AP State Important Questions

These AP 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social 12th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Sustainable Development with Equity

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. How does the Green Revolution lead to an increase in food grains?
Answer:

1. Use of high yielding varieties.
2. Improvement of irrigational facilities.
3. Use of new methods of cultivation.
4. Use of pesticides and fertilisers.

Question 2.
What is the main theme of Rachel Carson’s book ‘Silent Spring’?
Answer:
The impact on birds and human beings of spraying DDT for mosquito control.

Question 3.
What is the aim of Chipko movement?
Answer:
The main aim of Chipko Movement is to protect forests.

Question 4.
Write any two slogans on the environmental protection.
Answer:

1. Save the environment, save life.
2. Save the nature to save the future.
3. Go green and eliminate the global warming.

Question 5.
Write one main characteristic of organic farming.
Answer:
In organic farming the farmers use local resources including on-farm biological processes. Pest predators available them. Micro-organisms which make nutrients more accessible to the plants. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides are not used only for animal manure.

Question 6.
What is HDI as a measure of development?
Answer:
As a measure of development, HDI is an improvement over GDP and per capita income.

Question 7.
Which expands the meaning of development?
Answer:
HDI expands the meaning of development to include social indicators of education and health.

Question 8.
Which are central to the production process?
Answer:
Many naturally existing substances like land, water, minerals and ores, products from trees and animals are central to the production
process.

Question 9.
What does the overuse of ground water imply?
Answer:
Over use of ground water implies that the stock of groundwater is being depleted. Very rapidly the ground water has been falling to lower and lower levels.

Question 10.
Which are central to modern development?
Answer:
Irrigation and power have been produced and both are central to modern development.

Question 11.
What is called NBA?
A. The resistance to Sardar Sarovar and other
dams with similar consequences in the Narmada valley has taken the form of a social movement. It is called Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA).

Question 12.
“It is unjust to ask the poor people”
What is it?
Answer:
We have several thousands of communities living off the environment. To destroy the environment means to destroy these communities. It is unjust to ask poor people to bear the cost of development.

Question 13.
Which governments banned chemical fertilizers and pesticides?
Answer:
The Sikkim government and Uttarakhand government.

Question 14.
When did the Chipko movement start and where?
Answer:
The Chipko movement started in the early 1970s in the Garhwal Himalayas of Uttarakhand.

Question 15.
Expand HDI.
Answer:
Human Development Index.

Question 16.
What is meant by “Water Recharge”?
Answer:
Water Recharge means the percolation of water into the ground to be extracted.

Question 17.
Write about Chipko Andolan?
Answer:
Chipko means embrace the villagers hugged the trees saving them interposing their bodies between them and the contractor’s axes.

Question 18.
What are the natural resources to use in production?
Answer:
Natural resources used in production are land, water, and minerals, forests, etc.

Question 19.
What is meant by sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

Question 20.
What are the activities to take up through an alternative Public Distribution System?
Answer:
Alternate PDS advocates the practice of millets, establishment of community grain bank, issue of cards and ensuring food security in the village.

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the table which shows the growth in the extraction of some key-minerals in India.
Answer:
Extraction of minerals in a thousand Tonnes

Minerals	1997-1998	2008-2009
Bauxite	6,108	15,250
Coal	2,97,000	4,93,000
Iron ore	75,723	2,25,544
Chromite	1,515	3,976

After your observation, what do you think about the environmental loss of such rapid growth of mining.

1. Ground water pollution would increase.
2. Temperatures would increase.
3. Air pollution would increase near the mining areas.
4. Water storage capacity would decrease due to soil erosion.
5. Extreme burning of coal leads to ozone depletion.
6. Accidents may occur due to heavy mining.
7. People may face natural calamities like earthquakes.

Question 2.
What is meant by sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development is a development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In other words, a better quality of life for everyone – now and for generations to come.

Question 3.
How does organic farming promote bio-diversity?
Answer:

1. Chemical fertilizers and pesticides are not used in organic farming.
2. Only echo friendly farming techniques are used.
3. Methods like crop rotation, using compost and use of Local resources are used.
4. Number of crops are produced in farms instead of one or two crops.

Question 4.
Write two slogans on enlightening people regarding “environment protection”.
Answer:
Slogans on Environment Protection.

1. Grow plants – Get oxygen
2. Avoid plastic bags – Promote cotton bags.

Question 5.
What are the aspects taken as indicators to measure Human Development?
Answer:
Indicators of development:

1. Per capita income
2. Literacy rate
3. Average years of schooling
4. Expected years of schooling
5. Life expectancy at birth
6. Health status
7. Employment status
8. Equal distribution

Question 6.
Create two slogans to prevent Global warming.
Answer:

1. All be nice – Save the ice
2. Global warming – Not charming
3. Protect Mother Earth – It protects all

Question 7.
Identify the importance of the environment in the development of a nation.
Answer:
The development has to be achieved at any cost. Growth in GDP and modern industrial development are necessary, it is argued, for raising the living standards of people and reducing poverty. Since modern industrial and agricultural development are intensive in use of natural resources including energy, depletion of resources and pollution of the environment is to be expected. It is a sacrifice that has to be borne for higher growth. Once high economic growth and prosperity is achieved, pollution and environmental degradation can be handled. One can spend money and clean up the air and rivers, drink bottled water and build cars that are fuel efficient. After all this is the route the developed countries have taken.

Question 8.
Prepare a pamphlet on the importance of ‘Sustainable Development’.
Answer:

Importance of Sustainable Development

The development which meets the needs of the present people without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is called sustainable development. Better quality of life is necessary not only for us but for the next coming generations also. The present concept of development is not like this.

The present scenario is quite adversary. There is no such feeling of future generations and their needs. All generations have the right on utilizing the natural resources like water, air and soil and so on. If we do not consider this, how the next generations survive that everyone should think of.

To what extent the natural resources we need to that extent only we should use. This concept is to be spread among the people.

Government should take up awareness programmes on this issue. Stringent actions should be initiated against who violate the eco laws and acts. In some areas multinational companies have taken up the lands and pumping out the water and selling them. How does the government give permission to such companies which lead to fall down of ground water level? Government should think about this and take action to make sustainable development a real concept.

Question 9.
Why is it necessary to focus on sustainable development now a days?
Answer:
Focus on sustainable development nowadays is compulsory to meet the needs of the present as well as future generations. We have to provide better quality of life for everyone. Conservation of fertility of soil is also essential for future crops. Factory emissions are to be prevented to make the air and water pure.

Question 10.
Differentiate between the environment’s ‘Source function’ and ‘Sink function’.
Answer:
Differences between the Environment’s source function and Sink function.

Source function	Sink function
1. The sectors of the economy are dependent on natural resources in various degrees.	1. It is (environment) to absorb and render harmless the waste and pollution from various activities.
2. The potential of an environment to provide these resources is referred to as an environment’s source function.	2. Unwanted byproducts of production and consumption say exhaust gases from combustion, water used to clean products, discarded packaging and goods no longer wanted are absorbed by the environment.

Question 11.
How is environmental protection linked with our lifestyle?
Answer:
Our life style is linked with environment protection. We should be habituated to use organic productions. We should avoid plastic. Use renewable energy sources. Reducing quarrying and deforestation to zero. Industrial waste should be disposed in a proper manner. Public transport with compressed Natural Gas is to be encouraged. Radiating devices are to be minimized.

Question 12.
On what does the primary sector depend?
Answer:
In primary sector activities – agriculture, mining, quarrying – and in the manufacturing and energy sector, production is hugely dependent on natural resources. The other sectors of the economy too are dependent on natural resources in various degrees.

Question 13.
What is environment’s source function?
Answer:
The potential of an environment to provide these resources is referred to as an “environment’s source function”. This function is depleted as resources are consumed or pollution contaminates the resources.

Question 14.
What is another function that the environment provides?
Answer:
There is another function that the environment provides. It is to absorb and render harmless the waste and pollution from various activities. Unwanted by-products of production and consumption say exhaust gases from combustion, water used to clean products, discarded packaging and goods no longer wanted are absorbed by the environment. This is as important as the source function.

Question 15.
What does the ‘sink function’ describe?
Answer:
The “sink function” describes an environment’s ability to absorb and render harmless waste and pollution. When waste output exceeds the limit of the sink function, long-term damage to the environment occurs.

Question 16.
What happened in the past fifty years?
Answer:
In the past fifty years of economic development, both these functions of the environment have been overused. This has been said to affect the carrying capacity of the environment, i.e., the capacity of the environment to support economic production and consumption in the future.

Question 17.
What is modern development for people who have been displaced? Why?
Answer:
For people who have been displaced modern development has been unjust and destructive. Because they have lost access to their greater resource, the local environment. Without the local environment, their lives would be reduced to nothing.

Question 18.
How are environmental movements?
Answer:
While each of these movements has slightly different contexts, they are essentially demanding the rights of the local communities over the environment. Chipko movement acted to prevent the cutting of trees and reclaim their traditional forest rights that were threatened by contractors. Narmada Bachao Andolan has stood for the rights of the people over land, forests and river.

Question 19.
What is the impact on the environment that the use of pesticides and chemicals?
Answer:

1. The excessive use of pesticides and chemical fertilizer exhibit a negative impact on society.
2. Environment cannot absorb harmful substances than a limit.
3. When waste output exceeds the limit the sink function limit, danger occurs to the environment.
4. It pressures on environment’s ability to provide different resources for production.

Question 20.
Is it correct to take HDI (Human Development Index) as a measure of development?
Answer:

1. As a measure of development HDI is an improvement over GDP and per capita income.
2. The idea of development hardly limited to production of goods and services.
3. Rapid expansion of production and income coexist with malnutrition and lack of education and health.
4. HDI expands the meaning of development to include social indicators of health and education.

Question 21.
A high % workforce in low-paid employment, an increase in GDP and the enormous variety of goods and services being produced can benefit only a select groups. Read this and interpretate?
Answer:

1. In India 90% of workforce is in the unorganized sector, where the conditions of working are not encouraging at all.
2. Incomes of both self employed and wage workers in unorganized sectors are generally low and at times pitiably so.
3. With, such a high percentage of the workforce is low paid employment, an increase in GDP and the enormous variety of goods and services being produced can benefit only to select groups.

Question 22.
Construction of big dams “leads to environmental problems”. Read this and interpretate.
Answer:

1. They disrupt the lives and livelihoods of lakhs of people.
2. Many people lose their access to local environment.
3. Many people drop from a state of self – sufficiency to scarcity.
4. They were at times made to depend on external forces.
5. Many lose their needs without access to the environment.
6. Rich biodiversity and treasure of knowledge is lost which comes traditionally.

10th Class Social 12th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How does the lifestyle of people influence the environment? What are your suggestions to protect the environment ?
Answer:
Influence:

1. There is a strong bondage between the lifestyle of human kingdom and environment.
2. Environment fulfills many of our needs.
3. There are various ways in which our lifestyles of people influence the environment.
4. The people of a region lives according to their environment. Their traditions, cultures, festivals, etc. are based on their environment.

My Suggestions:

1. Natural resources should be used limitedly.
2. Forests should not be cut down. We should take care of them.
3. Industrial wastes should be recycled.
4. The establishment of industries which release more pollution should be restricted.
5. People should be enriched with the knowledge of environment.

Question 2.
Observe the following Graph diagram.
Write a brief note on the inequality in India based on the graph.
Answer:

1. 3 million households with annual income above Rs. 17 lakh are classified as rich.
2. 31 million households with annual income between Rs. 3.4 to Rs. 17 lakh are classified as middle class.
3. 71 million households income is between Rs. 1.5 to Rs. 3.4 lakh classified as aspirers.
4. 135 million lakhs classified as deprived.
5. In our country, more than 90% of the people are in unorganised sector.
6. It clearly says that the rich are becoming more rich, whereas the poor remain poor.
7. There is inequality in holding wealth as well as opportunities.
8. Wide inequalities in incomes and opportunities across people cannot be the basis for a just society.

Question 3.
Read the text given below and write your opinion.

It is also important to realize that not only do people lose out as they are removed from their local environments, equally, the environment is denuded of Its rich biodlverslty as the traditional knowledge is lost along with the people.

Answer:

The largest of the dams constructed is the Sardar Sarovar, which floods more than 37,000 hectares of forest and agricultural land, displacing more than half a million people and destroying some of India’s most fertile land. The project has devastated human lives and bio-diversity by inundating thousands of acres of forest and agricultural land. A disproportionate number of those being displaced are Adivasi’s and Dalits.

Access to the environment serves a large number of their needs which otherwise they would have to pay for.
As they lose access to environment either because of displacement, or because the environment is destroyed and polluted, the poor are the greatest sufferers. The question of environment and sustainability is intimately connected to the issue of equity.

Question 4.
Write a letter to your district collector on the problems of environment in your area.
Answer:

Anandnagar Colony,
Visakhapatnam,
Date: xxxxxxxxx.

To,
The District Collector,
Visakhapatnam District,
Visakhapatnam.

Respected Sir,

I am Srinivasa Rao, the resident of Gajuwaka. I would like to bring a few lines to your notice about problems of environment in our local area.

In our locality the migrant number is increasing. They are coming to city because of their needs and problems but it leads to new problems here. Water supply, sewage and other waste disposal, transportation and pollution problems are arising. There are plastic covers on the roads everywhere. Many animals on the roads eat those covers and die. As the garbage is increasing and it is not properly cleaned, unbearable stench is spread. There may be a scope for different diseases.

I request you to take proper effective measures wherever polluted industries are there and they should be shut down and minimise polluted plying vehicles and reduce the release of greenhouse gases.

Yours faithfully,
…………………………
…………………………

Question 5.
Study the table given below and answer the questions.
Growth in Extraction of Some Key Minerals in India (in thousand tonnes)

a) What do the particulars of above table tell about?
Answer:
Growth in extraction of some key minerals in India

b) In comparison to other minerals, which one is not being extracted more than double in 2008-09?
Answer:
Coal is not being extracted more than double in 2008 – 09.

c) What might be the reasons for increase in mining?
Answer:

1. Number of industries increased.
2. Using machinery in mining.
3. Consumption of minerals increase.
4. Greed of human beings.

d) What do you think would be the environmental and human costs of such rapid growth in mining?
Answer:

1. Sustainability of minerals
2. Diversion in the direction of river flow
3. Causes for floods.
4. Extinction of forest cover.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
We are already experiencing the negative consequences of rapid economic growth on several fronts – the problem of groundwater and pesticides being two stark examples. We have several thousands of communities living off the environment. To destroy the environment means to destroy these communities.

1. The idea of development has been contested through problems of environment.
2. The groundwater levels fell rapidly and groundwater recharge is also not to the expected level.
3. Fertilizers made the soil less fertile and ever increasing costs to farmers.
4. Industrialisation has resulted in a world where natural resources are threatened.

My Opinion: Always we should be able to integrate enviromental concerns with the idea of progress, along with issues of equity and justice. We have to find an environmentally sustainable pathway out of poverty.

Question 7.
Read the paragraph, understand and write your opinion on it.

While industrialisation has brought a lot of material comforts, at least to some, it has resulted in a world where natural resources are threatened and now even the climate is being disrupted. This pattern of growth clearly cannot continue.

Answer:
Opinion on Paragraph :

1. Industrialisation in the world has brought a lot of material comforts for humans to lead a happy life.
2. Man has invented from small pin to big plane with these metals obtained by mining.
3. But at the same time the minerals are reducing in their quantity because man’s short sighted ness.
4. As a result of man’s greediness the natural resources such as metals and fossil fuels are declin-ing and threatening our planet to fell in danger.
5. Because of over use of these resources, climatic changes are going on with the depletion of ozone layer damage and environment degradation.

I conclude that this type of growth does not create sustainable development to the planet and further it becomes unjustifiable in degrading our environment.

Question 8.
How would the rapid extraction of natural resources effect the future development prospects?
Explain.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with this statement.
2. We are extracting minerals and natural resources rapidly.
3. Modern industrial development and agricultural development are intensive in use of minerals and natural resources.
4. If this extraction goes on like this, the mineral deposits and natural resources will be depleted.
5. The extent of our current use of minerals and natural resources is such that the chances of future generations to have access to their fair share of scarce resources are endangered.
6. Moreover, the consequences in terms of impacts on the environment may induce serious damages that go beyond the carrying capacity of the environment.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and interpret in your own words.

Recent data on the status of groundwater resources in India suggests that the groundwater is under serious threat of overuse in many parts of the country. Nearly one-third of the country is pumping out more groundwater than what goes in as recharge. About 300 districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 meters during the past 20 years, which points to an alarming rate of extraction.

Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the groundwater resources are decreasing as we are overusing it.
2. Maximum of water is pumped out from deep layers.
3. Recharging is less and pumping is more.
4. In future it will become a major problem to all people.
5. The rate of extraction of water is dangerous for our existence.
6. Extraction of groundwater doesn’t affect the particular area where the extraction is going on but it affects all surrounding areas also.
7. The depth of the bore wells is increasing day by day.
8. There should be a change in the human attitude.
9. Our behavior should be environment friendly.
10. We should not over use ground water.
11. Deep wells should be discouraged.
12. Plastic usage should be prohibited.
13. The government should take stringent action against the people who do not follow these conditions.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and interpret in your own words.

This pattern of development is in direct contrast to what sustainable development stands for Sustainable development is development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. In other words, a better quality of life for everyone-now and for generations to come.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given, the development which meets the needs of the present people without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is called sustainable development.
2. Better quality of life is necessary not only for us but for the next coming generations also. The present concept of development is not like this.
3. The present scenario is quite adversary to the paragraph. There is no such feeling of future
   generations and their needs.
4. All generations have the right on utilizing the natural resources like water, air and soil and so on.
5. The government should take up awareness programmes on this issue.
6. Stringent actions should be initiated against who violate the eco laws and acts.
7. The government should think about this take action to make sustainable development a real concept.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.

For most rural communities, the link between the environment and the lives of the people is very strong. Access to the environment serves a large number of their needs (like food, firewood, fodder, economically valuable articles, etc.) which otherwise they would have to pay for. As they lose this access to environment either because of displacement, or the environment is destroyed and polluted, the poor are the greatest losers. The question of environment and sustainability is intimately connected to the issue of equity.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph given here, the rural people are attached with environment for their food and other commodities.
2. When there is a displacement they don’t have this facility of getting commodities.
3. These poor people suffer a lot when the environment is destroyed and polluted.
4. My opinion on this paragraph is that many a time it is happening in many places.
5. When displacement takes place, the forest dwellers have to face many problems.
6. They don’t have sufficient food and land for cultivation.
7. They don’t get loans as they are new to the money lenders of that place.
8. The government should think about the troubles of these people when they are asked to move from their living places.
9. I am not opposing to construct dams and projects but the displacement should not lead to troubles.
10. Alternate arrangements should be made keeping their problems in mind.

Question 12.
Locate the following points in the Indian map provided.

1. Mumbai
2. Hyderabad
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Gujarat
5. Tamil Nadu
6. Kerala
7. Punjab
8. Uttar Pradesh
9. River Narmada
10. Sardar Sarovar Project
11. Andhra Pradesh
12. Delhi.

Answer:

These AP 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 15th Lesson Law and Justice: A Case Study will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social 15th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Law and Justice: A Case Study

Question 1.
What is meant by ‘an accused’? In this story who is the accused?
Answer:
‘Someone that has done something wrong or taken part in illegal activity is known as accused. In this story ‘Ravi’ is accused.

Question 2.
What were the charges levelled against the accused?
Answer:
Cheating, causing grievous injury to another person – were the charges levelled against the accused.

Question 3.
What is an independent judiciary?
Answer:
The Legislature and the Executive cannot interfere in the work of the judiciary. The courts are not under the government and do not act on behalf of government. The polices also not part of judiciary.
In this way the judiciary works independently. This is known as independent judiciary.

Question 4.
If someone is not satisfied with the decision of a Session’s court, what can he/she do? If she/he is dissatisfied with the decision of High Court, what can be done?
Answer:
If someone is not satisfied with the decision of a Session’s court, he/she can appeal to the High Court.
If she/he is dissatisfied with the decision of High Court, she/he can appeal to the Supreme Court.

Question 5.
What are the differences between the role of the S.H.O. and the magistrate?
Answer:
S.H.O is the officer at P.S. level. Magistrate is still higher level.
S.l. should present the arrested person before the Magistrate before 24 hours.

Question 6.
Write any one of the central features of the Constitution.
Answer:
One of the central features of the Constitution is to separate the powers of Executive, Judiciary and Legislature.

Question 7.
Why do you think it is important for the person who makes an FIR to take a copy of the report?
Answer:
The complaint should have the acknowledgement for his complaint. After the F.I.R. is filed it becomes the duty of the police to investigate and solve the problem.

Question 8.
Discuss why it is necessary to hear the evidences given by the witnesses in any case.
Answer:
In any case the victims and the accused, support their own words in the court. So the truth may be under cover. Being third person, the witnesses uncover these truths. So it is necessary to hear the evidences given by them in any case.

Question 9.
High Court does not summon the accused or witnesses before it. Why?
Answer:
The accused and witnesses are all appeared before the court at lower level. So it is not necessary to attend before the High Court. So it does not summon them.

Question 10.
Can you identify different roles of the Executive and Judiciary given in this chapter?
Answer:
The police comes under the Executive. They register cases and conduct enquiry in the initial stage. Trials, evidences of witnesses, judgement all these are the duties of Judiciary. These will not interfere in each other’s matter.

Question 11.
Why are there disputes in villages/families. What are the reasons for that? What sort of change in behaviour is necessary to avoid them?
Answer:
Villagers feel intimacy between them. They interfere in other’s matters without their permission. They give no value to ‘privacy’. So disputes arise.
The villagers should adopt the town/city culture.

Question 12.
Discuss on the conditions of the families related to the criminals who experienced Jail life. Invite such persons and talk to them on Jail life and freedom.
Answer:
Students: Good morning sir.
Ashok: Good morning children.
Students: Sir, I would like to know about your life in the prison.
Ashok: Why not, sure.
Students: Sir, are you a criminal?
Ashok: No, really I am not a criminal.
Students: But you got 6 months imprisonment.
Ashok: By Accidentally in one property issue I hit my brother but he was died.
Students: That’s why I am imprisoned.
Ashok: How is your life in the prison?
Students: Really it is a horrible situation.
Ashok: Is there any freeness in the prison?
Freedom is there, but everyone will look us as a criminal. Life is in systematic manner. We did not know about anything what happened in the society.
Students: What did you do sir in the prison?
Ashok: I pour water to the plants. If any small work is there, everyone sould participate in that work.
Students: What is the difference between Jail life and freedom ?
Ashok: Lot of difference is there. I feel always I am loosing my family & friends. In the prison we saw some one and speak with some one and always feel lonelyness.
Students: Now I think you are so happy because your are with your family.
Ashok: Yes I felt very happy. Now I am doing my job. And I am living with my family members happily.

Conditions of the families:
They have no income. They are in poverty. People of the society also blame the family members. No one is allowed to join them in any work. Their economic and social condition is worse.

Question 13.
Invite either a Police officer or an Advocate to your classroom and conduct a discussion on different crimes and their punishments and how to get on without committing crimes.
Answer:
Students: Good morning sir.
Police Officer: Good morning children.
Students: Sir today we would like to know about different crimes and punishments.
Police Officer: Children, crimes are two kinds. 1. Criminal crime 2. Civil cnme.
Students: Which issues are comes under criminal offence?
Police Officer: A criminal offence includes theft, decoit, adulteration, bribery, preparation of dangerous drugs, etc.
Students: What type of punishments are there for criminal case?
Police Officer: In criminal cases punishments are in severe means 10 years imprisonment.
Students: Which issues comes under civil offence?
Police Officer: Civil offence includes.
1. Peoples rights regarding land
2. Property
3. Income and people’s relationship with each other.
Students: What type of punishments are there for civil cases?
Police Officer: Generally in civil cases penalities are there but imprisonment is not there.
Students: Sir, sometimes some persons get punishments without committing crime also? Why?
Police Officer: In sometimes, due to false witness some innocent people also got punishment.
Students: On that time what did you do?
Police Officer: In that cases, department people will continue proper investigation and find out the real persons who committed in that crime and punish them.
Students: Thank you sir. Today we know about more information about crimes & punishments.

