AP State Important Questions

These AP 9th Class Maths Important Questions 13th Lesson Geometrical Constructions will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Maths 13th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Geometrical Constructions

Question 1.
Construct a triangle ABC with measures AB = 5 cm, BC – 4.2 cm and AC = 6.5 cm. Measure the angles. Write relationship between sides and angles.
Solution:
Given values:
∠A = 88°, ∠C = 48°, ∠A = 44°

Relation : Angle opposite to greater side is more than the angle opposite lesser side.

Choose the correct answer :

Question 1.
If in the figure, \(\overline{\mathbf{X Y}}\) is the perpendicular bisector to AB then AX =

A) AY
B) BY
C) BX
D) XY
Answer:
C) BX

Question 2.
In the above figure, ΔAXB is
A) equilateral
B) isosceles
C) scalene
D) right triangle
Answer:
B) isosceles

Question 3.
In the above figure, ΔAXO ≅
A) ΔAYO
B) ΔBYO
C) ΔAXB
D) ΔBXO
Answer:
D) ΔBXO

Question 4.
In the figure, \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{BF}}\) is the bisector of ∠ABC then

A) ∠ABF = ∠CBF
B) ∠ABF = ∠ABC
C) ∠ABF + ∠CBF = 90°
D) ∠ABF + ∠CBF = 180°
Answer:
A) ∠ABF = ∠CBF

Question 5.
From the figure, ΔABD ΔCBD by

A) S.S.S
B) A.S.A
C) S.A.S
D) R.H.S
Answer:
A) S.S.S

Question 6.
∠DAC =

A) ∠B + ∠A
B) ∠A + ∠C
C) ∠B + ∠C
D) ∠A + ∠B + ∠C
Answer:
C) ∠B + ∠C

Question 7.
Angles in same circle segment are
A) Complementary
B) Supplementary
C) Equal
D) Unequal
Answer:
C) Equal

Question 8.
Angle in the semi-circle is
A) right angle
B) 180°
C) acute angle
D) obtuse angle
Answer:
A) right angle

Question 9.
The process of drawing a geometrical figure by using a compass and straight
edge is called
A) geometrical proof
B) hypothesis
C) geometrical construction
D) none
Answer:
C) geometrical construction

Question 10.
If in ΔABC \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{BX}}\) and \(\overrightarrow{\mathrm{CY}}\) are bisectors to the base angles then ∠BXC =
A) 90° + \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠A
B) 90° – \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠A
C) 180°- \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠A
D) None
Answer:
A) 90° + \(\frac{1}{2}\)∠A

Question 11.
No. of circles drawn from a given point is
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) Infinite
Answer:
A) 1

Question 12.
The circumcentre‘O’shown in the figure is formed by the concurrence of

A) Perpendicular bisectors
B) Angular bisectors
C) Medians
D) Altitudes
Answer:
A) Perpendicular bisectors

These AP 9th Class Maths Important Questions 8th Lesson Quadrilaterals will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Maths 8th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Quadrilaterals

Question 1.
The four angles of quadrilateral are in the ratio 2 : 4 : 5 : 7. Find it’s angles.
Solution:
Ratio of angles of quadrilateral = 2 : 4 : 5 : 7
Let the four angles be 2x, 4x, 5x and 7x.
Sum of them = 2x + 4x + 5x + 7x = 360°
⇒ 18x = 360° ⇒ x = 20°
∴ Angles in a quadrilateral = 40°, 80°, 100°, 140°

Question 2.
Draw a diagram representing the following data.
“In a triangle ABC, AD is the median drawn on to the side BC is produced to E such that AD = ED to form a ABEC parallelogram”.
Solution:

Question 3.
The ratio of consecutive angles of a parallelogram is 2 : 3. Find the angles.
Solution:
Ratio of angles = 2 : 3
Let the angles are 2x and 3x.
Sum of adjacent angles in a parallelogram is 180°.
∴ 2x + 3x = 180°
5x = 180° ⇒ x° = 36°
∴ Angles are = 2x = 2 × 36° = 72°
= 3x = 3 × 36° = 108°

Question 4.
D, E and F are midpoints of the sides of triangle ABC respectively, if AB = 8 cm., BC 7.2 cm, and AC = 6 cm. then find the perimeter of ΔDEF.

Solution:
DF = BC = × 7.2 = 3.6 cm
DE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) AC = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 6 = 3cm
EF = \(\frac{1}{2}\) AB = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 8 = 4 cm
∴ Permiter of ΔDEF = 3.6 + 3 + 4 = 10.6 cm

Question 5.
ABCD is a parallelogram and ∠D = 150°. The side AB is produced to E. Then find the measure of ∠CBE.

Solution:
From figure ∠B = ∠D {ABCD is a parallelogram}
∠B = 150°
∠CBA + ∠CBE = 180° {Linear pair} 150° + ∠CBE = 180°
∠CBE = 180° – 150° = 30°

Question 6.
ABCD is a rhombus and ∠A = 60°, find the measure of ∠C and ∠B.
Solution:
ABCD is a rhombus in which ∠A = 60° then ZC = 60° [ ∵ ∠A, ∠C are the opposite angles, which are equal in a rhombus]
∠A + ∠B = 180° [Sum of adjacent angles of a rhombus are supplementary]
60° + ∠B = 180°
∴ ∠B = 180° – 60° = 120°

Question 7.
Write whether the following statements are true (or) false. Justify your answer.
i) A rhombus is a parallelogram,
ii) For any real number x, x² ≥ 0.
iii) The sum of the interior angles of a quadrilateral is 350°.
iv) Square numbers can be written as the sum of two odd numbers.
Solution:
i) A Rhombus is a parallelogram. This statement is true. Because squares, – rectangles and rhombuses are all parallelograms.
ii) For any real number x, x² ≥ 0. This statement is true. Because square of a real number cannot be negative and it can be equal or greater than zero.
iii) The sum of the interior angles of a quadrilateral is 350°. This statement is false. Because of the sum of the interior angles of a quadrilateral is 360°.
iv) Square numbers can be written as the sum of two odd numbers. This statement is true. Square number will always be even. The sum of two odd numbers is always an even number.

Question 8.
In the given figure CD || BE || AF. Prove that ar(ΔAEC) = ar (ΔDBF).

Solution:
Area of triangles between same base and same parallel lines are equal.
∴ ΔCBE area = ΔDBE area
ΔBAE area = ΔBEF area
ΔCBE + ΔBAE = ΔDBE + ΔBEF
∴ Area of ΔAEC = area of ΔDBF

Question 9.
The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 3. Find the measure of each angle of the quadrilateral.
Solution:
Ratio of angles = 1 : 2 : 3 : 3
Angles of quadrilateral x, 2x, 3x and 3x.
x + 2x + 3x + 3x = 360°
9x = 360°
x = \(\frac{360}{9}\) = 40°
First angle = x = 40°
Second angle = 2x = 80°
Third angle = 3x = 120°
Fourth angle = 3x = 120°

Question 10.
The opposite angles of a parallelogram are (3x – 2)° and (x + 48)°. Find the measure of each angle of the parallelogram.
Solution:
Opposite angles of a parallelogram are given.
They are (3x – 2)°, (x + 48)°
⇒ 3x – 2 = x + 48° [ ∵ opposite angles of a parallelogram are equal]
⇒ 3x – x = 48 + 2 => 2x = 50
∴ x = 25°

A = 3x – 2° = 3 x 25° -2° = 75° -2° = 73°
∠A = ∠C = 73°
∠B = 180° – ∠A [ v adjacent angles of a parallelogram are supplementary]
= 180° – 73° = 107°
∴ ∠B = ∠D = 107°

Question 11.
i) ABCD is a quadrilateral such that AB = BD, AC = CD. Show that ΔABC ≅ ΔDBC.
ii) ABCD is a quadrilateral such that AD = BC and ∠DAB = ∠CBA.
Show that ΔABD ≅ ΔBAC.

ABCD is a quadrilateral in which
AB = BD
AC = CD
from ΔABC & ΔDBC
AB = DB (S) (given)
AC = DC (S) given
BC = BC (S) (common side)
By side – side – side congruency rule ΔABC ≅ ΔDBC

Proof : ABCD is a quadrilateral in which AD = BC and ∠DAB = ∠CBA from A ABD & Δ BAC
AD = BC (S) (given)
∠DAB = ∠CBA (A) given
AB = AB (S) (common side)
∴ By S.A.S congruency rule ΔABD ≅ ΔBAC

These AP 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions 1st Lesson Our Earth will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social 1st Lesson Important Questions and Answers Our Earth

9th Class Social 1st Lesson Our Earth 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Which continent is extended in four hemispheres In the given map. (SA-III : 2015 – 16)
Answer:

Africa continent.

Question 2.
What do you mean by anti meridian? (SA-III : 2016 – 17)
Answer:
The anti meridian is the meridian of longitude opposite the Prime-Meridian.

9th Class Social 1st Lesson Our Earth 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw the picture of the Globe and point out all the latitudes that are given special names on it. (SA-III : 2016 – 17)
Answer:

Question 2.
Why is it important to know the latitude and longitude of a place on map? How can it be useful? (SA-II : 2018 – 19)
Answer:
It is very important to know about latitudes and longitudes of a place by the following reasons.

• The particular location of a place on the earth can only be traced precisely with the help of latitude and longitude of that place.
• Latitude also help us in understanding the pattern of wind circulation on the global surface.
• Longitudes are useful to us to define the east-west position of a location on the planet.
• Longitudes are useful to us to know the time of the place.

Question 3.
Wegener hypothesised that the super continents of pangea broke up into two blocks –
1) Laurensia
2) Gondwana. It took millions of years for the continents to reach the present shapes and positions on the globe. (SA-I : 2018 – 19)
1) Laurensia : North America, Greenland, and all of the Eurasia north of Indian sub continent.
2) Gondwana : South America, Africa, Madagascar, India, Arabia, Malaysia, East Indies, Australia and Antartica.
Based on the above information given – answer the following questions.
a) Write any two land masses of present Asian continent which were formed from Gondwana?
b) From which block was the present Europe continent formed?
Answer:
a) India, Arabia, Malaysia, East Indies.
b) The present Europe continent was formed from Laurensia block.

Question 4.
If every state in India follows its local time then what problems will arise? (SA-I : 2019 – 20)
Answer:
If every state follows its local time, the following problems will arise :

• People travelling to different states would have to change their clocks too often.
• There would be confusion and chaos in the timings of railways, airlines, buses etc.
• The schedules of television shows, live shows and games, news etc. would be disrupted.

9th Class Social 1st Lesson Our Earth 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the difference between local time and standard time ? If every state follows its local time then what problems will rise in India? (SA-III : 2015 – 16)
Answer:
Difference between Local and Standard time:

Local Time	Standard Time
1) The time of a place when the mid day sun is over head is called local time.	1) The local time of the standard meridian of a country is called a standard time.
2) It changes from place to place.	2) It remains same for that particular country.
3) The place on the same longitude has the same local time.	3) The place on the same longitude has the different standard time.

Example:
If the IST is 12.00 noon, the local of Mumbai is 39 minutes – IST = 11.21 minutes a.m. Since Mumbai is on 72°82′ east longitudes, it is 9°45′ behind the 82°30′. Thus the local time of Mumbai is 9.45 x 4 = 38 minutes.

If every state follows its local time, a lot of serious problems would rise. Some of them are being discussed hereunder.

• At the time of national calamities and disasters, it is very difficult for the national government to make necessary emergency announcement.
• At the time of wars and national emergency it is very difficult for the national government to alert all the defensive forces stationed in all the state capitals and the naval forces of all the coastal states.
• It is very difficult for Televisions and Radios to follow a single schedule to broadcast their programmes.
• Railways faces a difficult problem in preparing a timetable for its trains that travel through many states.

Question 2.
Describe the internal structure of the earth. (SA-III : 2016 – 17) (SA-I : 2018 – 19)
Answer:
The earth is made up of three main layers.
A) Crust:

1. The outer part of the earth on which we live is called the crust.
2. While the earth was boiling in a molten form the lighter particles cooled at the top and formed the layer of crust.
3. The curst mostly consists of various kinds of rocks.
4. This layer goes up to a depth of 30 to 100 kms.

B) Mantle:

1. While the earth was boiling in a molten form the less heavier particles settled in the middle and formed the mantle.
2. The upper part of the mantle is a pliable layer over which the crust floats.
3. This layer consists mainly of chemicals called silicates.
4. It exists at the depths from 100 kms to 2900 kms.

C) Core:

1. While the earth was boiling in a molten form the heaviest substances formed core.
2. It is composed of dense and heavy substances like Iron and Nickel.
3. It exists at the depths from 2,900 kms to 6,376 kms.
4. It can be divided into two sub-layers.

a) Outer core :
This layer is composed of liquid metallic material like nickel and iron. It is 2,900 – 5,100 kms in thickness.

b) Inner core :
The solid inner core is made up of iron compounds and heavy substances like gold. It is 5,100 – 6,376 kms in thickness.

9th Class Social 1st Lesson Our Earth Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How can you say the man himself is responsible for environmental crises?
Answer:

• More than any other animal human beings have been trying to make the earth a better place to live in.
• Trying to change ourselves and our surroundings we have entered into conflict with other inhabitants of the earth.
• For long we’ve been exploiting the earth for its resources.
• The reckless exploitation of the earth resulted in environmental crises such as global warming and poisoning of our soils, water and air.
• Thus we can say man himself is responsible for environmental crises.

Question 2.
What were the initial ideas of people about the earth, the sun the moon and other astronomical bodies?
Answer:

• For thousands of years humans have been looking into the sky trying to understand objects that shine there.
• Initially, people thought that earth was firm and stationary and all others went round it.
• They also thought that the earth, the stars and the sun have been like this forever and will be like this forever without any change.

Question 3.
Write about the phases of evolution of facts, about the astronomical bodies their birth and growth.
Answer:

• Initially, people were of the view that the earth was firm and stationary and all the other bodies went round it.
• About five hundred years ago scientists concluded that the earth is not in the middle of everything.
• The earth actually moves round the sun and that the sun itself is also moving.
• The countless stars in the sky are actually so many suns.
• During the last hundred years or so people learnt the stars are born, they grow old and even die.
• Scientists even came to know that the stars are actually part of larger groups called galaxies.
• There are millions of galaxies in the universe.
• Now scientists are of the view that the universe itself started some 13.7 billion years ago with a Big Bang and it may end several billion years later.

Question 4.
How dkl the universe come into existence?
Answer:

1. The universe itself started some 13.7 billion years ago with a Big Bang.
2. From this Big Bang, several galaxies were formed.
3. Within these galaxies, stars were formed.
4. Planets were formed around stars and went around them.

However these astronomical changes take place over thousands and even millions of years.

Question 5.
Describe the process of evolution of the Earth.
(OR)
How did the earth come into existence and get its present form?
Answer:

• The earth began to form around four and a half billion years ago.
• It began as a ball of swirling dust and clouds and passed through a molten age.
• Gradually it grew in size.
• It was very hot and was in molten stage.
• The lighter particles cooled at the top and formed a layer of crust.
• Heavier particles formed the part of the molten core.
• As the earth’s interior cooled and contracted, the outer crust wrinkled, forming ridges and basins.
• The rain filled the basins and thus oceans formed.
• Slowly atmosphere developed and slowly life appeared on the earth.

Question 6.
How and when did the life appear on earth?
Answer:

• Different kinds of gases including water vapour formed the atmosphere on earth.
• Most of these gases were such that life as we know it today could not survive on it.
• Because it did not have oxygen necessary for life to survive.
• It took a long time for the air to develop.
• Then life appeared on oceans first.

It slowly evolved into diverse forms – plants, animals and human beings.

Question 7.
Are the shapes and positions of the continents fixed and permanent as they appear on the globe?
Answer:
The shapes and positions of the continents may seem fixed at the time scale of human experience. But on old earth continents have moved, collided, merged and then been torn apart again.

Mountains have risen and been razed to the ground, oceans have formed and dried up. Valleys have been carved and so during the course of earth’s eventful history. Alfred Wegener’s theory of Continental drift proves the same idea.

Thus the shapes and positions of the continents are not fixed and permanent.

Question 8.
Describe the theory of continental drift.
Answer:

• In 1912 Alfred Wegener propounded the theory of continental drift to describe the present arrangement of continents and ocean basins.
• He postulated a massive super continent Pangaea that existed 220 million years ago.
• Pangaea, the hypothetical continent, from which present continents originated by the drift from Mesozoic era to the present.
• Wegener hypothesized that the super continent of Pangaea broke up to from :
  a) Laurensia – consisting of present North America, Greenland and all of Eurasia north of Indian subcontinent and
  b) Gondwana land – consisting of present South America, Africa, Madagascar, Arabia, India, Malaysia, East Indies, Australia and Antarctica.
• These two blocks were separated by a long shallow inland sea called Tethys sea.
• It took millions of years for the continents to reach the present shapes and positions on the globe.
• Even today many of the continents are moving very slowly pushing each other.

Question 9.
What do you know about latitudes?
Answer:

• Latitudes are imaginary lines drawn around the earth.
• The word ‘latitude’ comes to us from the Latin word ‘iatitudo’ meaning width.
• Latitudes are also called parallels because they are parallel to each other.
• Latitudes are circles.
• Latitudes are expressed in degrees (°), minutes (‘) and seconds (“).
• Latitude values range from 0° t* 90° North (the North Pole) and 90° South (the South Pole).
• Thus there are 180° main latitudes (not counting the equator)
• Equator, the 0° latitude is the largest among all the latitudes.
• Latitudes are used together with the longitudes to locate a place on the earth.
• Latitudes are used to locate the climatic zones on the earth.

Question 10.
What do you know about longitudes?
Answer:

• Longitudes are imaginary lines connecting North and South’Poles.
• Longitudes are semi-circles.
• Longitudes are also called meridians because when the sun is overhead on a longitude at the time on that longitude it is noon (meridianus).
• There are 360 longitudes in total.
• The longitudes from 0° to 180° to the east are called eastern longitudes.
• The longitudes from 0° to 180° to the west are called western longitudes.
• 0° meridian is called the Prime meridian or Greenwich meridian.
• Longitudes are also expressed in degrees (°), minutes (‘) and seconds (“).

Question 11.
How are the time zones formed and why are they formed?
Answer:

• It takes 4 minutes for the sun’s position to move 1° of longitude.
• This means that the time is different for each degree of longitude.
• This can cause a lot of confusion.
• Therefore to end up this confusion the world is divided into 24 time zones.
• The width of each time zone is 15° of longitude.
• This means the difference between one time zone and the next is 1 hour.
• As you go from Greenwich meridian, you add time; as you go west of the Greenwich meridian you subtract time.

Question 12.
Why does every country have its own standard time?
Answer:

• The world is divided into 24 time zones.
• The width of each time zone is 15° of longitude.
• This means that the difference between one time zone and the next is one hour.
• Some countries would have more than one time zone with less than one hour division.
• This is considered too complicated to be useful.
• That is why some countries choose the time along one of the meridians that pass throught their territory and follow the time of that meridian for the whole country.
• This time is called standard time.

Question 13.
What is a Grid?
Answer:
A grid is a square or a rectangle that is formed between when two latitudes and longitudes out across each other. In other words, the network of latitudes and longitudes drawn on the globe is called a ‘grid’.

Question 14.
When it is 12 noon in Greenwich (0°), what is the local time at Mumbai (73° E)?
Answer:
Mumbai (73° E) : Local time at Mumbai is : 73 x 4 = 292 minutes, i.e. 4 hours 52 minutes. That means the local time at Mumbai is 4 hours 52 minutes after 12 noon i.e., 12.00 + 4.52 = 4.52 p.m.

Question 15.
When it is 12 noon in Greenwich (0°), what is the local time at Chicago (87°30′ W) ? Chicago (87°30‘ W) : Local time at Chicago is : 87°30‘ x 4 = 350 minutes, i.e. 6 hours 50 minutes. That means the local time at Chicago is 6 hours 50 minutes less than 12.00 noon at Greenwich.
i.e. 12.00-6.50 = 5.10 a.m.

Question 16.
When it is 12 noon in Greenwich (0°), what is the local time at Sydney (151° E)?
Answer:
Sydney (151° E): Local time at Sydney is 151° x4 = 604 minutes, i.e. 10 hours 4 minutes before Greenwich time.
That means the local time at Sydney is 12.00 + 10.04 = 10.04 p.m

Question 17.
a) What are called ‘parallels’?
b) What are called ‘meridians’?
Answer:
а) Latitudes are called ‘parallels’,
b) Longitudes are called ‘meridians’.

Question 18.
What is the standard meridian of India?
Answer:
82°30′ Eastern longitude is the standard meridian of India.

Question 19.
If you were to travel from India to Japan. How would be the change in time?
Answer:

1. Japan is located in East to India.
2. If we travel to East, then we gain time as per East Gain Add (EGA).
3. India is in 5Vi hours time zone and Japan in 9 hours time zone.
4. Both are in eastern hemisphere. Thus we gain nearly 3% hours time.

Question 20.
How do you think human greed led to exploitation of the earth?
Answer:

• Human life on earth dates back to one lakh years, whereas formation of the earth was four and a half billion years ago.
• Man has constantly trying to change our surrounding to make it a better place to live in.
• He looked on earth as a storehouse of resources and making use of it, at will.
• Thus his greed led to exploitation of the earth.

Question 21.
Why do you think, it took so long time to understand the interior of the earth?
Answer:

• It is difficult for man to know directly about the Earth’s interior.
• So far man could dig a 3 km interior of the earth.
• He could send pipes upto a depth of 6K km.
• But, the radius of the earth is 6,440 km.
• Apart from this, if we go deep the earth-temperature raises at a rate of 1°C for every 32 meters.
• An estimated temperature at the centre of the interior of the earth is 6000°C.
• Thus man was unable to get direct information.
• So he need to rely on indirect sources like seismic waves etc.
• Thus it took so long time to understand the interior of the earth.

Question 22.
Describe the earth’s interior.
Answer:

1. The earth has a radius of 6440 km.
2. The temperature increases at a rate of 1°C for every 32 mts. of depth.
3. The temperature at the centre of the earth would be 6000° C.
4. As such the rocks will be in molten stage.
5. Pressure also increases when one goes deeper into the earth.
6. The earth is made up of three layers. They are : 1) Crust, 2) Mantle, 3) Core.
7. These layers differ from one another in thickness and also in their physical and chemical compositions.

Question 23.
What is “continental drift theory”? Explain.
(OR)
What is the “theory of continental drift”?
Answer:

• Alfred Wagener postulated the theory of continental drift.
• It explains the present arrangement of continents and ocean basins.
• He postulated a massive super continent called “Pangaea” which existed 220 million years ago.
• Present continents originated, by the drift from this “Pangaea”.
• Wagener hypothesised that the supercontinent of Pangaea broke up into two blocks
  1) Laurensia,
  2) Gondwana land.
• The two blocks were separated by a long shallow inland ocean called “Tethys”.
• It took millions of years for the continents to reach the present shape and position.

Question 24.
Differenciate between latitudes and longitudes.
Answer:

Latitudes	Longitudes
1. Latitude comes from a Latin word “Latitudo”, meaning width.	1. Longitude is derived from a Latin word “Longitudo”, meaning height.
2. The circles drawn parallel to the equator at 1° interval are known as latitudes.	2. The semicircles drawn connecting pole to pole are known as longitudes.
3. There are 180 latitudes excluding the equator.	3. There are 360 longitudes.
4. Every latitude must be designated with either “N” or “S” direction.	4. Every longitude must be designated with either “E” or “W” direction.
5. They are also known as “Parallels”.	5. They are also known as “Meridians”.
6. The climate of a place can be identified with the help of latitudes.	6. The differences in time can be calculated with the help of longitudes.

Question 25.
How many blocks did the Pangaea brake up into? What are they?
Answer:
The super continent of Pangaea was broke up into two blocks.
1) Laurensia:
Present N.America, Greenland and all of Eurasia, north of Indian subcontinent formed from it.

2) Gondwana land :
Present S.America, Africa, Madagascar, India, Arabia, Malaysia, East Indies, Australia and Antarctica formed from it.

Question 26.
How do you find a place in an atlas?
Answer:

1. We can find the information about a place in an atlas with the help of latitudes and longitudes.
2. Places are listed alphabetically at the back of the atlas.
   Ex : To locate “Visakhapatnam”.

Question 27.
What are longitudes? How many are there? Name some important longitudes.
Answer:

1. The semicircles connecting pole to pole are called longitudes.
2. They are 360 in number.
3. Some important longitudes are :
   a) Prime Meridian – 0° longitude
   b) International Date Line – 180° longitude

Question 28.
“For long we have looked at the Earth as a store house of resources, which we can exploit and use at will. Gradually we are realizing the fallacy of this view point” – Interpret the above statement.
Answer:
For long we have looked at the earth as a store house of resources. With this view we recklessly exploited the earth and are responsible to the destruction of forests, rivers, hills, fellow animals and even fellow humans. This resulted in the environmental crises such as global warming and poisoning of our soils, water and air.

But gradually we understand that the earthly resources are not infinite but finite and the environmental system is a closed one. So we should not use the natural resources indiscriminately.

If a man has to survive, he must derive something from the nature. The exploitation of minimum resources from the natural environment to fulfil the basic needs of human society would cause disequilibrium of some sort in the ecological balance resulting into environmental degradation and pollution. We should always use the natural resources in such a way that they are always at available in a desired quantity and quality.

Question 29.
“Today more than any other time we need to build a new understanding of the Earth, how it works and what we do on it and what we do with each other” – Interpret the above statement.
Answer:
In the decades of 1970s there emerged a concern about the fear of depletion of natural resources because of irrational and rapacious utilization of natural resources. This serious concern arises from the fact-rapid rate of rapacious exploitation of natural resources and modern production processes and advanced technologies. Thus the exploitation of natural resources has threatened the stability and survival of natural ecosystems and existence of several plant and animal species.

