AP State Important Questions

These AP 9th Class Maths Important Questions 7th Lesson Triangles will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Maths 7th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Triangles

Question 1.
The interior angles of a triangle are (3x – 10)°, (3x + 10)°, (3x)°. Find the angles.
Solution:
Interior angles of a triangle are (3x- 10)°, (3x + 10)° and (3x)°
Sum of angles = (3x – 10)° + (3x + 10)° + (3x)° = 180°
9x = 180°
x = 20°
∴ Angles = 3 × 20 – 10 = 60 – 10 = 50°
= 3 × 20 + 10 = 60 + 10 = 70°
= 3 × 20° ± 60°
∴ Angles are 50°, 70° and 60°.

Question 2.
If ΔABC ≅ ΔPQR, express equal sides of triangles.
Solution:
If Δ ABC ≅ ΔPQR
⇒ AB = PQ, BC = QR, AC = PR

Question 3.
In ΔABC, the lines are drawn parallel to BC, CA and AB respectively through A, B, C intersecting at P, Q and R. Find the ratio of perimeter of ΔPQR and ΔABC
Solution:

From figure, AB // QP and BC // RQ.
So, in ABCQ parallelogram AB // CQ
Similarly, in BCAR, ABPC parallelograms BC = AQ and BC = RA.
Mid point of QR is ‘A’.
Similarly mid point of PR and PQ is B and C.
∴ AB = \(\frac{1}{2}\) PQ,
BC = \(\frac{1}{2}\) QR and CA = \(\frac{1}{2}\) PR.
∴ Perimeter of ΔPQR = PQ + QR + PR
= 2AB + 2BC + 2CA
= 2 (AB + BC + CA)
= 2(Perimeter of ΔABC)
∴ Ratio of perimeters of ΔPQR and ΔABC is 2 : 1.

Question 4.
In the adjacent figure, prove that ΔPQX ≅ ΔPRY.

Solution:
In ΔPQX, ΔPRY .
Sides QX = RY {Given}
Sides PX = PY {Given}
∠PXY = ∠PYX
180 – ∠PXY = 180° – ∠PYX
⇒ ∠PXQ = ∠PYR {Angle}
By S – A – S congruence criterion.
ΔPQX ≅ ΔPRY

Question 5.
In the given figure, AL is parallel to DC and E Is mid point of BC. Show that triangle EBL Is congruent to triangle ECD.

Solution:
From the adjacent figure AL // CD and E is the midpoint of BC.
i.e., BE = EC
from ΔBEL & ΔCED.
∠B = ∠C [ ∵ Alternate interior angles]
∠DEC = ∠BEL [ ∵ vertically opposite, angles]
∴ By A.S.A rule
Δ EBL ≅ Δ ECD.

Question 6.
ABC is a right angled triangle and M is the midpoint of the hypotenuse AB. A line segment MD, parallel to BC, passes through M and meets AC at D. Prove that (i) D is midpoint of AC, (ii) MD is perpendicular to AC.

Solution:
Given that ΔABC is a right angled triangle in which, M is the midpoint of AB. Also \(\overline{\mathrm{MD}}\) / / \(\overline{\mathrm{BC}}\).
∠C = 90° ⇒ BC⊥AC then MD JL AC [ ∵ BC // MD]
If a line is drawn parallel to one side and (divides the 2^nd side into two equal parts) passes through the midpoint of second side, it will also passes through the midpoint of 3^rd side, i.e., MD bisects AC.
i.e., D is the midpoint of AC.

Question 7.
In ΔPQR, PS⊥QR and ΔPQS ≅ ΔPRS.

PQ = 2x + 3, PR = 3y + 1, QS = x,
SR = y + 1. Find the area of ΔPQR.
Solution:

In ΔPQR, PS⊥QR, so ΔPRS ≅ ΔPQS From CPCT,
PQ = PR and QS = SR and 2x + 3 = 3y + 1 and x = y + 1
2x – 3y = -2 ………………… (1) and
x – y = 1 ………….. (2)
Substitute x = y + 1 in equation (1)
2(y + 1) – 3y = -2
2y + 2 – 3y = -2
-y = -4
⇒ y = 4
by y = 4 in x = y+ 1 ⇒ x = 5
∴ QR = x + y+ l= 5 + 4+ l = 10units
PQ = PR = 2(5) + 3 = 13 units
QS = x = 5 units.
∴ ΔPQS is a right triangle.
From pythagoras theorem,
PQ² = QS² + PS²
PS² = PQ² – QS²
PS² = (13)³ – (5)² = 144
∴ PS = 12 units
∴ Area of ΔPQR = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × QR × PS
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 10 × 12 = 60,sq.units.

Question 8.
In the given figure \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) || \(\overline{\mathrm{CD}}\) || \(\overline{\mathrm{EF}}\) at equal distances and AF is a transversal. \(\overline{\mathrm{GH}}\) is perpendicular to \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\). If AB = 4.5 cm, GH = 4 cm and FB = 8 cm, find the area of ΔGDF.

Solution:
In the given figure \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) || \(\overline{\mathrm{CD}}\) || \(\overline{\mathrm{EF}}\) at equal distances.
\(\overline{\mathrm{AF}}\) is a transversal and \(\overline{\mathrm{GH}}\) is perpendicular to \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\).
So, GH = 4 cm, AB = 4.5 cm, FB = 8 cm To find area of ΔGDF,
From ΔABF, D is mid point of \(\overline{\mathrm{BF}}\)
Similarly ‘G’ is mid point of \(\overline{\mathrm{AF}}\).
So BD ⊥ DF, AG = GF
Median divides a triangle into two equal triangles.
∴ Area of ΔABG = Area of ΔBGF
Similarly \(\overline{\mathrm{GD}}\) is median of ΔBGF.
Area of ΔABG = 2 × area of ΔDGF
Area of ΔDFG = \(\frac{1}{2}\) area of ΔABG
Area of ΔABG = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 4.5 × 4 = 9 sq.cm
Area of ΔDGE = \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 9 = 4.5 sq.cm

Question 9.
In ABC, E and F are mid points of sides AB and AC respectively then prove that i) EF // BC and ii) EF = \(\frac{1}{2}\)BC.
Solution:
Given : B and F are mid points of AB and AC.

R.T.P. : i) EF // BC, ii) EF = \(\frac{1}{2}\) BC
Construction: ..
GC // AB, extend EF upto G.
Proof:
ΔAEF ACGF
∠AFE = ∠CFG (Vertically opposite angles)
AF = FC
∠EAF = ∠GCF (Alternate angles)
∴ ΔAEF = ΔCGF
∴ CG = BE and CG // BF (Construction)
∴ EBCG is a parallelogram.

Question 10.
In triangle ABC, D is a point on BC such that ΔABD and ΔACD are congruent. Find the values of x and y, if AB = 2x + 3, AC = 3y + 1, BD = x and
DC = y + 1.
Solution:
From the adjacent figure ΔABC, D is a point on BC.

Such that ΔABD ≅ ΔACD

AB = 2x + 3
AC = 3y + 1

BD = x
DC = Y + 1

Δ ABD = Δ ACD
⇒ AB = AC
⇒ 2x + 3 = 3y + 1
⇒ 2x – 3y + 2 = 0 …………….(1)
BD = CD ⇒ x = y + 1
⇒ x – y – 1 = 0 ………………….(2)
⇒ from (1) & (2)

y = 4
from (2) ⇒ x – 4 = 1
⇒ x = 1 + 4 = 5
∴ (x, y) = (5, 4)

Question 11.
In triangle ΔABC, D, E and F are mid points of sides AB’, BC and AC respectively. If we join points D, E and F, then show that triangle ABC is divided into four congruent triangles.

Solution:
Given : In ABC, D,E,F are the midpoints of sides AB, BC and AC respectively. .
R.T.P : ΔADF ≅ ΔDBE ≅ ΔDEF ≅ ΔCEF
Proof : D, E are the midpoints of \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) and \(\overline{\mathrm{BC}}\) of ΔABC respectively.
So by mid-point theorem, we know that DE // AC
Similarly DF//BC and EF // AB.
∴ ADEF, BEFD, CFDE are all parallelograms.
In a parallelogram ADEF, DF is the diagonal.
So, ΔADF ≅ ΔDEF …………….. (1)
[∵ Diagonal divides the parallelogram into two congruent triangles]
Similarly ΔBDE ≅ ΔDEF ………………… (2)
and ΔCEF ≅ ΔDEF …………….. (3)
From (1), (2) & (3) ⇒ ΔADF ≅ ΔDEF ≅ ΔBDE ≅ ΔCEF all the triangles are congruent to each other,
i.e., ΔABC divides into four congruent triangles by joining the mid points of the sides.

These AP 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions 7th Lesson Industries in India will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social 7th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Industries in India

9th Class Social 7th Lesson Industries in India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Study the map given below and answer the following question. (SA-II : 2018-19)

Q : Where in Karnataka are the steel plants located?
Answer:
Vijayanagar and Bhadravathi are the two places has steel plants in Karnataka.

9th Class Social 7th Lesson Industries in India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw a bargraph based on the given information. (SA-III : 2015-16)

Year	Production of cement (In million tonnes)
1970 – 71	25
1980 – 81	50
1990 – 91	100
2000 – 01	150
2010-11	210

Answer:

Question 2.
The pie charts below show the percentage of people employed in Agriculture. Industry and service sectors. Read the pie charts carefully to answer the question.

How did the pattern of employment change between 1972-73 and 2009-2010? (SA-II : 2018-19)
Answer:

1. The employment generation in agricultural sector has been decreased from 74% in 1972-73 to 53% in 2009-10.
2. The employment generation in industrial sector has been increased from 11% in 1972-73 to 22% in 2009-10.
3. The employment generation in service sector has shown an increase of 10%.

9th Class Social 7th Lesson Industries in India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the ‘Pie Chart’ and answer the following questions. (SA-III : 2015-16)

Answer the following Questions.
1. What does the above given graph denotes?
2. What is the percentage of change in employment by industry when compare between 1972-73 and 2009-10?
3. Which sector generated highest employment in 2009-10?
4. Write any two occupations regarding service sector?
Answer:

1. The above graph explains % of employment in different sectors.
2. From 1972-73 to 20019-10 the change in employment in Industrial sector is from 11% to 22%.
3. Agricultural sector.
4. Doctor, lawyer, teacher, banking, commerce, communications etc. are the occupations in the sector.

Question 2.
“Industries are necessary for the development of a nation. It is also fact that industrial activities are increasing environmental problems” – Write your opinions on this matter in detail. (SA-III : 2016-17)
Answer:
Industries are necesary for the development of a nation by the following ways.

1. When goods made in factories and exported to other countries, we get revenue.
2. A few decades before, three-fourths of income from goods exported from manufacturing industries alone.
3. Even today, nearly two-third of goods exports is contributed by industries and particularly small industries.
4. Factory goods exported range from gems, jewellery, chemicals, cars, machinery, cashewnuts, etc.
5. The money or foreign exchange earned in this process enable us to import from other countries a large number of goods that we want from other countries.

At the same time industrial activities are increasing environmental pollution by the following ways.

1. The production process in industries involves the use of electricity and application of different chemicals.
2. In the course of production, these industries release a lot of other materials. They are causing pollution in the industrial locations.
3. The industrialization led to the indiscriminate exploitation of minerals, forests, soils, air, etc.
4. It leads to deforestation and damages the natural habitat of animals.
5. Underground water is being contaminated due to the release of wastes by the industries.
6. Some animals are endangered and some creatures have become extinct.
7. The depletion of ozone layer, pollution of water, air, soil has increased ecological problems.

Question 3.
Mixing of some poisonous substances in air, water and soil causes to ‘ecological crisis’ – give your suggestions to prevent this problems as a student. (SA-II : 2017-18)
Answer:
Pollution prevention is a major global concern because of the harmful effects of pollution on a person’s health and on the environment.
Suggestions:

1. Stop smoking or at least follow the “No smoking” sign.
2. Never use open fires to dispose of wastes.
3. Instead of using your cars, choose to walk or ride a bicycle whenever possible.
4. Adopt the BRs. of solid waste management, reduce, reuse and recycle.
5. Use eco-friendly or biodegradable materials instead of plastic.
6. Do not cause loud noises and unwanted sounds to avoid noise pollution.
7. Industries should use fuel with lower sulphur content.
8. Industries should strictly follow applicable government regulations on pollution control.

Conclusion :
Breathing is life. We know that we will survive without food for several weeks and without water for few days, but without oxygen, we will die in a matter of minutes.

The oxygen, the air we breathe sustains us. So, let us make today and every day a good day for everyone.

Question 4.

Read the above pie chart and answer the following questions. (SA-II : 2017-18)
1. What does the pie chart tell us?
2. Which sector provide the highest percentage of employment?
3. In which sector employment increased twice?
4. By 2009-10 which sector was the second piace in empioyment?
Answer:

1. Pie chart tells us the percentage of employment in different sectors from 1972-73 to 2009-10 years.
2. Agriculture sector provide highest percentage of employment.
3. In Industrial sector employment increased twice.
4. By 2009-10, the services sector is in second place in employment.

Question 5.
When people buy groceries, they may have their groceries packed in plastic bags, paper bags, or cloth bags they bring with them.
Which type of grocery bag is the best to help protect the environment?
a) Plastic
b) Paper
c) Cloth
Explain in what way your choice of bag can help protect the environment.
Answer:

• My choice is paper bag and cloth bag. Both are best to use.
• We should not use plastic bags as they are threat to environment.
• Plastic bags are not eco – friendly: They won’t decompose quickly, if you burn them also it will take time to mix with soil.
• Recently in Vijayawada, some areas of the city drowned in rainwater because all the sewage drains were filled with bunches of plastic bags.
• But paper and cloth bags will decompose in very short period and completely eco friendly.
• Paper bags made by wood pulp it may cause deforestation.
• Cloth bags made of cotton, quickly it decomposes.

9th Class Social 7th Lesson Industries in India Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Why are the infrastructure facilities important in establishing industries?
Answer:

• Building of roads, good transport facilities, power supply and telephone connections, etc. can be termed as infrastructural facilities.
• Factories need raw materials. These raw materials are to be transported to the factory sites. Hence good road ways and other facilities are needed.
• Factories need power to run machines. Hence all infrastructure facilities are needed.

Question 2.
Why are industries important?
Answer:
In industrial sector, the raw materials are worked upon by people and changed using tools and machines to produce a good that can be useful.
The importance of industries :
i) Industries provide a wide range of products :
There are plenty of goods made in factories. Ranging from paper and other stationery, fridges to cars, batteries, bulbs and other electrical appliances.

ii) Industries are expected to employ a large section of people looking for jobs :

1. Generating employment to work in factories is generally considered as one of the indicators of development and improvement of well being of people.
2. Employment in industries has increased from 11% in 1972-73 to 22% in 2009-10.

iii) Industries are important source of export incomes:

1. We earn a lot of foreign exchange by selling industrial goods to foreign countries.
2. Even today, nearly two-thirds of goods exported is contributed by industries.

Question 3.
What were the restrictions introduced by the government during the early years of industrialization?
Answer:

• Many industrial activities were allowed only for small producers. For example, production of cloth of specific quality was restricted to handlooms.
• Government made laws so that the large factory owners get prior permission or license to set up factories. This was done so that there would be better planning.
• The government regulated the quantity of goods produced by factories.
• The price at which they can be sold was also fixed.

All these restrictions were introduced keeping in view the welfare of the people.

Question 4.
Industrial policies of the early years became hindrance to the growth of industry. Explain.
Answer:

• Entrepreneurs were required to follow so many procedures and had to wait for many years to get the approval from the government offices.
• Licenses were not given to the most efficient producers.
• The selection was biased in favour of people with political connections and the economically powerful.
• All this discouraged new entrepreneurs who would work with latest technology available.
• Further control on prices led to shortage of goods. E.g.: Scooters.
• Such shortages were common for important basic goods like coal and cement, which in turn caused a lot of delay in production of other goods.
• Another problem was lack of quality of some of goods.
• There were restrictions on the import and export of industrial goods including machinery and raw materials.
• Prices were laid down by the government and the producers had to sell only at that price.
  So the above restrictions acted as hindrance to the growth of industry.

Question 5.
Write about the impact of industrial policies.
Answer:
The following are the impacts of industrial policies of government.
i) Rise in the number of industrial units:
Today nearly 2 lakh large factories and 3 crore small factories are operating in India.

ii) Employment has increased but less than expected:
Both small and large scale employ nearly about one-fifth of India’s 460 million workers.

iii) Low salaries and less working conditions:
A large section of workers are employed in small units which generally pay very low salary and devoid of workers safety conditions and health benefits.

iv) Production of factory-based goods has increased:
Establishment of basic industries resulted in increased production of factory based goods.

1. The production of coal and lignite has increased from 32 million tons in 1950-51 to 571 million tons in 2010-11.
2. The production of steel has increased from 10 million tones in 1980-81 to 70 million tons in 2010-11.
3. There was also a significant increase in the production of crude oil and cement etc.

v) Increase in environmental problems, land conflicts and pollution:
These industries release a lot of waste materials into the atmosphere and into the tanks and wells causing lots of air pollution and damaging water resources. The air pollution is causing skin diseases and respiratory diseases.

Question 6.
At the time of independence what were the objectives that were desired to be achieved through industrialization?
Answer:

1. After 1947, India began many initiatives to promote industrial activities in the country.
2. Major objectives were – to become self-sufficient in meeting our needs and to make the country an industrially developed nation.

Question 7.
Where should the sugar and jaggery mills be ideally located?
Answer:
The sugar and jaggery milis should be ideally located near the crop grown areas.

Question 8.
Where would it be economically viable to set up the cement manufacturing units?
Answer:
Cement manufacturing units can be established near the areas where the raw materials are available in bulk.

Raw materials :
Limestone, silica, alumina, gypsum, coal and electric power and transportation facilities.

Question 9.
Name the important centres of cotton textiles in Gujarat.
Answer:
Ahmedabad, Vadodara, Surat, Rajkot and Porbandar.

Question 10.
Where are the silk textile industries located in Jammu and Kashmir?
Answer:
In Baramula, Srinagar and Anantanag.

Question 11.
What are the basic requirements of industrialization?
Answser:

• Industrialization means to develop a large number of different factories.
• For industrialization, we have certain basic requirements.
• They are machines, electricity, minerals and ores and transport facilities.

Question 12.
What factors influence the selection of an industrial location?
Answer:

• Industrial locations are complex in nature.
• These are influenced by raw material labour, capital, power, and market, etc.
• It is rarely possible to find all these factors available at one place.
• So industries are located where these factors even can be arranged at lower cost.

Question 13.
What is an agrobased industry?
Answer:
The industries which are based on agricultural products are called ‘agrobased industries’.

Question 14.
Why do you think cotton textile industry is concentrated in Maharashtra and Gujarat?
Answer:

• Many factors support the concentration of cotton textile industry in Maharashtra and Gujarat.
• Availability of raw cotton, market, transport including accessible port facilities, moist climate etc. are some factors.
• Apart from these, availability of abundunt electricity at cheap prices and availability of skilled and unskilled labour in abundance add to those factors.
• These places also have investment supports from Banks and international market demands.
• Above factors help the flourishing of cotton textile industry in Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Question 15.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.

Challenges faced by the industry include stiff competition in the international market from synthetic substitutes and from other competitors like Bangladesh, Brazil, Philippines, Egypt and Thailand. However, the internal demand has been on the increase due to the Government policy of mandatory use of jute packaging. To stimulate demand, the products need to be diversified. In 2005, National Jute Policy was formulated with the objective of increasing production, improving quality, ensuring good prices to the jute farmers and enhancing the yield per hectare. The main markets are U.S.A., Canada, Russia, United Arab Republic, U.K. and Australia. The growing global concern for environment friendly, biodegradable materials, has once again opened the opportunity for jute products.

1) What is the industry mentioned in the above passage?
Answer:
Jute industry.

2) What are the challenges faced by the industry?
Answer:
Challenges faced by the industry include stiff competition in the international market from synthetic substitutes and from other competitors like Bangladesh, Brazil, Philippines, Egypt and Thailand.

3) When was National Jute Policy formulated?
Answer:
In 2005.

4) Name the main markets mentioned in the passage.
Answer:
USA, Canada, Russia, United Arab Republic, UK and Australia.

5) To stimulate demand, the products need to be
Answer:
diversified.

Question 16.
Discuss what is meant by the word “basic”? What are the basic necessities for industries?
Answer:

• “Basic” means the things that are basically necessary.
• The basic necessities for setting up any industries are machines, electricity, minerals and ores and infrastructural facilities like transport, telephone, etc.

Question 17.
Today West Bengal is the dominant state in Jute Industry. How is it able to become like that?
Answer:

• Most Jute mills in India are in West Bengal, mainly along the banks of the Hugli river 98 km long and 3 km wide.
• Hugli basin is in proximity of Jute producing areas, inexpensive water transport, supported by a good network of railways, roadways and waterways to facilitate movement of raw materials to mills.
• Abundant water for processing of raw jute, cheap labour from West Bengal, Bihar, Odisha and Uttar Pradesh.
• Kolkata provides banking, insurance and port facilities for export of jute goods.
• It provides direct or indirect employment to more than 40 lakh people.

Question 18.
Name the problems that are faced in the Iron and Steel industry?
Answer:

• It needs huge capital investment, which is difficult for developing country India.
• Indian technology is now far behind the advanced countries.
• Low per capita productivity and low potential utilization are to be addressed.
• Even at a low per capita consumption, demand for our production is not sufficient.
• Now we are importing iron and steel by spending precious foreign exchange.
• All the above problems needed to be solved.

Question 19.
Locate the following industrial cities on the outline map of India. City

City	Industries Concentrated
Jamshedpur	Iron and Steel company
Ahmedabad	Textile industry
Mumbai	Textile, oil refinery, fertilizers, etc.
Visakhapatnam	BHPV, Steel Plant, Ship building, etc.
Chennai	Cement, Cotton, Railway coaches, etc.
Rourkela	Iron and Steel industry
Kanpur	Leather industry
Madurai	Cotton textile industry
Luduiana	Leather industry
Varanasi	Diesel locomotives

Question 20.
Observe the following map and answer the questions given below.

1) Where do you find both cotton and woollen textiles?
Answer:
In Ahmedabad and Kanpur.

2) What is the South India state famous for silk textiles?
Answer:
Karnataka.

3) Name the important centres of cotton textiles in Gujarat.
Answer:
Ahmedabad, Vadodara, Surat, Rajkot and Porbandar.

4) Which type of textile industries are in major position in Maharashtra?
Answer:
Cotton textile industries.

5) Where are the silk textile industries located in Jammu and Kashmir?
AIn Baramula, Srinagar and Anantanag.

Question 21.
Observe the following map.

Now answer the questions given below.
1) What are the minerals mentioned in the map?
Answer:
Iron ore, manganese, bauxite and mica.

2) In which states do you find iron ore mines?
Answrr:
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Odisha and Chattisgarh.

3) What are the iron ore ex-porting ports mentioned in the map?
Answer:Visakhapatnam, Managalore, Marmagao and Paradwip.

4) Where can we find mica in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
In Nellore.

5) What is the mineral found in Rajasthan?
A. Mica.

Question 22.
Observe the following map.

Now answer the questions given below.
1) Which state is Raniganj coal mine located in?
Answer:
West Bengal

2) Where is the coal field located in Tamilnadu?
Answer:
Neyveli

3) Name the important coal mine of Telangana.
Answer:
Singareni

4) What is the coa! field that belongs to Chattisgarh?
Answer:
Korba

Question 23.
What steps are to be taken to reduce the problems of pollution?
Answer:

• We should stop effluent flow into water bodies.
• Provide safety drinking wafer to the affected villages.
• Continuous vigilance in discharge of effluents.
• Medical care to pollution victims.
• Cancellation of licence to pollution causing industries.

Question 24.
What measures would you suggest to overcome the problems of Textile Industry?
Answer:

• Care should be taken to increase the supply of raw material.
• Obsolute machinery which resulting in low productivity and inferior quality should be replaced.
• Government should provide adequate power to textile industry.
• Care should be taken that textile industry shall not lost in the stiff competition with power loom and synthetic fiber products.
• Many textile mills are sick, government should help them run properly.

Question 25.
What suggestions would you make to improve jute industry?
Answer:

• The best way to solve the problems of jute industry is to increase production.
• There is an urgent need to replace the old machinery.
• Jute mills are needed to be modernized.
• New Jute products are to be developed.
• The product range of jute is to be diversified.

These AP 8th Class Social Studies Important Questions 16th Lesson Abolition of Zamindari System will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 8th Class Social 16th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Abolition of Zamindari System

Question 1.
While the slogan Land to the Tiller meant that the tenant will get the land, what will happen to the landless agricultural worker, who works for wages?
Answer:
The conditions of the tenants were somehow improved. But the conditions of the landless agricultural workers remain the same. They are still in the same poverty.

Question 2.
Some people feel that the land reform laws only tried to help the landlords. Do you agree with them?
Answer:
Yes, I agree with them.
Giving compensation to the zamindars, continuing them as owners of the Khudkasht etc., reveal this.

Question 3.
Do you think there was any other way of giving gainful employment to the rural poor?
Answer:
At present there are many ways of giving gainful employment. But there were less opportunities at that time. The British destroyed the occupational system of India. The people lost all their chances of employment. So I think there were no other ways.

Question 4.
How many acres of land does a family of four persons need to get a decent living in your area? (Give the figures separately for both irrigated and unirrigated land.)
Answer:
A family of four persons needs 8 acres of irrigated land and 30 acres of dry land to get a decent living in our area.

Question 5.
To what extent did the landless service castes benefit from these reforms?
Answer:
They were not benefited in any way from these reforms.

Question 6.
Why did the Land Ceiling Act become necessary?
Answer:
Many Acts after independence have not changed the ownership of lands in India. It changed Zamindars as landlords, landlords as big farmers. But it did nothing to the common poor.
The ownership of the land was only a few hands. So the Land Ceiling Act became necessary.

Question 7.
Why was the end to vetti important for all kinds of peasants?
Answer:
‘Vetti’ is a black spot for humanity. Many struggles were led against this. So the end of it was important for all kinds of peasants.

Question 8.
Is vettis prevalent still in your region ? If it is there, prepare a report?
Answer:
No, at present vetti is not prevalent in my region. But it is not completely abolished from our society still in some villages the poor people who are taken money from land lords for their needs, they are unable to repay that, due to this they are working in their lands as bounded labourers.

Question 9.
Why do you think the spirit of Bhoodan did not help to end landlordism and get land to the tiller?
Answer:
In this movement the landlords should donate their land with their own interest. This kind of humanity was not in them. Some of them donated only ‘Banjar’ and ‘Porambok’ lands only instead of cultivated land. 90% of the fertile lands were remained with the landlords. So the movement did not help to end landlordism and get land to the tiller.

These AP 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 20th Lesson Post – War World and India will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social 20th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Post – War World and India

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand UNICEF.
Answer:
United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund.

Question 2.
Who formulated the ‘NATO’, the military alliance?
Answer:
United States of America / America.

Question 3.
Why do you think the cooperation between India and Bangladesh is vital for both countries?
Answer:

1. Both the countries have cooperated on the economic front and river water.
2. Bangladesh Is an integral part of the In¬dian look East Policy’ to link up South Asia via Myanmar and both have cooperation on disaster management.

Question 4.
What is the boundary line between China and India?
Answer:
Mc Mahon Line is the boundary line between China and India.

Question 5.
Explain the terms bipolarity and unipolarity.
Answer:

1. Under the leadership of USA and USSR, the world divided into two power blocks after World War – II with different ideologies. This situation is called as bipolarity.
2. After the collapse of the USSR, only the USA remained as a super power in the world. This situation is called as unipolarity.

Question 6.
What is the non-alignment movement?
Answer:
The policy followed by newly independent countries after Second World War, without involving in any of the military blocks, following neutrality in international politics.

Question 7.
What is Cold War?
Answer:
The absence of real fighting as in traditional wars is called the cold war. The cold war characterized by the intense tension between the USA and the USSR during 1945 to 1991.

Question 8.
Write any two objectives of U.N.O.
Answer:

1. Maintains peace and security.
2. Improvement of educational and health facilities.
3. Protecting human rights.
4. Respecting international law

Question 9.
What is Panchsheel?
Answer:
In 1954 a treaty was held between India and China which incorporated the principles of non-interference in other’s internal affairs and respect for each other’s territorial unity, integrity and sovereignty. These principles are known as Panchsheel.

Question 10.
How was the USSR escaped from the Great Depression?
Answer:
The USSR escaped from the Great Depression:

1. USSR was not integrated with international markets.
2. It had a planed economy.
3. Maintained a balance between demand and supply.

Question 11.
Observe the following graph and answer the questions ‘a’ and ‘b’.
a) During 1955-2005, which country had the highest number of warheads?
Answer:
USSR / Russia.

b) What is the reason for decreasing in nuclear stockpiles after 1985?
Answer:

1. Tremendous public pressure.
2. Ban on nuclear tests.

Question 12.
What is the aim of “Zionist movement”?
Answer:
The aim of the Zionist Movement is to unite the Jews spread across the world and to reclaim Palestine their homeland and build a separate state for the Jews.

Question 13.
Write any two principles of Panchasheel.
Answer:

1. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
2. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
3. Non-aggression and settlement of dis-putes with mutual understanding.
4. Endeavor to achieve cooperation and mutual respect in international relationships.
5. Promoting peaceful coexistence.

Observe the following map and answer questions 14 & 15.

Question 14.
What does the above map tell?
Answer:
The given map tells about cold war military alliances.

Question 15.
Why is united kingdom called an Island?
Answer:
United kingdom is called as an Island because it is covered by water on all the sides.

Question 16.
What are the basic principles of the UNO?
Answer:
The basic principles of the United Nations Organisation are preserving peace, upholding human rights, respecting international law and promoting social progress.

Question 17.
What were the three of the most important processes?
Answer:
Even as the war-devastated countries rebuilt their economics, the world saw some new processes in place. Three of the most important processes were the establishment of the United Nations, Cold War and Decolonisation.

Question 18.
Who drafted a charter for the formation of the UNO?
Answer:
The principle Allied countries like Britain, France, the USA, the USSR and China drafted a Charter for the formation of the UNO even as the war drew to an end.

Question 19.
Write the number of members of the UNO.
Answer:
At the time of its establishment UN had membership of 54 countries and today (2018 ) there are 193 countries.

Question 20.
Which is the main body in the UNO?
Answer:
The General Assembly.

Question 21.
Who are the permanent members of the Security Council?
Answer:
China, France, United Kingdom; USSR (now Russia) and USA.

Question 22.
Explain the ‘Veto Power’.
Answer:
Any decision taken by Council can be vetoed (made invalid or rejected) by the intervention of even anyone of these countries.
(OR)
The power is given to the permanent members to accept or reject any proposal in the UNO.

Question 23.
Name some third world countries.
Answer:
Countries emerging from colonial domination like Vietnam, Korea, Angola, and Afghanistan.

Question 24.
Who got independence in 1960 and what happened then?
Answer:
The Belgian colony in Africa, Congo, got independence in 1960. But its radical communist leader, Patrice Lumumba, was killed in 1961, allegedly at the behest of US spy agency called CIA.

Question 25.
When did Angola become independent?
Answer:
Angola became independent from Portugal in November 1975.

Question 26.
What was the place of the USSR in space race ?
Answer:
The USSR put the first satellite Sputnik and the first human Yuri Gagarin in space.

Question 27.
Whom did the US send to the moon?
Answer:
The US sent Neil Armstrong and others to the Moon in 1969.

Question 28.
What were the core concerns of the people of recently de-colonised?
Answer:
The core concerns of people, especially those who were recently de-colonized like poverty, disease, inequality and colonialism were not addressed by any of these issues of contention.

Question 29.
What does West Asia refer to?
Answer:
West Asia refers to the region between Europe and Asia. The term Middle East is also used to describe this area.

Question 30.
What was called the ‘Zionist Movement’?
Answer:
A movement had developed among the Jews called the ‘Zionist Movement’ which called for uniting Jews spread across the world and to reclaim Palestine as their homeland and build a separate state of Jews.

Question 31.
Who are Palestinians?
Answer:
Palestinians were mostly Arab Muslims.

Question 32.
When and where was the PLO established?
Answer:
The PLO was established in 1964 in Jordon and added a new dimension by bringing together all different Arab factions. Its aim was to regain the land it lost, without violence.

Question 33.
Why did the US become unpopular?
Answer:
The US became unpopular because it supported undemocratic regimes in the Middle East so that the oil resources were available to the US and its allies.

Question 34.
What is the main bone of contention between India and Pakistan?
Answer:
The main bone of contention between the two countries is Kashmir.

Question 35.
Expand POK.
Answer:
Pakistan Occupied Kashmir.

Question 36.
Who was ‘U Thant’?
Answer:
U Thant was the then Secretary-General of UNO.

Question 37.
What was ‘Mukti Bahini ?
Answer:
Supporters of Mujibur Rahman organized a liberation struggle in the form of ‘Mukti Bahini’.

Question 38.
Who signed Shimla Agreement?
Answer:
Zulfikar Ali Bhutto and Prime Minister Indira Gandhi.

Question 39.
Who fought the Kargil War?
Answer:
India and Pakistan fought the Kargil war.

Question 40.
When was Bangladesh liberated?
Answer:
Bangladesh was liberated from Pakistan with the help of Indian troops in 1972.

Question 41.
What is IPKF?
Answer:
It is the Indian Peace Keeping Force in Sri Lanka.

Question 42.
What is a proxy war?
Answer:
A war instigated by a major power that does not itself participate.

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the following map and answer the questions:
a) Name any two countries of ’NATO’ at the founding (establishment) time.
Answer:
France and Iceland.

b) Name any two countries which were under the ‘WARSAW’.
Answer:
Poland and Czekoslovakia.

Question 2.
Read the passage and answer the following questions.

To emphasise the determination for peace, Jawaharlal Nehru formulated his renowned Panchsheel principles :
a. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
b. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
c. Non-aggression and settlement of disputes with mutual understanding.
d. Endeavour to achieve cooperation and mutual respect in international relationships.
e. Promoting peaceful co-existence.

i) In between which countries, the Panchsheel was formulated?
Answer:
India and China.

ii) Mention any two principles of Panchsheel.
Answer:

1. Respect for each other’s sovereignty and territorial integrity.
2. Non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries.
3. Non-aggression and settlement of disputes with mutual understanding.
4. Endeavour to achieve co-operation and mutual respect in international relationships.
5. Promoting peaceful co-existence.

Question 3.
Read the following paragraph and answer the given questions.

Both USA and USSR were in the possession of nuclear weapons but knew very well neither would be the winner in a nuclear war. Yet, they formed military and strategic alliances – the west formalised its alliances in an organisation known as North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO) in 1949. To counter this, Communist nations made similar alliances and signed the Warsaw Pact. In addition to this, U.S. established regional military and strategic alliances like South East Asian Treaty Organisation (SEATO) and Central Treaty Organisation (CENTO).

a) What is the counter Pact to NATO?
Answer:
Warsaw pact.

b) Name the two regional military and strategic alliances of the USA.
Answer:
South-East Asian Treaty Organization (SEATO) and the Central Treaty Organization (CENTO).

Question 4.
Read the understand the following text to answer the question given below.

The UN thus started with a twin objective of ensuring lasting peace and human development. At the same time it recognised the autonomy of states and promised not to interfere in any internal affair of a country except in cases mandated by serious human rights violation or threat to world peace.

Comment on the objectives of the UN.
Answer:

1. United Nations Organisation has the objectives of ensuring lasting peace and human development.
2. The UN protects the human rights.
3. It recognized the autonomy of states and promised.
4. Except in extreme conditions UN does not interfere in the internal affairs of any country.

Question 5.
Observe the following Map and answer the questions given below.
A) Write any two countries which are sharing boundary with India on the North-eastern side.
Answer:
Nepal, Bhutan, Bangladesh.

B) Mention two countries which are sharing sea-boundary with India.
Answer:
Srilanka, Maldives.

Question 6.
Give an account of the present status of relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:

1. The differences regarding the Kashmir issue have been still continuing.
2. Along with the constant efforts to establish peace, India is trying to maintain good relations in the fields of trade and commerce, sports and tourism with Pakistan.

Question 7.
Analyse the below graph and write your observations.

Answer:

1. After World War II the world has been divided into two main political camps.
2. USSR led socialistic camp.
3. USA led the capitalist block.
4. Both USSR and USA competed for nuclear stockpiles.
5. By 1965 US had more nuclear stockpiles.
6. USSR competed with USA and increased its stockpiles. By 1985 it has the highest nuclear stockpiles.
7. By 2005 both countries reduced their stocks of nuclear weapons.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the Cold War?
Answer:
Cold War: Ideological differences between America and Russia is called Cold War.

1. It is an indirect war. There is no real war.
2. It created mutual hatred, misbelief and enmity between Communist Russia and Capitalist USA.
3. Both the USA and the USSR were in the possession of nuclear weapons.
4. They maintained secret alliances and treaties. Ex: NATO, WARSAW.
5. Always they created a tension of war.
6. As the rival powers accumulated destructive weapons the world was constantly threatened by a nuclear holocaust.
7. People of all countries lived in constant fear of war.

Question 9.
What suggestions do you give to maintain friendly relations with neighbouring countries?
Answer:

1. No country at the present time can afford to exist in isolation.
2. From its very inception, they have to maintain a friendly relation with their neighbouring countries.
3. Maintain mutual confidence and trust based on the heart to heart.
4. Rejects the role of military power and committed to peace.
5. Should have greater understanding and cooperation among the people of neighbouring nations.
6. Should maintain friendly relations with neighbouring countries and blossom secularism, democracy and freedom here.
7. We should share peace and prosperity with the neighbouring countries.

Question 10.
Write briefly about the present relations between India and Pakistan.
Answer:
Pakistan was separated from India and formed in 1947 as an Independent country. It is still supporting separation movements in Jammu and Kashmir in India. Pakistan is sending extremists to India to create some instability. India accuses that Pakistan is encouraging to send fake notes to India. It is violating the cease-fire conditions and causing for civilians and soldiers’ deaths. Modi visited Pakistan and discussed with the Prime Minister but the problem is not solved. India answered with surgical strikes. It was a great loss for Pakistan. I think both countries should sit together and solve the problems to concentrate on development.

Question 11.
Suggest measures for better relations between China and India.
Answer:
Since 1962 India, China relations are not good and fair.

• Each should respect another country.
• Panchsheel principles should be followed.
• Settle disputes mutually with bilateral discussions.
• Both countries should understand that they lose much more if there would be a war.

Question 12.
Read the map and answer the following questions.
a) Name the countries that did not enter into any of the military alliances.
Answer:
Sweden, Finland, Switzerland and Ireland were the countries that did notenter into any of the military alliances.

b) State your analysis on the above map.
Answer:

1. Most of the East European countries signed on Warsaw pact.
2. Most of the West European countries signed on NATO pact.

Question 13.
How was the USA after World War – II?
Answer:
The USA suffered less as the war was not fought on its territories. In fact, the Second World War helped the USA grow out of its economic misery caused by the Great Depression. Far from the theatres of war, the industries and agriculture of the USA prospered. This ensured full employment and high productivity in the US during the Second World War. In March 1945, the US President, Harry Truman, said, ‘We have emerged from this War the most powerful nation in the world – the most powerful nation, perhaps, in all history.

Question 14.
How many organs are there in U.N.O? What are they?
Answer:
There are six organs in U.N.O.

1. The General Assembly
2. The Security Council
3. The Trusteeship Council
4. The Economic and Social Council
5. The International Court of Justice
6. The Secretariat

Question 15.
Explain the organs of the U.N.O.
Answer:
The UN works through six different organs. Each of these organs has specific functions like maintaining peace and security, improving education and health facilities, alleviating poverty, providing justice in the context of international crimes and so on. Some bodies responsible for these functions include International Court of Justice located in Hague; the World Health Organisation located at Geneva, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation functioning from Paris, and United Nations Children’s Emergency Fund functioning from New York.

Question 16.
What are the specialised agencies of U.N.O.?
Answer:
The specialised agencies of U.N.O. are

1. UNICEF,
2. UNESCO,
3. FAO,
4. ILO,
5. IBRD,
6. IMF,
7. WHO,
8. UPU

What are the achievements of UNO?
Answer:

1. UNO has under taken complex operations like peace making, peace keeping, humanitarian assistance and disarmament etc.
2. UNO intervened the issues of struggles of many countries and prevented them to more towards war – Ex: Cyprus issue.
3. It encouraged bilateral discussions among countries to solve issues. Ex: Kashmir issue.
4. Disarmament, CTBT etc. are the achievements of UNO that helped to reduce the piling up of armaments.
   Ex:
   1. UN helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis (1962), Middle East crisis (1973).
   2. UN-sponsored peace settlement ended Iran – Iraq war in 1988.
   3. UN-sponsored negotiations led to withdrawal of soviet troops from Afghanistan.

Question 17.
Which were the worst affected countries in World War – II?
Answer:
The worst affected were the European countries especially the USSR, Poland and Yugoslavia which lost about 20% of its population. In economic terms to the USSR and other European countries lost heavily with the destruction of cities.

Question 18.
Why had the World War – II been fought? (OR)
What led to the formation of UNO?
Answer:
The Second World War had been fought on the principles of peace, democracy and freedom of nations in contrast to the Nazi ideas of dictatorship and Imperialism. Thus, the first task was to establish a global organisation that would ensure peace and development in all nations. This led to the formation of the United Nations Organisation.

Question 19.
Is the UNO successful in preventions wars?
Answer:
While the UN has been doing commendable work in the area of education, health, cultural exchange and protection of heritage, it has been less successful in preventing wars. It has often been held hostage to the ambitions of the super-powers that sought world control.

Question 20.
Which is called a Cold war?
Answer:
For more than forty-five years after the Second World War, a rather strange war was fought between the two blocks. It was a war in which the principal contenders did not physically attack each other or fight each other directly and hence, there was no ‘hot’ war. Instead, a War was fought behind closed doors through propaganda and words. It is called the Cold War.

Question 21.
Why is it called the Cold war?
Answer:
It is called the Cold War simply because of the absence of a real fighting as in traditional wars.
This Cold War characterised by intense tension between the United States and the USSR, influenced and shaped almost everything that happened in the world between 1945 and 1991.

Question 22.
What was the result of Afghanisthan invasion by the USSR?
Answer:
In 1971 the USSR invaded Afghanistan to install a friendly government there. The US in turn provided armed support to Afghan rebels who were also religious extremists. A prolonged civil war ensued and as the USSR decided to withdraw from Afghanistan in 1985 that country fell to religious extremists led by the Taliban which now turned against the USA.

Question 23.
How did the Alliances help the superpowers?
Answer:
The alliances helped superpowers which wanted to expand their influence to gain access to

• the vital resources like oil and minerals
• markets for their products and places to safely invest their capital
• military bases to launch their troops and weapons
• spread their ideology and
• gain economic support, to pay huge military expenses.

Question 24.
Explain the significance of the Bandung conference.
Answer:

1. In 1955 at Bandung in Indonesia a conference was held.
2. It was the first Asio-African conference represented by 29 nations.
3. The most important leaders of this conference were Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru the then Prime Minister of India, Gamal Abdul Nasser the leader of Egypt and Josip Broz Tito the leader of – Yugoslavia.
4. Pt. Nehru was acknowledged as the chief spokes person.
5. It paved the way for Non-Aligned Movement (NAM).

Question 25.
What are often described as the West Asian Crises? Write about them.
Answer:
The conflicts that developed between Arabs and Jews are often described as the West Asian Crises. It was mainly related to the occupation of Palestine. Palestine which was inhabited by Arabs was under the control of Britain before the Second World War. In it is situated Jerusalem which is a holy city for Jews, Christians and Muslims alike.

Question 26.
Write about the Taliban of Afghanistan.
Answer:
The Taliban which took over Afghanistan after the withdrawal of Soviet troops similarly established an extremist Islamic state. These states tried to force all people to strictly follow the rules laid down in religious texts. In many cases, this meant the denial of basic freedom and equality of opportunity to women and to religious minorities.

Question 27.
Write about Mikhail Gorbachev.
Answer:
Mikhail Gorbachev in the USSR tried to transform the politics of USSR by making it more open and bringing about radical changes. He was a liberal who introduced certain reforms for the revival of their economy and promoted healthy relations with the West. The reforms introduced by the open regime are often described as ‘Glasnost’and ‘Perestroika’.

Question 28.
Study the graph and answer the following questions.
1. Which country had spent more on Military Expenditure in its GDP?
Answer:
Pakistan had spent more on military expenditure as % GDP.

2. What does the graph show?
Answer:
The graph shows India’s and Pakistan’s Military Expenditures.

3. Analyze the above graph.
Answer:

1. The above graph shows the military expenses of India and Pakistan.
2. In comparison, our country spent much on military than Pakistan.
3. But in GDP values Pakistan spent much on the military in terms of GDP.

Question 29.
Why is China considering India as an adversary?
Answer:
India gave asylum to Dalai Lama, this caused a conflict, and Chinese started considering India as an adversary. Prior to this, a border dispute had surfaced between India and China. China never accepted Mac Mohan Line as a boundary line between China and India. China laid claim to Aksai- chin area in Ladakh region and much of Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 30.
Write about the Indo-China war of 1962.
Answer:
China invaded India in October 1962 violating the peace treaties it signed with India. India was not prepared for this surprise attack and suffered many losses. Eventually, China declared a unilateral ceasefire and withdrew its troops to its pre-war position. It took more than a decade to resume normal relations. Full diplomatic relations were restored only in 1976.

Question 31.
How has the Non-Alignment Movement emerged?
Answer:

1. A large number of developing countries that had attained independence after the World War II, during the cold war era, in order to maintain their hard-won freedom, decided to stay away from the arena of superpower rivalry.
2. Non-Alignment movement emerged under the leadership of India, Egypt and Yugoslavia came into existence which added a new dimension to world politics.

10th Class Social 20th Lesson Post – War World and India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Observe the Europe map and write any two countries from the WARSA pool and any two countries from the NATO pool.
Answer:

NATO Pool	WARSA Pool
USA	Poland
Canada	Albania
Belgium	Romania
Denmark	Bulgaria
France	Flungary, etc.
Portugal
Britain, etc.

Question 2.
Observe the graph given below and answer the following questions.
1. Which country has more nuclear stock piles during 1955-1975?
Answer:
United States of America.

2. What is the number of warheads that United States had in 1965?
Answer:
Nearly 30,000.

3. What led the countries to emerge camps after Second World War?
Answer:

1. Ideological conflicts between US and USSR.
2. For military supremacy and to gain economic supremacy lead the countries to emerge camps after the Second World War.

4. Why the countries decreased their nuclear stockpiles after 1990?
Answer:

1. Realised that war mongering and the consequent arms race only made the world more unsafe and increased the possibility of a disastrous war for all countries.
2. As a result of the pressures the USA and USSR, the main competitors in the arms race, signed on cut down their nuclear arsenal (SALT, START).
3. Cold war came to an end with the collapses of USSR in 1991; is also another reason for this.

Question 3.
What steps both India and China should take to build lasting peace between the two countries?
Answer:

1. Both countries should respect the sovereignty of each other.
2. Border disputes should be resolved peacefully.
3. Diplomatic relations should be enhanced.
4. One country should not treat the other one as its competitor.
5. The spirit of the ‘Panchasheel Pact’ should be followed by both the countries.
6. Friendship should be enhanced through cultural exchange.

Question 4.
Why is peace between India and Pakistan necessary for the development of both countries?
Answer:

1. Both India and Pakistan have nuclear status and in this scenario the need of peace process between them is much more important than ever before.
2. Any kind of conventional armed conflict can change into a nuclear war.
3. So the peace process should be based on the development of both the countries.
4. For social, political and economical development of both the countries, peace should be established between them.

Question 5.
What is the NAM? What are its main objectives?
Answer:
NAM:

1. Not joining in any powerful block either the USA block or the USSR block.
2. Maintaining equal distance and behave independently.

Objectives:

1. Maintain the world peace.
2. Maintain cooperation among the member nations.
3. To prevent any of the newly decolonised independent countries from joining any of the military blocks.
4. Estimate the growing cold war tensions and its impact on the world at large.

Question 6.
What is the role of the UNO in maintaining world peace?
Answer:
In order to build peace in the world the U.N.O. plays its prominent role as below.
The U.N.O. was established on 24th October, 1945.

1. It prevented the Cold War.
2. It succeeded in getting independence to Indonesia from the Dutch.
3. It solved the dispute in Palestine between Arabs and Jews by creating a separate state of Israel for Jews.
4. It succeeded in averting a war between England and Egypt over Suez Canal issue.
5. It created pressure on Russia and the U.S.A. to the reducing of nuclear weapons.
6. It helped Congo to get freedom.
7. U.N. helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis, middle east crisis.
8. UN sponsored peace settlement ended Iran – Iraq war.
9. UN sponsored negotiations led to the withdrawal of Soviet troops from Afghanistan.
10. It helped Cyprus to avert conflict between Greeks and Turks.
11. When Pakistan resorted to aggression over Kashmir it intervened and tried to avert the war between India and Pakistan.
12. It helped to Angola to get independence from Portugal.
13. So far it has been able to prevent a Third World War.

Question 7.
Write a detailed note on West Asian conflicts.
Answer:
Jerusalem is a holy city for Jews, Christians, Muslims alike. The Jews consider Palestine as their Promised Land. The conflict came to ahead in Germany under the Nazis when millions of Jews of Europe were jailed and killed. Zionist movement spread across the world and tried to reclaim Palestine as their homeland. This demand was supported by the Western powers. Both the USA and the USSR wanted to bring this region of massive oil reserves under their control. UN divided into two parts Arab and the Jewish states. The Arabs refused to recognize Israel as a legitimate state. Egypt came in support of Palestine but in 1956 Israel attacked Egypt with the support of Western Powers. Israel withdrew the army. The Palestine Liberation Organization encouraged the Arabs to attack. Israel. Yasser Arafat carried out terrorist attacks. Later he gave up terrorist attacks and agreed to find a peaceful solution. He died in 2004 and the Palestinians are still fighting for their homeland.

Question 8.
Observe the following table and analyze it with regard to the trend of nuclear weapons stockpiles.
Nuclear Weapons Stockpiles (1990 – 2014)

Country	1990	1995	2000	2005	2014
USA	10,904	10,577	8,360	7,700	7,260
Russia / USSR	37,000	27,000	21,500	17,000	7,500

Answer:
The given table is about nuclear weapons stockpiles during the period 1990-2014. In this table the superpowers United States of America and Union of Soviet Socialist Republic are compared. In the beginning, the frequency of period is five years but in the ending 2014 is given immediately after 2005. During 1990 the nuclear weapons stockpiles with both the countries are high. United States of America has 10,904 whereas Union of Soviet Socialist Republic has 37,000. This is about four times more than the weapons of USA. The wonder is that 1995 onwards the number of stockpiles is reducing. It has many reasons. It is the experience of 1945 nuclear bomb blast of Hiroshima and Nagasaki of Japan. Millions of civilians also died in that blast. Second World War brought various experiences to the world. Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaties are also the reasons. UNO also brought awareness among the nations. Human Rights Commissions also tried well. During 2014 the USSR brought the weapons down to 7500 only. This is really drastic reduce. In 1990 the USSR has four times more weapons to the USA whereas during 2014 it is only about 300 more weapons. All the countries should think that if nuclear weapons are used in the wars, there will be much destruction to the mankind. Superpowers and developing countries also concentrate on reducing the nuclear weapons. Recently North Korea tested these weapons and created much tension among the counties. So everyone should respect peace.

Question 9.
Is Veto power to a few countries in the UNO, helping or barrier for World Peace? Discuss.
Answer:
Some times Veto power is working as a barrier and also helpful to world peace.
How it is a barrier:

1. Often the great powers themselves involved in many of the conflicts used their Veto power to block any action by the U.N.O.
2. Sometimes they have also used their power to force the UN to bend to their dictates.

How it is helping :
The special powers also have given the great powers a special role and responsibility in preserving world peace.
U.N.O created pressure on Russia and the USA to the reducing of nuclear weapons.
U.N.O helped to defuse Cuban missile crisis.

However, the very existence of a forum like UN, has forced great powers to exercise moderation and self-control.

Question 10.
Observe the given graph and analyse it.
Answer:

1. The graph explains about India and Pakistan military expenditures.
2. Pakistan had spent more on military expenditure as % GDP.
3. The military expenditure of India was also high.
4. India had spent less on military expenditure as % GDP.

Both countries gave importance to gather more & more weapons because always Pakistan is provoking India on the issue of Jammu & Kashmir.
In 2016 Uri incident also happened. India faces a problem with China also.
(OR)
Since 1988 Pakistan military expenditure has not been high. Since 2000 onwards it has been increasing. Though the amount is increased its expenditure in GDP percentage is decreasing. It seems to be less but in total it is more and dangerous to its neighbouring countries like India. At the same time India is also increasing its expenditure on military to protect its people from neighbouring countries.

Question 11.
Observe the following table and analyse it.
US and USSR Nuclear Stockpiles (Number of warheads)

Year	US	USSR
1965	33,000	10,000
1975	25,000	32,000
1985	24,000	45,000
1995	12,000	25,000
2005	11,000	16,000

Answer:
Table Analysis:

1. From the given table we understand that from the year 1965 to 2005 the U.S stock-piles gradually decreased.
2. In the U.S.S.R the stockpiles increased from 1965 to 1985, and then decreased till 2005.

Reason for increasing the stockpiles: At the beginning the stockpiles number is increased due to military supremacy and to gain economic supremacy that leads the countries to emerge camps after Second World War.

Reasons for decreasing their stockpiles:

1. Both the countries realised that warmongering and the consequent arms race only made the world more unsafe and increased the possibility of a disastrous war for all countries.
2. As a result of the pressures the USA and the USSR, the main competitors in the arms race, signed on cut down their nuclear orsenal.
3. Cold war came to an end with the collapses of the USSR in 1991; is also another reason for this.

Question 12.
Under the present circumstances, give suggestions to build cordial relations between India and its neighbouring countries.
(OR)
Why should India have cordial relations with neighbouring countries?
Answer:

1. India was a founder of the NAM which sought to keep an independent position between the two superpowers.
2. India tried to base its foreign policy on the Gandhian principles of peace and non-violence.
3. India is emerging as a major world economic and political power. So, it should get support from the neighbours and in turn help them.
4. It should take measures to maintain peace and tranquillity at the borders, which is possible only with cordial relations with neighbours.
5. It has shared culture and civilisation with neighbouring countries, thus built bridges of friendship through trade, sports, films, tourism and cultural exchanges.
6. It shall have a greater understanding and cooperation among the people of neighbouring nations.
7. It shall have friendly relations with neighbouring countries and blossom secularism, democracy and freedom here.
8. It shall have cooperation with neighbours on disaster management.

Question 13.
Describe the present circumstances that one threatening world peace.
Answer:
Present circumstances that are threatening world peace:

• Terrorism
• Wars
• Armament race
• Invasions
• Communalism
• Exploitation of resources
• Interference of developed countries in the affairs of developing countries
• Aggressive nationalism

Question 14.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.

During the last few decades, Tribal and Marginal farmers have also been threatened by Commercial farmers, mining corporations, dam projects, etc. As the large companies find rare resources in remote rural areas, like minerals, rare plants or animals and water, there has been a rapid increase in the ousting of the farming and tribal population from their traditional areas.

Answer:
According to the given paragraph the marginalised communities are being neglected and mostly they are exploited. Big companies invest money for their benefits and so the tribal people are far away from agriculture forcefully.

Mining corporations take permission from the mineral development Department or the government and they start mining. Sometimes government plan to construct dams so as to get the water irrigated to feed lakhs of hectares of cultivable land and in some cases uncultivable land also will be converted to cultivable. The people in foot hills of the hills mountains or forests will be asked to migrate to other places. Sometimes it is a must. Then they oppose the construction of dams and other developmental activities.

Government has to give sufficient compensation to the land losers. Moreover it is better to provide land in place of land, but it should be of same quality cultivable. When farmers, tribals are asked to vacate where do they go. Without proper planning it impossible to move. In some localities like Yellampally and Mid Manair areas the land losers got sufficient compensation and so they settled in new colonies. In Kudamkulam in Tamilnadu, Narmada dam construction the land losers are not satisfied.

Question 15.
Read the text and answer the following question.

Two major ideological and political camps emerged in the post war period -the Communist block led by the USSR and the Democratic-Capitalist Block led by the USA. On the one hand, the USSR promoted the ideas of equality and state-controlled development and suppression of opposition to these principles. On the other hand, the USA promoted the ideas of multiparty democracy and private capitalist controlled process of development.

Distinguish between the communist block and capitalist block.
Answer:

Communist and Socialistic block	Capitalistic and Democratic block
1. The communist block was lead by the USSR.	1. The capitalistic block was lead by the USA.
2. Here the process of development is controlled by the state.	2. Here, the private capitalists controlled the process of development.
3. Socialism and idea of equality exist here.	3. Democracy exists here.
4. Opposition was suppressed.	4. The USA promoted the idea of multiparty democracy.

Question 16.
Read the passage and answer the following question.

Lai Bahadur Shastri in a rally in Delhi after the end of the war, decried the attempt of Pakistan to use religious symbolism in the war claiming it to be a war of Muslims against Hindus. He proudly stated that India was a secular country.

“The unique thing about our country is that we have Hindus, Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Parsis and people of all other religions. We have temples and mosques, gurudwaras and churches. But we do not bring this all into politics… This is the difference between India and Pakistan. Whereas Pakistan proclaims herself to be an Islamic State and uses religion as a political factor, we Indians have freedom to follow whatever religion we may choose [and] worship in any way we please. So far as politics is concerned, each of us is as much as Indian as the other.”

Interpret the speech of Lai Bahadur Sastry.
Answer:

1. The above famous speech was delivered by Lai Bahadur Sastry after the Indo-Pak war.
2. He assured the world and the Muslims that it is a secular country.
3. So many religions are there in India.
4. We respect all worshipping places on equal grounds.
5. In India these religions have no role to play in politics as ours is a secular state.
6. People can choose any religion but all of us are Indians.
7. This speech was delivered when Pakistan gave religious symbolism in the war.

Question 17.
Read the information and answer the following questions.
a) What does the above graph indicate?
Answer:
The above graph indicates the nuclear stock piles of the US and the USSR.

b) Which country has highest armament stock during 1985?
Answer:
USSR (Russia)

c) The nuclear stockpiles of which country did not change between 1995-2005?
Answer:
America (USA)

d) After which year the nuclear stockpiles of Russia exceeded America?
Answer:
After 1975, the nuclear stockpiles of Russia exceeded America.

e) How much were the stockpiles of Russia and America during 1965?
Answer:
The stockpiles of Russia and America during 1965 were 5000 and 30000 respectively.

f) How much stockpiles did both the countries possess during 1975?
Answer:
Both the countries have the same nuclear stockpiles, i.e. 25000.

g) Which country is storing atomic weapons in large?
Answer:
The USSR is storing atomic weapons in large.

h) What may be the reason for decrease of atomic weapons storage?
Answer:
Protest movements against the atomic weapons may be the reason in a decrease of atomic weapon storage.

i) How much the stock of weapons of Russia is more than America?
Answer:
Russia has about 15000 warheads more than America.

Question 18.
Read the information and answer the following questions.
a) Which country is spending more money on military?
Answer:
India.

b) Which countries military expenses in terms of GDP are more?
Answer:
Pakistan’s Military expenses in terms of GDP are more.

c) In which year the military expenditure as of GDP was more?
Answer:
Between 2008-09, the military expenditure of GDP equal.

d) What conclusion can you draw from the above graph?
Answer:

1. The military expenditure as a percentage of GDP has been decreasing.
2. The military expenditure of both countries has been increasing.

Question 19.
Read the passage and state your opinion on it.

“Pakistan has over the years encouraged separatist movement in the border states of India like Punjab and Jammu and Kashmir. It is actively training and sending religious extremists to foment trouble in India.

Answer:

1. India and Pakistan became independent by bifurcating from erstwhile British India.
2. The first war between countries took place in 1948.
3. Again in 1965 Pakistan invaded India.
4. Tashkent agreement was signed between two countries in 1966.
5. War broke out in 1971 again over the issue of liberation of Bangladesh.
6. Since then, the Pakistan over years encouraging separatist movement in the border states of India.
7. Both the countries are spending much amounts of scarce funds on arming themselves against each other.
8. Both the countries should go for a solution and reduce tension along the border.

Question 20.
On the outline map of world identify the following locations.

1. Egypt
2. Indonesia
3. Israel
4. Palestine
5. China
6. Spain
7. Belgium
8. Congo
9. Chile
10. Jordan
11. Afghanistan

Answer:

Question 21.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Congo
2. