carbohydrates from algae.

Question 4.
Describe lake as an ecosystem by giving examples for the various zones and the biotic components in it. [AP M-19][TS M-15,17]
Answer:
(A) Lake Ecosystem: Lakes are large inland water bodies containing still water. They contain water throughout the year. The lake ecosystem performs all functions of ecosystems. They are photosynthesis, heterotrops feeding on autotrops, decomposition, mineralization and recycling of minerals and circulation of nutrients.

Deep water lakes contain three distinct zones. They are I) Littoral zone II) Limnetic zone III) Prbfundal zone.
I) Littoral zone: It is the shallow part of the lake and is close to the shore. Light reaches upto its bottom. Hence it is Euphotic(good light zone). It has rich vegetation and high rate of photosynthesis. It is rich in oxygen.

II) Limnetic zone: It is the central largest and open zone away from shore and it does not touch the bottom. It extends vertically upto effective light penetration level. Zone of compensation separates the limnetic zone from the profundal zone. Here, the rate of photosynthesis is equal to the rate of respiration.

III) Profundal zone: It is the deep water zone below the limnetic zone. Light is absent. Photosynthesis does not take place. It is poor in oxygen.

(B) Biotic components of Lake:
1) Biota of Littoral zone :
(a) Flora- Plants – Examples

  1. Free floating hydrophytes – Pistia, Lemna, Salvinia
  2. Rooted hydrophytes with floating leaves – Nymphaea, Victoria regia
  3. Submerged suspended hydrophytes – Hydrilla, utricularia
  4. Submerged rooted hydrophytes – Vallisneria
  5. Amphibious plants(roots below water & upper plant above water) – Sagittaria, Typha
  6. Phytoplankton – Diatoms, Green algae

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

(b) Fauna -Animals – Examples

  1. Zooplankton (have water fleas) – Daphnia, Rotifers, Ostracods
  2. Neuston -Epineuston (live on water surface) – Water bugs, beetles
  3. Neuston- Hyponeuston(hang from airwater interphase) – Mosquito larvae
  4. Nekton(ffee swimming forms) – Fishes, snakes
  5. Periphyton(attached on plants) – Hydras, Nymphs
  6. Benthos(live in the bottom) – Red annelids, Cray fishes

II) Biota of Limnetic zone:

  • It has phytoplankton, zooplankton and nekton.
  • Phytoplankton examples are Euglenoids, diatoms, cyanobacteria, dinoflagellates, green algae.
  • Zooplankton examples are copepods.
  • Nekton examples are fishes, frogs, water snakes.

III) Biota of Profundal zone: It has decomposers, detritus feeders, chironomid larvae, phantom larva (chaoborus) clams etc. All these are capable of living in low oxygen levels. Recycling of minerals takes place in this zone.

Question 5.
Give an account of the various types of ecosystem on the earth.
Answer:
Ecosystem: An ‘ecosystem’ is a functional unit of nature, where living organisms interact among themselves and also with the surroundings physical environment. Ex: Pond, Forest, Sea.

Types of Ecosystem:
I) Natural Ecosystem: It is a naturally occuring ecosystem, with no role of humans in its formation. Ex : Deserts, forests, lakes.
II) Artificical Ecosystem: It is a man made ecosystem. Ex : Aqua ponds, Aquariums etc Types of Natural Ecosystems:
A) Aquatic ecosystem (water) B) Terrestrial ecosystems (Land)

A) Aquatic Ecosystem: Aquatic ecosystem is based on salinity of water. It is of three types,
(i) Marine (ii) Freshwater (iii) Estuarine

  1. Marine Ecosystem: It is the largest ecosystem and it is the most stable one.
  2. Fresh water ecosystem: It is the smallest ecosystem, it is of two types Lentic and Lotic
    (a) Lentic: It is the still water bodies ecosystem. Ex : Ponds, lakes reserviors etc.
    (b) Lotic: It is the flowing water body ecosystem Ex : Streams, rivers, canals etc.,
  3. Estuarine Ecosystem: It is the zone of joining of sea & river. It shows ‘fluctuations’ in salinity and the organisms are capable of withstand that ‘fluctuations’

(A) Lake Ecosystem: Lakes are large inland water bodies containing still water. They contain water throughout the year. The lake ecosystem performs all functions of ecosystems. They are photosynthesis, heterotrops feeding on autotrops, decomposition, mineralization and recycling of minerals and circulation of nutrients.

Deep water lakes contain three distinct zones. They are I) Littoral zone II) Limnetic zone III) Profundal zone.
I) Littoral zone: It is the shallow part of the lake and is close to the shore. Light reaches upto its bottom. Hence it is Euphotic(good light zone). It has rich vegetation and high rate of photosynthesis. It is rich in oxygen.

II) Limnetic zone: It is the central largest and open zone away from shore and it does not touch
the bottom. It extends vertically upto effective light penetration level. Zone of compensation separates the limnetic zone from the profundal zone. Here, the rate of photosynthesis is equal to the rate of respiration.

III) Profundal /one: It is the deep water zone below the limnetic zone. Light is absent.
Photosynthesis does not take place. It is poor in oxygen.

B) Terrestrial ecosystem: It is the land ecosystem. Ex: Forest, grassland and desert.
(i) Forest Ecosystem: In India two important types are present.
(a) Tropical rain forest (b) tropical deciduous forests.

(ii) Grass land ecosystems: They are present in Himalayan regions of India.
They occupy large areas of sandy & saline soils in westren rajasthan.

(iii) Desert ecosystem: Lands with less than 25 cm rainfall per year are considered deserts. They have characteristic flora and fauna. These are two types hot & cold.
Ex : Cold desert – Ladakh; Hot desert – Rajasthan.

(iv) Artifictal ecosystems: These are man-made ecosystems such as agricultural or agro¬ecosystems. They include cropland ecosystems, aquaculture ponds and aquaria.

Question 6.
Describe different types of food chains that exist in an ecosystem.
Answer:

  • Sun is the main source of energy to ecosystem.
  • The biological systems of environment have several food levels called trophic levels.
  • A trophic level is composed of organisms which have same source of energy and same number of transfering steps.There are generally 3 to 5 trophic levels.
  • Sometimes, a given species may occupy more than one trophic level. Ex: Sparrow The food energy always passes from lower trophic level to higher trophic levels.
  • When the food path is linear, the components resemble the links of a chain. Hence, it is called food chain.
  • The food chain generally ends in decomposers.

Types of Food Chains:

  1. Grazing food chain
  2. Parasite food chain
  3. Detritus food chain.

1) Grazing food chain: It is also called predator food chain. The first trophic level is occupied by green plants(producers). Second trophic level is occupied by Herbivores. The third, fourth and fifth trophic levels are occupied by primary, secondary and tertiary carnivores respectively.
Ex:

  1. Rose bush → aphids → spiders → small birds → hawks.
  2. Grass → Grass hopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk
  3. Grass → Goat → Man
  4. Plants → Caterpillar → Lizard → Snake
  5. Grass → Deer → Tiger.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

2) Parasitic Food chain: In this, the food energy passes from large organisms to small organisms. The first trophilc level is occupied by large trees. They provide shelter and food to a variety of birds, reptiles and mammals. These animals form the second trophic level. Each of these animals host many ecto and endo parasites.
Ex: Tree → Birds, lizards, mammals → parasites.

3) Detritus Food chain: This food chain begins with detritus. Detritus is dead organic matter of leaves, dead bodies and faeces of animals. Detritus has decomposers which secrete enzymes, that break down detritus into simple absorbable substance. Detritus feeders are earthworms, flies and maggots which form the second trophic level.
Ex: Detritus → Earthworms → Frogs → Snakes → Hawks.

Food web: The food chains are not isolated chains. They are interconnected. They form a web called food web. The feeding relationships are not simple. There are omnivores which complicate the chains. Ex: Man, Bear, Crow.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment 3
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment 4

Question 7.
Write an essay on productivity of an ecosystem.
Answer:
Productivity of ecosystem:
Productivity: The rate of production of biomass is called productivity of the ecosystem.
It is of two types (i) Primary Productivity (ii) Secondary Productivity.
(i) Primary productivity : The amount of biomass (or) organic matter produced perunit area over a period of time by plants, during photosynthesis is called primary productivity.
It is of two types (a) Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) (b) Net Primary Productivity (NPP).

(a) Gross Primary Productivity(GPP): It is the rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis. A considerable amount of GPP is utilized by plants for their catabolic process
(respiration)

(b) Net Primary Productivity (NPP): Gross Primary Productivity minus respirator loss (R) is the net primary productivity. On average about 20 – 25% of GPP is used for the catabolic acitivity. Formula: NPP= GPP – R
Net primary productivity is the biomass available for the consumption of the herbivores and decomposers.
(ii) Secondary Productivity: It is defined as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.

Question 8.
Give an account of flow of energy in an ecosystem. [AP M-15]
Answer:
Flow of energy in an ecosystem:
1) Sun is the only source of energy for all the ecosystems on earth.

2) Solar energy captured by plants passes through different organisms of an ecosystem.

3) Less than 50% of incidental solar energy is Photosynthetically Active Radiation(PAR).

4) Plants capture only 2 to 10% of PAR, which sustains the entire living world.

5) All heterotrophs are dependent on the producers for their food, either directly or indirectly.

6) The first of law of thermodynamics is the ‘law of conservation of energy’.

  • It states that, energy is neither created nor destroyed. It may change from one form to the other. Energy that reaches earth is balanced by the energy that leaves as heat radiation.
  • Transfer of energy is essential for survival of life. It needs continuous flow of energy.

7) Second law of thermodynamics states that there is degradation of energy at each level.

  • The degraded energy is in the form unavailable heat energy.
  • It constitutes entropy i.e., energy not available for work.
  • The transfer of energy through a food chain is known as energy flow.
  • The amount of energy available decreases at successive trophic levels.

8) When an organism dies, it becomes a source of energy for its decomposers.

9) Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material and it is called the standing crop.
The standing crop is the biomass. Biomass can be expressed in terms of fresh weight or dry weight. Dry weight is more accurate.

10) The 10% law: It was introduced by Linderman.(the Founder of the modem Ecosystem Ecology).
It says that, during transfer of energy, only 10% of energy is stored to the trophic level and remaining energy is used for metabolic activities like respiration.
AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment 5
Linderman’s 10% rale is most widely used measure of ecological efficiency.
Ex: If the net primary production of plant is lOOkJ, the biomass available for herbivores is 10kJ.
Next carnivores gets only 1kJ.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 9.
List out the major air pollutants and describe their effects on human beings. [TS M-l 8,20] ]AP M-l 7,18] (TS May-17]
Answer:
Air pollution: Any deviation from the natural composition of air in the environment, causing
adverse effects to humans and plants is called air pollution. The agents which carry air pollution are called ‘air pollutants’.

Major air pollutants:

  1. Carbonmonoxide
  2. Carbondioxide
  3. Sulphurdioxide
  4. Nitrogen oxides
  5. Aerosols
  6. Noise pollution.

1) Carbon monoxide (CO): It is produced by incomplete combustion of fossil fuels.
Sources: Automobile exhausts, Factory fumes, Emissions from power plants, Forest fires, Burning of fire wood.
Harmful effects:

  1. In the presence of carbon monoxide, oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin is reduced.
  2. It causes headache and blurred vision, at lower concentrations.
  3. It leads to coma and some times death also, at higher concentrations.

2. Carbon dioxide(CO2): It is produced by respiration of living beings. But plants utilise C’O2 for photosynthesis.
Sources: Burning of fossil fuels (gasoline), automobiles, aeroplanes, power plants etc. Harmful effects:

  1. When its concentration level rises above normal it results in global warming.
  2. Global warming results so many adverse effects on mankind.

3. Sulphurdioxide(SO2): It is mainly produced by burning of fossil fuels, melting of sulphur ores and metal smelting.
Harmful effects:

  1. Breathing problems like asthma.
  2. Aggravation of cardiovascular problems.
  3. Corrosion of buildings and monuments.

4) Nitrogen oxides (NO, NjO, NO2): They are produced by automobile exhaust.
Harmful Effects:
(i) Oxides of nitrogen and SO2 together produce acid rains.

(ii) Acid rains acidify water bodies, spoil crops, buildings and monuments (Tajmahal).

  • Nitrogen dioxide along with hydrocarbons & sunlight in foggy condition produce photochemical smog, (i) Spots are formed on leaves, (ii) Photosynthesis is reduced, (iii) Crop yield is reduced.
  • Nitrogen oxides combine with secondary pollutants to form PAN (Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate).
    It irritates eyes and respiratory tracts.

5) Aerosols (particulate matter): Aerosols are colloidal particles, dispersed in gas. They are produced from combustion of fossil fuels, flyash thermal plants, cement factories, asbestos plants etc.
Harmful effects: They decrease lung function. They cause Asthma aggravation, Premature death of patients of heart and lung diseases, Chronic bronchitis, irregular heart beat.

6) Noise Pollution: Undesirable high sounds (above 120dB) cause noise pollution.
Harmful effects: Extremely high sounds (more than 150 dB) damage ear drums and causes permanent hearing impairment. Noise also causes auditory fatigue, anxiety, sleeplessness (insomia) and stress.

Question 10.
What are the causes of water pollution and suggest measures for control of water pollution?
Answer:
I) Causes of Water pollution: (1) Domestic sewage (2) Industrial effluents (3) Thermal pollution.

I) Domestic sewage:

  • Domestic sewage consists of human and animal excreta, detergents, waste foods etc.
  • It is released into fresh water bodies like rivers lakes and canals and seas.
  • As per regulation sewage must be treated before release.
  • In the treatment the solids are easily removed. Domestic sewage primary contains biodegradable organic matter which will be decomposed by bacteria and micro organisms.
  • Nitrates, phosphates, toxic metals and organic compounds are not easily removed.

(i) B.O.D: BOD means Biological oxygen demand. It is a measure of biodegradable substances in sewage. It is measured in terms of O2 consumed over a period of 5 days (BOD5) or seven days (BOD7). It is an index of measuring pollution load in sewage. The micro organisms consume most of the oxygen for biodegradation of organic matter. The fishes and other aquatic organisms die due to the lack of oxygen.

(ii) Algal blooms: Large amount of nutrients cause excessive growth of planktonic algae. Then the water looks green. This condition is called algal blooms. These blooms use more oxygen and reduce the quality of water so fishes and other aquatic animals die. Sewage also contains bacteria causing dysentery, typhoid, Jaundice, cholera etc.

2) Industrial effluents: It contains both inorganic and organic pollutants such as oils, greases, metal wastes, suspended solids. Most of them are not biodegradable. Organic effluents increase BOD and COD.

(i) Biomagnification: It is the progressive concentration of toxicants in successive trophic levels. Ex: DDT in water sample is 0.03 ppb. It is absorbed by autotrophs then passed on to consumer. The top level consumer has 5 ppb (fish eating bird). The DDT causes thinning of egg shells. So egg shells break killing the embryos. So the population of birds decline.

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

(ii) Eutrophication: Enrichment of water by nutrients is called Eutrophication.

  • Due to nutrients organisms grow in lakes.
  • During natural course of time debris and organic matter accumulates at the bottom.
  • Lakes become shallow. Rooted plants appear. Finally lakes are converted to land.
  • Due to human interference, accelerated eutrophication, many lakes have disappeared.

3) Thermal pollution: Thermal power plants and industries use water to cool the boilers and release hot water into rivers and other waterbodies. Stenothermal animal cannot tolerate the raise in temperature and die.
II) iVieasures for control of water pollution:

  1. Sewage has to be treated through ‘treatment plants’ before it is released into water sources.
  2. Effluents should be treated properly before being released into the water resources.
  3. Use of’less stable chemicals’, biodegradable chemicals and biopesticides should be encouraged to prevent organic pesticide pollution.
  4. Hot water should be directed to cooling towers before being released into the water bodies.
  5. Ecosan toilets (dry composting toilets) are to be popularised. Because human excreta can be recycled into resources which reduce the need for chemical fertilizers and water usage.