Hence today more than any other time we need to build a new understanding of the earth, how it works and what we do on it and what we do with each other.

Question 30.
Read the following para and answer the questions.
Scientists have figured out that the stars are actually part of larger groups called galaxies and that there are millions of such galaxies in the universe. Now, they are of the view that the universe itself started some 13.7 billion years ago with a ‘Big Bang’ and that it may end several billion years later.
1) What is a galaxy?
Answer:
A larger group of stars is called a galaxy.

2) When was the ‘Big Bang’ happened?
Answer:
‘Big bang’ was happened some IB.7 billion years ago.

3) How many galaxies are contemplated by scientists?
Answer:
Scientists contemplated that there are millions of galaxies in the universe.

4) When would be the end of the universe?
Answer:
The end of the universe would be after several billions of years.

Question 31.
What factors determine the number of standard times of countries?
Answer:
Countries which have much east-west extension will have a number of standard times.
Ex: Russia.

Question 32.
Identify other names of “Earth”.
Answer:
Bhoomi, Prudhvi, Dharithri, Dharani, Pudami, etc.

Question 33.

Layer of Earth	Depth	Composition
1. Crust	30 – 100 km	Various kinds of rocks
2. Mantle	100 – 2900 kms	Chemicals & Silicates
3. Outer core	2900-5100 kms	Nickel & Iron
4. Inner core	5100 – 6376 kms	Iron compounds & Gold

Observe the table and answer the following questions.
1) Which is uppermost layer of the interior of the earth?
Answer:
Crust is the uppermost layer of the interior of the earth.

2) What is the thickness of the core?
Answer:
The thickness of the core is 3476 kms.

3) Which layer is supposed to have more gold?
Answer:
The inner core is supposed to have more gold.

4) What is the radius of the earth?
Answer:
The radius of the earth is 6376 km.

Question 34.
Observe the following table and answer the questions given below.

What is the latitudinal value of “Equator”?
Answer:
The latitudinal value of Equator is “0°”.

2) What is the name given to 90° N and 90° S latitudes?
Answer:
90° N is called North pole and 90° S is called South pole.

3) What are the values of Arctic and Antarctic circles ?
Answer:
The value of Arctic circle is 6634° N.
The value of Antarctic circle is 6634° S.

4) In which hemisphere is the Arctic circle situated ?
Answer:
Arctic circle is in Northern hemisphere.

5) Which latitude does not have any direction?
Answer:
The Equator does not possess any direction.

Question 35.
One among our ‘environment crises’ is the poisoning of air. in light of this, how would you assess the Government of Delhi, deciding to allow vehicles with odd and even number plates on alternate days?
Answer:

• Air pollution is one among the environmental crises we face.
• Government of Delhi decided to allow the odd number plate vehicles to ply on the Delhi roads the other day.
• This alternate day journey provision definitely reduces the traffic congestion.
• It also promises in reduction of pollution.
• Already petrol vehicles ply on Delhi roads was banned.
• Compressed Natural Gas is the need of the hour.
• However, care must be taken to disallow everyone to have a vehicle with odd number and another with even.

Question 36.
Observe the following pictures.

a) What do the above pictures represent?
Answer:
The above pictures represent the stages of continental drift.

b) Look at the above picture “2” and identify the following.
1) India,
2) Africa,
3) Tethys sea

c) Identify.
i) South America in picture “3”.
ii) Antarctica in picture “4”.
Answer:

Question 37.
How can you say the Earth’s orbit is nearly circular but not exactly circular or an elongated oval path?
Answer:

• The orbit is the path of the Earth around the sun.
• The difference between earth’s farthest point (about 152 million km from the sun and the closest point 147 million km) is very small.
• Thus we can say the earth’s orbit is nearly circular but not exactly circular or an elongated oval path.

Question 38.
Prepare a palmphet on environmental crises.
Environment Crises
Answer:
For longtime man looked on earth as a store house of resources and tried to exploit at will. His reckless exploitation of earth has meant distruction of forests, rivers, hills, fellow animals and even fellow human beings.

Global warming, which is caused by the increased presence of green house gases like carbon dioxide, methane etc. It is resulting in melting of ice and submerging of low lands and coasts.

Soil pollution is caused by excessive use of chemicals, fertilizers and pesticides in agriculture and industrial waste deposition. Soil erosion is caused by excessive falling of trees and lack of pastures.

Water pollution is caused by routing of industrial wastes into water, usage of chemicals and pesticides etc. Air pollution is caused by the emissions from vehicles, air conditions etc.

Question 39.
Create visual representation to understand the time as described in the earth’s origin to your birth.
Answer:

These AP 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 14th Lesson Parliament and Central Government will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social 14th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Parliament and Central Government

Question 1.
What is meant by candidate?
Answer:
The person who contests in the election.

Question 2.
What is meant by Ballot?
Answer:
The paper which is used in election for voting. It contains the symbols of the contestants.

Question 3.
Expand EVM.
Answer:
Electronic Voting Machine.

Question 4.
What is Election campaign?
Answer:
The contestants request the voters to vote for them. This procedure is called election campaign.

Question 5.
Why do you think elections need to be free and fair?
Answer:
The winners in the elections are the writers of our future. So the elections should not be
influenced by any issue. They should be free and fair.

Question 6.
Who is responsible for making the laws that are applicable for the entire country?
Answer:
Parliament is responsible for making the laws that are applicable for the entire country.

Question 7.
Observe the following map.

State	No.	State	No.	State	No.
Andhra Pradesh	25	Jammu & Kashmir	6	Nagaland	1
Arunachal Pradesh	2	Jharkhand	14	Odisa	21
Assom	14	Karnataka	28	Punjab	13
Bihar	40	Kerala	20	Rajasthan Sikkim	25 1
Chhattisgarh	11	Madhya Pradesh	29	Tamilnadu	39
Goa	2	Maharashtra	48	Telangana	17
Gujarat	26	Manipur	2	Tripura	2
Haryana	10	Meghalaya	2	Uttarakhand	2
Himachal Pradesh	4	Mizoram	1	Uttar Pradesh	80
				West Bengal	42

Union Territories
Andaman and Nicobar Islands	1	Daman and Diu	1	Delhi(the NCT of Delhi)	7
Chandigarh	1	Lakshadweep	1	Nominated by the President of India
Dadra and Nagar Haveli	1	Pondicherry	1	Anglo Indians	2

Now answer the following questions:
1. How many general Constituencies are there?
Answer:
423

2. Which reserved are higher in SC/ST?
Answer:
S.C. reserved are higher.

3. Where can we say that SC reserved are less?
Answer:
In North Eastern region.

4. Where can we not find ST reserved?
Answer:
In Tamilnadu, Kerala and Karnataka.

These AP 8th Class Biology Important Questions 2nd LessonCell: The Basic Unit of Life will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology 2nd Lesson Important Questions and Answers Cell: The Basic Unit of Life

8th Class Biology 2nd Lesson Cell: The Basic Unit of Life 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Who discovered cell first time?
Answer:
It was the year 1665 Robert Hooke, a British scientist discovered the cell.

Question 2.
Which part of cell contains cell organelles?
Answer:
The jelly like substance between the nucleus and cell membrane is called cytoplasm. It is a heterogeneous material. It contains membrane bound structures called cell organelles.

Question 3.
What is the difference between cells in onion peel and cells in Spinach?
Answer:
Cells in onion peel arranged systematically with prominent nucleus. Cells in spinach are in different sizes and shapes without nucleus to perform nutrition.

Question 4.
Make different questions to know cells and cell organelles.
Answer:

1. What are the structures present in the cells?
2. Why cells are considered to be structural and functional unit of life?

Question 5.
Prepare different questions to know the discovery of cell.
Answer:

1. In which year cell discovered?
2. Name the scientist who observed cells.

Question 6.
What is staining?
Answer:
The process of using colouring agents in order to highlight particular areas in the cell is called staining.

Question 7.
What is ‘magnification’?
Answer:
Amount of increase in apparent size of a thing more time than its normal size to visualise is called magnification.

Question 8.
What are Unicellular Organisms? Give examples.
Answer:
The organisms survive its life with a single cell are called unicellular organisms.
Ex : Amoeba, Chlamydomonas, etc.

Question 9.
What is the meaning of ‘Cell’ in Latin?
Answer:
In Latin ‘cell’ means ‘A little room’.

8th Class Biology 2nd Lesson Cell: The Basic Unit of Life 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“Cell wall is essential in plant cells” – Why?
Answer:

1. Cell wall gives mechanical strength.
2. Without the cell wall, a plant can not stand errect.
3. Cell wall helps the plant cells when they are turgid.

Question 2.
What is the significance of cover slip in your preparation of slides?
Answer:

1. Cover slip protects the material under study from coming in contact with the lens of the microscope.
2. It presses upon the material keeping it plane.

Question 3.
How do you appreciate the role of microscope in the study of cell?
Answer:

1. The microscope is very useful instrument in the study of cells.
2. Scientists use electron microscope for their study which can help to see upto a millionth of a meter.
3. I will appreciate the role of microscope in the growth and development of science and human welfare.

8th Class Biology 2nd Lesson Cell: The Basic Unit of Life 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the permanent slides of human body cells in your school. Collect the data in a tabular form.
Answer:

Name of the cell	Shape of the cell	Name of the parts
Muscle cell	Spindle shaped, short, elongated	Nucleus, cell membrane, cytoplasm.
RBC	Concave on both sides, sometimes round	Nucleus, cell membrane, cytoplasm.
Nerve cell	Long having processes	Nucleus, cell membrane, cytoplasm
White Blood Cell (WBC)	Amoeboid shape	Nucleus, cell membrane, cytoplasm, granules

These AP 8th Class Biology Important Questions 7th Lesson Different Ecosystems will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Biology 7th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Different Ecosystems

8th Class Biology 7th Lesson Different Ecosystems 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Who coined the word ecosystem at first?
Answer:
The word ecosystem was coined by a British Botanist A.G. Tansley in 1935.

Question 2.
What are the different terms used for environment?
Answer:
The different terms are habitat, biome, ecological systems.

Question 3.
What do we call the small level of ecosystem?
Answer:
The small level of ecosystem is called habitat.

Question 4.
What do we call the larger level of ecosystem?
Answer:
The larger level of ecosystem is called Biome.

Question 5.
What do we study in an ecosystem?
Answer:
In ecosystem we study about the changes occuring in the habitat like organisms moving away from the habitat or entering the habitat.

Question 6.
How is an ecosystem made up of?
Answer:
An ecosystem is made up of groups of living organisms and their environment.

Question 7.
Name the biotic and the abiotic components.
Answer:
The living things like plants,animals and microorganisms are known as biotic components. Soil, water, sunlight, air, etc. are known as abiotic components.

Question 8.
What type of relationship is seen in an ecosystem?
Answer:
There is a feeding relationship between plants and animals.

Question 9.
How do plants and animals depend on one another?
Answer:
There is an interdependence between plants and animals for space, reproduction, shelter etc.

Question 10.
From where do all living things derive energy?
Answer:
All living things derive energy from sun.

Question 11.
Why are decomposers called recyclers?
Answer:
Decomposers return nutrients to the soil by decompose the dead plants and animals for the plants to use, as the cycle begins again, so they are called recyclers.

Question 12.
Where does the food web start from?
Answer:
The food web starts from the Producers.

Question 13.
What happens when plants and animals die in a food web?
Answer:
When plants and animals die in a food web, they are decayed and decomposed by decomposers like bacteria and fungi.

Question 14.
How do the changes take place in an ecosystem?
Answer:
Powerful storms, tsunami etc., destroy ecosystem and the changes take place in an ecosystem.

Question 15.
What are mangroves?
Answer:
Mangroves are one of the most productive ecosystems, deriving nourishment from terrestrial fresh water and tidal salt water.

Question 16.
Where do mangroves grow?
Answer:
Mangrove forests grow in back waters low depth areas of sea shores.

Question 17.
Where is Coringa Mangrove situated?
Answer:
Coringa Mangrove is situated South of Kakinada Bay and is about 150 km South of Visakhapatnam.

Question 18.
From which rivers C&ringa mangrove receives water?
Answer:
Coringa mangrove receives fresh water from Coringa river and Gaderu river, tributories of Gautami Godavari river.

Question 19.
Name the producers present in Coringa mangrove.
Answer:
Mangrove, spirogyra, euglena, oscilatoria, blue green algae, ulothrix etc.

Question 20.
Name the consumers present in Coringa.
Answer:
Shrimp, crab, hydra, protozoans, mussel, snails, turtle, daphnia, brittle word, tube worm, etc.

Question 21.
Name the decomposers present in Coringa.
Answer:
Detritus feeding bacteria etc.

Question 22.
In what conditions a living community lives?
Answer:
A living community lives in an environment which supplies its materials and energy requirements and provides other living conditions.

Question 23.
What is ecosystem?
Answer:
The living community together with the physical environment forms an interacting system called the ecosystem.