Question 14.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions.

Bail

Since Ravi’s case is a criminal case, after being chargesheeted, Ravi was put in lockup. In criminal cases, an accused is kept in jail. But this is not a punishment. This is only to help the investigation as well as to prevent him or her from tampering with evidence or threaten¬ing the witness etc. After some days in judicial custody, his family appeared in the court to get for him a bail. A person who is accused of serious crimes like murder, bribery, dacoity etc. may not get a bail. To get bail, certain sureties are to be given in the court. These sureties can be property or a person who will stand as guarantee or bond. The bond is a promise that offender will appear before the Court whenever asked for. The judge in the court can decide whether to give bail or refuse it.

1. Where was Ravi put in?
Answer:
He was put in lockup.

2. In criminal cases an accused is kept in ———–.
Answer:
jail.

3. After some days in judicial custody, his family appeared in the court to get him a ———–.
Answer:
bail.

4. To get bail certain sureties are to be given in the ———–.
Answer:
court

5. The ———– in the court can decide whether to give bail or refuse it.
Answer:
judge

Question 15.
Read the following passage and answer the following questions.

Separation of powers and independence

One of the central features of the Constitution is to separate the powers of Executive, Judiciary and Legislative. This means other branches – like the Legislature and the Execu¬tive – cannot interfere in the work of the judiciary. The courts are not come under the govern¬ment and do not act on behalf of the government.
The police is also not a part of Judiciary, they are part of the Executive. During the last year you had read about the district administration. At district level, just like the Collector, there is also a government police officer who is responsible for maintaining law and order in k the district. Police department is under the ministry of Home of the state government.

1. Write any one of the central features of the Constitution.
Answer:
One of the central features of the Constitution is to separate the powers of Executive, Judiciary and Legislature.

2. The courts are not under the ———–.
Answer:
Government.

3. The police is the part of ———–.
Answer:
Executive

4. Police department is under the ministry of ———– government.
Answer:
Home of the state

5. Collector is at ———– level.
Answer:
District

These AP 10th Class Maths Chapter Wise Important Questions Chapter 4 Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Maths 4thLesson Important Questions and Answers Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables

Question 1.
What is meant by consistent equations ? Give example.
Solution:
The pair of Linear equations having at least one solution are called consistent.

Question 2.
Find the value of ‘k’ for which the sys-tem of equations x + 2y – 3 = 0 and 5x + ky + 7 = 0 has no solution.
Solution:
Find the value of ’k’ for which the system of equations x + 2y – 3 = 0 and 5x + ky + 7 = 0 has no solutions.
They have no solution means they are parallel.
a₁x + b₁y + c₁ = 0 and
a₂x + b₂y + c₂ = 0 are parallel if
\(\frac{\mathrm{a}_{1}}{\mathrm{a}_{2}}=\frac{\mathrm{b}_{1}}{\mathrm{~b}_{2}} \neq \frac{\mathrm{c}_{1}}{\mathrm{c}_{2}}\)here given
a₁ = 1, b₁ = 2, C₁ = – 3 and a₂ = 5, b₂ = k, c₂ = 7
\(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}=\frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}} \Rightarrow \frac{1}{5}=\frac{2}{k}\) ⇒ k = 5(2) = 10
∴ If k = 10 then the above system will have no solution.

Question 3.
Find the value of k for which the pair of equations 2x + ky + 3 = 0,
4x + 6y – 5 = 0 represent parallel lines.
Solution:
2x + ky + 3 = 0 and 4x + 6y – 5 = 0
∴ a₁ = 2, b₁ = k, C₁ = 3
a₂ = 4, b₂ = 6, c₂ = -5
If the given equations are parallel lines, then
\(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}=\frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}} \neq \frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}\)
Therefore \(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}=\frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}} \neq \frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}\) ⇒ 4k = 12
⇒ k = \(\frac{12}{4}\) = 3
∴ k = 3

Question 4.
The larger of two supplementary angles exceeds the smaller by 58°, then find the angles. *19
Solution:
Let supplementary angles be x and y.
x = y + 58° ⇒ x — y = 58° ……….. (1)
∵ x + y = 180° ……………(2)
By solving (1) and (2)

∴ x = 119° and y = 180°- 119° – 61°
∴ The angle| are 119° and 61°.

Question 5.
For what value of ‘k’ the pair of linear equations 2x – ky + 3 = 0, 4x + 6y -5 = 0 represent parallel lines ?
Solution:
If \(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}=\frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}} \neq \frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}\), then the equations are parallel lines.
Since \(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}=\frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}} \neq \frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}\) ⇒ -4k = 12
∴ k = – 3.

Question 6.
Reduce the pair of equations \(\frac{2}{x}+\frac{3}{y}\) = 13 and \(\frac{5}{x}+\frac{4}{y}\) = – 2
(x ≠ 0, y ≠ 0) into a pair of linear equa-tions in two variables ‘a’ and ‘b’.
Solution:
Given equations are \(\frac{2}{x}+\frac{3}{y}\) = 13 ……………..(1)
and \(\frac{5}{x}+\frac{4}{y}\) = – 2 — (2)
Let \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{x}}\) = a and \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{y}}\) = b
then the given equations can be writ¬ten as 2a 4- 3b = 13 and 5a + 4b = -2

Question 7.
Write the equation of the straight line shown in the graph.

Solution:
Equation of line = \(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{b}\) = 1
⇒ \(\frac{x}{3}+\frac{y}{6}\) = 1⇒ \(\frac{2 x+y}{6}\) = 1
⇒ 2x + y = 6AP 10th Class Maths Important Questions Chapter 4 Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables 1

Question 8.
Solve the following equations by sub-stitution method
i) 2x – 7y = 3
ii) 4x + y = 21
Solution:
The given two linear equations are
2x – 7y = 3 …………. (1)
4x + y = 21 …………..(2)
From the equation (2) we get
y = 21 – 4x now we substitute this Y value in equation (1)
We get
2x – 7(21 – 4x) = 3
⇒ 2x- 147 + 28 x – 3
⇒ 30 x = 147 + 3 = 150
then x = \(\frac{150}{30}\) ∴ x = 5
Now put x = 5 in equation (2) we get
4(5) + y = 21
20 + y = 21
y = 21 – 20 = 1
So x = 5 and y = 1 are the solutions of the system.

Question 9.
10 students of 10th class participated in a Quiz programme. The number of girls participated in it is 4 more than boys. So find the number of boys and girls participated in Quiz.
Solution:
Let the number of girls = x (say)
and the number of boys = y (say)
then total students = x + y
-10 …………… (1)
and also
The number of girls = number of boys + 4
x = y + 4 …………….(2)
Put this ‘x’ value in equation (1), we get
y + 4 + y = 10
⇒ 2y + 4 = 10
⇒ 2y = 10 – 4 = 6
∴ y = \(\frac { 6 }{ 2 }\) = 3
So y = 3 then
x + y = 10 becomes
x + 3 = 10
⇒ x = 10-3
∴ x = 7
So the number of girls = 7 and the number of boys = 3.

Question 10.
Is the pair of linear equations 3x – y = 40, 4x – 2y = 50 consistent or inconsis-tent ? Why ?
Solution:
Given equations are consistent.
Reason : Given equations are 3x – y = 40, 4x – 2y = 50
\(\frac{\mathrm{a}_{1}}{\mathrm{a}_{2}}=\frac{3}{4} ; \frac{\mathrm{b}_{1}}{\mathrm{~b}_{2}}=\frac{1}{2} ; \frac{\mathrm{a}_{1}}{\mathrm{a}_{2}} \neq \frac{\mathrm{b}_{1}}{\mathrm{~b}_{2}}\)
Hence the linear equations are consis-tent.

Question 11.
“Dependent pair of linear equations in two variables is always consistent”. Is it TRUE or FALSE ? Justify.
Solution:
“Dependent pair of linear equations in two variables is always consistent”.
This is true because dependent pair of linear equations represent coincident lines which have infinite number of solutions. Hence they are consistent.

Question 12.
Draw a rough diagram (graph) of lin-ear equation x = 2.
Solution:
Linear equation x = k represents a line, which is parallel to Y-axis at a distance of ‘k’ units.
∴ x = 2 can be represented as follows :

Question 13.
Solve x + 2y = 5 and 2x – y = 0 using any non-graphical method.
Solution:
x + 2y = 5 …………… (1)
2x-y = 0 ………… (2)
2x = y ⇒ x = \(\frac{y}{2}\)
This value substitute in equation (1)
\(\frac{y}{2}\) + 2y = 5 ⇒ y + 4y = 10
5y = 10 ⇒ y = 2
This value substitute in equation (2)
2x – 2 = 0 ⇒ 2x = 2 ⇒ x = 1
∴ x = 1, y = 2.

Question 14.
Vamsi bought 9 kg of onions and 2 kg of potatoes for Rs. 247. If the cost of 1 kg of onion is Rs. 3 more than that of potatoes, find their cost per kg.
Solution:
Let the cost of 1 kg of potato be x.
Then cost of 1 kg of onion is x + 3
x + x + 3 = 247
2x + 3 = 247
2x = 244 ⇒ x = \(\frac{244}{2}\) = Rs. 122.
The cost of potatoes per kg = Rs. 122
The cost of onions per kg = x + 3
= 122 + 3 = Rs. 125

Question 15.
Solve the given pair of linear equations by elimination method.
i) 2x + y – 5 = 0 and
ii) 3x – 2y – 4 = 0.
Solution:
In this elimination method, we solve this pair of linear equation by making either of coefficients equal.
The given equations are
2x + y = 5 …………….(1)
3x – 2y = 4 ………..(2)
To make the coefficients of ‘x’ equal let us multiply the equation (1) by 3 and the equation (2) by (2) on both sides. We get
(2x + y = 5) 3; (3x – 2y = 4) 2

then 2x + y = 5 becomes
2x + 1 = 5
⇒ 2x = 5 – 1 = 4
∴ x = \(\frac{4}{2}\) = 2 So x = 2
x = 2 and y = 1 are the solutions of the given equations.
Verification : Put x = 2 and y = 1 in equation (1) and (2)
2x + y = 5
2(2) + 1 = 5
4 + 1 = 5
5=5
LHS = RHS

3x – 2y = 4
3(2) – 2(1) = 4
6 – 2 = 4
4 = 4
LHS = RHS

Question 16.
Solve the following equations graphically.
\(\frac{1}{3} x+\frac{1}{2} y\) = 1; \(2 x-\frac{1}{3} y=-\frac{2}{3}\)
Solution:
First we convert above given equations into linear equation form.
So \(\frac{1}{3} x+\frac{1}{2} y\) = 1 can be written as \(\frac{2 x+3 y}{6}\)= 1
⇒ 2x + 3y = 6 ………. (1)
and 2x + \(\frac{1}{3}\)y = \(\frac{-2}{3} \Rightarrow \frac{6 x-y}{3}=\frac{-2}{3}\)
⇒ 6x – y = – 2 ………….. (2)
now we find the points through which the above lines passes.

i) 2x + 3y = 6 ⇒ y = \(\frac{6-2 x}{3}\)

So (0, 2) (3, 0) are two points lie on 2x + 3y = 6

ii) 6x – y = – 2 ⇒ y = 6x + 2

So (0, 2) (1, 8) are two points lie on 6x – y = -2
I’m 5
now we plot a,ove points A(0, 2),
B(3,0) and join \(\stackrel{\leftrightarrow}{\mathrm{AB}}\) again÷ve plot (0, 2) (1, 8) and join the line \(\stackrel{\leftrightarrow}{\mathrm{CD}}\) . Now we observe (0, 2) is intersection of two lines.
Hence the solution of given equations = (0, 2)
So x = 0; y = 2 is the solution.

Question 17.
Solve the following pair of equations by eliminating method.
2x + y – 5 = 0; 3x – 2y – 4 = 0
Solution:

substitute y = 1 in 2x + y -5 = 0
2x + 1 – 5 = 0
2x = 4
x = 2

Question 18.
Solve the following pair of linear equations graphically.
2x + y = 4 and 2x – 3y = 12
Solution:
Given equations are
2x + y – 4 = 0 and 2x – 3y – 12 = 0

The equations are consistent.
∴ They intersect at one point giving only one solution.

From the observing of above graph the solution is x = 3 and y = -2

Question 19.
6 pencils and 4 notebooks together cost Rs. 90/- whereas 8 pencils and 3 note-books together cost Rs. 85/-. Find the cost of one pencil and that of one note-book.
Solution:
Let the cost of each pencil be ₹ x and the cost of each pen be ₹ y.
By problem,
6 pencils and 4 notebooks together cost ₹90.
∴ 6x.+ 4y = 90 ……………. (1)
8 pencils and 3 notebooks together cost, ₹85.
∴ 8x + 3y = 85 ………….(2)
By solving the eqns (1) and (2)
6x + 4y = 90 ⇒ 3(6x + 4y) = 90 x 3
⇒ 18x + 12y = 270
8x + 3y = 85 ⇒ 4(8x + 3y) = 85 x 4
⇒ 32x + 12y = 340

x = 5
From (2) ⇒ 8(5) + 3y = 85
⇒ 3y = 85 – 40 = ₹ 45
∴ y = ₹15
∴ Cost of each pencil be = x = ₹ 5
Cost of each pen be = y = ₹ 15

Question 20.
Solve the pair of equations
\(\frac{3}{x+y}+\frac{2}{x-y}\) = 2 and \(\frac{9}{x+y}-\frac{4}{x-y}\) = 1
Solution:

If we substitute \(\frac{1}{x+y}\) = p and \(\frac{1}{x-y}\) = q
We get the following pair of linear equations
3p + 2q = 2 …………………(3)
9p – 4q = 1 ……………………(4)

Substitute the value of q in equation (3)
3p + 2(\(\frac{1}{2}\)) = 2
⇒3p + 1 = 2 ⇒ 3p = 1
P = \(\)\frac{1}{3}[/latex]
But \(\frac{1}{x+y}\) = p = \(\frac{1}{3}\) x + y = 3 ……………. (5)
\(\frac{1}{x-y}\) = q = \(\frac{1}{2}\) x – y = 2 …………… (6)
By solving (5) and (6)

Question 21.
Solve the following pair of linear equations graphically.
2x-3y + 13 = 0, 3x-2y + 12 = 0
Solution:
Given equations are 2x – 3y + 13 = 0 and 3x – 2y + 12 = 0
i.e., 2x – 3y = – 13 and 3x – 2y = – 12

The unique solution of this pair of equations = (-2, 3)

Question 22.
Solve the equations 2x + y = 4 and 3x – 2y = \(\frac { 5 }{ 2 }\) graphically.
Solution:
To solve the equations
2x + y = 4 and 3x – 2y = \(\frac { 5 }{ 2 }\) graphically
We can rewrite the given equations as follows
2x + y = 4 ⇒ y = 4 – 2x ……….. (1)
3x – 2y = \(\frac { 5 }{ 2 }\) ⇒ 6x – 4y = 5 ⇒ y = \(\frac { 6x-5 }{ 4 }\) ………… (2)
Now we choose the co-ordinates of the points lie on the straight lines represented by above (1) & (2)

So we plot the points (0, 4), (1, 2), (2, 0) and (1.5, 1) on graph paper and connect them to get its straight line and

By plotting the points (1, 0.25) (0, -1.25) (1.5, 1) on graph paper we get its straight line.

From above two straight lines, we observe that they intersect at the point (1.5, 1). Hence (1.5, 1) is the solution of given two equations So, x = 1.5 and y = 1 are the solution.

Question 23.
Solve the pair of equations by reduc¬ing them to a pair of linear equations.
\(\frac{5}{(x+y)}-\frac{2}{(x-y)}=-1\)
\(\frac{15}{x+y}-\frac{7}{x-y}\) = -10, where x ≠ 0 and y ≠ 0
Solution:
Given \(\frac{5}{(x+y)}-\frac{2}{(x-y)}=-1\) and
\(\frac{15}{x+y}-\frac{7}{x-y}\) = -10
Take \(\frac{1}{x+y}\) = a and \(\frac{1}{x-y}\) = b, then the given equations reduce to
5a – 2b = – 1 ………. (1)
15a – 7b = – 10 ………..(2)

∴ b = 7
Substituting b = 7 equation (1)
we get
5a – 2(7) = – 1 ⇒ 5a = – 1 + 14
⇒ 5a = 13 ⇒ a = \(\frac { 13 }{ 5 }\)

Question 24.
Cost of Mathematics textbook is Rs. 10 less than twice of cost of English text book. Write this in linear equation.
Solution:
Let the cost of English textbook = Rs. x
Twice of it = 2x Rs. 10 less to above = 2x – 10
Then cost of Mathematics textbook y = 2x – 10 is the required linear , equation.

Question 2.
Solve the pair 2x + 3y = 12 and
3x + 2y = 13 in elimination method.
Solution:
2x + 3y = 12 …………(1)
3x + 2y = 13 …………. (2)
Multiply the equation (1) with 3 on both sides, and the equation (2) on both sides.
We get

2x + 3y = 12
⇒ 2x + 3(2) = 12
⇒ 2x + 6 = 12
⇒ 2x + 12 – 6 = 6
then x = 6/2 = 3
∴(2x + 3y = 12)
∴ x = 3 and y = 2 are the solution .

Question 25.
Solve the linear equations 2x + 3y = 12 and 3x + 2y = 13 by graph method.
Solution:
A linear equation can be expressed by a straight line on a graph.
The intersecting point of two straight lines is the solution of linear equation represented by them.
Now let us find the points on 2x + 3y = 12

So the line represented by the equa¬tion 2x + 3y = 12 passes through the points (0, 4) and (6, 0).
Similarly 3x + 2y = 13 passes through the points (1, 5) and (3, 2)

Now, see the graph

So x = 3, and y = 2 is the solution of above system.

Question 26.
Say whether the solution for 2x + 3y = 12 and 3x + 2y = 13 is exist or not basing on the coefficients.
Solution:
The two linear equations a₁x + b₁y + C₁ = 0 and a₂x + b₂y + c₂ = 0 are consistent then their solution exists if and only if
\(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}} \neq \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}\)
In the given two linear equations
2x + 3y = 12 and 3x + 2y = 13
\(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}=\frac{2}{3} \neq \frac{3}{2}=\frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}\)
Hence they are consistent and their solution exists.

Question 27.
Check whether the number of solutions of 2x + 3y = 12 and 3x + 2y = 13 are Infinity or not. Give reasons.
Solution:
The number of solutions to the pair of
linear equationsa₁x + b₁y + c₁ = 0
a₂x + b₂y + c₂ = 0 are infinity if and only if \(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}}=\frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}}=\frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}\)
Here in this case the given pair of linear equations are
2x + 3y = 12 and 3x + 2y = 13
Here \(\frac{\mathrm{a}_{1}}{\mathrm{a}_{2}}=\frac{2}{3}, \frac{\mathrm{b}_{1}}{\mathrm{~b}_{2}}=\frac{3}{2}, \frac{\mathrm{c}_{1}}{\mathrm{c}_{2}}=\frac{12}{13}\)
and then \(\frac{a_{1}}{a_{2}} \neq \frac{b_{1}}{b_{2}} \neq \frac{c_{1}}{c_{2}}\)
Hence they will not have infinite solutions.

Question 28.
Solve 2x + 3y = 12 and 3x + 2y = 13 in the method of substitution.
Solution:
The given equations are
2x + 3y – 12 ………….. (1)
3x + 2y = 13 ………….. (2)
∴ 2x = 12 – 3y [∵From (1)]
x = \(\frac{12-3 y}{2}\) ……….. (3)
Substitute this value of x in given equa¬tion (2) we get
3 (\(\frac{12-3 y}{2}\)) + 2y = 13
\(\frac{36-9 y+4 y}{2}\) = 13
⇒ 36 – 5y = 13 x2 = 26
⇒ -5y = 26 -36 = – 10
∴ 5y = 10 and y = \(\frac { 1 }{ 5 }\) = 2
Then from equation (3)

∴ x = 3 and y = 2 are the solution for given pair of linear equations.

Question 29.
Why there exist infinite solutions to the straight line 2x + 3y = 12 ?
Solution:
2x + 3y = 12 can be represented by a straight line on x-y coordinate system.
Now the points lie on this straight line are infinite. All the points on the line satisfy the condition 2x + 3y = 16. Hence all
Such points are solutions to this straight line. Hence they are infinite.
For example
2x + 3y = 12

These AP 10th Class Telugu Important Questions 4th Lesson వెన్నెల will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Telugu 4th Lesson Important Questions and Answers వెన్నెల

10th Class Telugu 4th Lesson వెన్నెల 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

ఈ క్రింది ప్రశ్నలకు నాలుగైదు వాక్యాల్లో సమాధానాలు రాయండి.

ప్రశ్న 1.
రాత్రి అనే ఆలోచన రానీక చీకటి అనే పేరు విననీక ‘వెన్నెల’ ను వర్ణించిన కవిని గురించి తెల్పండి. (March 2017)
(లేదా)
చంద్రోదయాన్ని అత్యంత మనోహరంగా వర్ణించిన “వెన్నెల” పాఠ్యభాగ ‘కవి పరిచయం’ వ్రాయండి. (March 2019)
జవాబు:
వెన్నెల పాఠ్యభాగం ఎఱ్ఱన గారు రచించారు. ఆయన తల్లి పేరు పోతమాంబిక, తండ్రి పేరు సూరనార్యుడు. ఆయన 14వ శతాబ్దం ప్రథమార్ధంలో జీవించారు. ఎఱ్ఱన గురువుగారి పేరు శంకరస్వామి. ఎఱ్ఱనకు ప్రబంధ పరమేశ్వరుడు, శంభుదాసుడు అనే బిరుదులు కలవు.

ప్రశ్న 2.
ఎఱ్ఱన రచనల గురించి వ్రాయండి.
జవాబు:
ఎఱ్ఱన ఆంధ్రమహాభారతంలోని అరణ్యపర్వశేషం రచించాడు. హరివంశం, నృసింహపురాణం, రామాయణం మొ||నవి రచించాడు.

ఆంధ్రమహాభారతంలోని అరణ్య పర్వశేషాన్ని రాజరాజ నరేంద్రునికి అంకితమిచ్చాడు. హరివంశం, రామాయణాలను ప్రోలయవేమారెడ్డికి అంకితమిచ్చాడు. నృసింహపురాణమును అహోబిల నృసింహస్వామికి అంకితమిచ్చాడు.

ప్రశ్న 3.
ఎఱ్ఱన రచనా వైశిష్ట్యాన్ని వివరించండి.
జవాబు:
ఎఱ్ఱన రచనలలో వర్ణనలు అధికంగా కనిపిస్తాయి. ఆయన రచించిన నృసింహపురాణంలో ‘అష్టాదశ (18) వర్ణనలు’ ఉన్నాయి. తరువాతి కాలంలో వర్ణనాత్మక కావ్యాలు రావడానికి ఎఱ్ఱన వర్ణనలే కారణం. అందుచేతనే ఎఱ్ఱనను ‘ప్రబంధ పరమేశ్వరుడు’ అని సాహితీలోకం గౌరవించింది.

ఎఱ్ఱన నృసింహపురాణం యొక్క ప్రభావం బమ్మెర పోతన భాగవతంపై ఎక్కువగా కనిపిస్తుంది. పోతన భాగవతంలోని ప్రహ్లాద చరిత్రలో ఎఱ్ఱన ప్రభావం స్పష్టంగా కనిపిస్తుందని పరిశోధకులు నిరూపించారు.

ప్రశ్న 4.
‘కాటుక గ్రుక్కినట్టి కరవటంబున జగదండ ఖండమమెరె’ ఈ మాటలు కవి ఏ సందర్భంలో పేర్కొన్నాడో వివరించండి. ఈ పోలికను విశ్లేషించండి.
జవాబు:
సంధ్యా సమయం తర్వాత విశ్వమంతా చీకటి వ్యాపించిందని చెబుతున్న సందర్భంలో కవి ఈ మాటలను పేర్కొన్నాడు.

చీకటిలో భూమి, ఆకాశం, దిక్కులూ అన్నీ కలిసి పోయాయి. అప్పుడు బ్రహ్మాండ ఖండం కాటుక నింపిన పెద్ద భరిణెలా ఉందన్నాడు. బ్రహ్మాండంలో 14 లోకాలుంటాయి. పై లోకాలు 7. క్రింది లోకాలు 7. మధ్యలోనిది భూలోకం. చీకటి కేవలం భూగోళానికి మాత్రమే ఏర్పడింది. అందుకే పైన, క్రింద సమానమైన మూతలు గల భరిణెతో భూగోళాన్ని పోల్చాడు. దీనిద్వారా ఎఱ్ఱనగారి పరిశీలనా దృష్టి, లోకజ్ఞానం వ్యక్తమౌతున్నాయి.

ప్రశ్న 5.
ఈ పాఠంలో కవి వెన్నెలను వర్ణించడానికి ఏయే అంశాలను ఎన్నుకొన్నాడు?
జవాబు:
ఆకాశమనే చెట్టు దిక్కులనే కొమ్మలతో, వెలుగులీనే నక్షత్రాలనే పూలతో ప్రకాశిస్తోందన్నాడు. అప్పుడే ఉదయిస్తున్న చంద్రుడు తన కిరణములనే చేతులతో ఆ ఆకాశపు చెట్టుకున్న నక్షత్రాలనే పూలను కోయడానికి ప్రయత్నిస్తున్నాడని పేర్కొన్నాడు. ఈ పద్యంలో వెన్నెలను వర్ణించడానికి చెట్టు, కొమ్మలు, పూలు, బాల్యచేష్టలు అనే అంశాలను కవి ఎన్నుకొన్నాడు.

‘వెన్నెల వెల్లి ….’ అనే పద్యంలో వెన్నెల ప్రవాహాన్ని పాలసముద్రంతో పోల్చాడు. చంద్రుడిని ఆదిశేషువుతో పోల్చాడు. చంద్రునిలోని మచ్చను శ్రీమహావిష్ణువుతో పోల్చాడు.

ఈ పద్యంలో తెల్లని వెన్నెలను తెల్లటి పాలసముద్రం ఎన్నుకొని పోల్చాడు. అలాగే తెల్లని చందమామను పోల్చడానికి నల్లటి మచ్చను పోల్చడానికి నల్లని విష్ణువును ఎన్నుకొన్నాడు.

ప్రశ్న 6.
పతిభక్తికి ఆదర్శం పద్మిని అని ఎలా చెప్పగలవు?
జవాబు:
మహా తేజస్సంపన్నుడైన సూర్యుని చూసిన కంటితో అల్పమైన తేజస్సు గల ఇతరులను చూడడానికి మనస్సు అంగీకరించదు. అందుకే కదిలెడి తుమ్మెదలనెడు కనుగ్రుడ్లు గల గొప్పదైన పద్మము అనెడు తన కంటిని వెంటనే మూసుకొన్నది.

ఎంతటి మహా పతివ్రతయైన పరపురుషుని కనీసం చూడనైనా చూస్తుంది. కానీ, పద్మిని మాత్రం కనీసం పరపురుషుని చూడడానికి కూడా అంగీకరించలేదు. అందుకే పద్మిని పతిభక్తికి ఆదర్శం. సూర్యోదయంకాగానే కమలాలు వికసిస్తాయి. సూర్యాస్తమయం కాగానే పద్మాలు ముడుచుకొంటాయి. ఇది లోక సహజం.

ప్రశ్న 7.
బాలచంద్రుడెలా ఉన్నాడు?
జవాబు:
పిల్లలకు ప్రాకడం సహజ లక్షణం. ఎక్కడైనా మెరుస్తున్నవి కనిపిస్తే, అవి లాగడం కూడా సహజమే.

అలాగే ఆకాశంలోని చంద్రుడు కూడా ఉన్నాడు. ఆకాశమే పెద్ద చెట్టులాగ ఉంది. దిక్కులు దానికి కొమ్మలులా ఉన్నాయి. నక్షత్రాలు కొమ్మల చివర పువ్వులులా ఉన్నాయి. అప్పుడే ఉదయించిన బాలచంద్రుడు తన పొడవైన కరములతో ఆ నక్షత్రాలనే పువ్వులు కోయడానికి ప్రయత్నిస్తున్నట్లున్నాడు.

ప్రశ్న 8.
వెన్నెలెలా ఉంది?
జవాబు:
వెన్నెల పాలసముద్రంలాగా తెల్లగా ఉంది. అది విజృంభించి దిక్కులన్నీ ముంచుతోంది. రజనీకరబింబం ఆదిశేషువులాగా తెల్లగా ఉంది. చంద్రునిలోని నల్లని మచ్చ ఆదిశేషునిపై పవ్వళించిన శ్రీమహావిష్ణువులా ఉంది.

పాలసముద్రంలో శ్రీమహావిష్ణువు ఆదిశేషునిపై పవ్వళిస్తాడు. ఈ సందర్భాన్ని వెన్నెలతో సమన్వయం చేస్తూ ఎఱ్ఱనగారు అద్భుతమైన కల్పన చేశారు.

ప్రశ్న 9.
పడమటి దిక్కును ఎఱ్ఱని తెరతో పోల్చడం సరైనదేనా? ఎందుకు?
జవాబు:
సాయం సమయంలో సూర్యుడు అస్తమిస్తాడు. సూర్యాస్తమయం సమయంలో సూర్యుడు పడమటి దిక్కుకు వెడతాడు. అప్పుడు సూర్యబింబం చాలా ఎర్రగా ఉంటుంది. అప్పుడు సూర్యుని కాంతి కిరణాలు కూడా ఎరుపురంగులో ఉంటాయి. ఆ సూర్యకాంతికి పడమటి దిక్కంతా ఎర్రగా అవుతుంది. .

సాధారణంగా తెరలు తెలుపురంగులో ఉంటాయి. ఆయా సన్నివేశాలకు తగినట్లు తెరపైకి కాంతిని ప్రసరింపచేస్తూ, రంగులు మార్చడం నాటకాలలో సహజం. ఇక్కడ కూడా నాట్యం చేసే నిశాసతికి తగినట్లుగా పడమటి దిక్కు అనే తెర ఎరుపురంగులో ఉంది అనడం’ అద్భుతమైన ఊహ.

ప్రశ్న 10.
లోకంలో చీకటి అలుముకున్న సందర్భాన్ని కవి ఎలా వర్ణించాడు?
జవాబు:
కవి ఎట్టా ప్రెగ్గడ ‘వెన్నెల’ పాఠంలో చీకటి యొక్క వ్యాప్తిని ఇలా వర్ణించాడు. సంధ్యాకాలం తరువాత చీకట్లు లోకమంతా వ్యాపించాయి. ఆ చీకటిలో భూమి, ఆకాశం, దిక్కులు అన్నీ ఒకటిగా కలిసిపోయాయి. అప్పుడు బ్రహ్మాండ ఖండము, కాటుక నింపిన పెద్ద బరిణె ఏమో అన్నట్లు ఉంది. అంటే అధికమైన చీకట్ల రాశీ వల్ల, దిక్కులు, భూమి, ఆకాశం ఒకదానిలో ఒకటి కలిసి పోయాయి. విశ్వము బాగా కాటుక నింపిన బరిణె ఏమో అన్నట్లు నల్లగా కనిపించిందని కవి వర్ణించాడు.

10th Class Telugu 4th Lesson వెన్నెల 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

ఈ క్రింది ప్రశ్నలకు 10 లేక 12 వాక్యాల్లో జవాబులు రాయండి.

ప్రశ్న 1.
రాత్రి అనే ఆలోచన రానీయక, చీకటి అనే పేరును విననీయక ఆనంద తరంగంలా విస్తరించిన వెన్నెల విజృంభణను మీ సొంతమాటల్లో రాయండి.
జవాబు:
చంద్రుడు ఉదయించాడు. వెన్నెల ప్రవాహం పాలసముద్రంలా పొంగి ఆకాశాన్ని ముంచెత్తింది. చంద్రబింబం ఆ పాలసముద్రంలో గుండ్రంగా చుట్టుకొన్న ఆదిశేషుడి శయ్యలా, చంద్రుడిలోని మచ్చ ఆ శయ్య మధ్యన ఉన్న విష్ణువులా కనబడింది.

ఆ వెన్నెలలో కలువల రేకులు విచ్చుకున్నాయి. కలువ పూలలో తేనెలు పొంగి కెరటాలుగా విజృంభించాయి. తుమ్మెదలకు విందు చేస్తూ పూల పరిమళాలు బయలుదేరాయి.

చంద్రకాంత శిలల వానలతో, చకోరాల రెక్కల స్పర్శలతో, స్త్రీల చిరునవ్వుల కాంతులతో అతిశయించి, దిక్కులన్నింటినీ ముంచెత్తి వెన్నెల సముద్రంలా వ్యాపించింది. ఆ వెన్నెల అనే సముద్రపు నీటి నుండి చంద్రుడు ఆవిర్భవించాడు.

ఆ విధంగా అందంగా, గంభీరంగా, నిండుగా చంద్రుని వెన్నెల వ్యాపించింది.

అది రాత్రి అనే ఆలోచనను రానీయలేదు. చీకటి అనే పేరు విననీయలేదు. అవ్యక్తం అనే అనుమానాన్ని కలిగించలేదు. ఆ వెన్నెల కళ్ళకు అమృతపు జల్లులా, శరీరానికి మంచి గంధంలా, మనసుకు ఆనంద తరంగంలా విజృంభించింది.

ప్రశ్న 2.
పద్యభావాలను ఆధారంగా చేసుకొని పాఠ్యభాగ సారాంశాన్ని ఇరవై వాక్యాలకు కుదించి రాయండి.
జవాబు:

1. సాటిలేని కాంతి గల సూర్యుని చూచినట్లుగా అల్ప తేజస్సు కలవానిని చూడలేనని సాయంసంధ్యలో కమలం కళ్లు (రేకులు) మూసుకొన్నది.
2. నక్షత్రాలనే పూలతో అలంకరింపబడిన ఆకాశమనే వేదికపై నాట్యం చేయడానికి రాత్రి అనే స్త్రీకి ఏర్పరచిన ఎఱ్ఱని పరదా వలె పడమటి దిక్కు శోభించింది.
3. ఇంతలో ఆకాశం, భూమి, దిక్కులు ఒక్కటి చేస్తూ చీకటి, ప్రపంచాన్ని కాటుక భరిణిగా మార్చింది.
4. అంతలో తూర్పున చంద్రుడు ఉదయించాడు. అప్పుడు చంద్రబింబం చీకటి అనే పిశాచపు బాధా నివారణకు ముల్లోకాలనెడు స్త్రీ ధరించిన ఎఱ్ఱని బొట్టువలె ఉంది.
5. రాత్రి అనెడు స్త్రీ తూర్పు దిక్కుకు ఇచ్చిన ఎఱ్ఱని గురువింద పూసల దండవలే శశిబింబం ఉంది.
6. ఐరావతం మూపురంపై ఉన్న ఎఱ్ఱని అలంకారంలా, ఇంద్రసభలోని మాణిక్యదీపంలా నెలవంక గోచరించింది.
7. తెల్లకలువ అనురాగ రసంతో నింపిన మాత్రవలె కన్పించింది.
8. స్త్రీలకు ఉత్సాహం పెంచే ఔషధపు ముద్దలా మెరిసింది.
9. అలా అలా చంద్రుడు పెరుగుతూ ఉన్నాడు.
10. ఆకాశమనే వృక్షానికి గల దిక్కులనే కొమ్మలలోని నక్షత్రాలనే పూలు కోయడానికి తన కరములతో ఉత్సాహంగా ఆకాశంలో పాకుతున్నాడు.
11. వెన్నెలనే పాల సముద్రంతో దిశలు, ఆకాశం ముంచుతున్న నెలవంక శేషపాన్పులా కనువిందు చేసింది.
12. చంద్రునిలోని మచ్చ విష్ణువువలె కన్పించింది.
13. ఆ పండు వెన్నెలలో కలువలు బాగా వికసించి, వెన్నెలకు పరవశిస్తూ కొంట్రొత్త సువాసనలు వెదజల్లుతూ నేత్రపర్వం చేస్తున్నాయి.
14. వెన్నెల అనే సముద్రం చంద్రకాంత శిలలను తడుపుతూ, చక్రవాకపక్షుల రెక్కల వేగం పెంచుతూ, విరబూసిన కలువలను ఆకర్షిస్తూ, అనేక విధాల అందగించింది.
15. అందంతో రాత్రి అనే ఆలోచన రానివ్వక వెన్నెల చూచేవారి కళ్లకు అమృతాభిషేకం చేస్తోంది.
16. వెన్నెల తన గంభీరతతో చీకటి అనే పేరు విననివ్వక శరీరానికి గంధపు వర్షం అవుతోంది.
17. ధీరమైన వెన్నెలను చూస్తే పరమాత్మ కూడా గుర్తుకు రాడు.
18. ఎందుకంటే వెన్నెలను చూస్తుంటే అంతరాత్మకు బ్రహ్మానందం కలుగుతుంది.
19. ఈ విధంగా కళ్లకు, శరీరానికి, ఆత్మకు ఆనందకారకమైంది వెన్నెల.
20. ఈ వర్ణన ఎఱ్ఱన కవిత్వంలో కలికితురాయి.

ప్రశ్న 3.
సాయం సంధ్యా సమయంలో ఆకాశం ఎలా ఉందని కవి వర్ణించాడు? అది ఎంతవరకు సమంజసం?
జవాబు:
సూర్యుడు అస్తమించేటపుడు ప్రకృతిని పరిశీలిస్తే మొదట జరిగేది కమలాలు ముడుచుకొంటాయి. అస్తమించే సూర్యునికాంతి వన్నె తగ్గుతుంది. ఆ కాంతిలో వెచ్చదనం తగ్గుతుంది. అందుకే కమలాలు ముడుచుకొంటాయి.

ప్రకృతి సహజమైన దీనిని కవిగారు భార్యాభర్తల సంబంధంతో పోల్చారు. మహా తేజోవంతుడైన సూర్యుని చూసిన కంటితో అల్పతేజస్కులను చూడడానికి అంగీకరించదన్నట్లు పద్మిని తన కమలపు కంటిని మూసుకొన్నది అని చక్కగా వర్ణించారు.

సూర్యుడు పూర్తిగా పడమటి దిక్కుకు చేరి క్రిందకు అస్తమిస్తుంటే పడమటి దిక్కు ఎర్రబారుతుంది. పడమటి దిక్కు ఒక ఎర్రని తెరలా కవిగారు ఊహించారు. ఆ తేర వద్ద నటించడానికి రాత్రి అనే స్త్రీకి ఆకాశమనే వేదిక అలంకరించబడింది. కాలపురుషుడే సూత్రధారి, దిక్పాలకులే ప్రేక్షకులు.

అంటే సూర్యాస్తమయంతో ఒక అంకం ముగిసిపోయింది. క్రొత్త అంకానికి తెరలేచింది. ఇది ఒక అత్యద్భుతమైన నాటక రంగంగా కవి కల్పించాడు. సూర్యుడి అస్తమయంతో ఒక పెద్ద వెలుగు ఆకాశమనే రంగస్థలం నుండి ఖాళీ చేసి వెళ్ళిపోయింది.

రంగస్థలంపై ఎవరైనా కళాకారుడు ఉండాలి తప్ప, వేదిక ఖాళీగా ఉండకూడదు. వెలుగు ఖాళీ చేస్తే ఆ ప్రదేశాన్ని చీకటి ఆక్రమించడం సహజం.

క్రమేణా చీకటి దట్టంగా అలుముకొంది. ఆకాశం, నేల, దిక్కులు అన్నీ చీకటితో నిండిపోయాయి. బ్రహ్మాండంలో , భాగమైన భూగోళం ఒక కాటుక నిండిన భరిణెలా ఉందని ఎఱ్ఱనగారు ఊహించారు.

కవిగారి ఊహ చాలా సమంజసంగా ఉంది.

ప్రశ్న 4.
వెన్నెల వ్యాపించిన విధానాన్ని విశ్లేషించండి.
జవాబు:
వెన్నెల వ్యాపించిన విధానాన్ని ఎఱ్ఱనగారు చక్కగా వర్ణించారు. చంద్రుని ఒక చిన్నబాలుడుగా వర్ణించాడు. చిన్న పిల్లలకు చెట్లెక్కడం సరదా. పూలు, పళ్ళు కోయాలని చేతులు చాపడం సహజం. అది బాల్య చాపల్యం.

ఇక్కడ చంద్రుడు కూడా పుట్టి కొద్దికాలమే అయింది. అందుచే ఆకాశమనే చెట్టు పైకి ప్రాకాడు. దిక్కులనే కొమ్మలకు పూసిన నక్షత్రాలనే చుక్కలను కోయడానికి తన కరములు చాపాడు అని ఎర్రనగారు వర్ణించారు.

చీకటి పడగానే నక్షత్రాలు ఆకాశంలో రావడం సహజం. ఆ తరువాత చంద్రకిరణాలు ఆకాశంలోకి వ్యాపిస్తాయి. చంద్రకిరణాలు వ్యాపించే కొద్దీ వెన్నెల కాంతి పెరుగుతూ ఉంటుంది. వెన్నెల కాంతి పెరుగుతుంటే నక్షత్రాల కాంతి మసకబారుతూ ఉంటుంది. ఇది సహజం. దీనినే ఎర్రనగారు తన ఊహాబలంతో చాలా చక్కగా వర్ణించారు.

తరువాత పద్యంలో వెన్నెలను పాల సముద్రంతో పోల్చారు. చంద్రుడిని ఆదిశేషువుతో పోల్చారు. చంద్రుడిలోని నల్లని మచ్చను శ్రీమహావిష్ణువుతో పోల్చారు.

నిజానికి చంద్రుడి వలన వెన్నెల వ్యాపించింది. అది చంద్రుడిని మించిపోతుంది. చంద్రుడు ఆకాశంలో మాత్రమే కనిపిస్తాడు. వెన్నెల ప్రపపంచమంతా నిండిపోతుంది. దేనికైనా ఆవలి ఒడ్డు, ఈవలి ఒడ్డు ఉంటుంది. కాని అనంతమైనది సముద్రం. సముద్రంలో ఎటుచూసినా నీరే కనిపిస్తుంది. పాలసముద్రంలో ఎటుచూసినా తెల్లదనమే కనిపిస్తుంది. అలాగే ప్రపంచమంతా తెల్లటి వెన్నెలతో నిండిపోయింది.

పాలసముద్రంలో ఆదిశేషుడులా చంద్రుడు కనిపించాడు. ఆదిశేషువు తెలుపు. చంద్రుడు తెలుపే. కాని, చంద్రునిలో నల్లటి మచ్చను కూడా కవి వదలలేదు. అదే మహాకవుల లక్షణం. ఆ మచ్చను శ్రీమహావిష్ణువుతో పోల్చి తన చతురత నిరూపించారు ఎఱ్ఱనగారు.

ప్రశ్న 5.
వెన్నెల పాఠ్యాంశం ఆధారంగా ఎఱ్ఱన రచనా శైలిని విశ్లేషించండి.
జవాబు:
ఎఱ్ఱన వర్ణనలకు గీటురాయి వంటిది వెన్నెల పాఠం. సూర్యాస్తమయం జరిగినపుడు పద్మాలు ముడుచుకోవడం ప్రకృతిలో సాధారణమైన విషయం. కాని, అసమానమైన సూర్యుని చూసిన కంటితో ఇతరులను చూడడానికి అంగీకరించని పద్మిని తన పద్మమనే కంటిని మూసుకొన్నదని చక్కటి వర్ణన చేశాడు. పద్మాన్ని పద్మినీ జాతి స్త్రీతో పోల్చాడు. భార్యాభర్తల సంబంధాన్ని చక్కగా వర్ణించాడు.

‘సురుచిర తారకాకుసుమ శోభి’ అనే పద్యంలో సంధ్యాసమయంలో ఎఱ్ఱబడిన పడమటి దిక్కును పెద్ద తెరతో పోల్చాడు. ఆకాశాన్ని వేదికగా ఊహించాడు. నక్షత్రాలను పుష్పాలుగా ఊహించాడు. కాలమును సూత్రధారిగా భావించాడు. దిక్పాలకులను ప్రేక్షకులను చేశాడు. రాత్రిని నాట్యకత్తెగా మార్చాడు. ఈ పద్యంలో కూడా ఎఱ్ఱన వర్ణనాత్మక శైలిని ప్రదర్శించాడు.

‘దట్టమైన చీకటిని కాటుక భరిణెతో పోల్చి తన పరిశీలనాదృష్టిని ప్రదర్శించాడు.

అప్పుడే ఉదయిస్తున్న చంద్రుడు తన కరములతో ఆకాశమనే వృక్షమునకు గల దిక్కులనే కొమ్మలకు ప్రాకుతూ నక్షత్రాలనే పూలను కోయడానికి ప్రయత్నిస్తున్నాడని వెన్నెల రావడాన్ని చక్కగా వర్ణించాడు.

ఇదే విధంగా ప్రతి పద్యంలోనూ ఎఱ్ఱనగారు తన ప్రత్యేకతను నిరూపించుకొన్నారు.

ప్రశ్న 6.
సూర్యాస్తమయానికి, చంద్రోదయానికి మధ్య కాలాన్ని కవి ఎలా వర్ణించాడు?
జవాబు:
“పద్మిని, తన ప్రియుడయిన గొప్ప తేజస్సు కల సూర్యుడిని చూసిన తన కళ్ళతో, అల్ప కాంతికల పరపురుషులను చూడడం తగదన్నట్లుగా, కదలుతున్న తుమ్మెద అనే నల్లగ్రుడ్డు కల పద్మం వంటి తన కన్నును మూసుకుందని” కవి వర్ణించాడు. అంటే సూర్యాస్తమయం కాగానే పద్మాలు ముడుచుకున్నాయని పద్మాలలో తుమ్మెదలు చిక్కుకున్నాయని భావం. పద్మాలు ముడుచుకోవడం, అవి తమ పతి భక్తిని ప్రదర్శించడానికా అన్నట్లు ఉందని కవి వర్ణించాడు.

1. రాత్రి అనే స్త్రీ చేయబోయే నాట్యానికి, రంగస్థలం మీద కట్టిన ఎఱ్ఱరంగు తోపు తెరవలె, పడమటి దిక్కున ఆకాశంలో సంధ్యారాగం కనబడింది.
2. చుక్కలతో కూడిన ఆకాశం, పువ్వులతో అలంకరించిన నాట్య రంగస్థలం వలె కన్పడింది.
3. రాత్రి అనే స్త్రీ ‘నర్తకి’ వలె ఉంది.
4. కాలము అనేది నాటక సూత్రధారుడు వలె ఉంది. అంటే సంధ్యాకాలమయ్యింది. పడమటి దిక్కున ఆకాశం ఎఱుపురంగులో కనబడుతోంది. ఆకాశంలో నక్షత్రాలు ఉదయించాయి. రాత్రి వస్తోంది. రాత్రి తన చీకటిని అంతా వ్యాపింప చేస్తుందని కవి తెలిపాడు.

ప్రశ్న 7.
చంద్రోదయానికి ముందు ప్రకృతి ఎలా ఉందో వివరించండి.
జవాబు:
1) చంద్రుడు, దిక్కులు అనే కొమ్మలను, తన పొడవైన కిరణాలు అనే చేతులతో పట్టుకొని, పైకి లేచి, ఆకాశము అనే చెట్టు యొక్క నక్షత్రాలు అనే పువ్వులను కోయడం కోసమేమో అన్నట్టు ఆకాశంలోకి పాకాడు. అంటే చంద్రుడి , కాంతి, ఆకాశం అంతా వ్యాపించిందని భావము.

2) వెన్నెల ప్రవాహం పాలసముద్రంలా పొంగి అన్ని దిక్కులనూ, ఆకాశాన్ని ముంచెత్తింది. అప్పుడు చంద్రబింబం, ఆ పాలసముద్రంలో గుండ్రంగా చుట్టుకొన్న ఆదిశేషుడి శయ్యను ఏర్పాటు చేసినట్లు ఉంది. చంద్రుడిలోని నల్లని మచ్చ ఆదిశేషువు శయ్యపై మధ్యలో ఉన్న విష్ణుమూర్తివలె కనబడింది.

అంటే చంద్రుడి వెన్నెల పాలసముద్రంలా కనబడింది. చంద్రబింబం, పాలసముద్రంలో విష్ణుమూర్తి నిద్రించే శేషుని పానుపు వలె కనిపించింది. చంద్రుడిలోని నల్లని మచ్చ, ఆదిశేషువుపై నిద్రించిన నీలవర్ణుడైన విష్ణువువలె కన్పించిందన్న మాట.

ప్రశ్న 8.
కవి వెన్నెలను ఏయే అంశాల ఆధారంగా వర్ణించాడు?
జవాబు:
కవి ఎట్టి ప్రెగ్గడ, వెన్నెలను వర్ణించడానికి క్రింది వస్తువులను ఎన్నుకొన్నాడు.

1. వెన్నెల పాలసముద్రంలా తెల్లగా వ్యాపించిందన్నాడు.
2. నిండు వెన్నెలలో కలువ పువ్వురేకులు విచ్చుకున్నాయని చెప్పాడు.
3. వెన్నెలకు చంద్రకాంత శిలలు కరిగి, జడివానలు కురిశాయన్నాడు.
4. చకోరపక్షులు, తమ రెక్కలతో వెన్నలను స్పృశించాయన్నాడు.
5. వెన్నెల, స్త్రీల అందమైన చిఱునవ్వుల కాంతి వలే ఉందన్నాడు.
6. వెన్నెల, సముద్రజలంలా వ్యాపించిందన్నాడు.
7. చూసే వారి కళ్ళకు వెన్నెల, అమృతపు జల్లులా, శరీరానికి పూసిన మంచిగంధపు పూతలా ఉందన్నాడు.
8. వెన్నెల చూసే వారి మనస్సులకు ఆనంద తరంగము వలె ఉందన్నాడు.

ప్రశ్న 9.
వెన్నెల వ్యాపించినపుడు ప్రకృతిలో కలిగిన మార్పులేమి?
జవాబు:
చంద్రోదయము :

1. చంద్రుడు ఉదయించాడు. వెన్నెల ప్రవాహం, పాలసముద్రంలా పొంగి ఆకాశాన్ని ముంచెత్తింది.
2. చంద్రబింబం, ఆ పాలసముద్రములో గుండ్రంగా చుట్టుకొన్న ఆదిశేషుడి పానుపులా, చంద్రుడిలోని మచ్చ, ఆ శయ్యపై ఉన్న విష్ణువులా కనబడింది.
3. ఆ వెన్నెలలో కలువటేకులు విచ్చుకున్నాయి. కలువపూలలో తేనెలు పొంగి, కెరటాలుగా విజృంభించాయి. తుమ్మెదలకు విందు చేస్తూ పూల పరిమళాలు వ్యాపించాయి.
4. చంద్రకాంత శిలలు కరిగిన జడివానలతో, చకోరాల టెక్కల స్పర్శలతో, స్త్రీల చిఱునవ్వుల కాంతులతో అతిశయించి, దిక్కులన్నింటిలో ముంచెత్తి, వెన్నెల సముద్రంలా వ్యాపించింది. ఈ విధంగా అందంగా, గంభీరంగా, నిండుగా చంద్రుని వెన్నెల వ్యాపించింది.

ప్రశ్న 10.
చంద్రోదయానికి ముందు, తరువాత జరిగిన మార్పులను వివరించండి.
జవాబు:
చంద్రోదయానికి ముందు మార్పులు :

1. సూర్యుడు అస్తమించాడు.
2. పద్మములు ముడచుకున్నాయి.
3. తుమ్మెదలు ఆ పద్మాలలో చిక్కుపడ్డాయి.
4. పడమటి దిక్కున సంధ్యారాగం కనబడింది.
5. ఆకాశంలో నక్షత్రాలు ఉదయించాయి.
6. చీకటి బాగా పెరిగి, దిక్కులూ, భూమ్యాకాశాలు దానిలో కలిసి పోయాయి.
7. విశ్వం, కాటుక నింపిన బరిణెయా అన్నట్లు కనబడింది.

చంద్రోదయము తరువాత జరిగిన మార్పులు :

1. చంద్రుడు ఉదయించగానే, వెన్నెల ప్రవాహం పాలసముద్రం వలె పొంగి ఆకాశాన్ని ముంచెత్తింది.
2. చంద్రబింబం, ఆ పాలసముద్రంలో చుట్టచుట్టుకొన్న ఆదిశేషువు శయ్యవలె కనిపించింది.
3. చంద్రుడిలోని మచ్చ, ఆ శయ్య మధ్యన ఉన్న విష్ణువువలె కనబడింది.
4. వెన్నెలలో కలువరేకులు విచ్చుకున్నాయి. కలువలలో తేనెలు ఉప్పొంగాయి.
5. పువ్వుల పరిమళాలు వ్యాపించాయి. 6) చంద్రకాంత శిలలు కరిగి జడివానలు కురిశాయి.
6. చకోరాల లెక్కల స్పర్శలతో, స్త్రీల చిరునవ్వుల కాంతులతో అతిశయించి, వెన్నెల దిక్కులన్నింటినీ ముంచెత్తి, సముద్రంలా వ్యాపించింది.

10th Class Telugu 4th Lesson వెన్నెల Important Questions and Answers

ప్రశ్న 1.
నీకు నచ్చిన ప్రకృతి దృశ్యాన్ని వర్ణిస్తూ ఒక కవిత రాయండి.
జవాబు:
చంద్రోదయము
1) “చెరువులో నీరు గాలికి తిరుగుచుండె
కలువపుష్పాలు వికసించి కనులు తెరిచె
పూల గంధాల మధుపాలు మురియుచుండె
చంద్రకాంతులు వ్యాపించే జగము నిండ”

2) దివిని చుక్కల పూవులు తేజరిల్లె
రాత్రి సతికట్టె నల్లని రంగు చీర
చంద్రుని రాకకు జగమంత సంతసించె
విశ్వమంతకు వెన్నెల విందు చేసె

ప్రశ్న 2.
మీ పాఠం (వెన్నెల) ఆధారంగా ఎఱ్ఱన రచనా శైలిని వివరిస్తూ మీ తండ్రిగారికి లేఖ రాయండి.
జవాబు:

విశాఖపట్టణము, x x x x x. పియ్రమైన నాన్నగార్కి, నమస్కారములు. ఉభయకుశలోపరి. అమ్మకు నమస్కారాలు చెప్పండి. ఈ మధ్య మాకు ఎఱ్ఱన కవి రచించిన నృసింహపురాణంలోని వెన్నెల పాఠాన్ని చెప్పారు. వెన్నెల పాఠంలో అద్భుతమైన వర్ణనలు ఉన్నాయి. ఈ పద్యాలలో ఎఱ్ఱా ప్రెగ్గడ కవి, సంధ్యాకాలాన్ని, చంద్రోదయాన్ని బాగా వర్ణించాడు. మీకు కవిత్వం అంటే ఇష్టమని ఇది రాస్తున్నా. సూర్యుడిని చూసిన కళ్ళతో పరపురుషులను చూడ్డానికి ఇష్టపడని పద్మిని, కళ్ళు మూసుకుందని పద్మము, సాయంత్రం వేళ ముడుచుకోవడాన్ని చక్కగా ఎఱ్ఱన వర్ణించాడు. మరో పద్యంలో ఆకాశాన్ని రంగస్థలంతో పోల్చాడు. కాలాన్ని నాటకంలో సూత్రధారిగా చెప్పాడు. దిక్పాలకులను నాటక ప్రేక్షకులుగా వర్ణించాడు. సంధ్యాకాలంలోని ఆకాశాన్ని తోపురంగు నాటకం తెరగా వర్ణించాడు. ఎఱ్ఱన గారి వర్ణన శైలి అద్భుతము. అందుకే ఎఱ్ఱన గారిని ‘ప్రబంధ పరమేశ్వరుడు’ అంటారు. వర్ణనలు చేయడంలో ఎఱ్ఱన కవికి సాటి మరి లేరని నా నమ్మకం. మీరు కూడా చదవండి. లేఖ రాయండి. ఉంటా. మీ ప్రియపుత్రుడు, / పుత్రిక, రంగనాథ్. / శ్యామల. చిరునామా: కె. రమణగారు, ఇంటినెంబరు 3. 216, గాంధీనగర్, శ్రీకాకుళం, ఆంధ్రప్రదేశ్.

ప్రశ్న 3.
వెన్నెలను వర్ణిస్తూ కవిత వ్రాయండి.
జవాబు:
“వెన్నెలా ! కన్నెపిల్లల చిన్నారి ముద్దుల చెల్లెలా !
వెన్నెలా ! ప్రేమికుల మనసుల మల్లెచెండులా
వెన్నెలా ! చంద్రుని చిరునవ్వుల పన్నీరులా
వెన్నెలా ! పసిపాపల ముద్దుల బోసి నవ్వులా
వెన్నెలా ! కన్నతల్లుల కమనీయ రాగవెల్లిలా
వెన్నెలా ! మా చిన్నారి పొన్నారి చెల్లెలా
వెన్నెలా ! కలువల చుట్టపు చూపులా
వెన్నెలా ఉన్నావు, చల్లావు చంద్రికలు
నయనారవిందాల నయగార మధురిమలు”

ప్రశ్న 4.
వర్ణన ఎలా ఉంటుందో తెలిసింది కదా! ఉషోదయ కాలం నుండి రాత్రి నిండుపున్నమి వెన్నెల వచ్చే వరకు రోజంతా ఆకాశంలో జరిగే మార్పుల్ని గురించి వర్ణిస్తూ రాయండి.
జవాబు:
ఉషోదయ కాలంలో ఆకాశంలో వేగుచుక్క కనిపిస్తుంది. అక్కడక్కడ చుక్కలు కనబడతాయి. క్రమంగా తూర్పు దిక్కున సూర్యబింబం ఎఱ్ఱని పెద్ద బంతిలా కనబడుతుంది. తెల్లవారేక సూర్యోదయం తూర్పుదిశలో జరుగుతుంది.

ఎండ ఎక్కిన కొద్దీ సూర్యకిరణాలు కరకరలాడుతాయి. మధ్యాహ్నం వేళ సూర్యుడు నడినెత్తిమీదికి వస్తాడు. క్రమంగా సూర్యుడు పడమటి దిశకు జారుతాడు. అక్షాశంలో పడమటి దిశలో పేదరాశి పెద్దమ్మ కుంకుమ ఆరబోసుకున్నట్లు ఆకాశం ఎరుపెక్కుతుంది. సూర్యబింబం ఎరుపు ఎక్కుతుంది.

సాయంత్రం 7 గంటలకు ఆకాశంలోని నక్షత్రాలు ఉదయిస్తాయి. చంద్రబింబం ఎఱుపుగా కనబడుతుంది. చంద్రోదయం కాగానే చల్లదనం ప్రాణాలకు హాయిని ఇస్తుంది. మేఘాల కదలికలో చంద్రబింబం ప్రయాణిస్తున్నట్లు ఉంటుంది.

ప్రశ్న 5.
ఎఱ్ఱన రచించిన వెన్నెల పాఠంలోని వర్ణనలు నీకెందుకు నచ్చిందో వివరిస్తూ నీ మిత్రునికి లేఖ వ్రాయి.
జవాబు:

అమలాపురం, x x x x x ప్రియమిత్రుడు శేఖర్ కు, నీ మిత్రుడు రాజేష్ వ్రాయులేఖ. నేను బాగా చదువుచున్నాను. నీవు కూడా బాగా చదువుతున్నావనుకొంటున్నాను. నేను ఈ లేఖలో ‘వెన్నెల’ పాఠం గురించి వ్రాస్తున్నాను. వెన్నెల పాఠంలోని ఎఱ్ఱన గారి వర్ణనలు చాలా బాగున్నాయి. ముఖ్యంగా మొదటి పద్యంలో సూర్యుడిని చూసిన కళ్ళతో ఇతరులను చూడడానికి ఇష్టం లేని పద్మిని తన కమలపు కన్నును మూసుకొందని వర్ణించిన తీరు నాకు చాలా నచ్చింది. సూర్యస్తమయం అయినపుడు కమలాలు ముడుచుకోవడం సహజం. దానిని చక్కగా భార్యాభర్తల అనురాగంతో పోల్చిన ఎఱ్ఱనగారి చతురత నాకు నచ్చింది. రెండవ పద్యంలో ఆకాశాన్ని రంగస్థలంతో పోల్చారు. కాలమును సూత్రధారిగా ఊహించారు. దిక్పాలకులను ప్రేక్షకులను చేశారు. రాత్రిని నాట్యకత్తెగా భావించారు. ఎఱ్ఱబారిన పడమటి దిక్కును పెద్ద తెరగా ఊహించారు. సాయంకాలపు సంధ్యా సమయాన్ని ఇంత బాగా ఊహించిన కవి మరొకరు లేరేమో అనిపిస్తుంది. నాకు మాత్రం వెన్నెల పాఠంలోని ప్రతి పద్యం చాలా సచ్చింది. ఆ అద్భుతమైన వర్ణనలు ఎవరికైనా నచ్చుతాయిలే. అందుకే ఎఱ్ఱనను ప్రబంధ పరమేశ్వరుడన్నారని మా గురువుగారు చెప్పారు. నీకు ఏ పాఠం నచ్చిందో వ్రాయి. ఎందుకు నచ్చిందో వివరంగా వ్రాయి. ఇక ఉంటా మరి. ఇట్లు నీ స్నేహితుడు, పి. రాజేష్, చిరునామా: కె. శేఖర్, నెం. 8, బి. సెక్షన్, 10వ తరగతి, జి.ప. ఉ. పాఠశాల, సత్తెనపల్లి, గుంటూరు జిల్లా.

10th Class Telugu 4th Lesson వెన్నెల 1 Mark Bits

1. దేవతలు దివి నుండి భువికి దిగి వచ్చారు – గీత గీసిన పదానికి అర్థం గుర్తించండి. (June 2017).
A) సముద్రం
B) పాతాళం
C) ఆకాశం
D) చీకటి
జవాబు:
C) ఆకాశం

2. నెమలి ఎగిరి వచ్చి పామును పట్టి చంపింది – గీత గీసిన పదాలకు నానార్థ పదాన్ని గుర్తించండి. (June 2017)
A) వనం
B) ఫలం
C) కులం
D) కుండలి
జవాబు:
D) కుండలి

3. వెన్నెల అన్ని దెసలకు వ్యాపించింది – గీత గీసిన పదానికి ప్రకృతి పదాన్ని గుర్తించండి. (June 2017)
A) దిశ
B) దేశం
C) దివాణం
D) దిక్కు
జవాబు:
A) దిశ

4. ‘UUU’ గుర్తులు గల గణమేది ? (June 2017)
A) య గణం
B) ర గణం
C) మ గణం
D) త గణం
జవాబు:
C) మ గణం

5. రజనీకర బింబమును చూస్తే పిల్లలు ఆనందిస్తారు – (గీత గీసిన పదమునకు అర్థమును గుర్తించుము.) (March 2017)
A) సూర్యబింబము
B) చంద్రబింబము
C) ప్రతిబింబము
D) ఆకాశం
జవాబు:
B) చంద్రబింబము

6. విద్యార్థులు చదువు పట్ల శ్రద్ధాసక్తులు కల్గియుండాలి – (గీత గీసిన పదము ఏ సమాసమో గుర్తించుము. ) (March 2017)
A) కర్మధారయం
B) బహుబ్లిహి
C) తత్పురుషం
D) ద్వంద్వము
జవాబు:
D) ద్వంద్వము

7. ఉత్పలమాల పద్యంలో యతిస్థానం గుర్తించండి. (March 2017)
A) 14వ అక్షరం
B) 10వ అక్షరం
C) 13వ అక్షరం
D) 11వ అక్షరం
జవాబు:
B) 10వ అక్షరం

8. దెసలను కొమ్మ లొయ్య నతిదీర్ఘములైన కరంబులన్ బ్రియం – ఏ పద్యపాదమో గుర్తించండి. (March 2017)
A) ఉత్పలమాల
B) శార్దూలం
C) చంపకమాల
D) మత్తేభం
జవాబు:
C) చంపకమాల

9. భూరుహములు జీవులకు ప్రాణవాయువును ఇస్తున్నాయి – గీత గీసిన పదానికి సరియైన అర్థాన్ని గుర్తించండి. (June 2018)
A) నదులు
B) సముద్రాలు
C) చెట్లు
D) పర్వతాలు
జవాబు:
C) చెట్లు

10. కష్టాలు మిక్కుటమైనందున, రైతులు ప్రభుత్వ సహాయం కొరకు ఎదురుచూస్తున్నారు – గీత గీసిన పదానికి పర్యాయపదాలను గుర్తించండి. (June 2018)
A) అధికం, సమానం
B) క్షామం, మితం
C) ఎక్కువ, అధికం
D) తక్కువ, పరిమితం
జవాబు:
C) ఎక్కువ, అధికం

11. దినకరుడు రాగానే లోకమంతా చైతన్యమౌతుంది. అందుకే సూర్యుడు మనకు ప్రత్యక్ష దైవం – గీత గీసిన పదాలకు పర్యాయపదాన్ని గుర్తించండి. (June 2018)
A) స్నేహితుడు
B) చంద్రుడు
C) ధనికుడు
D) ఇనుడు
జవాబు:
D) ఇనుడు

12. ప్రతి పాదంలో ఒక సూర్యగణం + రెండు ఇంద్రగణములు + రెండు సూర్యగణములు క్రమముగా ఉండే పద్యము పేరు గుర్తించండి. (June 2018)
A) కందం
B) సీసము
C) తేటగీతి
D) ఆటవెలది
జవాబు:
C) తేటగీతి

13. వెన్నెల పిండారబోసినట్లుండటం శరత్కాలపు లక్షణం – గీత గీసిన పదానికి పర్యాయపదాలను గుర్తించండి. (March 2018)
A) కౌముది, జ్యోత్స్న
B) చీకటి, తమస్సు
C) కోరిక, కాంక్ష
D) నిశి, నుసి
జవాబు:
A) కౌముది, జ్యోత్స్న

14. ఎటువంటి పరిస్థితిలోనైన ధర్మం వీడరాదు. (వికృతి గుర్తించండి) (S.N. I – 2018-19)
A) దమ్మం
B) దరమం
C) దరుమం
D) దరువుం
జవాబు:
A) దమ్మం

15. మానవునిచే ప్రకృతి ఒడి పాఠశాలగా చేసుకోబడింది. (కర్తరి వాక్యం గుర్తించండి.) (June 2017)
A) మానవుడు ప్రకృతి ఒడిని పాఠశాలగా చేసుకున్నాడు.
B) మానవుడు ప్రకృతి ఒడిని పాఠశాలగా చేసుకోలేదు.
C) మానవునిచే ప్రకృతి,పాఠశాలగా చేసుకోబడింది.
D) మానవుడు ప్రకృతిలో పాఠశాల నిర్మించాడు.
జవాబు:
A) మానవుడు ప్రకృతి ఒడిని పాఠశాలగా చేసుకున్నాడు.

16. చంద్రుడిలోని మచ్చ విష్ణువులాగ కనిపిస్తూ అలరింపబడుతున్నది – కర్తరి వాక్యం గుర్తించండి. (June 2018)
A) చంద్రుడిలోని మచ్చ విష్ణువులాగా కనిపిస్తూ అలరిస్తున్నది.
B) చంద్రుడిలోని మచ్చ విష్ణువులాగ అలరించడం లేదు.
C) చంద్రుడిలోని మచ్చ శివునిలాగ కనిపిస్తోంది.
D) చంద్రుడిలోని మచ్చ విష్ణువనే భ్రాంతి కలిగిస్తోంది.
జవాబు:
A) చంద్రుడిలోని మచ్చ విష్ణువులాగా కనిపిస్తూ అలరిస్తున్నది.

17. వెన్నెల రాత్రిని పగలుగా మారుస్తున్నది – వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యాన్ని గుర్తించండి. (June 2018)
A) చీకటి రాత్రిని పగలుగా మారుస్తున్నది.
B) వెన్నెల రాత్రిని పగలుగా మార్చడం లేదు.
C) వెన్నెల పగలును రాత్రిగా మారుస్తున్నది.
D) వెన్నెల రాత్రిని రాత్రిగానే ఉంచుతుంది.
జవాబు:
B) వెన్నెల రాత్రిని పగలుగా మార్చడం లేదు.

18. వెన్నెల కాలంలో రాత్రింబవళ్లు వెలుగుంటుంది. (ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యమో గుర్తించండి) (S.N. I – 2018-19)
A) చేదగ్ధక వాక్యం
B) సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం
C) సంయుక్త వాక్యం
D) నిషేధార్థక వాక్యం
జవాబు:
C) సంయుక్త వాక్యం

19. వానలు వస్తే పంటలు పండుతాయి. (ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యమో గుర్తించండి) (S.I. I – 2018 -19)
A) సంయుక్తం
B) చేదర్థకం
C) సామర్థ్యార్థకం
D) విధ్యర్థకం
జవాబు:
B) చేదర్థకం

These AP 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 8th Lesson People and Migration will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social 8th Lesson Important Questions and Answers People and Migration

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are Kopis?
Answer:
Kopis are conical huts made of bamboo mats and poles.

Question 2.
Write any one reason for international migration.
Answer:
Education and Employment are the main reasons for international migration.

Observe the graph below and answer questions 3, 4.

Question 3.
Which social background people are migrating more?
Answer:
OBC are migrating more.

Question 4.
What is the reason for short term migration?
Answer:
The reason for short term migration in rural areas is distress caused there.

Question 5.
Draw a rough pie chart to represent the information given in the table.
Population Expansion in Urban Regions 2001 – 2011

Causes	%
Natural Increases	44%
Expansion of Urban Area	32%
Migration	24%

Answer:

Question 6.
How does migration arise?
Answer:
Migration arises out of various social, economic or political reasons.

Question 7.
How can we identify a person as a migrant?
Answer:
For identifying a person as a migrant, two criteria are used by the centres :

• birthplace
• last usual place of residence.

Question 8.
What is the most common reason for male migration?
Answer:
Employment or seeking employment is the most common reason for male migration.

Question 9.
Give some other reasons for migration.
Answer:
Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities for studies, loss in business, family, friends, etc. are also some other reasons for migration.

Question 10.
Where do the urban migrants have to work?
Answer:
Most urban migrants have to work in the unorganised sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Question 11.
Which has been recognised as a natural response?
Answer:
For some people from rural areas moving to cities and towns to work in industry and other service activities have been recognised as a natural response to increase their in¬come and for better family prospects.