Question 11.
Write an essay on soil pollution and measures to Control soil pollution?
Answer:
Soil Pollution: Higher level concentrations of toxic chemicals in soil is called soil pollution.
Types of Soil pollutants:

  1. Municipal solid wastes
  2. Hospital Wastes
  3. Electronic wastes
  4. Agrochemicals
  5. Radio active wastes

(i) Municipal solid wastes:

  • Wastes from homes, offices, institutions, shops, hotels and restaurants in towns and cities are the municipal solid wastes.
  • They are generally consists of paper, food waste, plastic, rubber, glass, metals, leather, textiles etc.

Controlling measures:

  1. The wastes are burnt to reduce the volume.
  2. They can be treated by categorising into biodegradable, recyclable and non- biodegradable.
  3. Biodegradable materials can be put into deep pits in the ground and be left for natural breakdown.
  4. Recyclabe materials are to be separated and utilised again.
  5. Non-biodegradable waste left over is to be disposed off properly.
  6. To reduce the usage of plastic packets we have to use eco friendly packaging, cloth carrybags.
  7. Hospital Wastes: Hosipital wastes contian disinfectants, harmful chemicals and also pathogenic microorganisms.

Controlling measures: Hospital wastes can be treated by using incinerators.

Controlling Measures:

  1. E – wastes are buried in landfills (or) incinerated.
  2. Recycling is the only solution for the treatment of e-wastes provided it is carried out in an environmental friendly manner.
  3. E-wastes: it consist of irreparable computers and electronic goods which are the modem day pollutants.
  4. Agrochemicals: After Green revolution, improper use of inorganic fertilizers and pesticides cause threat to human health, and eco friendly organism.

It leads to increased drain of nutreints from Ecosystems causing eutrophication Controlling Measures:

  1. Practice of organic farming which is a zero waste procedure.
  2. R.C.Dagar managed bee keeping, dairy, water harvesting, composting and agriculture as a chain reaction that support one another and allow an extremely economical and sustainable venture.
  3. Radio active wastes: Radiation, that is released from nuclear waste is extremely dangerous to biological organisms, because it induces mutations.

Exposure to high doses of nuclear radiation is lethal as it can lead to cancers (Ex: Leukemia). Controlling Measures: Storage of nuclear wastes should be done in suitably shielded con¬tainers and buried deep in the soil or oceans about 500 meters depth.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1.
Plants depend on sunlight to meet their photoperiod requirement for
1. Fruiting
2. Flowering
3. Foliage
4. Formation of annual rights
Answer:
2. Flowering

Question 2.
Bending of plants towards sunlight is due to
1. Phototaxis
2. Phototropism
3. Photokinesis
4. Photoperiodism
Answer:
2. Phototropism

Question 3.
Circadian rhythms occur at an interval of
1. 24 Hrs
2. One year
3. One month
4. 15 days
Answer:
1. 24 Hrs

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 4.
Water shows the maximum density at
1. 1°C
2. 4°C
3. 100°C
4. 21-25°C
Answer:
2. 4°C

Question 5.
Rise and fall of temperature above or below 4°C water will
1. decrease its density
2. increase its density
3. not change in its density
4. increase or decrease
Answer:
1. decrease its density

Question 6.
Organisms that can tolerate wide range of temperatures are called
1. Eurythermal
2. Stenothermal
3. Poikilotherms
4. Thermoconformers
Answer:
1. Eurythermal

Question 7.
The salt concentration in land waters is
1. Less than 5%
2. 30-35%
3. 0%
4. 10.15%
Answer:
1. Less than 5%

Question 8.
The type of interaction in which both the species get benefit is
1. Competition
2. Predation
3. Mutualism
4. Amensalism
Answer:
3. Mutualism

Question 9.
The type of interaction in which both the species lose
1. Competition
2. Predation
3. Mutualism
4. Amensalism
Answer:
1. Competition

Question 10.
Seed predator is known as
1. Herbivore
2. Germivore
3. Granivore
4. Frugivore
Answer:
3. Granivore

Question 11.
Gause’s principle in competition is about
1. Competitive exclusion
2. Competitive release
3. Co-existence
4. Intraspecific competition
Answer:
1. Competitive exclusion

Question 12.
Vector for malarial parasite is
1. Inoculation
2. Mosquito
3. Monkey
4. Pig
Answer:
2. Mosquito

Question 13.
Lice on humans and ticks on dogs are examples for
1. Ectoparasites
2. Endoparasites
3. Brood parasites
4. Hyperparasites
Answer:
1. Ectoparasites

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 14.
Parasites that live inside the host’s body are known as
1. Ectoparasites
2. Endoparasites
3. Brood parasites
4. Superparasites
Answer:
2. Endoparasites

Question 15.
The interaction between sea anemone and clown fish is
1. Prediction
2. Parasitism
3. Commensalism
4. Mutualism
Answer:
3. Commensalism

Question 16.
Pollination and dispersal of seeds of plants by animals is an example of
1. Mutualism
2. Commensalism
3. Ectoparasition
4. Predation
Answer:
1. Mutualism

Question 17.
Flowers of fig plant are pollinated by
1. Honeybee
2. Hummingbird
3. Wasp
4. Cricket
Answer:
3. Wasp

Question 8.
Pollinators of orchid flowers are
1. Bees and Bumblebees
2. Butterflies and wasps
3. Wasps
4. Honey bee and cricket
Answer:
1. Bees and Bumblebees

Question 19.
The functional unit of nature is
1. Ecosystem
2. Autecology
3. Synecology
4. Biosphere
Answer:
1. Ecosystem

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 20.
The basis for the identification of three aquatic ecosystems is
1. Salinity
2. Temperature
3. Pressure
4. dissolved oxygen
Answer:
1. Salinity

Question 21.
The largest ecosystem is
1. Estuarine
2. Marine
3. Fresh water
4. Lake ecosystem
Answer:
2. Marine

Question 22.
When river joins the sea, the area is called
1. Marine
2. Fresh water
3. Estuary
4. Lake
Answer:
3. Estuary

Question 23.
The smallest aquatic ecosystem is
1. Fresh water ecosystem
2. Estuarine ecosystem
3. Marine ecosystem
4. Brackish water ecosystem
Answer:
1. Fresh water ecosystem

Question 24.
In deep lakes light, cannot penetrate beyond
1. 100 meters
2. 200 meters
3. 50 meters
4. 10 meters
Answer:
2. 200 meters

Question 25.
The structural components of an ecosystem are
1. Biotic and abiotic factors
2. Energy flow
3. Cycling of nutrients
4. Food chains
Answer:
1. Biotic and abiotic factors

Question 26.
The functional components of an ecosystem are
1. Abiotic factors
2. Decomposers
3. Biotic factors
4. Energy flow
Answer:
4. Energy flow

Question 27.
Animals eat other animals, which can eat plants or plant products are
1. Primary consumers
2. Secondary consumers
3. Herbivores
4. Tertiary consumers
Answer:
2. Secondary consumers

Question 28.
Which of the following Is a predatory food chain?
1. Parasitic food chain
2. Grazing food chain
3. Detritus food chain
4. Linear food chain
Answer:
2. Grazing food chain

Question 29.
In a predatory feed’chain, tiger represent
1. Primary carnivores
2. Tertiary consumers
3. Secondary consumers
4. Primary consumers
Answer:
2. Tertiary consumers

Question 30.
A food web is made up of
1. Three food chains with un-interconnected net-work
2. Many food chains and with interconnection net-work
3. A single food chain
4. Two food chains belong to grazing and detritus food chains
Answer:
2. Many food chains and with interconnection net-work

Question 31.
The sun Is not the source of energy for
1. Agriculture ecosystem
2. Tundra ecosystem
3. Terrestrial ecosystem
4. Hydrothermal ecosystem
Answer:
4. Hydrothermal ecosystem

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 32.
Energy may transform from one form to the other obeys
1. Solar energy
2. Second law of thermodynamics
3. First law of themodynamics
4. Energy flow
Answer:
3. First law of themodynamics

Question 33.
The energy which is lost or not available for work in an ecosystem is called
1. Entropy
2. Canopy
3. Atrophy
4. Isolated energy
Answer:
1. Entropy