Question 24.
How much place is occupied by the desert on land?
Answer:
The desert occupy about 11% of the land and occur in the regions with an average rainfall of less than 23 mm per year.

Question 25.
What type of producers can be seen in deserts?
Answer:
The shrubs, bushes, grasses and some trees.

Question 26.
Why do cacti have succulent stems?
Answer:
They store water in their stems to be used during the time of water scarcity.

Question 27.
Which organisms capture energy from sun?
Answer:
The energy from the sun is captured by plants and is stored in the form of potential energy in food stuffs.

Question 28.
What are the first trophic level in the ecosystem?
Answer:
Plants are the producers and represent the first trophic level in the ecosystem.

Question 29.
What does the food chain consist of?
Answer:
The food chain consists of four steps – the producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers and tertiary consumers.

Question 30.
What are consumers? Give examples.
Answer:
The organisms which eat other living things and get their energy from them are called consumers. Ex: Animals.

Question 31.
What are decomposers? Give examples.
Answer:
The organisms which feed on wastes, debris of plants and animals or on their remains after they die. Ex : Microorganisms.

Question 32.
What is a food web?
Answer:
A food web consists of several inter linked food chains and each organism in a food web will be a member of more than one food chain.

Question 33.
What are producers? Give examples,
Answer:
Plants are the only organisms capable of carrying out photosynthesis and producing food to all living organisms in any ecosystem. For this reason plants are called Producers.

8th Class Biology 7th Lesson Different Ecosystems 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Complete this flow chart.

Answer:

1. Terrestrial
2. Aquatic
3. Aquarium, Terrarium, Spaceship
4. Grassland ecosystem
5. Forest Ecosystem
6. Desert ecosystem
7. Fresh water ecosystem
8. Marine water ecosystem
9. Mangrove ecosystem

Question 2.
What is the significance of mangrove ecosystem?
Answer:

1. Mangroves serve as important breeding grounds for a variety of commercially important organisms.
2. They also serve as protective areas for endangered species.
   Example: Coringa Mangrove Is situated South of Kakinada and is about 150 Km South of Vizag.

8th Class Biology 7th Lesson Different Ecosystems 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“The Sun is the malm source of energy for all laving things on earth”. How?
Answer:

1. All the organisms in an ecosystem derive energy from food to live.
2. Plants trap the solar energy through photosynthesis. They convert the light energy into chemical energy.
3. Animals do not get energy directly from Sun. Many animals eat plants, however which use Sunlight to make food.
4. Carnivores do not eat plants still depend on the energy of the sunlight as they eat other plant eaters.

Question 2.
Draw and label the plants and animals present in the food web in Coringa Ecosystem.
Answer:
Diagram of the food web in Coringa Ecosystem.

Question 3.
Draw the diagram showing figure of energy flow in an ecosystem. (Annexure)
Answer:
Energy flow in an ecosystem.

Question 4.
Classify the ecosystem on different basis. (OR)
Draw the flow chart showing different types of ecosystems. Who coined the term ecosystem?
Answer:

1. Ecosystem can vary from a small plant to a dense forest. Ecologists classified ecosystem on different basis.
2. Some such classifications are – artificial and natural temporary and permanent.
3. Due to Abiotic factors, different ecosystems develop in different ways.

Flow chart of classification of ecosystem

The term “Ecosystem” was coined by A.G. Tansley.

Question 5.
Prepare a table what are the adaptations of the desert animal take the data from your school library.
Answer:

Question 6.
Construct the food web with the following.
Grass → Plants → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle → Goaf → Fox → Tiger → Wolf → Rabit.
Answer:

8th Class Biology 7th Lesson Different Ecosystems Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.

Shown here is a food chain, classify each organism in the food chain as producer, primary consumer, secondary consumer or tertiary consumer.
Answer:
In the above food chain

1. Leaf – producer
2. Catterpillar – primary consumer
3. Chameleon – secondary consumer
4. Snake – tertiary consumer
5. Eagle – top carnivore

Question 2.
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions given below.
Several plants, algae, etc. use sunlight to make their own food are called producers. Consumers feed on producers to get energy. The last level is made of decomposers. They feed on wastes, debris of plants and animals or on their remains after they die. They are called Recyclers also.

1. Which are the producers in the food web? Why are they called producers?
2. What are consumers? Give some examples.
3. What are recyclers? Why are they called so? Give some examples.
4. How many levels should be there in a food chain? What are they?

Answer:

1. Algae and plants are the producers in the given food web. They convert the solar energy into chemical energy through a process called photosynthesis.
2. The animals which feed on these producers (plants) are called primary consumers. Ex : Deer, Grasshopper, Rabbit.
3. Saprophytic bacteria and fungi are act as decomposers. They feed on dead plants and animals. They decompose these dead bodies and convert them into minerals. So, they are called ‘reproducers’.
4. Food chain consists of 4 trophic levels.
   They are 1) producers 2) primary consumers 3) secondary consumers and 4) tertiary consumers.

Question 3.
The desert occupy about 17% of the land and occur in the regions with an average rainfall of less than 23 mm per year. Due to extremes of temperature, the species composition of desert ecosystem is much varied and typical.
a) Which type of adaptations do desert animals have?
b) Write the adaptations in the desert plants.
c) Why the camel is called ship of the desert?
d) In deserts variations of animals is very less. Why?
Answer:
a) They have adaptations to prevent water loss from extreme temperatures.
b) Xerophytic plants do not have stomata. So, they prevent water loss.
c) Camel is called “desert ship” because it has so many adaptations to travel in desert.
d) Due to extremes of temperature, the species composition of desert ecosystem is varied and typical.

These AP 9th Class Maths Important Questions 14th Lesson Probability will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Maths 14th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Probability

Question 1.
Find out the probability of picking a number which is a prime number randomly from 20 to 30 (Including) natural numbers.
Solution:
No. of prime numbers between 20 and 30 = 23, 29
Total numbers = 10
Probability = \(\frac{2}{10}=\frac{1}{5}\)

Question 2.
By picking a natural number randomly upto 100, find the probability of the number being a perfect cube.
Solution:
Probability of the number being a perfeet cube by picking a natural number randomly upto 100.
⇒ P(E) = \(\frac{\text { favourable outcomes }}{\text { total outcomes }}\)
= \(\frac{4}{100}=\frac{1}{25}\)

Question 3.
If a dice with six faced rolled randomly find.
i) The probability of getting an even number on the top face.
ii) The probability of getting a prime number on the top face.
iii) The probability of getting 7 on the top face
iv) The probability of getting a number on the top face which have the sum of the factors of that number is twice to that number. (Which is called as a perfect number)
Solution:
When die was rolled possible outcomes are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
Total outcomes = 6
i) Even numbers in outcomes = 2, 4, 6 = 3
∴ Required probability = \(\frac{4}{6}=\frac{2}{3}\)

ii) Prime numbers = 1, 2, 3, 5 = 4
∴ Required probability = \(\frac{4}{6}=\frac{2}{3}\)

iii) Getting ‘7’ on top = 0
∴ This is impossible event.

iv) Sum of the factors of that number is twice to that numbers = 6
∴ Required probability = \(\frac{1}{6}\)

Question 4.
A letter is chosen from English alphabet. Find the probability of the letter choosen is
i) a consonant
ii) both consonant and vowel
iii) a letter comes before M
iv) not a vowel
Solution:
Favourable outcomes = 26
i) Vowels
Favourable outcomes = 21
∴ Probability = \(\frac{21}{26}\)

ii) Vowel and Consonants Favourable outcomes = 0
∴ Probability = \(\frac{0}{26}\) = 0

iii) A letter comes before M Favourable outcomes =12
∴ Probability = \(\frac{12}{26}=\frac{6}{13}\)

iv) Not a vowel Favourable outcomes = 21
∴ Probability = \(\frac{21}{26}\)

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
Getting a ‘head’ when an unbiased coin is tossed is …………………
A) less likely
B) equally likely
C) more likely
D) certain
Answer:
B) equally likely

Question 2.
When a die is thrown, getting a number more than 6 is
A) less likely
B) equally likely
C) more likely
D) impossible
Answer:
D) impossible

Question 3.
The number of possible outcomes when a die is thrown is
A) 1
B) 4
C) 6
D) 4
Answer:
C) 6

Question 4.
When two dice are thrown, the total outcomes are
A) 12
B) 6
C) 1
D) 36
Answer:
D) 36

Question 5.
When a coin is tossed, the total possible outcomes are
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Answer:
B) 2

Question 6.
The experiment in which all possible outcomes are known but exact outcome can’t be predicted is called
A) Mathematical experiment
B) Trial
C) Even
D) Outcome
Answer:
B) Trial

Question 7.
The each outcome of a random experiment is called
A) event
B) trial
C) chance
D) none
Answer:
A) event

Question 8.
The probability of getting a head when a coin is tossed is
A) 1
B) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 9.
If two identical coins are tossed, the probability of getting two heads is
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 10.
The probability of getting atmost two heads when three coins are tossed is
A) \(\frac{1}{8}\)
B) 8
C) \(\frac{7}{8}\)
D) \(\frac{3}{8}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{7}{8}\)

Question 11.
If two coins are tossed, the chance of getting np heads is
A) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) None
Answer:
B) \(\frac{1}{4}\)

Question 12,
Sum of the probabilities of getting a head and a tail when an unbiased coin is tossed is
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
C) 1
D) 0
Answer:
C) 1

Question 13.
Sum of probabilities of getting an even number and an odd number when a die is rolled is
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
D) 1
Answer:
D) 1

Question 14.
The sum of the probabilities of all outcomes of a Random experiment is always
A) 0
B) – 1
C) 1
D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Answer:
C) 1

Question 15.
The probability of an event which is certain
A) 0
B) 1
C) -1
D) Can’tsay
Answer:
B) 1

Question 16.
The probability of an event which is impossible
A) 0
B) -1
C) 1
D) 2
Answer:
A) 0

Question 17.
The probability of an event always lie between
A) 1 and 2
B) -1 and 1
C) -1 and 0
D) 0 and 1
Answer:
D) 0 and 1

Question 18.
The probability of drawing a prime number from a pack of cards numbered from 1 to 10
A) \(\frac{2}{10}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{10}\)
C) \(\frac{5}{10}\)
D) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
Answer:
D) \(\frac{2}{5}\)

Question 19.
The probability of “the last day of a month is Sunday”
A) \(\frac{2}{7}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
C) \(\frac{3}{7}\)
D) \(\frac{4}{7}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{1}{7}\)

Question 20.
When a die is thrown, equally likely events are getting
A) even number and odd number
B) prime and composite
C) multiple of 3 and multiple of 2
D) numbers less than 3 and numbers greater than 3
Answer:
A) even number and odd number

Question 21.
Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event?
A) 0.9
B) – 1.5
C) 10%
D) 2/5
Answer:
B) – 1.5

Question 22.
A letter is chosen at random from the word “ROSE”. Find the probability, that the letter chosen is a vowel.
A) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
B) \(\frac{3}{4}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
D) \(\frac{2}{5}\)
Answer:
C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 23.
Two coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the number of all outcomes?
A) 3
B) 4
C) 2
D) 1
Answer:
B) 4

Question 24.
Three coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the number of all possible outcomes?
A) 8
B) 6
C) 4
D) 2
Answer:
A) 8

Question 25.
The probability winning a prize is
A) 0
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
C) 2
D) 1
Answer:
B) \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Question 26.
If probability of a certain event A is P(A) = x, then P’(A) is
A) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{x}}\) – 1
B) 1 – \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{x}}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{\mathrm{x}}\)
D) 1 – x
Answer:
D) 1 – x

Question 27.
A die is thrown once. Find the probability of getting a number less than 3.
A) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{4}\)
D) \(\frac{1}{6}\)
Answer:
B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)

Question 28.
Which of the following is true?
A) 0 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1
B) P(A) > 1
C) P(A) < 0
D) -1 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1
Answer:
A) 0 ≤ P(A) ≤ 1

Question 29.
Probability of picking a two-digited number radomly for which the units and ten’s places have same digits
A) 1/10
B) 9/10
C) 9/100
D) 1/100
Answer:
A) 1/10

Question 30.
Which of the following is not to be a probability of any event ?
A) 0
B) 1
C) – 0.2
D) 0.75
Answer:
C) – 0.2

Question 31.
Which of the following is an example for impossible event?
i) Getting 7 on the top when a dice is rolled
ii) Getting head on the top while tossing a coin
iii) Picking a spade from a deck of playing cards
iv) Picking an even prime number less than 2
A) Both (i) & (ii)
B) Both (i) & (iii)
C) Both (i) & (iv)
D) Both (ii) & (iii)
Answer:
C) Both (i) & (iv)

Question 32.
In an exit poll for assembly elections winning of a person is 50%. Then the probability of his loosing is
A) 25%
B) 75%
C) 100%
D) 50%
Answer:
D) 50%

Question 33.
When a dice is rolled, total number of possible outcomes are
A) 4
B) 5
C) 7
D) 6
Answer:
D) 6