Question 12.
Why do migrants continue to live as daily workers?
Answer:
The migrants from rural to urban are not able to find jobs in the organised sector and therefore there’s no job security and decent income that they were aspiring for. They continue to live as daily workers.

Question 13.
Why is the number of seasonal migrants underestimated in India?
Answer:
The number of seasonal migrants is underestimated in India due to limitations in the definition of the term ‘migrant’ used in national surveys.

Question 14.
What is the Emigration Act, 1983?
Answer:
The Emigration Act, 1983 is the Indian law governing migration and employment of Indians abroad.

Question 15.
What are living areas of the sugarcane cutters?
Answer:
The Kopis are cramped together and bullocks are parked in front. Animals and humans live together in congested conditions.

Question 16.
Who are the rural seasonal migrants?
Answer:
The rural seasonal migrants are mainly agricultural labourers or marginal farmers in their place of origin and mostly belong to low-income households, dalits and Adivasis.

Question 17.
Where do rural seasonal migrants work?
Answer:
The rural seasonal migrants work in agriculture and plantations, brick kilns, quarries, construction sites and fish processing.

Question 18.
Who have a long history of migrating?
Answer:
Male from Saora tribals have a long history of migrating to work in Assam plantation, Munda and Santhal men migrate to work in mining sites in Odisha.

Question 19.
Which depend on migrant workers?
Answer:
Construction sites in most urban areas depend on migrant workers.

Question 20.
“It is also common to see migrants”
What is it?
Answer:
It is also common to see migrants selling plastic goods, vegetables, and engage in their petty businesses and casual labour.

Question 21.
What is the economic condition of the seasonal migrants?
Answer:
Seasonal migrants are not only poor but have little or no land at their native place.

Question 22.
What did the N.C.R.L. find?
Answer:
The National Commission of Rural Labour in its reports in 1990s found that uneven development and regional disparity triggered and accelerated seasonal migration.

Question 23.
How do the migrant labourers spend?
Answer:
Migrant labourers spend more on food as they cannot get food grains from fair price shops at their workplaces.

Question 24.
Why do they suffer from health problems?
Answer:
As they live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions, they suffer from health problems and are prone to diseases.

Question 25.
Name some health problems from which they suffer.
Answer:
Bodyache, sunstroke, skin irritation and lung diseases.

Question 26.
Why are migrants not able to access various health and family care programmes?
Answer:
Migrants are not able to access various health and family care programmes as they do not belong to the organised sector.

Question 27.
Do the migrant workers have maternity leave?
Answer:
No, they do not have maternity leave.

Question 28.
Which leaves a deep impact on migrants?
Answer:
Exposure to a different environment, stress associated with it, food available and social atmosphere leave a deep impact on migrants.

Question 29.
What does migration allow?
Answer:
Migration allows households to meet debt and other obligations without having to sell assets. It is also common to find migrant families buying house, land, agricultural machinery and consumer durables.

Question 30.
How do some migrants migrate regularly?
Answer:
Some migrants might take up jobs in the destination, acquire skills required in the destination area, become aware of how to get regular jobs and migrate regularly or permanently.

Question 31.
How many kinds of migrations are there? What are they?
Answer:
There are two kinds of migrations.
They are:

1. Internal migrations
2. International migrations.

Question 32.
Where do the skilled Indians migrate?
Answer:
The skilled Indians migrate to the U.S.A., the U.K., Canada, Germany, Norway, Japan and Malaysia.

Question 33.
What is the second type of international migration?
Answer:
The second type of international migration is unskilled and semi-skilled workers migrating to oil-exporting countries of West Asia on temporary contracts.

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

When males leave their families, this is also a major challenge for women who have to take care of all the responsibilities of the family and elderly people who need care. Young girls in such families are required to take care of siblings and many of them become dropouts.

What is the effect on girls if the head of the family migrates?
Answer:
When the head of the family migrates, the burden of the family falls on the woman. She has to work, earn and lead the family. As she works outside of the house, the girl children should take care of the younger children and elder people in the home, So they are becoming dropouts.

Question 2.
What do you suggest to overcome the problems of foreign migrants?
Answer:

1. The government should take care of their security i.e., the embassies.
2. They should not believe on unauthorized intermediators.
3. Legal documents should be verified properly.

Question 3.
Do you think migrants are trouble makers? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. Yes. I think migrants are trouble makers.
2. The migrants may not be provided with proper facilities by the government.
3. The migrants may question for proper facilities in the long course.
4. If the migrants begin to fight for their identity, then the trouble will start.
   Ex: Tamil people in Sri Lanka.

(OR)

1. No. I think migrants are not trouble makers.
2. Generally migrants go for their livelihood.
3. Therefore no scope to fight for domination.
4. Migrants won’t trouble anybody because they won’t fight for identity and domination.
   Ex: Sugarcane cutters in Maharashtra.

Question 4.
What are the problems faced by migrant labourers from villages to cities?
Answer:

1. They have to face the problem for proper shelter and settlement.
2. They may require references for jobs.
3. As they have to work in the unorganised sector, they would have neither job security nor any incentives.
4. They have to spend more on food.

Question 5.
Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes.

In urban areas, what are the common sectors of the economy in which migrants from the rural areas find employment? Give examples.
Answer:
In urban areas the unorganised sector is the common sector of the economy in which migrants from the rural areas find employment.

Question 6.
List out the reasons why the people have been migrating from your area.
Answer:
The following are the reasons for the people migrating from my area :

1. Marriage is one of the most common reasons for female migration.
2. Employment or seeking employment is another reason for males to migrate.
3. Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities in the native place, better opportunity for studies, loss in business, family feuds etc. is the other causes for migrating.

Question 7.
What are the reasons for migration?
Answer:

1. Migrations can happen due to many reasons.
2. Females reported marriage as the most common reason.
3. Males migrate on employment or seeking employment opportunities.
4. Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities in the native place is one reason.
5. Better opportunity for studies, loss in business, family feuds are some other reasons for migration.

Question 8.
Create a pamphlet on “Prevention of Migration”.
Answer:

PREVENTION OF MIGRATION

Reasons: When families migrate, they live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions, they suffer from health problems and are prone to diseases.

Migratory pressures on communities of origin can be related social and economic distress. They can be linked to environmental degradation as well as natural man made hazards and they can be due persecution on conflict and violence. By supporting disaster preparedness and building resilence at the community level.

Conclusion: Why should we prevent means reduce the problems. National societies contributing to elevating pressures that can induce people to migrate against their will and desire.

Question 9.
How does the gender bias effect when the women work outside of the home nowadays?
Answer:
Before the rise of large scale industrialization, home and workplace were one and the same. But now the disparity between men and women in the workplaces is a common issue.

Workers acknowledge gender discrimination is possible in modem organizations, but at the same time maintain their workplaces to be gender-neutral.

Women are facing a high degree of gender bias when it comes to their career. There is a general perception that women are less capable than men in matters of business and decision making.

It is often a strenuous struggle for a woman not just to her mettle but also to make a deserving way to the top. Career goals of women are considered less important compared to male counterparts. The disparity is also seen in the wages and salaries also. Thus the relationship is negative.

Question 10.
Study the information given below and write your observations.

Answer:

1. The above pie diagram is about the social background of short term migrants.
2. OBC and ST account for 40% and 23% of the migrants respectively.
3. Most of the OBC are skilled in making some items.
4. So they produce the articles and migrate to cities to sell their products.
5. SC people are benefited by the schemes provided by the government and their share is less.

Question 11.
‘Most children of migrant families become drop-outs.’ Do you agree with this statement? Justify your answer.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree that children become dropout if the parents are migrants.
2. When families migrate, children also accompany their parents.
3. They cannot get admission in schools in their parents workplace without transfer certificate.
4. Schools in their native place refuse to take them when they come back.
5. When parents migrate, the elder child especially the girl child, has to take care of the younger siblings.
6. Due to the above reasons, the children become dropouts.

Question 12.
Why are Embassies set up?
Answer:
Embassies set up by the Indian Government in different countries are expected to follow the legal procedures and protect the welfare of the international migrants as given in the Emigration Act.

Question 13.
Which depends upon the needs of rural family members?
Answer:
Remittances – money sent by migrants from their destination – are an important means of supplementing, or generating additional incomes for the rural family. The amount of remittances and the pressure to remain in the urban areas depends upon the needs of rural family members.

Question 14.
Why do migrants retain the economic ties in rural areas?
Answer:
Migrants retain the economic ties in rural areas because they want to safeguard their rights over land and homestead. Families left in rural areas are important for most urban migrants. In feet, it is the family which decides whether their family member should migrate or not.

Question 15.
Write about Sugar belt.
Answer:
The seven districts in western Maharashtra- Nasik, Ahmadnagar, Pune, Satara, Sangli, Kolhapur and Sholapur – comprise the”sugar belt” which extends into Surat(Gujarat) in the north and Belgaum(Karnataka) in the south. Five districts of the arid Marathwada region – Beed, Jalgaon, Ahmadnagar, Nasik and Jalna – send out labour to this sugar belt for six months every year for sugarcane harvesting.

Question 16.
Why do people migrate from rural areas?
Answer:
People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities, inadequate income available in rural employment. They also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better services.

Question 17.
Why do many families have residences at both the ends?
Answer:
Many families have residences both at their origin- (native place) and at the destination. They shift between the two depending on work and seasons. The migration does not necessarily involve the movement of all members of the family, and often the wife remains in the rural area.

Question 18.
Why do migrants also pass on the urban opportunities to the rural areas?
Answer:
Migrants also pass on the urban opportunities to the rural areas so that potential migrants can engage in the rural-based job search. In most cases, migration is a survival strategy for many families.

Question 19.

Estimate the rural to urban migration from Bihar to Lucknow, Kolkata and Delhi.
Answer:

1. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Lucknow = 2 lakhs
2. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Kolkata = 2 lakhs
3. Rural to urban migration from Bihar to Delhi = 6 lakhs

Question 20.
From which states in migrations are high? Give reasons.
Answer:
Migrations are high from states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Kerala. Western Uttar Pradesh and Delhi are industrially developed.

Question 21.
Read the above graph and answer the following questions.

1. In the Decade of 1961-71 the urban population of India is ………..
   Answer:
   The urban population of India in 1961 – 71 is 31 million.
2. At the end of 2001-11 decade the urban population is ………..
   Answer:
   The urban population of India in 2001 -11 is 91 mn.
3. How many times did the urban population increase from 1961-71 decade to 2001-11 decade?
   Answer:
   The urban population increased from 1961 – 71 to 2001 -11 is by 3 times.

Question 22.
Graph: Social Background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08

Read the given Pie diagram and answer the following questions.

1. How much per cent of STis migrated in 2007-08?
   Answer:
   ST’s constitute 23% of the migrated in 2007 – 08.
2. Which is the maximum migrated class In 2007-08? what is its percentage?
   Answer:
   The maximum migration is from the class of OBCs and it is 40%.
3. In which class we notice minimum migrants?
   Answer:
   The minimum migrants are there from others which is 18%.

10th Class Social 8th Lesson People and Migration 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the meaning of international migration? Identify the reasons and consequences of it.
Answer:
Migration of the people from one country to another country due to various reasons is called “international migration”.
Reasons:

1. For higher education
2. For better employment opportunities
3. For business needs Consequences:
4. Financial conditions of the migrant families improve.
5. They are able to pay back loans and buy assets.
6. Changes occur in their lifestyle.
7. Brain drain has become a major hazard to the progress of the country’s economy.

Question 2.

When families migrate, children accompanying their parents do not have creche facilities. Grown-up children are not able to continue their studies at their parents’ new workplaces. Schools in their native place refuse to take them again when they come back. They finally become dropouts. When males leave their families this is also a major challenge for women who have to take care of all the responsibilities of the family and elderly people who need care. Young girls in such families are required to take care of siblings and many of them become dropouts.

“Most of the children of migrant families become dropouts” – Comment.
Answer:

1. Yes, it is true. When families migrate most of the children of migrant families become dropouts.
2. At the place of migration, creche facilities are not available for the children.
3. Even if there are such facilities poor families cannot afford them.
4. Sometimes even schools are not available at migrant places.
5. Schools in their native places refuse to take them again when they come back.
6. This is damaging their interest in studies.
7. Young girls in migrant families often required to take care of their siblings.
8. Now – a – days government schools are admitting such students.
9. But even then, they are lagging behind in their studies.
10. Special training should be given to them during the holidays.

Question 3.
Write your reflections on the vulnerable conditions of Indian migrants to West Asia.
Answer:
Vulnerable conditions of Indian migrants to West Asia :

1. At times, migrant workers are not paid their salaries, recruitment agents cheat prospective workers or collect more than the prescribed fees for their role in getting work for workers abroad.
2. Employers also terminate the job contract before its expiry, change the employment contract to the disadvantage of migrant workers.
3. Pay less than the agreed salary and freeze fringe benefits and other perks.
4. They often force workers to do overtime without making additional payments and deny permission to keep one’s own passport.
5. Indian migrant workers seldom lodge any complaint against their foreign employers for the fear of losing their jobs.

Question 4.
Observe the given pie chart and answer the question that follows:
Write a paragraph analyzing it.
Answer:
This pie chart is about the social background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08. It gives category wise information of SC, ST, OBC and Others. On the overall observation, it is clearly understood that major number is from OBCs and others are less in percentage.

Normally in population, the number of people from other backward classes is more. It is also observed in rural areas. People belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have very less land and in some cases they have no lands. Recently the trend is changing. Due to some welfare schemes, they are also leading a better life. The percentage of others is also nearly equal to the scheduled castes. Their migration purpose may be different. Many of these migrants work in unorganized sector like, construction work, brick industries, selling plastic goods and vegetables or in casual work.

The government should take care of these migrants and think why these people are migrating from their places. If possible rural prosperity is to be focused. Public facilities are to be provided at the rural areas and so this migration can be stopped or decreased.

Question 5.
Read the given paragraph and interpret.

Labour being the most abundant factor of production, it would be ideal if the new ways of farming used much more labour. Unfortunately, such a thing has not happened. The use of labour on farms is limited. The labour, looking for opportunities is thus migrating to neighbouring villages, towns and cities. Some labour has entered the nonfarm sector in the village.

Answer:

1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
3. Skilled or semi-skilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
4. Thus labour is an essential item in production.

Conclusion : If government provide loans to landless labour for Agriculture purpose, motor pump sets, engines, etc. more labour we will find in agricultural sector.

Question 6.
Write down the advantages and disadvantages of the people when they migrate.
Answer:

1. Urban migrants have plenty of opportunities for education and acquire new skills and take us new jobs effectively.
2. Thus they earn more incomes.
3. Remittances are an important means of supplementing or generating additional income for rural families.
4. Migration allows households to meet debt and other obligations without having to sell assets.
5. Migrant families buy house, land, gold, agricultural machinery and consumer durables.
6. Majority of migrants either remit or bring back savings.
7. Thus their purchasing power increases.

Disadvantages:

1. Migrant labourers spend more on food as they cannot get food grains from fair prices shops.
2. They live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions.
3. They suffer from health problems and are prone to disease.
4. They do not have creche facilities.
5. Grown up children are not able to continue their studies at their parent’s new workplaces.
6. Exposure to different environment, stress associated with it, food available and social atmo¬sphere leave a deep impact on migrants.

Question 7.
Observe the information given in the table and analyse.
Table: Migrations in India [Census 1991-2001]

Migration by place of birth	Census 1991 (excluding J & K in millions)	Census 2001 (including J & K in millions)	Variation (%) 1991-2001
Total population	838.5	1028.6	21.5
Total migrations	229.8	307.1	32.9
Migrants from within the districts	136.2	181.7	32.6
Migrants from other districts of state	59.1	76.8	29.5
Migrants from other states in India	27.2	42.3	54.5
Migrants from other countries	6.9	6.1	(-) 11.6

Answer:
Table Analysis:
According to 1991 & 2001 census,

1. The total population in 1991 was 838.5 million excluding J & K. At the same time in 2001 it was 1028.6 million including J&K. There was a variation of 21.5% growth in the population.
2. Total migrated people in 1991 were 229.8 million and they were in 2001, 307.1 million. There was 32.9% variation from 1991 to 2001.
3. Migrants from within the districts in 1991 were 136.2 million and in 2001 were 181.7 million. The variation is 32.6%.
4. Migrants from other districts of the state in 1991 were only 59.1 million and in 2001 were 76.8 million. The variation is 29.5%.
5. In 1991 migrants from other states in India were 27.2 million and in 2001 they were 42.3 million. The variation is 54.5%.
6. Migrants from other countries were 6.9 million in 1991. This number reduced to 6.1 million in 2001. Hence, the variation is (-) 11.6%.

From the above information, it is evident that the total migrations increased from 1991 to 2001. Migrants within the district and migrants from other districts of the state increased. Because of employment, facilities and education also increased.
Some areas are not developed, that’s why people are migrating from one place to other places.

Conclusion: Finally from the above information we understand that migrants from other countries to India decreased. So we understand that foreigners are not preferring to migrate India because of lack of resources and employment and low paid salaries.

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and answer the following question.

The men drive the carts to the factory where they might have to wait in queue for several hours before they get to offload the cane. The women, meanwhile, walk several kilometres back to the settlement. They have to fight exhaustion all the time.

How far is the household work done by the women in these circumstances justified?
Answer:

1. Both men and women work in the sugarcane fields.
2. The cane piles are tied into bundles, carried on the head by men and women.
3. Men drive the carts to the factories.
4. After doing heavy work on cane fields, women walk several kilometres back to the settlement.
5. Then they have to perform household work.
6. They have to fight exhaustion all the time.
7. But the wage paid to the women is less when compared to the men.
8. Hence we can conclude this discrimination is not justified on any grounds.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better servicing. Ramaiah was able to find work in the organized sector. However, most urban migrants have to work as labourers and find employment in the unorganized sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Question 9.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available in rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better services. Ramaiah was able to find work in the organized sector. However, most urban migrants have to work as labourers and find employment in the unorganized sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.

Answer:

1. According to the paragraph the people migrate to urban areas as there is no sufficient work in rural areas.
2. They expect high income from urban areas but they settle in unorganized sector.
3. They also have no job security and they face many problems.
4. My opinion is that nowadays every individual want high income for their families.
5. The people are ready to go anywhere for that.
6. They are forcibly settling in the unorganized sector.
7. Some of them don’t find even daily wages.
8. In conclusion I suggest the government to take care of these labourers of the unorganized sector and launch new schemes for these migrants.

A large section of rural workers migrate for a short duration and particularly due to distress caused in rural areas. They are mainly agricultural labourers or marginal farmers in their place of origin and mostly belong to low Income households, dalits and adivasis.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Answer:

1. As per the paragraph given, it is understood that most of the labourers migrating from rural areas to urban areas are from marginalized families.
2. Their income is low and they are SCs and STs.
3. They come to cities and towns in distress.
4. My opinion is that most of the dalits and adivasis have no agricultural lands. They are agricul¬tural labourers working in others fields.
5. When they find no work in some peculiar seasons they migrate to urban areas.
6. Especially the adivasis are still leading their lives based on the forest produce.
7. I suggest the government to take up new initiatives for the sake of these low-income groups. MNREGA programmes should be launched in needy areas.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.

Construction sites in most urban areas depend on migrant workers. It is also common to see migrants selling plastic goods, vegetables, and engage in other petty businesses and casual labour. A large section of such migrants are from tribal communities and from drought-prone areas of the state. Seasonal migrants are not only poor but have little or no land at their native place.

Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that different activities in urban areas depend on migrant workers.
2. Drought is also one of the reasons for migration. Many of the migrants are from tribal communities. They have no lands and so they are very poor.
3. My comments on this paragraph are that it is true the many of the migrants are working on construction sites and they are in the unorganized sector.
4. They don’t find work on all the days.
5. When there is a work they get wages. Many a time they spend their time waiting for work.
6. I conclude by saying these unorganized sector people are to be identified.
7. Special schemes are to be designed and launched. They should be provided with work but not simply financial help.
8. Banks should provide loans without collateral and so they can survive for themselves.

Question 12.

Prepare a paragraph on the above pie chart.
Answer:

1. This pie chart is about the social background of short term migrants in India, 2007-08. It gives category wise information of SC, ST, OBC and Others.
2. On the overall observation, it is clearly understood that major number is from OBCs and others are less in percentage.
3. Normally In population, the number of people from other backward classes is more.
4. It is also observed in rural areas.
5. People belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have very less land and in some cases, they have no lands.
6. The government should take care of these migrants and think why these people are migrating from their places.
7. If possible rural prosperity is to be focused.
8. If Public facilities are to be provided at the rural areas and so this migration can be stopped or decreased.

Question 13.
Draw and locate the following.

1. Draw the Andhra Pradesh map and locate Amaravathi.
2. Draw the Andhra Pradesh map and locate Krishna, East & West Godavari districts.

Answer:

Question 14.
In the following map, estimate the urban migration to Delhi from UP and Bihar.

Answer:

1. Approximately 2 lakh persons migrated from Bihar to Delhi.
2. Approximately 4 lakh persons migrated from UP to Delhi.

Question 15.
In the following map, estimate the rural to urban migration from Karnataka to AP.

Answer:
Approximately 0.5 lakh persons migrated from Karnataka to AP.

These AP 10th Class Maths Chapter Wise Important Questions Chapter 14 Statistics will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Maths 14th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Statistics

Question 1.
Write the formula for the median of a grouped data. Explain symbol with their used meaning.
Solution:
Medain (M) = [ l + \(\frac{\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}-\mathrm{c.f}}{\mathrm{f}}\) ] × h
l = lower limit of the median class,
n = sum of the frequency
c.f = cumulative frequency of the class preceding the median class
f = frequency of the median class
h = length of the class

Question 2.
Find the median of 5, 3, 1, – 4, 6, 7, 0.
Solution:
The given observations are 5, 3, 1,-4, 6,7,0.
Writing the observations in ascending order, we have – 4, 0, 1, 3, 5, 6, 7.
There are 7 observations. Hence the median will be (\(\frac{7+1}{2}\))^th observation i.e., 4^th observation. The 4^th observation is 3.
Hence, the median is 3.

Question 3.
Find the mode of 5, 6, 9, 6,12, 3, 6, 11, 6, 7.
Solution:
In the given data 5, 6, 9, 6, 12, 3, 6, 11, 6 and 7 the frequency of 6 is maximum.
Hence mode = 6

Question 4.
Find the mean of first ‘n’ natural numbers.
Solution:
Mean = \(\frac{\text { Sum of first ‘n ‘ natural number }}{\mathrm{n}}\)
= \(=\frac{\Sigma n}{n}=\frac{p(n+1)}{2(n)}=\frac{n+1}{2}\)
∴ \(\frac{n+1}{2}\) is the average (mean) of first ‘n’ natural number.

Question 5.
Write the formula for mode of a grouped data. Explain about the symbols with their usual meanings.
(OR)
Write the formula of mode for grouped data and explain each term in it.
Solution:
Mode = [l + \(\frac{\mathrm{f}_{1}-\mathrm{f}_{0}}{2 \mathrm{f}_{1}-\mathrm{f}_{0}-\mathrm{f}_{2}}\)] × h
l = lower boundary of mode class
f₁ = frequency of mode class
f₀ = frequency of preceding class to , the mode class
f₂ = frequency of succeeding class to the mode class
h = size of class

Question 6.
The mean for a grouped data is calculated by \(\overline{\mathbf{x}}\) = a + \(\frac{\Sigma \mathbf{f}_{\mathbf{i}} \mathbf{d}_{\mathbf{i}}}{\Sigma \mathbf{f}_{\mathbf{i}}}\)
What do the terms ‘f.’ and’d.’ represent in the above formula
Solution:
f_i = frequency of the i^th observation
d_i = deviation of the i^th observation

Question 7.
Find the mean of 5,6, 9,10,6, 12,3,6,11,10.
Solution:
Mean = \(\frac{\text { Sum of scores }}{\text { No.of scores }}\)
= \(\frac{5+6+9+10+6+12+3+6+11+10}{10}\)
= \(\frac{78}{10}\)
= 7.8.

Question 8.
Wite less than cumulative frequency and greater than cumulative frequency table for the following data.

Solution:
Less than Cumulative Frequency table

Upper boundary of the class	Less than cumulative frequency
10	4
15	49
20	69
25	82
30	91

Greater than Cumulative Frequency table

Lower boundary of the class	Greater than cumulative frequency
5	91
10	87
15	42
20	22
25	9

Question 9.
The marks obtained by 20 students of class X of a certain school are given below. Find the mean marks obtained by the students.

Solution:

Marks (x1)	No. of students (f1)	f1x1
5	1	5
10	4	40
15	5	75
20	2	40
35	4	140
40	3	120
50	1	50

Σf_i = 20 Σf_ix_i = 470
Mean = a + \(\frac{\Sigma \mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{x}_{\mathrm{i}}}{\Sigma \mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{i}}}=\frac{470}{20}\) = 23.5

Question 10.
Write mid-values of the following frequency distribution.

Solution:

C.I	Frequency	Mid -Values
8-11	4	9.5
12-15	4	13.5
16-19	5	17.5
20-23	13	21.5
24-27	20	25.5
28-31	14	29.5
32-35	8	33.5

Question 11.
Prepare a frequency distribution table to the following data with class intervals.

Solution:

Class Interval	Frequency
<10	8
10 – 20	11
20 – 30	7
30 – 40	16
40 – 50	8

Question 12.
Find the Median of the following data.

Soltion:

(x)	f	c.f
5	4	4
6	8	12
7	14	26
8	11	37
9	3	40

n = 40
Median = \(\frac{\mathrm{n}+1}{2}=\frac{40+1}{2}=\frac{41}{2}\)
= 20.5^th term = 7.

Question 13.
Find the mean of the following data.

Solution:

xi	fi	fixi
5	2	10
8	3	24
10	5	50
15	4	60
18	4	72
20	2	40

Σf_ix_i = 256;Σf_i = 20
Mean = \(\frac{\Sigma \mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{x}_{\mathrm{i}}}{\Sigma \mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{i}}}\) = \(\frac{256}{20}\) = 12.8

Question 14.
Find the mode of the following data:

Solution:

Since the maximum number of consumers (is 20) have got monthly consumption in the interval 120-140, the model class is 120 -140.
The lower boundary (l) of the modal class = 120.
The class size (h) = 20
The frequency of modal class (f₁) = 20
The frequency of the class preceding the modal class (f₀) = 16.
The frequency of the class succeeding the modal class (f₂) = 14.
Now, using the formula:

Question 15.
Draw “greater than Ogive curve” for the following data.

Solution:

Lower boundary	Frequnecy	Greater than Cummulative Frequency
0	4	50
10	4	46
20	8	42
30	10	34
40	12	24
50	8	12
60	4	4

A graph is plot lower boundaries on X – axis, and GT.C.E on Y – axis

Question 16.
Find the mode of the following data.

Solution:

Here l = 55.5, f₀
= 110,f₁ = 135,
f₂ 115,h = 3
Mode = 55.5 + 2\(\frac{135-110}{2(135)-110-115}\) × 3
= 55.5 + \(\frac{25}{270-225}\) × 3
= 55.5 + \(\frac{25}{45}\) × 3
= 55.5 + \(\frac{5}{3}\)
= 55.50 + 1.67
= 57.17

Question 17.
Find the median of the following data.

Solution:

n = 40
\(\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}=\frac{40}{2}\) = 20
Median class = 26 – 30
Median = M = l + (\(\frac{\frac{\mathrm{n}}{2}-\mathrm{cf}}{\mathrm{f}}\)) × h
l = 25.5; cf = 17; n = 40; f = 12; h = 5
∴ M = 25.5 + (\(\frac{20-17}{12}\)) × 5
= 25.5 + \(\frac{3}{12}\) × 5 = 25.5 + \(\frac{5}{4}\)
= 25.5 + 1.25
=26.75
∴ Required Median = 26.75

Question 18.
Convert the distribution given below to a less than type cumulative frequency distribution and draw it’s Ogive.

Solution:

Upper boundary	Less than cumulative frequency	points
300	20	(300 , 20)
400	55	(400 , 55)
500	74	(500 , 74)
600	116	(600 , 16)
700	150	(700 , 150)

Question 19.
The following table shows the daily expenditure on grocery of 25 households in a locality. Find the ‘Mode’ value of daily expenditure on grocery.

Solution:
Daily expenditure data of 25householders

Daily Expenditure	No. of householders
Cl	fr
100 – 150	4
150 – 200	5
200 – 250	12
250 – 300	2
300 – 350	2

The class having maximum frequency
(12)is (200 – 250)
Then formula for mode
l + (\(\frac{f_{1}-f_{0}}{2 f_{1}-f_{0}-f_{2}}\)) × h
Where
‘l’ is lower boundary of modal class = 200
‘f₁’ is frequency of modal class = 12
‘f₀‘ is frequency of class preceeding the modal class = 5
‘f₂‘ is frequency of class succeeding the modal class = 2
‘h’ is height of class = 50
Now substituting the above values in the formula, we get
Mode = 200 + (\(\frac{12-5}{24-5-2}\)) × 50 = 200 + \(\frac{7 \times 50}{17}\) = 200 + \(\frac{350}{17}\) = 200 + 20.58
∴ Mode = 220.58.

Question 20.
The following data indicates marks of 53 students in a test.

Draw a “Less than Ogive curve” for the data.
Solution:


Considering upper boundaries on X-axis and LCF on Y-axis. We plot the points and by connecting on free hand we get less than type ogive as shown below graph.

Question 21.
The following table gives daily wages of workers in a certain commercial organization. The mean of this frequency distribution is ₹ 220, then find the missing frequency ‘f’ of this distribution.

Solution:

x_i = 220 (given)
\(\overline{\mathrm{x}}=\frac{\Sigma \mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{x}_{\mathrm{i}}}{\Sigma \mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{i}}}\)
⇒ 220 = \(\frac{36300+275 \mathrm{f}}{176+\mathrm{f}}\)
⇒ 220(176 + f) = 36300 + 275f
⇒ 38720 + 220 f = 36300 + 275 f
⇒ 220 f- 275 f = 36300 – 38720
⇒ -55 f = -2420
⇒ f = \(\frac{2420}{55}\) = 44

Question 22.
Temperature recorded in the first week of May 2016 are 36°, 32°, 34°, 30°, 42°, 40° and 38°. Then find the average temperature.
Solution:
The recorded temperatures are = 36°, 32°, 34°, 30°, 42°, 40° and 38°.
Sum of Scores
∴ Average = \(\frac{\text { Sum of Scores }}{\text { Number of Scores }}\) = \(\frac{36+32+34+30+42+40+38}{7}\) = \(\frac{252}{7}\) = 36°c

Question 23.
In 2016 IPL season T-20 matches VIRAT KOHLI scored 975 runs in 15 matches. So find his average.
Solution:
Number of matches played in 2016 season =15, Total runs scored = 975
∴ His average = \(\frac{975}{15}\) = 65

Question 24.
22 students started for a tour with Rs. 3300/-. Two of them dropped with their share Rs. 500/- from the tour. And the remaining completed their tour. So what amount is to be paid in addition by the remaining ?
Solution:
The total number started = 22 members
Number of dropped = 2
Number completed the tour = 20
The amount withdrawn by 2 members = 500
So these five hundred rupees is to be beared by 20 members.
Additional share to each = \(\frac{500}{20}\) = Rs. 25/-

Question 25.
Find the mean of the following.

Solution:

Σf = 10 + 6 + 9 + 13 + 7 + 8 = 53
∴ Mean = \(\frac{\Sigma \mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{i}} \mathrm{x}_{\mathrm{i}}}{\Sigma \mathrm{f}_{\mathrm{i}}}\) = \(\frac{237}{53}\) = 4.47

Question 26.
Which central tendency is more useful to express the ability of a cricketer and why?
Solution:
The best central tendency to express the ability of a cricketer is “ARITHMETIC MEAN” because
Mean is influenced by all measurements.
Maximum/minimum measurements influence on mean is also very high.
The number of matches he played also influence this mean.
So the most effective tendency is ARITHMETIC MEAN.

Question 27.
Where do we use MEAN in day to day life?
Solution:
1. To fix the target pass percentage in a school/ District by the officers.
2. By the knowledge of average rainfall, the officers will prepare some action plan to improve crops, prevent floods, reduce life risk in storms like Hud-Hud.
3. To estimate and fix the cost of a cricketer in the IPL auction basing on his previous average performances. ,
4. To prepare people – cultivators by estimating on basis of previous rainfall, crop output etc.
5. To estimate the progress of a student in various subjects at different levels of examinations.
Thus the Arithmetic mean plays an important role in day to day life of every individual.

These AP 9th Class Maths Important Questions 12th Lesson Circles will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Maths 12th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Circles

Question 1.
In the given figure ‘O’ is the centre of the circle. \(\overline{\mathbf{A B}}\) is a chord. In ΔOAB show that ∠OAB = ∠OBA

Solution:
In ΔAOB, OA = OB = radius of circle In an isosceles triangle angles opposite to equal sides are equal angles.
∴ ∠OAB = ∠OBA

Question 2.
A chord of length of 6.2 cm is at a distance of 3.5 cm from the centre of the circle. If there is another chord of length 6.2 cm in the same circle, find the distance of the chord from it’s centre. Justify your answer.
Solution:
Given chords are equal, so they are equidistant from centre.
Distance between second chord to centre is 3.5 cm.

Question 3.
In the adjacent figure A, B, C are three points on the circle. O is it’s centre. If ∠AOB = 2x° and ∠ACB = 3x – 65°, find the value of x. Give reasons to support your answer.

Solution:
From figure ∠ACB = 3x – 65° and- ∠AOB = 2x°
From theorem, chord \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) making angle at centre ∠AOB = 2∠ACB
∴ 2x = 2(3x – 65°)
2x = 6x – 130°
6x – 2x = 130°
4x = 130°
x = \(\frac{130^{\circ}}{4}\) = 32.5°

Question 4.
Read the statement. Observe the diagram then write ‘Given’ and ‘R.T.P’.

Statement : Equal chords of a circle subtend equal angles at the centre.
Solution:
Statement : Equal chords of a circle subtends equal angles at the centre.
Given : Centre of circle ‘O’, \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\), \(\overline{\mathrm{CD}}\) are two chords.
∠AOB, ∠COD are forming equal angles at centre.
R.T.P. : ∠AOB = ∠COD

Question 5.
Construct a circumcircle to ΔABC given with BC = 6 cm ∠A = 52° and ∠B = 48° write the steps of construction.
Solution:
Steps of construction :
→ Draw ΔXYZ with given measures.
→ Draw perpendicular bisectors to the sides of ΔXYZ, let the point of concurrence be S’.
→ Draw the circle (S, \(\overline{\mathbf{S X}}\)).
→ This is the required circumcircle.

These AP 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social 17th Lesson Important Questions and Answers The Making of Independent India’s Constitution

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which type of constitution gives definite powers to both central and state governments?
Answer:
The Federal form of the constitution gives definite powers to both central and state governments.

Question 2.
Observe the following bar diagram which shows amendments of the Constitution from 1950 to 2013.

a) In which decade were the lowest amendments made?
Answer:
The lowest amendments were made in the decade 1951 – 60.

b) How many amendments were made between 1950 – 2013?
Answer:
Ninety-nine amendments were made between 1950 – 2013.

Question 3.
Which type of constitution gives definite powers to both center and state?
Answer:
Federal Constitution.

Question 4.
Which preamble reflects the desire for Peace?
Answer:
Japan

Question 5.
What provisions made by the constitution to facilitate social change?
Answer:
Abolition of untouchability and Reservations.

Question 6.
Write the features of the Federal system.
Answer:

1. Dual policy,
2. Separation of powers

Question 7.
What are the two essential characteristics of the Unitary Constitution?
Answer:
The two essential characteristics of the Unitary Constitution are

1. A single Judiciary
2. Uniformity in civil and criminal laws.
3. All India Civil Services.

Question 8.
Write any two similarities between the Indian and the Japanese Constitutional preambles.
Answer:

1. Sovereign Power
2. Democracy
3. Liberty
4. Justice
5. Faith

Look at the Graph below and answer the questions No. 9 and 10.
Graph – 99 Constitutional Amendments made between 1950 and 2013

Question 9.
In which period, more Constitutional amendments were made?
Answer:
More constitutional amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

Question 10.
Why were there less Constitutional amendments during 1951-60?
Answer:
The Constitutional amendments during 1951-60 were less because

1. Initial period of the Constitution implementation.
2. More problems were not arised.

Question 11.
What do you mean by “the Republic”?
Answer:
Any country, where the head of the state is not on hereditary but any elected or nominated person is called the Republic.

Question 12.
Which two words were added to our Preamble?
Answer:
Socialistic and secular.

Question 13.
When was Constitution Assembly formed?
Answer:
In 1946.

Question 14.
Write any four basic principles of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has 8 basic principles.

1. Popular Sovereignty
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Directive Principles
4. Cabinet Government
5. Secularism
6. Socialism
7. Federalism
8. Judicial Independence

Question 15.
Which word was left undefined in our Constitution?
Answer:
“Untouchability” was left undefined in our Constitution.

Question 16.
What is the Population of India and the Constitution was prepared?
Answer:
400 million.

Question 17.
Which set out the main social system before the government?
Answer:
The Directive Principles of State Policy set out the main social system before the government.

Question 18.
When were the first elections held in Nepal?
Answer:
In 1959, the first elections were held in Nepal under a new constitution issued by King Mahendra.

Question 19.
Who presented the draft of the Constitution?
Answer:
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar presented the draft of the Constitution before the C.A in 1948.

Question 20.
Expand IAS, IPS.
Answer:
IAS: Indian Administrative Service IPS: Indian Police Service.

Question 21.
Which is a formidable document? What does it contain?
Answer:
The Draft constitution is a formidable document. It contains 395 Articles and 8 Schedules.

Question 22.
From when major changes in the constitution made?
Answer:
Major changes in the constitution were made during 1970s.

Question 23.
How is the process of making a Constitution?
Answer:
The process of making a Constitution is a process of debate, discussion, ironing out differences and working out a framework acceptable to all conflicting opinions.

Question 24.
When was the Constituent Assembly formed?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 following the election to the provincial assemblies.

Question 25.
How were the Constituent Assembly members elected?
Answer:
The Constituent Assembly members were elected indirectly by the members of the provincial assemblies.

Question 26.
How many SC members are represented in the Assembly?
Answer:
26 members.

Question 27.
Expand CA.
Answer:
Constituent Assembly.

Question 28.
Write about ‘Drafting Committee’.
Answer:
A ‘Drafting Committee’ was set up under the chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar and its task was to prepare the final draft taking in account all view points.

Question 29.
When was the Constitution adopted?
Answer:
The Constitution was finally adopted by the CA on 26th November 1949 and it came into force on 26th January 1950.

Question 30.
Which are recorded as the proceedings of CA?
Answer:
The speeches on the draft Constitution before CA are recorded in the proceedings of C.A. of India.

Question 31.
What are the two principal forms of the Constitution?
Answer:
The two principal forms of the Constitution are known to history – one is called Unitary and the other Federal.

Question 32.
Name some codes.
Answer:
The Civil Procedure Code, Penal Code, the Criminal Procedure Code, the Evidence Act, Transfer of Property Act.

Question 33.
How were IAS/IPS appointed?
Answer:
They were appointed through UPSC.

Question 34.
Who criticised in CA debates?
Answer:
Maulana Hasrat Mohani, Damodar Swarup Seth.

Question 35.
What was the cause of untouchability?
Answer:
The caste system was the cause of untouchability.

Question 36.
Define Untouchability.
Answer:
Untouchability is a social practice which discriminates people on caste basis.

Question 37.
How many members were there in ‘Drafting Committee’ of the Constitution?
Answer:
There were 7 members in the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.

Question 38.
Who were the members of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, N. Gopalaswami, B.R. Ambedkar, K.M Munshi Mohammad Saadula, B.L.Mitter and D.P. Khaitan were the seven members of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution.

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write any two differences between Presidential system of Government and Parliamentary system of Government.
Answer:

Presidential System	Parliamentary System
1. The President is the chief head of the executive.	1. The President is the chief head of the state but not the executive.
2. The President has under him secretaries incharge of different departments.	2. The President has under him ministers in charge of different departments.
3. The President is not necessarily bound by the advice of his secretaries.	3. The President is generally bound by the advice of his ministers.
4. The President can dismiss any secretary at any time. Eg: America	4. The President can not do so. Eg: India

Question 2.
Write the four main features of the Indian Constitution.
Answer:
Main features of Indian Constitution:

1. Written Constitution
2. Rigid and flexible Constitution
3. Parliamentary type of democracy
4. Single citizenship
5. Unitary and federal features.

Question 3.
What are the two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution?
Answer:

1. The Supremacy of the central polity.
2. The absence of subsidiary sovereign polities.

Question 4.
Write the role of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in preparing the draft Constitution of India.
Answer:

1. On 29th August 1947 the Drafting Comm¬ittee was appointed Dr.Br. Ambedkar as the Chairman long with 6 other members assisted by a Constitutional Advisor.
2. He studied the constitutions of the other nations and incorporated in Indian constitution which are suitable to Indian people.
3. He stressed on the importance of removal of untouchability and uplifting the depressed classes.
4. He conveyed a meeting with all the communities of the society and drafted a broad constitution.

Question 5.
List out the constitutional provisions that facilitate social change.
Answer:
Constitutional provisions that facilitate social change:

1. Abolition of untouchability.
2. Reservations in education, employment and legislature.
3. Protection to the minority community.
4. Directive principles of state policy.
5. Fundamental rights are enforceable by the country subject to specific restrictions.
6. Liberty, equality and Justice.

Question 6.
Make a Bar graph based on the below information.

Years	1951-60	1961-70	1971-80	1981-90	1991-2000
Constitutional Amendments:	7	15	22	22	16

Answer:

Question 7.
What are the double purposes of a Constitution?
Answer:
A Constitution has a double purpose:

1. Outlining the role and rights of citizens and the structure and powers of the government and its organs like executive, legislature, judiciary, etc;
2. Indicating the nature of future society which has to be built by the joint efforts of the state and the society.

Question 8.
Who prepared the Constitution of India and how?
Answer:
The Constitution of India was prepared and adopted by the Constituent Assembly. This was the culmination of the long struggle of the Indian people for freedom from British colonial rule.

Question 9.
How were the members from the princely states elected?
Answer:
The members from the princely states were not elected at all and were decided through consultation with the concerned princely states. Such a decision was taken keeping in view the special situation that had arisen due to intense political activity on the eve of freedom and mounting tensions among the people.

Question 10.
What are the two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution?
Answer:
The two essential characteristics of a Unitary Constitution are:

1. the supremacy of the Central Polity [the word polity means a system of government or political organization] and
2. the absence of subsidiary sovereign polities.

Question 11.
How is a Federal Constitution marked?
Answer:
Federal Constitution is marked:

1. by the existence of a Central polity and subsidiary polities side by side, and
2. by each being sovereign in the field assigned to it. In other words, the Federation means the establishment of a Dual Polity [dual system of government central and state].

Question 12.
How can we call the Draft Constitution a Federal Constitution?
Answer:
The Draft Constitution is Federal Constitution in as much as it establishes what may be called a Dual Polity. This Dual Polity under the proposed Constitution will consist of the Union at the Centre and the States at the periphery each endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the field assigned to them respectively by the Constitution.

Question 13.
Write about Indian citizenship.
Answer:
“The proposed Indian Constitution is a dual polity with a single citizenship. There is only one citizenship for the whole of India. It is Indian citizenship. There is no State citizenship. Every Indian has the same rights of citizenship, no matter in what State he resides….”

Question 14.
What are the three means adopted by Indian. Constitution?
Answer:
The means adopted by the Draft Constitution are three

1. a single judiciary,
2. uniformity – in fundamental laws, civil and criminal, and
3. a common All-India Civil Service Jo main important posts.

Question 15.
What is one important aspect of social engineering? What was the reason for this?
Answer:
One important aspect of social engineering is the problem of the right of minorities. The sad experience of suppression of Jewish minority in Nazi Germany weighed in the minds of the Constitution makers. They decided to give special protection to the minority community so that they don’t feel marginalised by the majority.

Question 16.
How can the articles be amended?
Answer:
Amending the articles in the Constitution can be initiated only by the Parliament. And it needs the approval of 2/3rd members in both the houses of parliament – Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha. And some articles may be amended only with acceptance (or ratification) from the state legislature as well. It is further necessary that the President of the ” country also approves the new amendment bill like other laws.

Question 17.
Read the passage and interpret it.

“The proposed Indian Constitution is a dual polity with single citizenship. There is only one citizenship for the whole of India. It is Indian citizenship. There is no State citizenship. Every Indian has the same rights of citizenship, no matter in what State he resides….

Answer:

1. We adopted our Constitution by referring other Constitutions and after having a number of debates on the principles.
2. We adopted unitary but federal governments.
3. Hence ours is a dual polity.
4. But the citizens will have only one citizenship, unlike the USA where dual citizen¬ship exists.
5. We have same rights in all the states of India no matter in what state he resides.

Question 18.
“The Draft Constitution is a formidable document. It contains 315 Articles and 8 Schedules. It must be admitted that the constitution of no country could be found to be so bulky as the draft constitution” Is there need for division of Constitution into articles and Schedules?
Answer:

1. There is dire necessity to divide constitution into schedules and articles.
2. Such formidable document without proper division cannot easily read and understood.
3. Information related same matter is spread over articles.
4. Articles are compounded into schedules.

Question 19.
Express your opinion about elections were conducted to Constituent Assembly.
Answer:

1. Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 with members elected indirectly by the members of provincial assemblies.
2. Princely states representatives were identified with a consultation.
3. Provincial assemblies members were from general, Muslim and Sikh communities!
4. 26 Schedule Caste members were also elected.

Question 20.
Imagine and write what happened if every state in India having different laws.
Answer:

1. Up to a certain point, the diversity does not matter.
2. If diversity goes beyond a certain point creates chaos in states.
3. States become intolerant to citizens from other states.
4. What is correct in one state may not be correct if he moves to another state.

Question 21.
“Too much centralization of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals”. Analyze it.
Answer:

1. Too much centralization of power makes that power totalitarian and takes it towards fascist ideals.
2. After the record victory of 1971 elections, Indira Gandhi gained control over Congress Party and Parliament.
3. Most people suffered inflation, raising prices of essential commodities, unemployment and scarcity of food, but when their grievances were not addressed they supported JP movement.
4. To stop that movement she imposed an emergency, which took Indian democracy back.
5. Hence too much centralization of power is not advisable.

10th Class Social 17th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the examples and explanations of the basic features of the Indian Constitution?
(OR)
Write about the basic principles of Indian Constitution.
(OR)
Write a short note on basic principles of Indian Constitution.
Answer:
The Indian Constitution has 8 basic principles.

1. Popular Sovereignty
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Directive Principles
4. Cabinet Government
5. Secularism
6. Socialism
7. Federalism
8. Judicial Independence

1. Popular Sovereignty: India is externally free from the control of any foreign power and internally, it has a free government which is directly elected by the people and makes laws that govern the peopl# So it is the biggest country which is following Parliamentary Democracy System in the world.

2. Fundamental Rights: These are the basic human rights of all citizens. These rights apply irrespective of race, place of birth, religion, caste, creed or sex. These are enforceable by the courty subject to specific restrictions.