Question 34.
The rate of production of biomass is called
1. Productivity
2. Body mass
3. Standing crop
4. Primary productivity
Answer:
1. Productivity

Question 35.
The inverted pyramid is not seen in
1, All ecosystems
2. Pyramid of biomass in sea
3. Pyramid of numbers in parasitic food chain
4. Pyramid of energy in all ecosystems
Answer:
4. Pyramid of energy in all ecosystems

Question 36.
Denitrification involves the conversion of
1. Nitrites into nitrates
2. Nitrates into nitrogen
3. Organic nitrogen into ammonia
4. Nitrogen to nitrogen oxides
Answer:
2. Nitrates into nitrogen

Question 37.
Many animals need large quantities of phosphorus to make
1. Muscles
2. Skin
3. Teeth
4. Hormones
Answer:
3. Teeth

Question 38.
One of the following is an example for population is
1. Bacteria on a culture plate
2. Teakwood tree in a forest
3. Frog living in a lake
4. Rat in a abandoned dwelling
Answer:
1. Bacteria on a culture plate

Question 39.
The organism that breeds once in its life time is
1. Salamander
2. Vulture
3. Penguin
4. Pacific Salmon fish
Answer:
4. Pacific Salmon fish

Question 40.
Life cannot exist on the earth without
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxygen
3. Sunlight
4. Water
Answer:
2. Oxygen

Question 41.
Acid rains are caused by
1. Nitrogen oxides only
2. SO2 and Nitrogen oxides
3. Ammonia&Sulphur dioxide
4. SO2
Answer:
2. SO2 and Nitrogen oxides

Question 42.
Corrosion of buildings and monuments is due to the harmful effects of
1. Acidification of soils
2. SO2
3. Acid rains
4. Alkalinity of water
Answer:
3. Acid rains

Question 43.
The air pollutant that has greater affinity for haemoglobin is
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Sulphur dioxide
3. Carbon monoxide
4. Oxygen
Answer:
3. Carbon monoxide

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 44.
The colloidal particles dispersed in a gas are called
1. Gasoline
2. Admixture of aero particles
3. Aerosols
4. Charged particles
Answer:
3. Aerosols

Question 45.
Undesirable high sound constitutes Noise pollution, if it crosses the limit of
1. Above 130 dB
2. Above 150 dB
3. Above 120 dB
4. In between 90 dB to 100 dB
Answer:
3. Above 120 dB

Question 46.
One of the heavy common metals discharged from industrial effluents is
1. Carbon
2. Cobalt
3. Chromium
4. Iron
Answer:
3. Chromium

Question 47.
The most harmful pollutant is
1. Nuclear waste
2. Hospital wastes
3. Electronic wastes
4. Nitrogen oxide
Answer:
1. Nuclear waste

Question 48.
The term ’ecology’ was first used by
1. Huxley
2. Haeckel
3. Odum
4. Lancaster
Answer:
2. Haeckel

Question 49.
Synecology is the study of
1. single species
2. abiotic environment
3. group of species
4. ecological reaction
Answer:
3. group of species

Question 50.
A community is defined as
1. interacting populations
2. a group of birds
3. an interactive ecosystem
4. a collection of species
Answer:
1. interacting populations

Question 51.
Movement of organisms towards or away from source of light is called
1. Photoperiodism
2. Phototropism
3. Phototaxis
4. Phota kinesis
Answer:
3. Phototaxis

Question 52.
The formation of layers in water of temperate lakes due to temperature is
1. Summer Stratification
2. Winter Stratification
3. Spring Stratification
4. Thermal Stratification
Answer:
4. Thermal Stratification

Question 53.
Which of the following exhibits catadromous migration
1. Hilsa
2. Anguilla
3. Salmon
4. Protopterus
Answer:
2. Anguilla

AP Inter 1st Year Zoology Important Questions Chapter 8 Ecology and Environment

Question 54.
The interaction in nature, where one gets benefit on the expense of other is
1. predation
2. mutualism
3. amensalism
4. commensalism
Answer:
1. predation

Question 55.
Competition of species leads to
1. extinction
2. mutation
3. ammensalism
4. symbiosis
Answer:
1. extinction

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

Telangana SCERT 7th Class English Guide Pdf Telangana Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees Textbook Questions and Answers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
What do you think is the main reason for the tiger’s attack on Har Singh ?
Answer:
Har Singh fired at jungle fowl that rose cackling out of the dense scrub. The tiger got angry and attacked on him.

Question 2.
What kind of a person was the doctor ? Justify your answer.
Answer:
The doctor was very kind, dedicated and devoted person in his profession. Even though it was a night time, he sewed the stomach of Har Singh in a lantern light. Moreover he was not greedy. When Kunwar Singh offered him two rupees, he declined it. He thought “Service to humanity is service to God.”

Question 3.
What would you do if you were in the narrator’s place when the tiger attacked Har Singh? Do you think that it is appropriate to give an eight year old a gun?
Answer:
If I were in the narrator’s place, I would shoot the tiger and kill it. I would stop the tiger from attacking Har Singh. I would teach Har Singh to climb trees.

I don’t think it is appropriate to give an eight year old a gun. He is not mature enough to use it. He would not know exactly when to use it.

Question 4.
What do you think the narrator wants to convey through this story ?
Answer:
The narrator wants to convey the idea of learning the skill of climbing trees
since childhood. Whenever any person goes to jungle for shooting, this skill saves him. Otherwise, he will have to face the problem like Har Singh.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

Learn How to Climb Trees Summary in English

When I was given a gun for the first time, Kunwar Singh came to me and told me that I should learn to climb trees. That would help me in the forests. He told me a story about the importance of learning to climb trees in the following way.

Har Singh and I went for hunting. But as we could not find any animal we returned. While returning through a nullah, we faced a tiger. As we stood still, he went away. On seeing the tiger birds flew away. One bird sat on a branch. Har Singh shot at it. At that time, the tiger came roaring and attacked Har Singh. I climbed up a tree but Har Singh did not know how to climb a tree. I shot my gun into the air.

The tiger ran away. I came down and saw Har Singh’s stomach. It was tom and the intestines came out. I thrust the intestines into his stomach and tied his stomach with my turban. On the way, we went to a doctor who sewed his stomach. As we reached home the women were crying.

Glossary:

paling (v) = appearing less bright
nullah (n) = a water course, especially a dry one
scrub (n) = an area of dry land covered with small bushes and trees.
scrub (v) = the act of rubbing hard in order to clean some surface
cackling (v) = making a loud unpleasent noise
collapse (v) = to fall down suddenly because of loss of strength or support
sew (v) = to join two pieces of cloth together using a needle and thread
frighten (v) = to cause a feeling of fear
grasp (v) = to catch or hold of something
visit = see
provided = if
stared = looked at seriously
terrifying = fearful
sprang = leaped
knitted = tied

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

Self Assessment:

How well have I understood this unit?

Read and tick (✓) in the appropriate box.

TS 7th Class English Guide 6C Learn How to Climb Trees 1

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

Section – A : Reading Comprehension

Pleasc also practise additional exercises given from P.No. 228 to 240

(Questions 1 -10) : Read the following passage from “A Hero”.

Swami was pained and angry. He did not like the cruelty his father was showing. He cursed the newspaper that had printed the tiger’s story. He wished that the tiger had not spared the boy.

The night advanced and the silence in the house deepened. Swami’s heart began to beat faster. He remembered all the stories of devils and ghosts he had heard. He was almost faint with fear.

Swami hurriedly got up and spread his bed under the bench and crouched there. It seemed to be a much safer place. He shut his eyes tight and encased himself in his blanket. Unknown to himself, Swami fell asleep. In his sleep he had a terrible dream.

A tiger was chasing him.Swami tried hard to escape but his feet could not move. He tried to open his eyes but his eyelids would not open. He groaned in despair.