Question 34.
While tossing a coin the probability of getting head on upper side is
A) 1/4
B) 1/2
C) 1/3
D) 3/4
Answer:
B) 1/2

Question 35.
If the probability of an event is 1, then the event is called as
A) Equal likely event
B) Impossible event
C) Certain event
D) Mutually exclusive event
Answer:
A) Equal likely event

Question 36.
When a six faced dice is rolled the probability that the top face number is a perfect square and also a perfect cube is
A) 1/6
B) 1/4
C) 1/3
D) 2/3
Answer:
C) 1/3

Question 37.
The probability that random selected month to have 32 days
A) 0
B) \(\frac{32}{365}\)
C) \(\frac{1}{32}\)
D) 1
Answer:
A) 0

Question 38.
There are 5 balls iii a vessel. Out of which 2 are red, 2 are blue and ‘1’ is green. When a ball is selected at random, then probability that the ball is not a red ball …………………
A) 1/5
B) 2/5
C) 3/5
D) 4/5
Answer:
C) 3/5

Question 39.
The modal letter of the letters of the word “ASSESSMENTS”
A) A
B) E
C) S
D) T
Answer:
C) S

Question 40.
Probability of an event is P. Then ‘which of the following is TRUE ?
niafcj-r PI
A) 0 < P < 1 B) 0 > P > 1
C) 0 ≥ P ≥ 1
D) 0 ≤ P ≤ 1
Answer:
D) 0 ≤ P ≤ 1

Question 41.
In the formula P(E) = \(\frac{32}{365}\)
\(\frac{\mathbf{n}(\mathrm{E})}{\mathbf{n}(\mathrm{S})}\) ; n(E)
represents
A) No. of favourable outcomes
B) No. of not favourable outcomes
C) Total no. of outcomes
D) Probability of event
Answer:
A) No. of favourable outcomes

These AP 9th Class Maths Important Questions 2nd Lesson Polynomials and Factorisation will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Maths 2nd Lesson Important Questions and Answers Polynomials and Factorisation

Question 1.
Find the value of p (\(\frac{2}{3}\)) for p(y) = 2y³ – y² – 13y – 6.
Solution:
Given polynomial
p(x) = 2y³ – y² – 13y – 6

Question 2.
If ‘2’ is a zero of the polynomial P(x) = 4x² – 3x + 5a then find the value of a.
Solution:
Given polynomial P(x) = 4x² – 3x + 5a
the zero of the polynomial is ‘2’, we know that p(2) = 0
P(x) = 0.
4(2)² – 3(2) + 5a = 0
16 – 6 + 5a = 0
5a = -10
a = \(\frac{-10}{5}\) = -2
a = -2.

Question 3.
Applying a suitable identity find the product of (x – y), (x + y) and (x² + y²).
Solution:
(x + y) (x – y) (x² + y²) = (x² – y²)
(x² + y²) = (x²)² – (y²)² = x⁴ – y⁴.

Question 4.
Fill In the blanks given in the table with suitable answers.

Solution:

Question 5.
Find the remainder when x³ + 1 is divided by (x + 1) by using division method.
Solution:

Remainder = 0

Question 6.
What are the possible polynomial expressions for dimensions of the cuboid whose volume is x³ – x ?
Solution:
Volume of cuboid = x³ – x
By splitting x³ – x as factors
x³ – x = x(x² – 1) = x(x + 1) (x – 1)
Possible dimensions of cuboid are x, (x + 1) and (x – 1)

Question 7.
Write the polynomial in ‘x’ whose zeroes are 1, 2 and – 1.
Solution:
The given zeroes of polynomials in ‘x’ are : 1, 2 and – 1.
The factors of the polynomial are : x – 1, x – 2 and x + 1
The required polynomial is : (x – 1) (x – 2) (x + 1)
= (x² – 1) (x – 2) = x³ – 2x² – x + 2.

Question 8.
The polynomial p(x) = x⁴ – 2x³ + 3x² – ax + 3a – 7 when divided by x + 1 leave the remainder 19. Find the value of “a”. Also find the remainder when p(x) is divided by x + 2.
Solution:
Given polynomial = p(x) = x⁴ – 2x³ + 3x² – ax + 3a – 7
When p(x) is divided by (x + 1) leaves the remainder is 19.
∴ p(-1) = 19
p(-1) = (-1)⁴ – 2(-1)³ + 3(-1)² – a(-1) + 3a – 7 = 19
⇒ 1 + 2 + 3 + a + 3a – 7 = 19
⇒ 4a – 1 = 19
⇒ 4a = 20
⇒ a = 20 ÷ 4 = 5
p(x) = x⁴ – 2x³ + 3x² – 5x + 8
p(x) is divided by (x + 2), then p(-2). P(-2) = (-2)⁴ – 2(-2)³ + 3(-2)² – 5(-2) + 8
= 16 + 16 + 12 + 10 + 8 = 62
Required remainder = 62.

Question 9.
In ABC, E and F are mid points of sides AB and AC respectively then prove that i) EF // BC and ii) EF = \(\frac{1}{2}\) BC
Solution:
Given : B and F are mid points of AB and AC.

R.T.P. : i) EF // BC, ii) EF = \(\frac{1}{2}\) BC
Construction: GC // AB, extend EF upto G.
Proof:
ΔAEF ΔCGF
∠AFE = ∠CFG (Vertically opposite angles)
AF = FC
∠EAF = ∠GCF (Alternate angles)
∴ ΔAEF ≅ ΔCGF
∴ CG = BE and CG // BF (Constrution)
∴ EBCG is a parallelogram.

Question 10.
Read the following table and answer the following questions given below.

i) The point belongs to Q₃
if) The abscissa of the point C
iii) The point lie on X – axis
iv) The coordinates of origin
v) The point satisfy x > 0, y < 0
vi) The point satisfy x – y = 1
vii) The position of point B
viii) The Quadrant contain (3, – 2)
Solution:
i) D
ii) 3
iii) F, H
iv) 0,0
v) C (3, – 2)
vi) A (2, 1)
vii) Positive Y- axis
viii) Q₄

Question 11.
i) Verify that
p³ + q³ + r³ – 3pqr = (p + q + r)
(p² + q² + r² – pq – qr – rp)

ii) If a + b + c = 0, then prove that a³ + b³ + c³ = 3abc.
Solution:
i) RHS = (p + q + r)
(p² + q² + r² – pq – qr – rp)
= p(p² + q² + r² – pq – qr – rp) + q (p² + q² + r² – pq – qr – rp) + r (p² + q² + r² – pq – qr – rp)
= p³ + pq² + pr² – p²q – pqr – p²r + p²q + q³ + qr² – pq² – q²r – pqr + p²r + q²r + r³ – pqr – qr² – r²p
= p³ + q^{3</sup + r3 – pqr – pqr – pqr
= p3 + q3 + r3 – 3pqr}

ii) Given a + b + c = 0 ⇒ a + b = -c ……………..(1)

Cubing on both sides
(a + b)³ = (-c)³
a³ + b³ + 3ab (a + b) = -c³
a3 + b3 + 3ab (-c) =-c3 {From(l)}
a³ + b³ – 3abc = -c³
a³ + b³ + c³ – 3abc

Question 12.
If both (x – 2) and (x – \(\frac{1}{2}\)) are factors of px² + 5x + q, show that p = q.
Solution:
Let f(x) = px² + 5x + q, if (x – 2) is the factor of f(x)
⇒ f(2) = p(2)² + 5 × 2 + q = 0
⇒ 4p + 10 + q = 0 ……………. (1)
If (x – \(\frac{1}{2}\) ) is the factor of f(x)
f(\(\frac{1}{2}\)) = P(\(\frac{1}{2}\))² + 5 × \(\frac{1}{2}\) + q = 0
⇒ \(\frac{\mathrm{p}}{4}+\frac{5}{2}\) + q = 0
⇒ p + 10 + 4q = 0 ……………. (2)
from (1) and (2)
⇒ 4p + 10 + q = p + 10 + 4q
⇒ 4p + q = p + 4q
⇒ 4p – p = 4q – q
⇒ 3p = 3q
⇒ p = q

Question 13.
If ax² + bx + c and bx² + ax +-c have a common factor (x + 1) then show that a = b and c =’0.
Solution:
Given that (x + 1) is the factor of f(x) = ax² + bx + c
⇒ f(- 1) = a(- 1)² + b(- 1) + c = 0
⇒ a – b + c = 0 …………….. (1)
(x + 1) is the factor of f(x) = bx² +, ax + c
f(- 1) = b(- 1)² + a(- 1) + c = 0
⇒ b – a + c = 0 …………… (2)
from (1) and (2)
a – b + c = b – a + c
⇒ a – b = b – a
⇒ a + a = b + b
⇒ 2a = 2b
∴ a = b
if a = b, from equation (1)
c = 0

These AP 9th Class Biology Important Questions 8th Lesson Challenges in Improving Agricultural Products will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Biology 8th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Challenges in Improving Agricultural Products

9th Class Biology 8th Lesson Challenges in Improving Agricultural Products 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the three types of methods to get high yield?
Answer:

• Improving high yielding varieties.
• Using high yield management methods.
• Crop protection management.

Question 2.
What are macro nutrients? Give examples.
Answer:
Minerals that required by plants in larger quantities are called macronutrients.
E.g.: Nitrogen, Phosphorous, Potassium, Sodium.

Question 3.
What are micronutrients? Give examples.
Answer:
Minerals required in small quantities are called micro nutrients.
E.g.: Iron, Manganese, Boron, Zinc, Copper, Molybdenum, Chlorine, etc.

Question 4.
What is the major difference between short term varieties and long term varieties?
Answer:
Short term varieties produce grains more than long term varieties.

Question 5.
Give Examples of chemical fertilizers.
Answer:
NPK, Urea and Superphosphate are the examples of chemical fertilizers.

Question 6.
What is a vermi compost?
Answer:
It is the product or process of composting using worms usually earthworms is called vermi compost.

Question 7.
What is Kharif crop? Give two examples.
Answer:
Cultivation and harvesting of any domesticated plant sown in the rainy season.
Ex : Paddy, sugarcane, maize, etc.

Question 8.
What is Rabi crop? Give two examples.
Answer:
Agricultural crops sown in winter and harvested in the summer season.
Ex : Wheat, barley, sesame, etc.

Question 9.
What are mixed crops? What is the advantage of growing mixed crops?
Answer:
If more than one crop is cultivated in the same field then it is called mixed crop. Because of mixed crop cultivation, the soil becomes fertile.

Question 10.
Give a list of green manure crops.
Answer:
Crops which are grown in field and can be ploughed back into the soil for soil fertility are called green manure crops.
Ex : Sanhemp, Lobia, Green gram, Kulthi, Berseem.

Question 11.
Write two uses of biofertilizers?
Answer:

• Biofertilizers are useful to maintain soil health and productivity.
• They synthesize nutrients from environment and soil.

Question 12.
What is the benefit of crop rotation?
Answer:
Crop rotation help the farmer by adding nutrients in the place of lost nutrients.

Question 13.
What is hybridization?
Answer:
Hybridization is a process to yield high yielding variety of crops.

Question 14.
What is GMS?
Answer:
Genetically Modified Seeds are called GMS.

Question 15.
What is NPK?
Answer:
NPK is the chemical proportion of nitrogen, phosphorus, and potash. These are partially or completely synthetic in origin.

Question 16.
What are weeds?
Answer:
Unwanted plants which are grown in the crop field along with cultivated crop.

Question 17.
What are insecticides? Give one example.
Answer:
These are the poisonous chemical substances which destroy the insects in the crop field. These are sprayed on the insect affected crops.

9th Class Biology 8th Lesson Challenges in Improving Agricultural Products 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the factors that cause increase in production of crop?
Answer:

• Production of crop depends on several factors.
• Only when there is a proper combination of several factors, the production can increase.
• Some of these factors include the kind of seeds planted, the properties of the soil, the availability and proper application of irrigation and fertilisers, the weather, con¬trolling insect attacks, the growth of seeds, and soon.

Question 2.
How to increase the food production?
Answer:

• Increasing the area of cultivated land.
• Increasing production in the existing land.
• Developing high yielding varieties.
• Alternative crops.
• Mixed crops.
• Cultivating short term crops like Rabi.

Question 3.
What is drip irrigation? What is its use?
Answer:

• Drip irrigation is a good practise in agriculture to prevent water wastage.
• In drip irrigation, water is supplied through small pipes.
• These pipes have small holes through which water passes drop by drop.
• Drip irrigation prevents wastage of water.

Question 4.
What is crop rotation? What is the benefit of crop rotation?
Answer:

• Crop rotation is the process in which one crop is followed by another crop on an agricultural field.
• When cereals are cultivated, more nutrients are utilised.
• If legumes are grown in the soil, less nutrients are utilised.
• Not only this, they synthesize some nutrients in the soil.

Question 5.
What is mixed crop? What are its uses?
Answer:
If more than one crop is cultivated in the same field then it is called mixed crop.
Uses:

1. Because of mixed crop cultivation the soil becomes fertile.
2. The nutrients which are used by one crop will be regained by cultivating another crop.
   E.g.: Soya grown along with Pea.
   Pea grown along with Green gram.
   Cotton grown along with Groundnut.