3. Directive Principles: These are guidelines for the framing of laws by the government. These provisions are not enforceable by the courts.

4. Cabinet Government: A Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.

5. Secularism: Secularism is the basic structure of the Indian Constitution. The government respects all religions. It does not uplift or degrade any particular religion.

6. Socialism: The word ‘socialist’ was added to the preamble by the 42nd amendment. It implies social and economic equality.

7. Federalism: it is a system based upon democratic rules and institutions in which the power to govern is shared between national and state governments.

8. Judicial Independence: The Indian Judiciary is independent of the executive and legislative branches of government according to the Constitution.

Question 2.
How does the Parliamentary system of Government differ from the Presidential system of Government?
(OR)
How is the Parliamentary system of government is different from the Presidential system of government?
Answer:

The Parliamentary system of government	The Presidential system of government
1. The President is the head of the state but not of the executive.	1. The President is the Chief Head of the executive.
2. The President is the Normal Executive.	2. The President is the real executive.
3. The President is generally bound by the advice of the council of ministers.	3. The President is not bound by the advice of the council of ministers.
4. The President has no power to dismiss his ministers so long as they command a majority in parliament.	4. The President can dismiss any minister at any time.
5. The election procedure of the head of state is indirect.	5. The President elected directly by the people.

Question 3.
Describe the features of Indian Federalism.
Answer:
The features of Indian Federalism:

1. The supremacy of the constitution: The supremacy of the constitution means that both the Union and State governments, shall operate within the limits set by the constitution.
2. Written constitution The Constitution of India is the largest and most elaborate one, which discussed on several issues.
3. Division of powers: The Indian Constitution clearly described administrative powers into three lists viz. The Union List, The State List and The Concurrent Lists.
4. The supremacy of the Judiciary: As per the Constitution of India Judiciary is Independent and supreme. It can declare a contravenes law as unconstitutional.

Question 4.
Plot the below Information on a Bar graph (Rough diagram).

Period of time	Number of amendments made to Constitution
1951 -1960	7
1961 -1970	15
1971 – 1980	22
1981 -1990	22
1991 – 2000	16
2001 – 2013	17

Answer:

Question 5.
Analyse the graph about Constitutional amendments given below and write your observations.
Answer:

1. Least number of amendments are made in 1951-60.
2. The number of total constitutional amendments done in between 1951 and 2013 was 99.
3. Highest number of amendments are made during the decades 1971-80 and 1981-90.
4. Equal number of amendments are made during the decades 1971-80 and 1981-90.

Question 6.
Answer the following questions based on the below graph.

a) When did the Constitution come into force?
Answer:
January 26th 1950.

b) In which decade, the least number of amendments had done?
Answer:
1951-60.

c) Why does the Constitution need to be amended?
Answer:
According the changes in circumstances and policies, laws also should be changed.

d) How many Constitutional amendments had been done from 1951 to 1980?
Answer:
44.

Question 7.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.
a) How many constitutional amendments were made during 1951- 60?
Answer:
7 constitutional amendments were made during 1951- 60.

b) In which period, maximum constitu¬tional amendments were made?
Answer:
Maximum constitutional amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

c) In which decades, equal amendments were made?
A. Equal amendments were made during 1971-80 and 1981-90.

d) How many amendments were made up to 2013?
Answer:
According to the graph, 99 amendments were made up to 2013.

Question 8.
Our constitution has many provisions facilitating social change. How are they being implemented
Answer:

1. Abolition of untouchability.
2. Reservations in education, employment and legislature.
3. Directive principles of state policy.
4. Fundamental rights are enforceable by the country subject to specific restrictions.
5. Liberty, equality, Justice.

Question 9.
Observe the below Bar graph and analyse it.
Answer:
This graph is about the amendments made since the Constitution came into force on 26th January 1950 till 2013. The total amendments made were 99. Recently the Supreme Court cancelled the 99th amendment. During 1971-80 and 1981-90, the amendments number is high. Forty-four amendments were made during these two decades. The graph is given decade wise.

Our Constitution makers were aware that laws will have to be amended from time to time. Thus it laid down the provisions for amending the laws and the articles in the Constitution as well. Some laws can be made with the approval of more than half the members in legislative houses. The amendments are made in the Parliament only. Some articles can be amended with the approval of both the Houses of Parliament, i.e. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. Some need ratification from the states. Finally, the amendments are approved by the President. Then the amendments come into force.

The amendment means to bring some change in existing law of the constitution. Generally, an amendment is necessary on the basis of public needs. In the initial years of our independence, the amendments are only 7. In the next decade, it went up to more than double. The period, 1971-80 and 1981-90 is crucial in Indian Politics. The emergency was declared by Indira Gandhi. Single Party domination was ended and Non-Congress governments came in to power. In 1984 Indira Gandhi was assassinated. From 1991 onwards again the number is decreased.

The constitution can be amended without breaking or spoiling the spirit or its basic principles. In the 1970s, two words ‘Secular’ and ‘Socialist’ are added into the Preamble of the Constitution. According to the judgment of the Supreme Court in the case of Keshavananda Bharati, some basic principles can not be changed.

Many a time Constitution is being changed only for the sake of political benefits. It is a criticism on amendments. The true spirit of the Constitution cannot be changed. Constitutional amendments are necessary for the public interest. There should be some benefit to the masses. Ambiguity and complexity should be avoided. About a hundred times the Constitution is changed, it means the original one is getting it shape changed.

Question 10.
How can you say that India is a Secular State?
Answer:
The following points prove India is a Secular country.

1. Secularism in the Indian context implies tolerance towards others beliefs and faiths.
2. In India there is no state religion.
3. No religion is given superior status.
4. Citizens are granted complete freedom in religious matter.
5. People are free to profess, practice and propagate any religion of their choice.
6. No religious instruction is imparted in any educational institution maintained out of public funds.
7. No political party is allowed to use religion or religious symbols in the election campaigns.
8. No discrimination is made in matters of public employment on the grounds of religion.
9. The religious tolerance is followed.

Question 11.
Observe the following graph.
Now answer the following questions.
a) Since the Constitution was adopted, how many amendments were made so far?
Answer:
So far there were 99 amendments made since the Constitution was adopted.

b) What was the period of minimum amendments?
Answer:
Minimum amendments were made during 1951 – 60.

c) How many amendments were made during 2001 – 13?
Answer:
17 amendments were made during 2001 -13.

d) How many amendments were made during 1961 – 70?
Answer:
15 amendments were made during 1961 – 70.

e) What is meant by constitutional amendment?
Answer:
Changing the laws and the articles from time to time is known as a constitutional amendment.

f) Why were the amendments less in 1951- 60?
Answer:
Constitution was newly formed and society did not change much and people were illiterate to anticipate any change.

Question 12.
Read the following para and comment on what the Constitution did for social change/change of society.

The Constitution thus has many provisions facilitating social change. You have read about the abolition of Untouchability. The best example of this is the provision for reservations for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Constitution. The makers of the Constitution believed that the mere granting of the right to equality was not enough to overcome age-old injustices suffered by these groups or to give real meaning to their right to vote. Special Constitutional measures were required to advance their interests. Therefore the Constitution makers provided a number of special measures to protect the interests of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes such as the reservation of seats in legislatures. The Constitution also made it possible for the government to reserve public sector jobs for these groups.

Answer:

1. The Constitution has many provisions for social change.
2. Abolition of untouchability is the first step.
3. This was achieved by providing reservations to SC and STs.
4. Thus the Constitution helped for the upliftment of the weaker sections.
5. The Constitution has in it “the Fundamental Rights” and “the Directive Principles of State Policy.”
6. The rights of minorities are also protected in our Constitution.
7. Hence, we can conclude that, the Constitution facilitates social change.

Question 13.
On the outline map of world, identify the following places.

1. Nepal
2. Japan
3. India
4. England
5. USA
6. Ireland
7. Russia
8. France
9. Switzerland
10. Canada

Answer:

Question 14.
Locate the following in the given map of the World.
1. This country’s constitution was completed in 2015.
Answer: Nepal

2. This country’s wishes for peace in its constitution.
Answer: Japan

3. This country’s constitution was the lengthiest written constitution in the world.
Answer: India

4. the U.S.A.

5. Taiwan

6. Any two British colonies.

7. Afghanistan

8. Bhutan

9. Nagasaki

10. Switzerland

These AP 10th Class Maths Chapter Wise Important Questions Chapter 8 Similar Triangles will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Maths 8th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Similar Triangles

Question 1.
Is a square similar to a rectangle ? Justify your answer.
Solution:
In a square and rectangle, the corresponding angles are equal. But the corresponding sides are not proportional.

∴ A square and a rectangle are not similar

Question 2.
In ΔABC LM||BC and \(\frac{\mathbf{A L}}{\mathbf{L B}}=\frac{2}{3}\), AM = 5 cm, find AC.
Solution:
In ΔABC, LM // BC

Given AM = 5 cm and AM : MC = 2:3
\(\frac{\mathrm{AM}}{\mathrm{MC}}=\frac{2}{3} \Rightarrow \frac{5}{\mathrm{MC}}=\frac{2}{3}\)
⇒ MC = \(\frac{5 \times 3}{2}=\frac{15}{2}\) = 7.5
∴ AC = AM + MC = 5 + 7.5 = 12.5 cm

Question 3.

In the figure, ∠BAC = ∠CED, then verify whether the value of ‘x’ is 3 or not.
Solution:
Given: In ΔABC and ΔECD
∠A = ∠E
∠ACB = ∠ECD [∵ Vertically opposite]
∴ LB ¿D [∵ Angle sum property]
∴ ΔABC ~ ΔEDC
⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{AB}}{\mathrm{ED}}=\frac{\mathrm{BC}}{\mathrm{DC}}=\frac{\mathrm{AC}}{\mathrm{EC}} \Rightarrow \frac{36}{12}=\frac{9}{\mathrm{x}}\)
⇒ 36x= 108 ⇒ x= \(\frac{108}{36}\) = 3

Question 4.
In ΔABC, DE || BC and AC = 5.6 cm, AE = 2.1 cm, then find AD : DB.
Solution:

In ΔABC DE || BC,
AE = 2.1 cm
EC = AC – AE
= 5.6 – 2.1 = 3.5 cm
As per B.P.T, AD : DB = AE : EC
= 2.1 : 3.5 = 3:5

Question 5.
In the given figure, \(\overline{\mathbf{A B}} \| \overline{\mathbf{Q R}}\) and PA = 2 cm, AQ = 3 cm, then find the ratio of areas of ΔPQR and ΔPAB.

Solution:
Given AB || QR; PA = 2, AQ = 3
then, APQR ~ APAB
∴ PQ = 2 + 3 = 5
∴ Ratio of area of similar triangles is equal to square of ratio of their corre-sponding sides.

Question 6.
Give two different examples of pair of i) Similar figures, ii) Non – similar figures. Mar. ’17
By keeping in view of the definition of similar figures.
Solution:
By keeping in view of the definition of similar figures.
(i) Similar figures :

For any two correct examples for similar figures.
(ii) Non similar figures :

For any two correct examples for non similar figures.

Question 7.
Define A.A. and S.S.S. rules for similarity of two triangles in your own words.
Solution:
A.A. similarity : If two angles of a triangle are equal to two corresponding angles of another triangle, then the two triangles are similar.
S.S.S. similarity : If in two triangles, sides of one triangle are proportional to the sides of other triangle, then their corresponding angles are equal and hence the two triangles are similar.

Question 8.
The hypotenuse of a right triangle is 6m more than twice the shortest side. If the third side is 2m less than hypotenuse, find the sides of the triangle.
Solution:
Let the shortest side = ‘x’m
then its hypotenuse = (2x + 6) m
Third side = 2x + 6 – 2 = (2x + 4) m then from Pythagoras theorem, we have

x² + (2x + 4)² = (2x + 6)²
⇒ x² + 4x² + 16x + 16 = 4x² + 24x + 36
⇒ x² + 16x – 24x + 16 – 36 = 0
⇒ x² – 8x – 20 = 0
⇒ x² – 1 Ox + 2x – 20 = 0
⇒ x(x- 10) + 2 (x- 10) = 0
⇒ (x – 10) (x + 2) = 0
⇒ x = 10 or x = -2
but ‘x’ being the length cannot be nega¬tive.
So x ≠ -2, we consider x = 10 only then the
shortest side = x = 10m
third side = 2x + 4 = 24 m
hypotenuse = 2x + 6 = 26m

Question 9.
Draw a line segment of length 7.2 cm. and divide it in the ratio 5 : 3 using compasses and ruler.
Solution:

Question 10.
Construct a triangle of sides 4.2 cm, 5.1 cm and 6 cm. Then construct a tri¬angle similar to it, whose sides are 2/3 of corresponding sides of the first tri¬angle.
Solution:

1. Draw a triangle ABC, with sides AB = 4.2cm,BC = 5.1 cm,CA = 6cm.
2. Draw a ray BX making an acute angle with BC on the side opposite to vertex A.
3. Locate 3 points B,, B2, B3 on BX so that BB₁ = B₁B₂ = B₂B₃.
4. Join B₃,C an draw a line through B₂ parallel to B₃C intersecting BC at C¹.
5. Draw a line through .C¹ parallel to CA intersect AB at A¹.
6.  A¹BC¹ is required triangle.

Question 11.
Construct a triangle PQR, where QR = 5.5cm,∠Q= 65°andPQ = 6cm. Then draw another triangle, whose sides are \(\frac{2}{3}\) times of the corresponding sides of ΔPQR.
Solution:
Construction Steps:

1. Draw a triangle ΔPQR with sides QR = 5.5cm, ∠Q = 65°and PQ = 6cm.
2. Draw a ray OX making an acute angle with QR on the side opposite to vertex P
   
3. Locate 3 points Q₁ Q₂ Q₃ on QX. So that QQ₁ = Q₁Q₂ = Q₂Q₃
4. Join Q₃,R and draw a line through Q₂ parallel to Q₃R intersecting QR at R.
5. Draw a line through ‘R’ parallel to PR intersect PQ at P.
6. ΔP’QR’ is required triangle.

Question 12.
i) State and prove the “Basic Propor-tionality theorem”.
ii) Using the theorem, find the length of AE, if AD = 1.8 cm, BD .= 5.4 cm, EC = 7.2 cm.

Solution:
If a lines is drawn parallel to one side of a triangle to intersecting the other two sides, in distinct points, then the other two sides are divided in the same ratio.
Given : A triangle ABC in which DE || BC and DE intersects AB in D and AC in E.
To prove : \(\frac{\mathrm{AD}}{\mathrm{DB}}=\frac{\mathrm{AE}}{\mathrm{EC}}\)

Construction : Join BE, CD and draw EF ⊥ AB, DG ⊥ AC.
Proof : In ∆EAD and ∆EDB, here as EF is perpendicular to AB, therefore, EF is the height for both of triangles EAD and EDB.
Now,
Area of ∆EAD = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) (base x height)
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) x AD x EF
Area of ∆EDB = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\)(base x height)
= \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) x DB x EF

∵ ∆DBE, ∆ECD are on the same base DE and between the same parallels DE || BC, we have
Area of ∆DBE = Area of ∆ECD
Hence, (1) = (2)
i.e., \(\frac{\mathrm{AD}}{\mathrm{DB}}=\frac{\mathrm{AE}}{\mathrm{EC}}\) (Q.E.D)

ii) Using the theorem, to find the length of \(\overline{\mathrm{AE}}\).

AD = 1.8 cm, BD = 5.4 cm, EC = 7.2 cm
From the theorem, \(\frac{\mathrm{AD}}{\mathrm{BD}}=\frac{\mathrm{AE}}{\mathrm{EC}}\)
⇒ AE = \(\frac{(\mathrm{AD})(\mathrm{EC})}{\mathrm{BD}}=\frac{1.8 \times 7.2}{5.4}\) = 2.4 cm
∴ AE = 2.4 cm

Question 13.
Draw ΔABC with sides 4.3 cm, 5.2 cm and 6.5 cm and then construct a tri-angle similar to ΔABC, whose sides are \(\frac { 3 }{ 5 }\)th of the corresponding sides.
Solution:
Constructing a similar triangle whose sides are \(\frac { 3 }{ 5 }\) of corresponding sides.
Steps of construction:
1) Draw a triangle ΔABC with sides AB = 4.3 cm, BC = 5.2 cm and AC = 6.5 cm
2) Draw a ray \(\overline{\mathrm{BX}}\) making an acute angle with BC on the side opposite to vertex ‘A’.

3) Locate 5 points B₁; B₂, B₃, B₄, B₅ on the ray \(\overline{\mathrm{BX}}\) Such that
\(\overline{\mathrm{BB}_{1}}=\overline{\mathrm{B}_{1} \mathrm{~B}_{2}}=\overline{\mathrm{B}_{2} \mathrm{~B}_{3}}=\overline{\mathrm{B}_{3} \mathrm{~B}_{4}}=\overline{\mathrm{B}_{4} \mathrm{~B}_{5}}\)
4) Now join \(\overline{\mathrm{B}_{5} \mathrm{C}}\) and draw another line through the point ‘B₃‘ such that it is parallel to \(\overline{\mathrm{B}_{5} \mathrm{C}}\) which meets \(\overline{\mathrm{BC}}\) at the point ‘C’.
5) Now draw another line from the point (C’) to \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) such that it is par¬allel to \(\overline{\mathrm{AC}}\), which meets \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) at the point (A’).
6) Now ΔA’B’C’ is required similar tri-angle.

Question 14.
Draw a triangle ABC in which AB = 4 cm, BC = 6 cm and AC = 4 cm. Draw a triangle similar to ΔABC with its sides \(\frac { 3 }{ 4 }\) times of the corresponding sides of ΔABC.
Solution:

Question 15.
Divide the line segment AB = 6 cm in the ratio of 3 : 2. Explain the con-struction procedure.
Solution:
Steps to construct:

1) Draw a line segment AB = 6 cm
2) Draw a line AX such that ∠BAX is an acute.
3) Make 5 equal parts on AX. (3 + 2)
4) Now join B with last part A₅.
5) Then draw a line from A₃ to AB which meets at ‘C’ such that it is parallel to BA₅.
6) So ‘C’ is the point which divides AB in the ratio of 3 : 2

Question 16.
In the given ΔABC, E and F are two points on AB and AC respectively. Then verify whether EF || BC or not in the following cases.
Solution:
From the converse of Thales theorem
EF || BC if \(\frac{\mathrm{AE}}{\mathrm{EB}}=\frac{\mathrm{AF}}{\mathrm{FC}}\)

Case I) AE = 3.9, EB = 3,
AF = 3.6, CF = 2.4
Then \(\frac{\mathrm{AE}}{\mathrm{EB}}=\frac{3.9}{3}=\frac{1.3}{1} ; \frac{\mathrm{AF}}{\mathrm{FC}}=\frac{3.6}{2.4}=\frac{3}{2}\)
So \(\frac{A E}{E B} \neq \frac{A F}{F B}\) then EF ∦ BC
Case II) AE = 4, EB = 4.5;
AF = 8 and CF = 9
So \(\frac{A E}{E B}=\frac{4}{4.5}=\frac{8}{9}\) and \(\frac{\mathrm{AF}}{\mathrm{FB}}=\frac{8}{9}\)
So then \(\frac{\mathrm{AE}}{\mathrm{EB}}=\frac{\mathrm{AF}}{\mathrm{FB}}\)
hence EF || BC.

Question 17.
In the given figure BC || DE and AD = DB = 3.4 and AC = 14.

So find AE and EC.
Solution:
In the given ΔABC, DE || BC is given.
So from Thales theorem,
\(\frac{\mathrm{AD}}{\mathrm{DB}}=\frac{\mathrm{AE}}{\mathrm{EC}}\)
In this problem, AD = DB = 3.4 is given.
And also AC = 14 is given.
So \(\frac{\mathrm{AD}}{\mathrm{DB}}=\frac{\mathrm{AE}}{\mathrm{EC}}\)
⇒ \(\frac{3.4}{3.4}=\frac{\mathrm{AE}}{\mathrm{EC}}\)
⇒ AE = EC
But AC = 14 is given.
AC = AE + EC = 2AE = 14
⇒ AE = EC = 7 cm

Question 18.
In given ΔABC points D and E are mid points of AB and AC and also BC = 6 cm then find DE. .
Solution:
As shown in the figure D, E are mid points of AB and AC.

Then AD = BD, AE = EC
∴ \(\frac{\mathrm{AD}}{\mathrm{BD}}=\frac{\mathrm{AE}}{\mathrm{EC}}\) hence DE || BC (From the Converse of Thales theorem)
\(\frac{\mathrm{AD}}{\mathrm{AB}}=\frac{\mathrm{DE}}{\mathrm{BC}}=\frac{\mathrm{AE}}{\mathrm{EC}}\)
⇒ \(\frac{A D}{2 A D}=\frac{D E}{6}\)
⇒ 2DE = 6 and DE = 3 cm
∴ DE = 3 cm

Question 19.
In the given figure, AB || CD || EF given AB = 73cm,DC=ycm,EF 4.5cm, BC = x cm. Calculate the values of x and y.

Solution:
Given that, AB || CD || EF and
AB = 7.5 cm, DC = y cm
According to Thales theorem
Δ𝜏CDE ~ Δ𝜏ABE

From (1) and (2)
\(\frac{7.5-y}{7.5}=\frac{y}{4.5}\)
7.5 y = (7.5) (4.5)-4.5 y
12y = (7.5) (4.5) = 33.75
y = \(\frac{33.75}{12}\) = 2.8125
From (2)
\(\frac{y}{4.5}=\frac{x}{x+3} ; \frac{2.8}{4.5}=\frac{\dot{x}}{x+3}\)
4.5 x = (2.8) x + 8.4
4.5 x – (2.8) x = 8.4
1.7 x = 8.4
x = \(\frac{8.4}{1.7}\) = 5 (approx)

These AP 8th Class Biology Important Questions 8th Lesson Production and Management of Food From Plants will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology 8th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Production and Management of Food From Plants

8th Class Biology 8th Lesson Production and Management of Food From Plants 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is Agriculture?
Answer:
The process of growing crops is called Agriculture.

Question 2.
What are long term crops ? What are short term crops?
Answer:
The crops which take 180 days or more for harvesting are called long term crops.
Ex: jowar, red gram etc.
The crops which takes 100 days for harvesting are called short term crops.
Ex: green gram, black gram etc.

Question 3.
What are Kharif crops?
Answer:
The crops grown in the rainy season are termed as Kharif. It starts from June to October.

Question 4.
What are Rabi crops?
Answer:
The crops grown in winter season are called Rabi. It starts from November to April.

Question 5.
When was rice cultivated?
Answer:
Rice was cultivated in the late Mesolithic period (9000 – 8000 BC) and in the Harappa cultivation (2,300 BC).

Question 6.
In which places Rice is grown as Kharif and Rabi?
Answer:
It is grown as a Kharif or a Rabi crop from Rajasthan to Arunachal Pradesh and from Kerala to Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 7.
What are the requirements for growing of paddy?
Answer:
Nature of the soil, humidity, rainfall, temperature.

Question 8.
Name the festivals that farmers celebrate.
Answer:
The sowing and transplanting is Akshaya Trithiya and harvesting associated with Pongal and Onam.

Question 9.
Name the activities that involve at the cultivation of paddy.
Answer:

1. Preparing the soil
2. Sowing the seeds
3. Applying manure
4. Facilitate water (irrigation)
5. Weeding
6. Crop harvesting
7. Storage.

Question 10.
What do farmers do to prepare the soil?
Answer:
Ploughing is done with a wooden plough and levelling will be done by using a soil plank being pulled by a pair of bullocks.

Question 11.
What is the scientific name of paddy?
Answer:
Oryza sativa which was named by Linnaeus.

Question 12.
What is the traditional good variety of rice?
Answer:
Molagolukulu is the traditional good variety which is grown in coastal areas of Nellore.

Question 13.
Name some traditional varieties of rice.
Answer:
Amrita sari, Bangaru Teega, Kolleti Kusuma, Potti Basangi, Sona Masuri.

Question 14.
Why do farmers do medication before sowing seeds?
Answer:
Medication is done to keep seeds away from the harmful microorganisms like bacteria, fungus etc.

Question 15.
What is broadcasting method?
Answer:
The method of dispersing seeds by sprinkling is called broadcasting method.

Question 16.
What is transplantation?
Answer:
When the plants grow to certain height, farmers pick out the seedlings from the plot and make bundles. These plants are sown in proper distances. This is called transplantation. (Naru etlu)

Question 17.
What is a paddy planter?
Answer:
A paddy planter is useful for farmers those who cultivate paddy in large areas, to maintain proper distance sowing the seedlings.

Question 18.
Name some pests that attack rice plants.
Answer:
Moth caterpillars, paddy beetles and their larva, paddy grasshoppers and aphids.

Question 19.
What are the appliances used to spray pesticides?
Answer:
Sprayers and dusters.

Question 20.
Name the crops that are affected by fungus.
Answer:
Wheat, paddy and sugarcane are generally affected by fungus.

Question 21.
Name the fungal disease in groundnut.
Answer:
Groundnut is attacked by a fungal disease called Tikka disease.

Question 22.
What are the symptoms of tikka disease?
Answer:
All leaves of the affected plant have powdery spots. The whole plant becomes wilted.

Question 23.
Name some diseases that affect lemon tree.
Answer:
Viral diseases, bacterial diseases, leaf miner, citrus butterfly and fungal diseases.

Question 24.
How can the pests will be controlled?
Answer:
A farmer removes the affected leaves from the plant and put them in a dump and covers with soil to control the pests.

Question 25.
How can you identify that the plant is affected by fungus?
Answer:
A fungal infection is usually seen as white, black, yellow, brown spots or a fluffy or powdery coating on leaves.

Question 26.
Name some garden pesticides.
Answer:
Garden pesticides are derived from plants like neem, tobacco and chrysanthemum are less dangerous to other living things.

Question 27.
Name some organic synthetic pesticides.
Answer:
The organic synthetic pesticides commonly used are DDT (Dichloro diphenyl trichloro ethane) BHC (Benzene Hexa Chloride), Chlordane, Endrin, Aldrin, Endosulfan and Diazinon.

Question 28.
Who wrote a book on the dangers of pesticides?
Answer:
In 1960 Rachael Carson wrote a book called ‘silent spring’ in which she wrote the dangers of pesticides.

Question 29.
How are biofertilizers formed?
Answer:
Biofertilizers are formed by decomposing plant and animal wastes.

Question 30.
Why do farmers add manure to the soil?
Answer:
If the farmer grows same type of crops in the same field every year the nutrients of the soil decrease crops do not give good yield. So, farmers add manure for healthy growth of plants.

Question 31.
Name some chemical fertilizers.
Answer:
Urea, D.A.R, superphosphate, potash,which are enriched with nitrogen, phosphorous and potash.

Question 32.
What is irrigation?
Answer:
The process of watering crop plants in the field is known as irrigation.

Question 33.
What is furrow irrigation?
Answer:
The water is allowed to enter the field through channels or furrows made between two rows of crop is furrow irrigation.

Question 34.
What is basin irrigation?
Answer:
In this method of irrigation the field is just filled with water as in the case of paddy. Canals, tanks and wells are the water sources. Farmers dig small canals from tank to fields to supply water.

Question 35.
Why is water logging harmful?
Answer:
Water logging is harmful because it does not allow the roots to breathe.

Question 36.
What is drip irrigation method?
Answer:
This method is employed when the availability of water is poor. The water reaches the plants drop by drop.

Question 37.
Why should the weeds be removed?
Answer:
The weeds compete with the primary crops for nutrients, water and light and the prime plants may not grow. Hence weeds should be removed.

Question 38.
What is harvesting?
Answer:
Collecting grains from the crop by cutting the matured plant is called harvesting.

Question 39.
Why is storage of grain is an important task?
Answer:
We do not consume the entire crop at a time. They can be damage by fungi, pests, rats and bacteria. To over come this problem farmers dry the grains in sun and store the grain in jute bags, metallic and bamboo bins.

Question 40.
What is global grain?
Answer:
Rice is the prime, most essential and important staple food crop. It is also called global grain as it is grown all countries in the world.

8th Class Biology 8th Lesson Production and Management of Food From Plants 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is a paddy planter? What is its use?
Answer:

1. Paddy planter is the latest machine used for sowing the seedlings.
2. It is useful for large scale cultivation of paddy.
3. It is easy to maintain proper distance sowing the seedlings.
4. Paddy planter is a device which save both time and money to the farmer.

Question 2.
Arrange the sequence of events in the cultivation of paddy crop.

Answer:

Question 3.
Give different methods of irrigating a crop in the field.
Answer:

1. Lift irrigation
2. Swinging basket
3. Water wheel
4. Tube well
5. Sprinkler
6. Drip irrigation

Question 4.
Draw and write the names of diseases that affect plants.

Answer:

1. Virus in rice plant
2. Tikka disease in groundnut

Question 5.
What are the advantages of ploughing in summer?
Answer:

1. It improves the air circulation.
2. Replacing the soil layers.
3. Reduce the weeds and diseases.
4. It improves the soil health.
5. Roots are easy to penetrate in to the soil.

8th Class Biology 8th Lesson Production and Management of Food From Plants 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Collect the information from farmers about different crops and their sowing methods.
Answer:

Question 2.
Draw and label the diagram of sprouting paddy seeds.
Answer:

Question 3.
Take some paddy grains and soak them in water for one day. Take them into watch glass and sow them in soil. After that observe the radicle and plumule with the help of hand lens and draw the picture of it.
Answer:

8th Class Biology 8th Lesson Production and Management of Food From Plants Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Give two examples of plants that grow with transplanting (Natlu veyadam).
Answer:
Paddy, wheat, chilli.

Question 2.
A farmer cultivated cotton crop in his field. He did not get sufficient yield. Guess any four causes for it.
Answer:

1. The crops grown in the rainy season are termed as “Kharif”.
2. Kharif season is from June to October.
3. Examples for Kharif crops are paddy, sugarcane, jowar and turmeric, etc.
4. The crops that are grown only in winter season are called Rabi crops.
5. Rabi season is from October to March.
6. Examples for Rabi crops are wheat, maize, coriandrum, fenugram, barli, etc.

Question 3.
Look at the picture and answer the following questions.

a) Which type of fertilizer is this?
b) What are the chemicals present in this?
c) What does 20-5-10 indicates?
d) Is it profit or loss by using this type of fertilizers? Why?
Answer:
a) Chemical fertilizer
b) Nitrogen (N), Phosphorus (P), Potash (K)
c) 20% of Nitrogen
5% of Phosphorus
10% of Potash
d) If we use chemical fertilizers for a longer period, soil health will be damaged. So, we should not use chemical fertilizers.

Question 4.
Study the following table and answer the questions.

Name of the plant disease	Causative Microorganism	Mode of Transmission
Tobacco mosaic	Virus	Insects
Red rot of sugarcane	Fungi	Air, seedlings
Citrus canker	Bacteria	Air
Tikka disease of groundnut	Fungi	Air, seeds

a) What are the diseases caused by fungi in plants?
b) What are the diseases Transmitted through air?
c) Which microorganisms cause Tikka disease of groundnut?
d) How virus transmit mosaic disease in tobacco?
Answer:
a) Red rot of sugarcane, Tikka disease of groundnut.
b) Red rot of sugarcane, citrus canker, Tikka disease of groundnut.
c) Fungus.
d) Through insects.

Question 5.
What is the similarity between sprinklers and drip irrigation?
Answer:
Sprinklers and drip – irrigation techniques are used in low water available soils. They are very useful for the farmers who are cultivating crops in dry lands. These are called as “micro – irrigation methods”.

These AP 8th Class Biology Important Questions 3rd Lesson Story of Microorganisms 1 will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology 3rd Lesson Important Questions and Answers Story of Microorganisms 1

8th Class Biology 3rd Lesson Story of Microorganisms 1 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are microorganisms?
Answer:
Some organisms can be seen only with the help of a microscope. Such organisms are called ‘microorganisms’.

Question 2.
Where can we find microorganisms?
Answer:
Microorganisms can found in air, water, soil and all living organisms.

Question 3.
Write the names of some groups of microorganisms.
Answer:
Bacteria, fungi, protozoa, algae are some of the groups of microorganisms.

Question 4.
What is meant by arthropods?
Answer:
Arthropods are joint legged organisms which causes the diseases like scabies.

Question 5.
Write the names of diseases which are caused by bacteria.
Answer:
Diseases like typhoid, tuberculosis (T.B.) and septicemia (blood poisoning) are caused by bacteria.

Question 6.
Mention the diseases caused by protozoans.
Answer:
Malaria, Amoebiasis, Kala Azar, Sleeping bickness are some of the diseases caused by protozoans.

Question 7.
How do we classify the groups of microorganisms?
Answer:
Basing upon the cell structure and mode of living we can classify the microbes into 6 groups.

1. Bacteria,
2. Algae,
3. Fungi,
4. Protozoans,
5. Micro orthropods and
6. Viruses.

Question 8.
What are the uses of yeast?
Answer:

1. Yeast cells are frequently used in the fermentation process of sugars.
2. Yeast is used in the preparation of cakes and buns in bakeries.

Question 9.
What is a “bread mould”?
Answer:
Rhizopus

Question 10.
Aspergillus reproduction takes place through a special structures. What are they?
Answer:
Conidiospores.

8th Class Biology 3rd Lesson Story of Microorganisms 1 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Prepare a model of any micro arthropod.
Answer:

Question 2.
What is Pencillin? Who discovered this?
Answer:

1. ‘Antibacterium’ is prepared from a fungi called Pencillium notatum. This is called Pencillin.
2. Pencillin was discovered by Dr. Alexander Flemming.

Question 3.
How do you culture protozoa?
Answer:

1. Soak hay in pond water taken in a dish.
2. Add rice powder or ‘Gangi’ to this solution.
3. Keep the dish undisturbed for 3 – 4 days.
4. You can observe several protozoans in this hay decoction.

Question 4.
How can you observe algae in your laboratory?
Answer:

1. Take 2-3 drops of greenish pond water on a slide.
2. Spread the scrapings having small stringe like bodies on the slide.
3. Cover it with a cover slip and observe it under microscope.
4. You can see algae like spirogyra, spirulina and ceratium.

Question 5.
How Microbiology helps in identifying diseases and their prevention?
Answer:

1. Microbiology plays a very vital important role in identifying the cause of diseases by the discovery of several microorganisms.
2. Microbiology helps in the preparation of diseases caused by microorganisms by the discovery of their transmission methods.

8th Class Biology 3rd Lesson Story of Microorganisms 1 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Collect different pictures of micro arthropods.
Answer:

Question 2.
Make sketches of bacterial cell.
Answer:

Question 3.
How can you grow protozoa practically in your school? Explain.
Answer:
To grow protozoa, soak hay in pond water to prepare a decoction of hay. After 3-4 days take one or two drops of hay or grass decoction and observe it under microscope. We can see different protozoans like amoeba, paramecium etc.

Question 4.
Identify the following diagram and Label parts.
Answer:

Question 5.
How do you appreciate the fact that some of the bacteria are useful to human?
Answer:
At birth, a baby’s digestive system is a sterile, undiscovered continent. Within minutes, microbes have started pouring in from every direction. They come from the birth canal, from the mother’s breast milk, from the fingertips of nurses and the lips of happy relatives.
There are also innumerable colonies of E. coli in biotechnology and microbiology labs around the world. Everyday pharmaceutical companies manipulate E. coli to produce human-growth hormone, insulin, vitamins, and even the rennet used to make cheese. Biologists use E. coli to map metabolic pathways. Scientists are even using E. coli try to understand why we age and die.
Nitro bacter, ammonifying bacteria etc., are more useful for decompositions and fixing of Nitrogen in the plants and soil.

Question 6.
Explain how microorganisms are important for maintaining of healthy soil and biodiversity.
Answer:
The soil is home to a large proportion of the world’s biodiversity. The top eight inches of soil of one acre area may contain as much as five and half tons of bacteria and fungi.
Soil organisms breakdown organic matter, making nutrients available for uptake by plants and other organisms. A gram of garden soil contains around one million fungi, such as yeasts and moulds. Bacteria and fungi play key roles in maintaining a healthy soil. They act as decomposers that break down organic materials to produce detritus and other breakdown products. Soil detritivores, like earthworms, ingest detritus and decompose it.

Question 7.
Collect the information about useful microorganisms from your school library.
Answer:

Name of the microorganism	Utility
Yeast(Fungus)	Production of alcohol fermented foods like Idli, Dosa etc………..
Pencillium notatum (Fungus)	Preparation of antibiotics
Nostoc, Anabina, Azatobactor	Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen.
Spirulina	Preparation of medicines
Lactobacillus	Preparation of curd, cheese, buttermilk.

Question 8.
How do you appreciate the role of decomposers in the earth?
Answer:

1. Microorganisms are the decomposers of the earth.
2. They decompose the organic matter from plant parts and dead animals. They enrich the soil with organic matter again.
3. Thus, they maintain the soil fertility and eliminate the wastes from the earth.
4. I appreciate the role played by decomposers in scavenging the earth by decomposing the organic matter of dead bodies.

Question 9.
What are ‘bio – fertilizers’? How are they useful?
Answer:

1. Microorganisms like Bacteria, Fungi which decompose the fallen plant parts, dung and vegetable peelings into simple chemical compounds.
2. They form ‘useful manure’ to the plants since this manure is formed naturally from biological activity of microorganisms, they are called ‘bio – fertilizers’.
3. Farmers are benefited economically. They don’t need chemical fertilizers to increase the soil fertility. Hence, Bio – fertilizers are considered as “friends of farmers”.

These AP 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions 4th Lesson Atmosphere will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social 4th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Atmosphere

9th Class Social 3rd Lesson Hydrosphere 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why does our skin dry up more during the winter? (SA-II : 2018-19)
Answer:
If the humidity is low in our atmosphere, our skin becomes dry during winter. This also leads to chapped lips.

Question 2.
Define relative humidity. (SA-I : 2019-20)
Answer:
Relative humidity: Relative humidity is the ratio between two things.

1. The maximum water vapour that the air can hold at a given temperature and pressure and
2. The actual amount of water vapour it holds at any given time.

9th Class Social 4th Lesson Atmosphere 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How many types of rainfall classified based on the origin of rainfall? What are they? Explain one of them? (SA-II : 2016-17)
Answer:
On the basis of origin, rainfall may be classified into three main types.

1. Convectional Rainfall
2. Orographic Rainfall
3. Cyclonic Rainfall.

Convectional Rainfall :
This type of rainfall occurs when moist air over the heated ground becomes warmer than the surrounding air and is forced to rise, expand, cool and yield some of its moisture.

It is common in low latitudes and on summer days in interior part of the continents, and usually come in the form of short heavy showers just after the hottest part of the day, some times accompanied by thunder and lightning.

Question 2.
Observe the information given below and write four sentences on ‘Pressure Beits and Planetary Winds’. (SA-III : 2016-17)

Answer:
According to the given picture :

• The Equatorial Low Pressure Belts : This low pressure belt extends from 0 to 5° North and South of the Equator.
• Sub – Tropical Pressure Beits : At about 30° North and South of the equator lies the area where the ascending equatorial air currents descends.
• Sub-polar Low Pressure belts : These belts are located between 60° and 70° in both the hemispheres and are known as sub-polar low pressure belts.
• Polar High Pressure belts ; At the North and South between 70° and 90° temperatures are always extremely low. These areas of polar high pressure are known as polar highs.

Planetary winds : Planetary winds are distributed all over the globe and blow in the same direction throughout the year. These winds originate due to the presence of permanent high pressure and low pressure belts on the surface of the earth. The main types of planetary winds are the trade winds, the westerlies and the polar winds.

Question 3.
Study the table and answer the questions given below. (SA-I : 2018-19)

Name of the sphere	Area	Characteristics In equator region
Troposphere	Upto 13 kms.	The entire weather phenomenon happens in this sphere. The temperature in the layer decreases as we go higher.
Stratosphere	Upto 50 kms.	This layer is almost free from clouds and associated weather phenomenon, making conditions most ideal for flying Jet air crafts. One important feature of stratosphere is that contains Ozone layer. The temperature increases with the increase in altitude.
Mesosphere	Upto 80 kms.	Meteorites burn up in this layer on entering from the space. Temperature starts decreasing with the increase in altitude.
Thermosphere	Up to 400 kms.	In thermosphere temperature rises rapidly with increasing height. It contains electrically charged particals known as ions. Radio rays transmitted from the earth by these ions.
Exosphere	Above 400 kms.	It is uppermost layer of the atmosphere. This is the highest layer and very little known about it.

1. Why do jet aircrafts fly in the stratosphere?
2. Which is the top most layer?
3. Which layer contains ions?
4. In which layer does precipitation and cyclones occur?
Answer:

1. Stratosphere layer is almost free from clouds and associated weather phenomenon, making conditions most ideal for flying jet aircrafts.
2. Exosphere. It is above 400 kms. It is uppermost layer of the atmosphere.
3. Thermosphere contains electrically charged particles known as ions.
4. Troposphere.

Question 4.
What are the effects of climate change on the contemporary World? (SA-I : 2018-19)
Answer:
The affect of climate change on contemporary world.
→ an increase in hunger and water crises.
→ health risks through rising air temperatures and heat waves.
→ increasing spread of pests and pathogens
→ loss of biodiversity.
→ melting of the polar caps.
→ El Nino and La-Nino effect.
→ Frequently cyclonic effect on coastal areas, etc.

9th Class Social 4th Lesson Atmosphere Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is Coriolis effect?
Answer:
Because of the impact of Earth’s rotation on its own axis, the winds move slightly to the right in the northern hemisphere, and to the left in the southern hemisphere. This effect is called Coriolis effect.

Question 2.
About which layer do we have very little knowledge?
Answer:
Exosphere is the upper most layer of the atmosphere. This is the highest layer. Very little is known about it.

Question 3.
Why does the amount of water vapour decrease rapidly with altitude?
Answer:
The water vapour is attracted towards the surface or close to the surface due to the gravitational pull of the earth. Hence the amount of water vapour decreases with altitude.

Question 4.
Name and explain the classification of winds.
Depending upon the wind speed, their features, their directions, the way they occur, winds are classified into three types.
A) Planetary winds –
present on the planet as a whole through out the year, that blow continuously and regularly.

B) Seasonal winds –
Restricted to regions or seasonal in character like monsoons.

C) Local winds –
These blow due to local variation in the temperature and pressure, and influence a very small area.

Question 5.
What is a ‘rain shadow’ region?
Answer:

• The moist air is forced to rise over mountain.
• It gives heavy precipitation on the windward side.
• After that the air, which is devoid of moisture blows over leeward side.
• It does not give rain there. So this dry region is known as ‘rain-shadow’ region.

Question 6.
Discuss the cloud formation and various clouds.
Answer:

• Water vapour in the atmosphere attracts dust particles and condense as droplets.
• These droplets in millions and millions together appear like clouds.
• Clouds are different types based on their forms and heights.
• For examples, Cirrus clouds (at higher level), Cumulus clouds (at middle level), Stratus (at lower level) and nimbus (rain bearing and vertical clouds).

Question 7.
How many pressure belts do we have? And what are they?
Answer:
There are seven pressure belts on the earth’s surface. They are :

1. The equatorial low-pressure belt. (1)
2. The sub-tropical high pressure belts. (2)
3. The sub-polar low pressure belts. (2)
4. The polar high pressure belts. (2)

Question 8.
What is relative humidity?
Answer:
The realtive humidity is the ratio between

• The maximum water vapour that the air can hold and
• The actual amount of water vapour it holds.

Question 9.
What are planetary winds? How many types of winds are there?
Answer:
The winds that blow constantly, regularly above the world’s pressure belts are known as planetary winds. They are of three types :

1. Trade winds
2. Westerlies
3. Polar winds.

Question 10.
Write about local winds.
Answer:
The local winds blow due to local variation in the temperature of the area.
These winds are of two types. They are :
1. Hot local winds
2. Cold local winds.

1. Hot local winds :
Hot local winds raise the temperature of the area.

2. Cold local winds :
Cold local winds sometimes bring the temperature of the local area below the freezing points.
Ex : Mistral, Puna, Pampero, etc.

Question 11.
What is NASA?
Answer:
The space agency of USA is NASA, i.e., the National Aeronautics and Space Administration.

Question 12.
“The wind flows from high pressure areas to low pressure areas” – interpret the statement.
Answer:

• When any part of the earth heats up and causes low pressure, it means that there is more vacant space and less molecules.
• Now air from other parts where the pressure is higher moves towards this vacant place.
• It is not difficult for the wind to move along the earth’s surface and thus need not go too much against gravity any more.
• That is why the wind flows from high pressure areas to low pressure areas.

Question 13.
“Heat and pressure – If one increases the other decreases – this is called an inverse relationship” – Interpret the statement.
Answer:

• Due to the heating of the earth’s surface, the gas molecules are heated up, they get a lot of energy and start moving very fast.
• The pressure increases as the molecules will be pushing the object more.
• The energised molecules start flying off higher and higher.
• Now they have more energy to defy the pull of the earth.
• When more molecules go to higher reaches of the atmosphere, the place near the earth has less molecules, this means less pushing around or less pressure.
• Thus when it gets hot, the air pressure becomes low and when it becomes cool, the pressure increases.
• In simpler terms “If one increases the other decreases”-this is called an inverse relationship.

Question 14.
Nowadays there is great demand for energy. Conventional energy sources are depleting quickly. In the light of this, assess wind as alternate energy?
Answer:

• Nowadays there is great demand for energy and conventional energy sources are depleting quickly.
• In these situation wind energy is definitely an alternate energy source.
• Winds like planetary, which blow constantly and regularly are of great help in energy production.
• Wind energy is not an exhausting one like conventional resources.
• Winds of other nature like monsoon and local winds also come handy in energy production.

Question 15.
Observe the figure and answer the questions that follow.

1. To which pressure belts are the westerlies blowing?
Answer:
The westerlies are blowing towards sub-polar low pressure belts.

2. To which pressure belts are the easterlies blowing?
Answer:
The easterlies are blowingtowards sub-polar low pressure belts.

3. What are the winds that are blowing towards the equatorial Sow pressure belts?
Answer:
Trade winds are blowing towards the equatorial low pressure belts.

4. What is the other name for the equatorial low pressure belts?
Answer:
The equatorial low pressure belts are also known as “the equatorial doldrums” or ITCZ i.e., Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone.

5. Towards which direction (right or left) are the planetary winds blowing?
Answer:
The winds in the Northern hemisphere are deflecting towards right and the winds in the southern hemisphere are deflecting towards left due to coriolis effect.

Question 16.
Appreciate the role of winds in weather and climate patterns. Draw a parallel from history.
Answer:

• Winds play a very important role in the weather and climate patterns around the world.
• They have also played a very important role in history.
• For example, Vasco da Gama found sea route to India using winds to power his ships.
• He was able to transport and trade in spices with help of these winds.
• These winds are crucial for Portugese to rule over Goa.

Question 17.
Explain the measures to be taken to mitigate the cyclones.
Answer:

• Early warning systems are needed to be installed by the government.
• Government should inform people in advance about the possibility of disasters like cyclones.
• Government shall provide people with longterm security like strong roads, safe pucca houses for people of low land areas.
• Food, water and medical emergency teams should be kept ready whenever there is a forecast of cyclone.
• Close cooperation between people, Non-Governmental organizations and Government organizations are essential to mitigate cyclone affects.