(1 – 5) Now answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5 M

Question 1.
Swami was angry because ………………… ( )
A) he became a laughing – stock in school
B) his father complained to his teacher
C) his father threatened to make him a laughing stock if he didnot sleep alone.
D) the tiger’s story was printed in the news paper.
Answer:
C) his father threatened to make him a laughing stock if he didnot sleep alone

Question 2.
Swami was ( )
A) sound asleep
B) sleeping alone
C) waiting for the thief
D) cursing his father
Answer:
B) sleeping alone

Question 3.
Swami saw a ……………… in his dream ( )
A) tiger
B) thief
C) ghost
D) person
Answer:
A) tiger

Question 4.
Swami found the place ………………. to be a much safer place. ( )
A) beside his grandma
B) beside his father
C) in his father’s office
D) under the bench
Answer:
D) under the bench

Question 5.
Swami cursed the tiger’s story because ( )
A) the tiger was chasing him
B) his father wanted Swami to be brave after reading that story
C) he got the dream of a tiger
D) the tiger wounded him
Answer:
B) his father wanted Swami to be brave after reading that story.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

(6 – 10) Answer the following questions in two or three sentences each. 5 × 2 = 10 M

Question 6.
What did father want Swami to do ?
Answer:
Father wanted Swami to steep alone in his office room.

Question 7.
From when did Swami promise to sleep alone ?
Answer:
Swami promised to sleep alone from the 1st of next month.

Question 8.
Why did Swami groan in despair ?
Answer:
Swami saw a tiger chasing him in his dream. He tried hard to escape but his feet could not move. So he groaned in despair.

Question 9.
Why was the burglar have a bleeding knee?
Answer:
Swami clutched the leg of the burglar and bit him hard, so the burglar had a bleeding knee.

Question 10.
Why didn’t Swami’s mother want him to sleep alone again ?
Answer:
Swami’s mother didnot want to risk his life so she didnot want him to sleep alone.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

(Questions 11 – 16) : Read the following Passage.

Weight-loss clinics have become big business in India because ninety percent of affluent city Indians are overweight for the simple reason – they constantly overeat foods like wafers, pastries, chocolates and burgers, samosas, icecreams. But what really amazes me is that overweight Indians have no awareness of calorie intake or calorie burning. How can they slim down when they don’t know what made them fat in the first place ?

Ironically, it is the poor people who are slim and muscular in India. People like labourers, plumbers, electricians and carpenters, unlike in the west where the working class tend to be overweight while the rich are lean.

Actually there is a simple trick to staying slim. Don’t keep fattening foods at home. Don’t keep wafers, biscuits, chocolates, pastries or cold cuts like ham salaami or sausages. Instead keep lots of seasonal fruits like guavas, apples, oranges or annar and salads like tomatoes, cucumbers and carrots. That way you don’t eat fattening food even when you want to because it isn’t available. You will be forced to eat fruits and salads which fill the stomach and give the few calories needed.

(11 – 12) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 2 × 1 = 2 M

Question 11.
It is difficult to slim down in India because ( )
A) people don’t eat apples and oranges.
B) they donot know what food made them fat.
C) they don’t do any exercise
D) there are fewer weight loss clinics.
Answer:
B) they donot know what food made them fat.

Question 12.
The simple trick for staying slim is ( )
A) keeping fattening food at home but not eating them.
B) eating only biscuits and not eating chocolates
C) keeping a record of the calories we take in
D) not keeping fattening food at home
Answer:
D) not keeping fattening food at home

Answer the questions in two or three sentences each. 4 × 2 = 8M

Question 13.
Eating what types of food causes over weight ?
Answer:
Eating wafers, biscuits, chocolates, pastries, ham salads or sausages causes overweight.

Question 14.
What vegetables should be eaten to stay slim ?
Answer:
Salads like tomatoes, cucumber, carrots should be eaten to stay slim.

Question 15.
How do fruits and vegetables help us ?
Answer:
Fruits and vegetables fill our stomach and give the few calories needed.

Question 16.
How are the people of working class in the west ?
Answer:
In the west the working class are over weight while the rich are lean.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

Section – B : Vocabulary & Grammar

Read the following passage focussing on the parts that are underlined and answer the questions given at the end. Write the answers in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5M

Ravi : My neighbours play very loud (17) music, which disturbs me when I’m studying.
Mohan : Why don’t you try persuading (18) them to turn down the volume?
Shiela : It that doesn’t work you could think of changing your study time.
Rahim : Why should Ravi have to do that? He really ought to report such anti – social behaviour to the police.
Shiela : Before taking drastic action like that, I would advise you to sort it out (19) amicably (20) with your neighbours.
Rahim : If I were you. I would play my music even louder ! (21)
Mohan : That won’t solve his problem. Ravi, I think you should ask your father to take it up with your neighbours.

Question 17.
Choose an appropriate antonym of loud from the given options. ( )
A) melodious
B) quite
C) quiet
D) noisy
Answer:
C) quiet

Question 18.
Choose an appropriate synonym for ‘persuading’ from the given options.( )
A) convincing
B) ordering
C) commanding
D) begging
Answer:
A) convincing

Question 19.
The phrasal verb ‘sort out’ in the expression ‘sort it out’ means. ( )
A) to check something.
B) to keep something somewhere.
C) to touch something
D) to arrange something in an order
Answer:
D) to arrange something in an order

Question 20.
The meaning of amicably’ ( )
A) hatefully
B) hopefully
C) friendly
D) nicely
Answer:
C) friendly

Question 21.
The underlined expression is ( )
A) an advice
B) a request
C) a command
D) a suggestion
Answer:
A) an advice

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

(Q. 22 – 26) Complete the following passage choosing right words from those given below it. Each blank is numbered, and for each blank four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5M

The holy city of Varanasi stands as ………………… (22) evidence for how the people are ………………… (23) and destroying the environment. We, the human beings cause all kinds of pollution ………………… (24) the earth. In one way we are destroying ………………… (25) and our future generations. The Ganga river is one of the fewer rivers in India that ………………… (26) rich in water resources.

Question 22.
A) a
B) an
C) the
D)such
Answer:
B) an

Question 23.
A) polluting
B) pollute
C) polluted
D) pollution
Answer:
A) polluting

Question 24.
A) in
B) at
C) on
D) to
Answer:
C) on

Question 25.
A) ourself
B) themself
C) themselves
D) ourselves
Answer:
D) ourselves

Question 26.
A) are
B) is
C) was
D) were
Answer:
A) are

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

(Q. 27 – 31) Read the following passage. Five sentences are numbered. Each numbered sentence has an error. Find the error and write the correct answer in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5 M

(27) At last, using utmost effort he open his eyes. (28) He puted his hand out to feel his grany’s presence, as was his habit. (29) But he only touched the wood leg of the bench. (30) At once his lone state came back to him. (31) He shaked in fear and closed his eyes.
Answer:
27. opened his eyes
28. He put
29. the wooden leg
30. his lonely state
31. He shook in fear

Section – C : Conventions of Writing

(Q. 32) Read the following passage carefully and supply the punctuation marks (., ? ” “) and capital letters, wherever necessary. Also correct the spelling of the underlined word. 5M

Raman was equally delited. excellent news he said, smiling at the visitor and then he was lost in thought. But look here krishnan he said turning to the young man.
Answer:
Raman was equally delighted, “Excellent news,” he said, smiling at the visitor and then he was lost in thought. “But look here Krishnan,” he said, turning to the young man.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

Section – D : Creative Writing

Question 33 – 12 M

A) In the lesson “A Hero’ Swami caught a thief by biting on his leg. The principal of Swami’s school decides to write a news report for the school daily in order to encourage other students. Imagine you are the principal. Write a news report on the above incident.
Answer:

A brave heart catches a notorious house – breaker

Enmalkuduru, August 19, 20xx :

A young lad of 9 to 10 years studying in class IV in our school makes the whole family and the school proud by nabbing a notarious house – breaker. The boy who was sleeping in his father’s office room, heard a rustling noise in the room. On seeing someone moving in darkness he held the person by his leg and bit him hard. The boy, from the movement of the person, had understood that he was not an inmate of the house. He observed the movements carefully and suspecting him to be an outsider or a thief.

He immediately decided to take an action. On being bitten, the thief fell amidst the furniture making aloud noise and waking everyone up. The elders in the house then rushed into the room and caught the thief. The police was called in immediately and the burglar was handed over. The police was grateful to the boy for nabbing the burglar as he was a wanted criminal. A 4th class student thus saved his house from being robbed and at the same time discharged his social responsibility.