Question 6.
What are Green Manure Crops? Give examples.
Answer:

• Some crops are grown so that they can be ploughed back into the soil. They are known as Green manure crops.
• Some examples are berseem, kutthi, sunhemp, lobia, green gram, etc.

Question 7.
What are the functions of soil testing centre?
Answer:

• At these centres the soil technologist collects soil samples from fields and tests the fertility levels of soil.
• They give us knowledge about the soil.
• The testing centres are situated in division and district levels.

Question 8.
What is organic farming? What are its uses?
Answer:

• To maintain soil productivity organic farming came into existence.
• In this type of farming, farmers use natural manures and natural pest controlling methods and they also practise crop rotation and mixed crop systems.

Question 9.
What are the advantages of water shed management?
Answer:

• The water shed increases the moisture in the soil and prevents soil erosion as tree roots hold the soil firmly.
• When there are many trees close by as in a forest, all of them together hold large quantities of water.

Question 10.
Write briefly about hybridization.
Answer:

• By using hybridization methods the seeds with desired characters are developed.
• Biotechnologists develop hybrid varieties by crossing between two plants which have genetically different characters and they developing new variety with useful characters.
• The hybrid varieties that are produced by hybridization techniques are high yielding, disease-resistant can thrive on less rainfall, and will grow in acidic soils also.

Question 11.

Nutrient	Uses
Nitrogen	New leaves, flowers arise fast.
Phosphorous	Penetrates roots deep into the soil to absorb nutrients quickly.
Potassium	Resistance towards pests, increases the quality of smell, colour and taste of fruits.

Now answer the following questions.
1) Name the nutrient that is responsible for formation of new fruits and leaves.
2) Name the nutrient that is responsible for increase in the quality of smell, colour, and taste of fruits.
Answer:

1. Nitrogen
2. Potassium

Question 12.
Write the differences between mixed cropping and intercropping.
Answer:

Mixed cropping	Inter cropping
1. Seeds : Seeds of different crops are mixed before sowing.	1. Seeds of different crops are not mixed.
2. Pattern : There is no pattern of sowing.	2. The different crops are sown in sepa­rate rows and strips.
3. Inputs : Lesser inputs of irrigation and nutrients are required.	3. Requirement of inputs is compariti- vely more.

Question 13.
What are the advantages of hybridisation?
Answer:

• Due to this, high yielding plants are produced.
• It makes varieties in disease resistant plants.

Question 14.
Write the differences between manure and Fertilizer.
Answer:

Manure	Fertilizer
1. It consists of organic matter.	1. It consists of inorganic matter.
2. It is eco-friendly in nature.	2. It is not eco-friendly in nature.
3. It is prepared by animal excreta and plant wastes.	3. It is prepared commercially from chemicals.

Question 15.
Write the uses of manures.
Answer:
Manures helps in

1. improvement of soil structure
2. increase in water holding capacity
3. soil enrichment with nutrients

Question 16.
Why is soil replenishment essential? State one natural method of soil replefiishment.
Answer:
By growing same crop year after year in the same soil, the soil shows depletion in certain nutrients. Cropping in this field year after year leads to drop in production of crops. Crop rotation and mixed cropping are very useful in soil replenishment.

Question 17.
What are the major group activities involved for improving of crop yields?
Answer:

•  Crop variety improvement programme
• Crop production improvement
• Crop protection improvement

Question 18.
How do deficiency of nutrients affect the crop?
Answer:
Deficiency of any nutrient affects physiological process in plants including reproduction, growth, and disease resistance.

Question 19.
What are the uses of crop rotation?
Answer:

• Improves fertility of the soil.
• It minimises the pest diseases.
• It controls weeds.
• It avoids depletion of a particular nutrient from soil.

Question 20.
The fields, in which legumes are grown, get enriched with nitrogen why?
Answer:
The roots of legumes have nodules on their roots which fix the atmospheric nitrogen due to which the land gets enriched with Nitrogen. Therefore, legumes are grown in a season alternating between cereal crops such as wheat and millet.

Question 21.
What is drip irrigation?
Answer:
Drip irrigation is a practice in agriculture to prevent water wastage. In this method, water is supplied through small pipes. These pipes have small holes where water pass through drop by drop.

Question 22.
Write some suggestions to improve food production.
Answer:
We should use

1. High yielding seed
2. Suitable irrigation system
3. By using fertilizers and pesticides in a prescribed way
4. Right time of sowing seeds.

9th Class Biology 8th Lesson Challenges in Improving Agricultural Products 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write a short note on organic manure.
Answer:

• The organic manure is produced by decaying the plant and animal wastes.
• The manure produced from decomposed plants and animal products has more organic material.
• This gives good nutrients to the soil. It makes the soil fertile.
• Because of humus, the natural manure, water holding capacity of soil is increased.
• Natural organic manures are generally divided into two types. One is concentrated organic manure and the other is macro organic manure.
• Groundnut, gingilli, castor, coconut, neem, jatropa seed powders are the examples of concentrated organic manures.
• Animal excreta, compost, deep hitter are the examples of macro organic manure.
• Nutrients are rich in the concentrated manures than in macro organic manures.
• Plant and animal residues in the field such as stalks and roots, cow dung, urine, etc as organic manure.

Question 2.
How is the natural manure Panchagavya is prepared?
(OR)
An Agricultural Officer who encourages Organic farming wants to demonstrate preparation of natural manure by using five main ingredients of cow products. Prepare a note on it as a lab record.
Answer:

• The main ingredients of Panchagavya are milk, curd, ghee, dung, and urine of cow.
• Mix cow dung and cow ghee.
• Settle it for four days. On the fifth day, add urine, milk, and curd of cow.
• Also add kallu, coconut water, and sugarcane juice to the mixture and then add banana paste.
• Settle it for ten days. Stir the material morning and evening.
• Then we will get panchagavya the only sprayer type of manure.
• 3% of panchagavya is helpful to grow crop with higher yielding.
• It is also used as food for hens and fish in ponds.

Question 3.
What are the uses of nitrogen, phosphorous, and potassium?
Answer:
Uses of nitrogen, phosphorous, and potassium :

Nutrient	Uses
Nitrogen	New leaves, flowers arise fast.
Phosphorous	Penetrates roots deep into the soil to absorb nutrients quickly.
Potassium	Resistance towards pests, increases the quality of smell, colour and taste of fruits.

Question 4.
What are bio-fertilizers? Give examples.
Answer:
Some microorganisms which are useful to synthesise nutrients from the environment or from soil to plants. These are called microbial cultures or bio-fertilizers.

Question 5.
How vermi compost is prepared?
Answer:

• Construct 10 × 1 × ½ metres vermi compost beds in sheds which protect these beds from direct sunlight and rain.
• Collect coconut, banana, and sugarcane leaves, coconut coir, and dry black gram plants.
• Made them into 3 to 4 inches layer. This layer was wet with water.
• Collect house hold waste of dry cattle dung from the village to fill the bed.
• After two weeks of making bed, they kept thousand earth worms per square meter and covered the bed with gunny bags to maintain 30/6 to 40/6 of moisture.
• After 60 days we can collect our first manure.
• Second time, we will get the manure within 40 to 45 days.
• Every year we get the manure 6 times from these beds.
• Thus, vermi compost is prepared.

Question 6.
How Green revolution has changed the life style of farmers in India?
Answer:

• By Green revolution, the production of crops has been increased tremendously.
• Agriculture has become an industry and provides new avenues for work and fulfilment. Ecological balance may occur by the product of the green revolution.
• The soil may become fertilizer dependent. Plants are more dependent on pesticides which affect soil fertility man and animal health.

9th Class Biology 8th Lesson Challenges in Improving Agricultural Products Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Absorption of salts by different crops (Units: Kg/Hectares/Season)

Nutrient	Uses
Nitrogen	New leaves, flowers arise fast.
Phosphorous	Helps roots to penetrates deep into the soil to absorb nutrients quickly.
Potassium	Resistance towards pests, increases the quality of smell, colour and taste of fruits.

a) In which crop new leaves arise fast? Why?
b) In which crop roots do not penetrate deep into soil?
c) Which crop show more resistance to pests? Why?
d) From the above table, cultivation of which crop yields more to farmer?
Answer:

1. Sugarcane crop. Because it utilise nearly 90% of Nitrogen. Nitrogen is responsible for formation of new leaves.
2. Millet crops.
3. Sugarcane
4. Sugarcane

Question 2.
How do you appreciate the role of earthworms in helping farmers?
Answer:

• Earthworms are known as “friends of farmers”.
• Earthworms make the soil loose and enables it to aerate.
• They make the soil rich with organic fertilizers and reduce the farmer’s investment on chemical fertilizers.
• They also help the farmer in improving the crop productivity and soil quality.

Question 3.
If a farmer cultivating one type of crop then what happend?
Answer:

1. The crop productivity decreases.
2. Soil fertility gradually decreases.
3. Attack of pests on crops will increase.

Question 4.
Read the paragraph carefully and answer the questions given below.
Generally farmers use synthetic pyrethroids like pesticides, insecticides to control pests on crops. Farmers are also using so many natural pest controlling techniques.
1. Which concept in agriculture explains the above information?
2. Name some synthetic pesticides and insecticides.
3. Distinguish between synthetic insecticides and natural insecticides.
4. Write about any two natural insect control methods.
Answer:

1. Crop protective methods.
2. D.A.P. super phosphate, D.D.T, Heptachlore.
3. Artificial pesticides are nothing but poisonous chemicals. They harm and kill the pests but also the useful friendly insects which are useful in pollination. Natural pesticides are the insects which feed on pests that destroy crops.
   Ex : Dragon fly, spiders, mirids, lady bird beetle.
4. a) By introducing “Bacillus thuringiensis” we can protect our crops,
   b) By adapting mixed crop cultivation we can reduce pests naturally.

Question 5.
The fields of Ramaiah and Somaiah are in the same area. Both cultivated the cotton crop. Ramaiah got good crop yield than Somaiah. Guess the reasons for low crop yield of Somaiah.
Answer:

• He selected high crop yield variety of cotton.
• He used better crop management methods for high yielding.
• He used better pest controlling method to get high crop yield.
• He used soil friendly fertilizers to get high yield of crop.

These AP 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 4th Lesson The Polar Regions will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social 4th Lesson Important Questions and Answers The Polar Regions

Question 1.
Which continent parts fail within this region?
Answer:
North America, Europe and some parts of Russia fall within this region.

Question 2.
What happens as we move away from the equator?
Answer:
Temperature falls when we move from the equator to the poles.

Question 3.
Who are called ‘Shamans’?
Answer:
The people skilled in performing rituals are called Shamans.

Question 4.
What is Polar region?
A. The region which lies near the poles is called the “polar region”.

Question 5.
What is Arctic Circle?
Answer:
The boundary of the polar region is known as the ‘Arctic Circle’.

Question 6.
What is called Tundra region?
Answer:
The northern part of the continents within the polar region is known as the Tundra.

Question 7.
What is the meaning of ‘Tundra’?
Answer:
Tundra means very cold.

Question 8.
What does the Eskimo religion show deep concern for?
Answer:
Eskimo religion shows deep concern for life, health, sickness, starvation and death.

Question 9.
What do all the Eskimos believe?
Answer:
All Eskimos groups believe in a supernatural power called Sila and spirits (such as Sedna, the goddess of life, health and food). They believe that people and animals have souls that live after death.

Question 10.
What is ‘taboo’?
Answer:
Taboo means forbidding certain actions, such as eating a particular kind of food.

Question 11.
When do the Eskimos celebrate ceremonies?
Answer:
They celebrate some major ceremonies, performed at birth and death or when hunting was very poor or very successful.

Question 12.
What do the ’Shamans’ do?
Answer:
Shamans use trances, drama and magic tricks in their performances.

Question 13.
What is called ‘Tundra Vegetation’?
Answer:
Tundra region is very cold. Since the tundra region gets very little sunlight, it has a unique type of vegetation known as the Tundra Vegetation.

Question 14.
What is called ‘Permafrost’?
Answer:
Due to the cold, the upper soil surface of the polar region is frozen into a rock-like state all through the year. This is called Permafrost.

Question 15.
Write about ‘Eskimos’.
Answer:
The most commonly accepted meaning of ‘Eskimo’ is “snowshoe-netter”. There are two main groups referred to as Eskimos : Inuit and Yupik. Inuit in their language means ‘the people’ or ‘the real people’. The Eskimos are descendants of Siberia, now a part of the Russia in northern Asia.

Question 16.
Who are called ‘Shamans’?
Answer:
The people skilled in performing rituals are called Shamans.

Question 17.
Match the following.
1) Kayak       ( ) A) The line where the land and sky meet.
2) Horizon    ( ) B) Boots
3) Taboo       ( ) C) Wooden boat
4) Mukluks   ( ) D) Language
5) Inupik       ( ) E) Ban
Answer:
1) C,
2) A,
3) E,
4) B,
5) D.

Question 18.
Observe the picture and write your opinion.

Answer:
This picture shows north polar region. The circles on this show latitudes and lines show longitudes. The place where the longitudes meet is called N pole. The southern tip of Greenland and about that is shown out of the globe. I think this is not correct. The earth is swollen at the equator and flat at the poles.

Question 19.
Praise the group life of Eskimos.
Answer:
Eskimos lead a group life. They lead a nomadic life. They share all their activities, food and shelters, and their joys, sorrows everything. They have such unity which we cannot see in the so-called civilized societies. Really we should praise it.

Question 20.
Collect the pictures or photographs of the flowers and animals of Tundra region and prepare an album.
Answer:

Question 21.
Conduct and furnish the details of an interview with an “Eskimo”.
Answer:
I: What is your good name?
E: Christopher.
I: What is your area?
E: Ours is northern region of Canada.
I: How many members are there in your family?
E: We are seven to eight members in our family but we live together with other families.
We are nearly 70 members in our group. We share each and everything.
I: Do you like your atmosphere?
E: Yes. I like it and I love it. This is my birth place. We don’t know any other climates. This snow, snow white, these lights, animals, our houses, our people, our traditions,
I like it.
I: If you have a chance to stay with us in our region, then what is your option ?
E: No, I don’t agree with this option. Definitely I will reject it. Because we live in nature
and we follow the law of nature. Our people who didn’t follow this rule, faced many problems. We are not fit for your regions. So I refuse this.
I: Thank you.
E: Thank you.

Question 22.
Read the following paragraphs and answer the questions given below.
You have seen the north pole and south pole on the globe. The region which lies near the poles is called the “polar region”. Look at Map. It shows the north pole and its surrounding regions. The entire polar region has been shaded lightly. Notice the boundary of this region. This is known as the ‘Arctic Circle’.
The northern part of the continents within the polar region is known as the Tundra. Tundra means very cold. Since the Tundra region gets very little sunlight, it has a unique type of vegetation known as the ‘Tundra Vegetation’.
1. What is Polar region?
Answer:
The region which lies near the poles is called the “polar region”.

2. What is Arctic Circle?
Answer:
The boundary of the polar region is known as the ‘Arctic Circle’.

3. What is called Tundra region?
Answer:
The northern part of the continents within the polar region is known as the Tundra.

4. What is the meaning of ‘Tundra’?
Answer:
Tundra means very cold.

5. What is meant by ‘Tundra Vegetation’?
Answer:
The Tundra region gets very little sunlight, it has a unique type of vegetation known as the ‘Tundra Vegetation’.

Question 23.
Read the following para and answer the given questions.
Religious Beliefs
Eskimo religion shows deep concern for life, health, sickness, starvation and death. The Eskimos believe that spirits control these things. All Eskimos groups believe in a supernatural power called Sila and spirits (such as Sedna, the goddess of life, health and food). They believe that people and animals have souls that live after death. But each group has certain beliefs and rituals of its own. Each person, family or group has taboos or bans, forbidding certain actions, such as eating a particular kind of food. Each group has some major ceremonies ^ado-med at birth and death or when hunting is very poor or very successful. Shamans (people skilled in performing rituals) are believed to help establish and keep a contact with the spirit world. Shamans use trances, drama and magic tricks in their performances.
1. What does the Eskimo religion show deep concern for?
Answer:
Eskimo religion shows deep concern for life, health, sickness, starvation and death.

2. What do ali the Eskimos believe?
Answer:
All Eskimos groups believe in a supernatural power called Sila and spirits (such as Sedna, the goddess of life, health and food). They believe that people and animals have souls that live after death.

3. What is ‘taboo’?
Answer:
Taboo means forbidding certain actions, such as eating a particular kind of food.

4. When do they celebrate ceremonies?
Answer:
They celebrate some major ceremonies, performed at birth and death or when hunting was very poor or very successful.

5. What do the ‘Shamans’ do?
Answer:
Shamans use trances, drama and magic tricks in their performances.

Question 24.
Draw the model of globe and identify Arctic Circle, poles and equator.
Answer:

Question 25.
Locate any five countries which lie in polar region in the given world map.
Answer:

These AP 9th Class Biology Important Questions 7th Lesson Animal Behaviour will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Biology 7th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Animal Behaviour

9th Class Biology 7th Lesson Animal Behaviour 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the expressions of animals to protect themselves from predators?
Answer:
Hissing of snakes, barking of dogs, stiffing of nailed hair of hedgehog (mullapandi), bad flavour from skin of tasmanian devil etc., are all the expressions to protect them¬selves from predators.

Question 2.
Why fish do not need to learn how to swim?
Answer:
Swimming is an instinct behaviour to fish. Hence they don’t need to learn how to swim.

Question 3.
How can butterfly get to know about nectar?
Answer:
Butterfly gets to know about the nectar instinctively.

Question 4.
Who does teach a bird to make a nest?
Answer:
There is no need to teach the bird to make it’s nest, because it is an instinct behaviour.

Question 5.
Give two examples of reflexes.
Answer:

• Kicking out when the doctor taps your knee with a small hammer.
• Sudden closing of eyes when a bright light is flashed on your face.

Question 6.
Give one example of imprinting from your surroundings.
Answer:
Salmon bird goes back to its home stream to spawn.

Question 7.
Give one example for conditioning.
Answer:
A tiger in a circus learns to stand up on a chair and jump through a hop to receive a food treat.

Question 8.
Name the branch of zoology that deals with scientific and objective study of animal behaviour.
Answer:
Ethology.

Question 9.
Give one example for imprinting behaviour.
Answer:
Ducklings follow the first moving object they meet after hatching and treat it as their mother.

Question 10.
Give one example of instinctive behaviour.
Answer:
Building a nest by birds/climbing trees by monkeys/swimming of fish in a lake.

Question 11.
Name the scientist who studied animal behaviour – imprinting.
Answer:
Konard Lorenz.

Question 12.
What are the other behaviours we find in animals and give examples?
Answer:
Animals show the feelings like happiness, threat, fear, anger, sadness etc…..
Eg: After returning from fields in the evening cow licks its calf. It reflects it’s affection towards its body.

Question 13.
How Tasmanian Devil protects itself from enemies?
Answer:
By spraying bad odour through it’s body.

Question 14.
What is imitation?
Answer:
People often imitate each other. This can help them to learn new and useful skills. It may also lead them to certain unwanted behaviours like drinking, smoking etc…

Question 15.
How do cockroaches differentiate light and dark?
Answer:
Cockroaches have eyes that are adapted to sense the difference between daylight and dark. Their eyes have cells that perceive light.

Question 16.
What is a pheramone?
Answer:
It is secreted or excreted chemical that triggers a social response in the members of same species.
Eg : ants, honey bees…

Question 17.
What are primates?
Answer:
The group of mammals that includes humans and monkeys.

Question 18.
Name the animal on which Ivan Pavlov done his experiments.
Answer:
Dog.

Question 19.
Give two examples of conditioning.
Answer:

1. Electronic fence stop grazing animals straying.
2. Children come out of the classroom after hearing the school bell.

Question 20.
What is special about Beaver?
Answer:
Beaver is a mammal which lives in South America, builds dams across water streams. Stagnated water is the living home for Beavers family.

Question 21.
Give names of scientists of Ethology.
Answer:

1. Nikolas Tinbergen
2. Konard Lorenz
3. Karlvon Frisch

9th Class Biology 7th Lesson Animal Behaviour 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What do you mean by animal behaviour? What it indicates?
Answer:

• Animal behaviour is the scientific study of the wild and wonderful ways in which animals interact with either, with other living beings and with the environment.
• It explores how animals relate to their physical environment as well as to other organisms.
• It also includes topics such as how animals find and defend resources, avoid predators, choose mates, reproduce and care for their young.

Question 2.
What are the uses and loses of imitation in human behaviour?
Answer:

• Imitation can help us learn something new and useful, such as new skill in lessons, sports or at work.
• Imitation also leads us to show less useful or harmful behaviour.
• For example, young people may start smoking, drinking alcohol or taking drugs as a result of copying each other to fit in.
• But it is very dangerous for our health.

Question 3.
How conditioning can be used to change the behaviour of people by advertisers?
Answer:

• Advertisers are very skilled in changing the behaviour of people.
• They use pictures of their products which make them look glamorous or exciting, often by using famous actors or sportspeople.
• By associating the product with attractive images the advertisers are trying to set up a conditioned response to their product.
• People will respond positively and buy the product.

Question 4.
Explain about tagging.
Answer:

• Like birds some other animals also migrate over large distances to find food or nesting sites.
• Animals can be tagged by attaching tracking devices to them.
• Tagging lets the scientists follow the journeys the animals make.

Question 5.
Write the process of hiding food by Scrubjay bird.
Answer:

• A bird called scrubjay hides its food.
• An experiment proved that a scrubjay had hidden its food in presence of another bird.
• After some time it was found that the other bird had stolen it by fixing a plan.

Question 6.
Write about a mammal Beaver, which lives in North America.
Answer:

• Beaver a mammal which lives in North America builds dams across water streams.
• Beaver cut big trees by its sharp teeth to fell the trees across the stream.
• Then the beaver constructed nearly four feet wall by using twigs, stones and mud.
• Stagnated water is the living home for beavers family.

Question 7.
Give two examples for reflexes.
Answer:

• Closing of the eyes when there is anything threatening the eye.
• The contraction of pupil when bright light enters eye.
• Withdrawing our hand when we touch hot objects.
• We sneeze when something enter our nose.
• We cough when we inhale dust etc.

Question 8.
How squirrels cheat others?
Answer:
Squirrels hide their food in an interesting way. They always behave in such a manner that somebody is trying to steal their food. In order to misguide others they dig holes in many places and heap leaves to cover them. Most of the holes do not contain food. In this way they cheat others by making believe that these holes contain food.

Question 9.
How beetle protects itself from enemies?
Answer:
Beetle (or) Bombardie Beetle has two chemicals hydroquinone and hydrogen peroxide stored in it’s body. Whenever the beetle feels threatened these chemicals mix with some special enzymes and that heat up the liquids which gives bad smell from it’s body.

Question 10.
What are the amazing features of intelligence of Dolphins?
Answer:
Dolphins have great logical thinking power they could understand a code language if they are trained by practice. The trained dolphins bring ball from the tub and throw it again into the same tub. They remember the names by short whistle.

9th Class Biology 7th Lesson Animal Behaviour 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write about the experiment conducted by Ivan Pavlov on conditioning.
Answer:

• Ivan Pavlov (1849 to 1936) was a Russian Scientist who has investigated conditioning.
• He discovered that dogs produced extra saliva when they were offered food.
• Pavlov noticed that they also did the same when the person who fed them came into the room, even if the person had not brought any food.
• Pavlov went on to ring a bell at the start of feeding time, and eventually, the dogs produced extra saliva when they heard the bell, before any food was brought.
• A dog salivating when it hears a bell is not a natural response.
• They would not do this without being conditioned to do so.
• The behaviour has been learned. It is called a conditioned response.

Question 2.
Describe the process of hiding food by squirrel.
Answer:

• Squirrels hide their food in a fascinating way.
• They always behave in such a man¬ner that somebody is trying to steal their food.
• In order to misguide others they dig holes in many places and heap leaves, starch etc., to cover them.
• Sometimes most of the holes does not contain any food.
• In this way they cheat others to make believe that these holes contain food.

Question 3.
How wasp (bee) construct hive and how it collects food?
Answer:

• Wasp is an intelligent bee which builds its home keeping in view its future needs.
• Wasp builds its hive on the walls by using mud.
• They select suitable mud for constructing its hive.
• After constructing its hive they search for food.
• They collect food material by injecting its venom (usually other larva) and kept in it its hive.
• Wasp lay its eggs on the food material, which it used as food for larva of wasps.

Question 4.
Who experimentally proved that Dolphins have logical thinking power? Write about the experiments.
Answer:

• Hermon proved that Dolphins have great logical thinking power.
• Hermon studied four bottle nose Dolphins at Kavalo Basin mammal Laboratory of Hawai Islands.
• He named four Dolphins as Akkikomoi, Phoenix, Allen and Hippo.
• Hermon could understand by his study that Dolphins can remember their names and understand a code language if they are trained by practice.
• For example, the closed fist shows a tub, raised arms show a ball and one hand raised tells ‘bring here’.
• If we show the above actions in a sequence, the Dolphins would bring the ball from the tub, if we reverse the actions they throw the ball into the tub.
• If a Dolphin of particular whistle is called all the Dolphins stare at, while the par¬ticular one comes to us.

Question 5.
Describe the wonder behaviour of an African parrot Alex.
Answer:

• In 1977, Ervin Pepperberg brought a parrot and trained it.
• Slowly he made it learn more than 100 words.
• He then arranged the words in a such a way that Alex can frame its own sentences.
• After some days, he showed Alex one yellow bowl and another yellow dish and it recognised similarities and differences between them.
• Alex even tried to teach other parrots of its group.
• Alex called apple as ‘Bannery’ because it tastes like a banana and look like a big cherry. Naming in this way is a sign of creativity in language.
• Before Alex’s death, it could even learnt up to 7th table.

9th Class Biology 7th Lesson Animal Behaviour Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain behavioural adaptations of animals using two examples.
Answer:

• Nesting of birds, selecting mates, forming flocks for protection from enemies are some examples for behavioural adaptations in animals.
• Beaver, a mammal which lives in North America builds dams across water streams and catch the fish and feeds it’s family.

Question 2.
What are the ways to observe the behaviour of animals? Explain any one of them with suitable examples.
Answer:

• Scientists observe the animal behaviour either directly or indirectly.
• Behaviour can be investigated in the field or in the laboratory.
• Scientists spend many hours watching and studying the behaviour of animals. Animals can signal to each other. For example, they may call each other to warn danger. Some of the scientists record and study them to work out what the signals mean.
• Scientists use tagging method to observe bird and animal migration. Animals can be ‘tagged’ by attaching tracking devices to them. This lets scientists follow the journeys the animals make.

Question 3.
What is Tagging? How it is useful to scientists?
Answer:

• Scientists use tagging method to observe bird and animal migration.
• Animals can be “tagged” by attaching tracking devices to them.
• This lets the scientists to follow the journeys the animals make.

Question 4.

Observe the figure and answer the following questions.
1) In which chamber more cockroaches are there?
2) In which chamber less cockroaches are there?
3) What are the conditions of chamber that live more cockroaches?
4) How the behaviour of cockroaches?
Answer:

• Dark and damp conditions.
• Light and dry chamber.
• Damp and dark condition.
• Cockroaches searched for their favourite conditions and reached the dark damp chamber.

Question 5.
Observe the picture and answer the following.

a) What is the aim of the experiment?
b) Write about the behaviour of cockroaches.
c) Write down the differences of situation provided between two chambers having less and more cockroaches.
d) What will happen if you put rats instead of cockroaches in the above room?
Answer:
a) To study the behaviour of cockroaches.

b) Cockroaches selected their favourite conditioned chamber – dark and damp. In these conditions only cockroaches can survive.

c) The experimental box is divided into a choice of chamber with four different conditions. They are
a) light and dry
(b) light and humid
(c) dark and dry
(d) dark and humid.
Finally the cockroaches reached dark and humid chamber.

d) Rats also choose dark and damp chamber. Because darkness enable them to escape from predators and damp conditions make favour to maintain body temperature.

Question 6.
Suppose you were a quiz master for biology round in an event. Prepare some questions to ask about “Instinct” and “Imitation” in that event.
Answer:

• Birds fly in the sky – which type of animal behaviour is this?
• Ramu saw some ducklings following a hen. He was amazed to see this. Which type of animal behaviour is this?

These AP 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social 22nd Lesson Important Questions and Answers Citizens and the Governments

10th Class Social 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write any two benefits of Lok Adalat in respect of entertaining disputes.
Answer:

1. There is no court fee.
2. Speedy trail of disputes
3. Procedural flexibility
4. The parties can directly interact with the judge.

Question 2.
When was the Right to Information Act passed by the Central Government?
Answer:
Right to Information Act was passed in 2005 by the Central Government.

Question 3.
How does the government department function?
Answer:
Every government department functions on the basis of certain rules and regulations.

Question 4.
What does Lok Adalat mean?
Answer:
Lok Adalat means people’s court.

Question 5.
Which two roles does RTI play?
Answer:
The first one is the role of the government departments and the second is that of the citizens.

Question 6.
Write about NALSA.
Answer:
Act and to frame the most effective and economical schemes for legal services.

Question 7.
What legal aid facilities are available under Legal Service Authority?
Answer:
Matrimonial disputes, maintenance cases, harassment cases by husband and in-laws, domestic violence cases, all types of civil cases, land disputes, compoundable criminal cases, etc.

Question 8.
When are the Lok Adalats constituted?
Answer:
The Lok Adalats are constituted in every state under the Legal Services Authority Act, 1987.

Question 9.
Write about District Legal Services Authority.
Answer:
District Legal Services Authority is constituted in every district to implement Legal Aid Programmes and Schemes in the district. The District Judge of the district is its Ex-Officio Chairman and the members are nominated by State Government.

Question 10.
Who is responsible officials in the information commission?
Answer:
National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is the apex body constituted to lay down policies and principles for making legal services available under the provisions of the State Public Information Commissioner is the responsible official in the information commission along with Information Commissioners.

10th Class Social 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following text and answer the following question.

The LSA Act was enacted to constitute legal services authority for providing free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society. 
To ensure that opportunities for securing justice were not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.
To organise Lok Adalats to ensure that the operation of the legal system promoted justice on Q basis of equal opportunity.
To develop an effective, alternative, innovative dispute resolution mechanism outside the courts.

Who are entitled to get free legal support?
(OR)
Who are eligible for benefit under Legal Service Authority?
Answer:
As per LSA Act and its objectives to give free legal support on an equality basis to economically backward. The following are entitled or eligible to get free legal support.

1. A member of a SC or ST.
2. A victim of trafficking in human beings or beggars.
3. Women and children.
4. A mentally ill or otherwise disabled person.
5. A person who is a victim of a mass disaster, ethnic violence, etc.

Question 2.
Write about the Right to Information Act.
Answer:

1. Right to Information Act was passed by the Central Government in 2005.
2. The Act was passed as a result of people’s mobilization as well as in recognition of the provisions in the constitution.
3. Two roles that need to be played for getting the benefits of RTI to the people.

Question 3.
Explain how RTI Act enriches Democracy.
Answer:

1. It ensures the availability of all types of information to the citizen.
2. Democracy requires an informed citizenry.
3. Information should be transparent.
4. This can help to control corruption and make the governments accountable.
   Thus RTI act enriches democracy.

Question 4.
What are the provisions there for people to seek information under RTI?
Answer:

1. Any individual can get documents like government orders, reports, advice, logbooks, rules and regulations, attendance list, letters, etc.
2. People seeking information have to pay a small amount to meet a copy of the document.
3. If the person is below the poverty line he/she need not pay this amount.
4. This information request can be sent through a handwritten letter or electronic mail.
5. Information will be given in the official language of the state or in English or in Hindi.
6. Individuals collecting the information can remain anonymous.

Question 5.
Read the following case study and give an explanation of how Swetha had benefited from RTI.

Gattu Swetha was a student of M.Sc at Kakatiya University in 2013. She completed her B.Sc. exams in March 2011. She got good marks in all subjects but in Chemistry she got 21 marks. On revaluation, she got only 9 marks. With RTI activists help she requested for a photocopy of her answer sheet. University refused to do so. She went to the State Chief Information Commissioner and later the university gave a photocopy and awarded 51 marks. Thus, she joined M.Sc.

Answer:
Swetha could not have accessed the photocopy of her answer sheet without the RTI enabling Act. She could not have got an entry into M.Sc. Earlier photostats of answer sheets were not given to students. They have only informed marks. Now students like Swetha can get a photocopy of their answer sheets even for competitive examinations that provide jobs. She did not stop even when the Public Information Officer of the University did not provide her with information. She went to the highest appellate authority in the state and was able to secure a photocopy. Thus, she made the best use of RTI enabling Act.

Question 6.
Read the following text and answer the following question.

The LSA through Lok Adalats settles long pending court cases in short time and without any expenses. Matrimonial disputes, maintenance cases, harassment cases by husband and in-laws, domestic violence cases, all types of civil cases, land disputes, compoundable criminal cases etc.

What kind of cases can be settled through Lok adalats?
Answer:
The following cases can be settled through Lok adalats.

1. Matrimonial disputes.
2. Maintenance cases.
3. Harassment cases by husband and in-laws.
4. Domestic violence cases.
5. Long pending all civil cases, land disputes and compoundable criminal cases.

Question 7.
What exemptions are there for disclosure of information in the RTI Act 2005?
Answer:

1. The law permits the government not to disclose certain information.
2. Information that could affect the sovereignty and integrity of India.
3. Information that could breach the privilege of Parliament and State Legislature.
4. Information received in confidence from a foreign government. “
5. Information that could endanger the life or physical safety of a person.
6. Cabinet papers or records of Council of Ministers and Secretaries (before the final decision is taken)
7. Most of our armed forces and security agencies are outside the purview of Information Commissions.

Question 8.
Provide an example where any citizen benefited from using RTI Act.
Answer:
T.AIIuga has 1 acre and 20 kuntas land in Vadali village of Mudinepalli mandal in Krishna district. After his death, his son Nallanna cultivated that land. But the untimely death of him left his kid unaware of land. Few years later his kid, Naresh recognized that their land was encroached. He requested the Tahsildar to survey his land with documents he had, which was of no use. Later, even he complained the same in grievance cell with the collector, but was of no use. With the suggestion of a representative of RTI Act, he applied to Information Officer. He has asked for the reason why his land was not surveyed. Later his land was identified, surveyed and shown to the applicant, Naresh.

Question 9.
When was RTI Act made? What was its constitutional prominence?
Answer:

1. The Right to Information Act (RTI) was passed by the Parliament in 2005.
2. Today the Right to Information is recognized within the Constitution under two Fundamental Rights as freedom of expression and the right to life.

Question 10.
Why do you think checking the information can help In improving accountability?
Answer:

1. Information can be collected with the help of officials.
2. Master rolls and paid amounts can be verified.
3. This would bring out the corruption in practices.
4. Officials are given the opportunity to defend and talk about the details of documents.
5. When corruption was identified, cases were registered against concerned persons.
6. Thus checking the information will make governments more accountable in their functioning.

Question 11.
What information shall be declared by every government office even without being asked by the people?
Answer:

1. Under the RTI, it is also compulsory for every government office to declare certain information in public even without being asked by the people.
2. One can identify them on the walls of these office buildings.
3. They are the names, designations and phone numbers of Public Information Officer, Assistant Public Information Officer and First Appellate Authority.

Question 12.
What are the public authorities to follow the right to Information Act?
Answer:

1. The institution created under the constitution.
2. Made under the laws of Parliament or State legislature.
3. Created through a notification of the appropriate government.
4. It may include any body owned, controlled or substantially funded or Non-Governmental organizations substantially funded by the government either directly or indirectly through the funds.

10th Class Social 22nd Lesson Citizens and the Governments 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How are the Lok-adalats helping the common people? Explain.
Answer:

1. There is no court fee.
2. The procedural flexibility and speedy trial of disputes are provided.
3. The parties to the dispute can directly interact with the judge.
4. Free Legal advice is provided.
5. Delay will be avoided in the settlement of disputes.

Question 2.
“Right to Information Act resembles the true spirit of Democracy”. Explain.
Answer:

1. Democracy requires an informed citizenry.
2. It needs transparency of information.
3. Through R.T.I. Act, all the citizens can get such information.
4. This Act can help to contain corruption.
5. This also makes governments accountable to individual citizens also.
6. Earlier various departments of the government responded only to the elected representatives.
7. But today, they respond even to the common citizens.

Question 3.
Why is there a need for information to fight corruption?
Answer:

1. Programmes that are undertaken to benefit the poor and remove poverty often do not reach the needy and the funds get diverted.
2. A major reason for this is corruption.
3. The reason is common people do not have proper information about the programmes and how they are being implemented.
4. The people themselves had no way to verify how the money was spent by government.
5. The information was not shared with the people.
6. Yet, in a democracy, the money used for the welfare of people is theirs, so they have every right to know how this is being used.
7. Earlier elected representatives checked the corruption.
8. Now with the enactment of RTI, people can check the corruption.

Question 4.
Why do you think the information needed to be shared?
Answer:

1. People believe that the information was crucial to their own welfare.
2. Information is crucial to the human development and democratic rights.
3. People can participate in government and ensure just development only if they have sufficient information in the form of official documents.
4. Information will make governments more accountable in their functioning.
5. Then only it is possible to monitor the functioning and check possibility of corrupt practice.
6. In a situation where information has to be made public, arbitrary decisions by the elected representatives or the officials can be controlled.
7. Information is crucial to the survival of the poor.

Question 5.
Collect the information of the movement which began for the information.
Answer:

1. A group of people in Rajasthan organized themselves under the banner of Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sanghatan (MKSS) and demanded information.
2. There was no legal provision to take information from the government to the people.
3. Initially, these documents were collected with the help of officials.
4. People evaluated these documents through public meetings.
5. Soon officials began to resist the idea of disclosing the information,
6. This led to people’s movement, with rallies and marches for the next 3 years.
7. People demanded that the information was crucial to their own welfare.

Question 6.
What exemptions are there for disclosure of information in RTI Act, 2005?
Answer:

1. The law permits the government not to disclose certain information.
2. Information that could affect the sovereignty and integrity of India.
3. Information that could breach the privilege of Parliament and State Legislature.
4. Information received in confidence from a foreign government.
5. Information that could endanger the life or physical safety of a person.
6. Cabinet papers or records of Council of Ministers and Secretaries (before the final decision is taken)
7. Most of our armed forces and security agencies are outside the purview of Information Commissions.