Principal
XYZ School.

Question 34 :
Write a story using the given hints. 8 M

Winter – cold nights – Akbar – near pond people do anything for money says Birbal – Akbar – challenge – stand in pond – full night – gold coins – poor Brahmin – stands – looking at – Akbar’s lamp in palace – next day – Akbar – got heat from lamp – refused award.
Answer:
Once in chilled winter when the nights were very cold, Akbar and Birbal were standing near a pond. Akbar and Birbal had a conversation and Birbal exclaimed that people can do anything for money. Akbar disagreed and challenged Birbal if any one could stand in the cold pond the whole night and risk his life. Birbal said that people would. Akbar announced a bag of coins of gold as reward.

The next day a poor Brahmin agreed to stand in the pond. He spent the whole night in the pond and went to Akbar’s court for reward. Akbar asked him how he could manage the whole night. The Brahmin replied that he kept staring at the lamp lit in the palace. Akbar immediately responded that the Brahmin didnot deserve the reward as he acquired heat from the lamp in his palace. The poor, helpless, Brahmin went home disheartened.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

Additional Exercises:

Section – A : Reading Comprehension

Questions 1 – 10:

1. Read the following poem.

My plane was just about to crash.
So, I grabbed my bag and
Took out my big blue parachute
to glide me down and land.
At last, I found a spot to land.
But there was a big breeze
And so, I had to painfully
land on these sharp pine trees
I was then filled with bruises as
a pine fell on my ear.

(1 – 5) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The poet took out the parachute to ( )
A) glide down and land
B) to practice sky – diving
C) to collect pine
D) for a wonderful experience
Answer:
A) glide down and land

Question 2.
What caused bruises on the poet’s body ? ( )
A) the big breeze
B) a pine
C) the big blue parachute
D) the pine tree
Answer:
B) a pine

Question 3.
The poet had to land in a hurry because ( )
A) there was a big breeze
B) he grabbed his parachute
C) the plane was about to crash
D) his bag was too big to carry
Answer:
C) the plane was about to crash

Question 4.
The word ‘bruise’ means ( )
A) be drunk
B) purple mark of wound
C) clear profile of a person
D) pricks on the body
Answer:
B) purple mark of wound

Question 5.
The poet finally had a ……….. landing. ( )
A) adventurous
B) safe
C) painful
D) dangerous
Answer:
C) painful

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

(6 – 10) Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.

Question 6.
What tickled the poet’s body ?
Answer:
Bugs crept all over the poet’s body and tickled him.

Question 7.
Was the poet’s adventure real ? What tells this ?
Answer:
No, the poets adventure was a dream. He woke up scratching and went to school.

Question 8.
Why did the poet appear like a fool ?
Answer:
The poet appeared like a fool because the mosquitoes and bugs crept on him and bit him in his dream but he thought that it was real and he woke up scratching.

Question 9.
What awful experiences did the poet have ?
Answer:
The poet fell in sharp pine trees and had bruises as a pine fell on his ear.
A thorn poked him, mosquitoes bit his nose and bugs crept all over his body.

Question 10.
Pick the pairs of rhyming words in the poem.
Answer:
breeze – trees, fool – school, and – land.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

2. Read the following passage.

Har Singh and I went to shoot one day last April. We started when the stars were paling. Since we found nothing to shoot, we started for home towards evening. While we were taking a sandy nullah that ran through dense scrub and thorn-bamboo jungle, a tiger was looking at us. It stared at us for some time but went back.
We continued on our way and the tiger came out again and it was growling and twitching its tail. We stood still and luckily, the tiger left the nullah. Being disturbed by the tiger, a number of jungle fowl rose cackling out of the dense scrub. One of them alighted on a branch and Har Singh fired at it.

(1-5) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The writer went to the forest at ( )
A) dawn
B) dusk
C) noon
D) mid night
Answer:
A) dawn

Question 2.
The fowl cackled because …………………… ( )
A) Har Singh shot at it
B) they were disturbed by a tiger
C) one of them alighted on a branch
D) the nullah was sandy
Answer:
B) they were disturbed by a tiger

Question 3.
Har Singh fired at …………….. ( )
A) the tiger
B) Jim Corbett
C) a bird
D) a branch
Answer:
C) a bird

Question 4.
The 2nd time the tiger ……………… ( )
A) growled and twitched its tail
B) stood still
C) stared at Har Singh and the narrator
D) attacked Har Singh.
Answer:
A) growled and twitched its tail

Question 5.
The above text is ( )
A) a biography
B) fiction
C) autobiography
D) one act play
Answer:
C) autobiography

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

(6 – 10) Answer the following questions in one or two sentences each.

Question 6.
How did Jim Corbett escape from the tiger ?
Answer:
Jim Corbett climbed up a rum tree and escaped from the tiger.

Question 7.
How did the narrator chase the tiger away ?
Answer:
The narrator fired a shot off into the air from his gun and drove the tiger away.

Question 8.
Why do you think the tiger attacked them ?
Answer:
Har Singh fired at a fowl sitting on a branch. The gun shot must have angered the tiger so he attacked them.

Question 9.
How deeply was Har Singh wounded ?
Answer:
One of the tigers claws had entered Har singh’s stomach and torn it from the navel to a few fingers beneath the back bone. All his intestines had come out of the stomach and fallen on the ground.

Question 10.
What did the doctor do to Har Singh ?
Answer:
The doctor rewed up the hole in Har Singhs stomach.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

3. Read the following passage.

There was once a healthy, attractive young girl named Persephone. She lived with her mother, Demeter, in warm Sicily, Demeter was the powerful Goddess of all growing things, especially plants people use for food. One day Persephone went out into the fields with some of her friends to pick flowers.

Suddenly the earth shook and a large opening appeared. A chariot drawn by two jet black stallions and driven by a man with fearsome features emerged. The frightening figure leaped towards Persephone, grabbed her by the wrist, and dragged her into the chariot.

Persephone called for help and struggled to free herself, but she could not. Within seconds, he had borne her away through the abyss into the earth. He was Hades, king of the underworld. He had heard of Persephone’s great beauty and had come to take her for his bride. Too late, Demeter heard her daughter’s cries and rushed to save her. For days and months she wandered over the earth searching for Persephone. Finally, the Sun told her that Persephone had been taken to the world of the dead, the world beneath the earth.

Demeter was in despair. She neglected her duties and soon the green, fertile land became brown, frozen, and lifeless. She vowed that the earth would never have green plants, trees and grain until her daughter returned to her.

(11 – 12) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 11.
Who came out of the large opening in the earth? ( )
A) Persephone
B) Demeter
C) Hades
D) Sicily
Answer:
C) Hades

Question 12.
She neglected her duties – who is she ? ( )
A) Persephone
B) Demeter
C) the Sun God
D) Hades
Answer:
B) Demeter

(13 – 16) Answer the following questions in one or two sentences in your own words.

Question 13.
Where was Persephone taken ?
Answer:
Persephone was taken to the world of the dead, the world beneath the earth.

Question 14.
Why did Persephone go out into the fields ?
Answer:
Persephone went out into the fields to pick flowers.

Question 15.
What happened when Demeter was in despair ?
Answer:
When Demeter was in despair, she neglected her duties which made the green fertile land – brown, frozen and lifeless.

Question 16.
Why didn’t Demeter come to save her daughter immediately ?
Answer:
It was too late by the time Demeter heard her daughters cries so she couldn’t come immediately to save her daughter.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

4. We first became aware that something unusual was happening when one of the ship’s officers came up to the Chief Engineer, who sat at one table and spoke to him on a low voice. The Chief Engineer at once stood up and with a brief excuse which told us nothing, left the dinning room. At first we thought that there had been an accident or that afire had broken out on board ship, but soon the word went round that a man had been floating in the sea.

Then we noticed that the ship had slowed down and was beginning to turn round, with a rather violent motion. Some of the passengers did not wait to finish their meal, but at once rushed upon deck. Others crowded round the portholes, making it impossible for us to eat in comfort. There was such confusion in the dining room that we decided to join those who had come up on deck.

We learnt that one of the crew had seen a man in the sea some distance from the ship. He had informed the captain who at once ordered the ship to be turned round. We were now only two hundred yards or so from the man and a life boat had already been lowered into the sea. In it there were four sailors, who were sitting ready at the oars, an officer and the ships doctor. The officer shouted an order and the sailors began to row away the ship.

But looking in the same direction as the boat was going, we were able to make out the position of the man in the water. He was clinging to a large piece of wood. At last, after what seemed to us an age the life boat reached the man and two of the sailors pulled him on the boat.This was not at all easy for the sea was rather ruff. Then the sailors began to row back to the ship again. The life boat was raised out of the water and the rescued man, rapped in a blanket was helped out on the deck.

Leaning on the arm of the ships doctor, but still able to walk, in spite of his terrible experience
he was led off to the ship’s hospital. As he passed along the deck everyone cheered loudly.

(11 – 12) Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 11.
The man in the sea was …………….. ( )
A) a pirate
B) a soldier
C) clinging to a piece of wood
D) shouting for help
Answer:
C) clinging to a piece of wood

Question 12.
The ship was turned round …………… ( )
A) because there was an iceberg on the way
B) a man was seen in the sea
C) the weather was rough
D) there were no life boats
Answer:
B) a man was seen in the sea

(13 – 16) Answer the following questions in one or two sentences in your own words.

Question 13.
How many people were there in the life boat ?
Answer:
There were six people – four sailors, an officer and the ship’s doctor.

Question 14.
Why do you think people cheered the man ?
Answer:
The people cheered the man because he didnot give up. lnspite of the rough weather, he was clinging to the piece of wood and survived.

Question 15.
How was the man helped ?
Answer:
The man was saved from the sea. He was wrapped in a blanket and was taken to the ship’s hospital.

Question 16.
What did the captain do on hearing the news ?
Answer:
On hearing the news the captain ordered the ship to be turned round.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

Section – B : Vocabulary & Grammar

Questions 17 – 21:

Read the following passage focussing on the parts that are underlined and answer the questions given at the end. Write the answers in your answer booklet.

5. Leadership doesnot exist without fellowship. A leader has to be accepted (17) by the group who (18) the former (19) is supposed to lead. To gain accept (20) the leader should cause an emotive impact (21) on the group members.

Question 17.
Choose the antonym of the underlined word. ( )
A) rejected
B) ascent
C) assent
D) descent
Answer:
A) rejected

Question 18.
Choose the correct word. ( )
A) whom
B) who
C) which
D) whose
Answer:
C) which

Question 19.
Choose the antonym of the underlined word. ( )
A) later
B) latter
C) after
D) next
Answer:
B) latter

Question 20.
Choose the correct word. ( )
A) accepting
B) accepted
C) accept
D) acceptance
Answer:
D) acceptance

Question 21.
Choose the synonym of the word. ( )
A) influence
B) dependance
C) fellowship
D) command
Answer:
A) influence

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

6. It wasn’t long before Jonathan Gull was off by himself again, far out at sea, hungry (17), happy, learning, careful (18) as he was, working at the very peak (19) of his able (20), he lost control at a high speed. The key he think (21) at last was to hold the wings still at high speed.

Question 17.
Write the noun form of the word. ( )
A) hungrier
B) hungry
C) hungrily
D) hunger
Answer:
D) hunger

Question 18.
Choose the antonym of the underlined word. ( )
A) carefree
B) careless
C) under care
D) cautions
Answer:
B) careless

Question 19.
Choose the meaning of ‘peak’ ( )
A) mountain top
B) top story
C) nadir
D) highest point
Answer:
D) highest point

Question 20.
Choose the correct form of the word. ( )
A) ably
B) ability
C) ableness
D) disable
Answer:
B) ability

Question 21.
Choose the correct word. ( )
A) taught
B) thinking
C) thought
D) thinked
Answer:
C) thought

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

Questions 22 – 26:

Complete the following passage choosing right words from those given below it. Each blank is numbered, and for each blank four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) are given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. 5 × 1 = 5M

7. __________ (22) a landmark judgement, the supreme court __________ (23) Monday legalized passive euthanasia giving thousands __________ (24) patients __________ (25) in a vegetative state all __________ (26) the country, the right to have artificial support system withdrawn.

Question 22.
A) In
B) As
C) For
D) By
Answer:
B) As

Question 23.
A) in
B) at
C) on
D) by
Answer:
C) on

Question 24.
A) in
B) of
C) by
D) for
Answer:
B) of

Question 25.
A) living
B) live
C) lived
D) life
Answer:
A) living

Question 26.
A) by
B) along
C) over
D) across
Answer:
C) over

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

8. Kites have __________ (22) long and illustrious history, starting perhaps as __________ (23) as 260 BC, when a Chinese general, Han Hsin, used them to overthrow __________ (24) evil emperor. There __________ (25) many versions of the story and one is that Han ordered his men __________ (26) build a kite and fly it over the emperor’s palace.

Question 22.
A) a
B) the
C) some
D) any
Answer:
A) a

Question 23.
A) soon
B) early
C) late
D) before
Answer:
B) early

Question 24.
A) the
B) a
C) an
D) no article
Answer:
C) an

Question 25.
A) has
B) is
C) have
D) are
Answer:
D) are

Question 26.
A) of
B) on
C) to
D) any
Answer:
C) to

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

Questions 27 – 31:

Read the following passage. Five sentences are numbered. Each numbered sentence has an error. Find the error and write the correct answer in your answer booklet.

9. Swami, “Listen to this: (27) News has been receive (28) about the brave of a village lad (29) which was returning home by a jungle path. While he was in the middle of the jungle, (30) he come face to face with a tiger. The news paper gave a detailed account (31) of the boy’s fight of the tiger.
Answer:
27. has been received
28. about the bravery
29. lad who was
30. he came
31. fight with the tiger.

10. Swami looked at Granny (27), hesitated for a movement and then followed his father into the office room. (28) Let me sleeping in the hall, Father.” (29) Swami plead (30) Your office room is very dirt and (31) there may be scorpions behind you law books.
Answer:
27. for a moment
28. let me sleep
29. Swami pleaded
30. room is very dirty
31. behind your law books as

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

Section – C : Conventions of Writing

Question 32:

(Q. 32) Read the following passage carefully and supply the punctuation marks (., ? ” “) and capital letters, wherever necessary. Also correct the spelling of the underlined word.

11. Books and stories with morals appealed to gandhi very much the nobel story of the play Sravana Pitrubhakti was read by him again and again.
Answer:
Books and stories with morals appealed to Gandhi very much. The noble story of the play “Sravana Pitrubhakti” was read by him again and again.

12. fire, fire the shouts reached harry. Who was sleeping in a room, are the shouts real or am I dreeming thought he – when he opened his eyes he was shoked.
Answer:
“Fire, Fire”, the shouts reached Harry, who was sleeping in a room. “Are there shouts real or am I dreaming ?’ thought he. When he opened his eyes, he was shocked.

Section – D : Creative Expression

Question 33.

13. The news that Har Singh was attacked by a tiger spread in the nearby villages. A reporter of a local daily comes to interview Har Singh about the incident.
Imagine you are the reporter, write an interview between Har Singh and the reporter.
Answer:
Reporter : Good morning. I come from the local daily to interview you on the incident that happened.
Har Singb : (groaning in pain) Ah ! Good morning.
Reporter : When did it happen?
Har Singh : It happened last evening whiíe we were returning from the jungle.
Reporter : Was any one else there with you?
Has Singh : Yes, my friend Jim and I were together.
Reporter : Did it even attack your friend?
Har Singh : No, he had climbed a tree, so he is safe.
Reporter : What about you then?
Hay Singh : I dont know to climb trees, so the tiger attacked me.
Reporter : Did you do anything on seeing it?
Hat Singh : No, I didn’t do anything to the tiger but, disturbed by the tiger, a number of jungle fowl rose cackling out of the dense scrub. I shot at one which flew on a branch.
Reporter : Oh, so the gun shot must have irked the tiger.
Har Singh : Might be.
Reoorter : How deep is the wound?
Har Singh : (Showing the stitches) The cut was very deep. All the intestines had come out.
Reporter : How did you manage then?
Har Singh : My friend tied his turban around my stomach and helped me to a doctor.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

(OR)
14. When Swami’s father asks him to sleep alone, Swami goes to his mother and tries to explain to his mother that he cannot sleep alone. He gives various excuses in order not to sleep alone.
Write an imaginary conversation between Swami and his mother.
Answer:
Mother : What’s the matter Swami, you look sad.
Swami : Mom, I don’t want to sleep alone.
Mother : But you are a grown up chíld now, Swami, you should learn to be independent.
Swami : But none of my classmates sleep alone. They sleep either with their parents or with their grand parents.
Mother : Is it? You know it seems father started sleeping alone right from his 2nd class.
Swami : May be, dad is really brave but I am not that brave.
Mother : Why do you think so?
Swami : I sometimes get terrible dreams. As if a ghost wants to catch me.
Mother : Really, what do you do then?
Swami : I wake granny up. She puts her hand on me and I sleep then.
Mother : You know, you need not wake granny up. There are no ghosts or devils. It is only your fear.
Swami : But mom, why don’t you understand?
Mother : Okay! I shall see what I can do.
Swami : Thank you mom.

Question 34:

15. You visited the zoo last week. Write a diary entry in about 50 words about your experience.
Answer:
Friday, Date : XX.XX.XXXX 9.30 p.m.

Last week my friend and I went to the Nehru Zoological Park in Hyderabad. It was a kind of picnic for us. We saw various birds and animals. They looked lovely. The monkeys from Africa gave us delight with their feats. We saw lions, tigers, blue bulls, reptiles. However, they looked sad in their enclosures. I felt sad for them and for their loss of their liberty.

Ramana

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6C Learn How to Climb Trees

16. Here is a bio-sketch of Karanam Malleswari. Prepare a profile of her.

Mrs. Karanam Malleswari was born on 01 – 06 -1975. Her height was 158 cm / 5′ 2″. She represented Andhra Pradesh. She was associated with Women’s Weight Lifting. Her first entry was in National Junior Weight Lifting Championship. Her best career was in Asian Games 1998, Bangkok, Silver – 63kg. Her hobbies are watching films, playing cricket. She won 11 Gold, 3 Silver + Olympic Bronze apart from Padma Sri in 1999.
Answer:
Name : Mrs. Karanam Malleswari
Date of Birth : 01 – 06 – 1975
Height : 158 cm / 5’ 2”
State /Team she represented : Andhra Pradesh
Sports / Game she is associated with : Women’s Weight Lifting
Debut (first entry) : National Junior Weight Lifting Championship
Best in the career : Asian Games 1998 Bangkok – Silver – 63kg
Hobbies : Watching films, Playing cricket
Awards / Medals received : 11 Gold, 3 Silver + Olympic Bronze, Padma Sri – 1999.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6B My Nasty Adventure

Telangana SCERT 7th Class English Guide Pdf Telangana Unit 6B My Nasty Adventure Textbook Questions and Answers.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6B My Nasty Adventure

Read the following poem :

My plane was just about to crash.
So, I grabbed my bad and
Took out my big blue parachute
to glide me down and land.
At last, I found a spot to land.
But there was a big breeze.
And so, I had to painfully
land on these sharp pine trees.
I was then filled with bruises as
a pine fell on my ear.
I sat down on the ground to rest.
A thorn then poked me.
I slept on the ground frantically.
Mosquitoes bit my nose.
Bugs crept all over me
and tickled my body.
I scratched myself when I woke up,
appearing like a fool.
And after the whole thing I thought
I’d rather go to school.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6B My Nasty Adventure

I. Answer the following questions :

Question 1.
Who do you think is the speaker in the poem ?
Answer:
I think the speaker in the poem is a school going boy. By quoting the lines of the poem “And after the whole thing I thought I’d rather go to school”. I confirm that he is a school going boy.

Question 2.
Which line in the poem suggests that the speaker was only dreaming ?
Answer:
“I scratched myself when I woke up”, “Appearing like a fool”. The above lines
in the poem depict that the speaker was only dreaming. When he woke up, he still scratching his body. He felt that he was like a fool.

Question 3.
Why did the speaker feel like a fool ?
Answer:
He got tickling sensation in his dream. He began scratching his body and woke up. After waking up also, he still scratching his body. So, he feels like a fool.

Question 4.
What did the speaker finally want to do ?
Answer:
The speaker finally wanted to go to school. He felt that he had better go to school rather than dreaming nasty adventures which causes a havoc.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6B My Nasty Adventure

Question 5.
Have you ever experienced any adventure in your life ? If yes, share it with your classmates.
Answer:
Yes, I have experienced one adventure when I was going to my fields. My fields were nearby the small forest. One day I went to field with my uncle to watch the yielded crop. In the middle of the night I was suddenly awaken by a growling sound. I realised that it was a leopard. Immediately I lit the torch and focussed the light into its eyes. It ran away.

Question 6.
Do you think the title ‘My Nasty Adventure’ is suitable for this poem ? Give reasons. Give your own title and tell the class why you have chosen it.
Answer:
Yes, The title “My Nasty Adventure” is suitable for this poem, because the boy dreamt a nasty experience. He couldn’t reach the ground with his para¬chute. His body was scratched by pine thorns. So, the title was apt.

Question 7.
Why is the poem titled ‘My Nasty Adventure’ ?
Answer:
The poem is titled “My Nasty Adventure’ because, the boy faced a terrific adventure. As the plane was about to crash, he jumped out with a parachute. He wanted to land on the ground. As the wind blows, he had fallen on the pine. He wanted to lay on the ground. Bugs tickled him. So, it was a nasty adventure.

Question 8.
List all the rhyming words in the poem.
Answer:
thorn – on trees – bruises tickled – scratched

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6B My Nasty Adventure

II. Add lines to the following poem, write it on a sheet of paper, and display it in the poetry corner.
My boat was about to sink ……………..
I had a lot to think
………………………………………………..
How can I be in pink ?
So I had a lot to think.
Answer:
My boat was about to sink
I had a lot to think
Slowly was entering water
A situation to me rare
Yet, I am not afraid
For, my nature is not of coward,
How can I be in pink
So, I had a lot to think.

PROJECT:

Go to a nearby library and collect stories of adventure from the newspapers, magazines and story books. Narrate one of them to the members of your group. Paste a good story with pictures on the wall magazine.
Answer:
On September 4, 2010 Om Prakash, a student of VII Class, the son of a Uttar Pradesh farmer, was going to school along with other students in a Maruthi Van. But all of sudden, the van caught fire because of short circuit in its gas. The driver immediately opened his door and fled, but not Om Prakash. He broke open the van door and pulled out the others caring little about the flames that had spread to his face, back and arms. He saved eight children. For his bravery, he has won “Sanjan Chopra Award”.

TS 7th Class English Guide Unit 6B My Nasty Adventure

 

My Nasty Adventure Summary in English

When my plane was about to crash, I took my bag and parachute and found a place to land. But I landed on pine trees and one tree fell on my ear. A thorn also pricked me. Mosquitoes and bugs troubled me. I scratched my body and wanted to go to school.

Glossary:

crash (v) = a violent incident
Usage : A jet liner with 130 passengers and 7 members crew crashed in the Atlantic Ocean.

bruises = dark marks left on the skin when one has been hit
Usage : The tyre of my car burst on the way.

breeze (n) = a gentle wind
Usage : When the breeze blows the flowers toss their heads.

poked (v) = to pushed a pointed object into something or someone.
Usage : She poked my elbow with her pen.

frantically = very anxiously
Usage : He made efforts frantically to trace his missing child.

bugs = small insects
Usage : Don’t tease like a bug.

tickled = touched lightly in a sensitive part of the body causing laughter
Usage : He tickled the child into laughter and enjoyed the fun.

scratch = to cut or damage a surface with something sharp or rough
Usage : He scratched the surface with a sharp blade.

grabbed = Caught at once
Usage : When the thief tried to put his hand in my pocket, I grabbed it.

glide = come down slowly
Usage : We can easily glide on the ice.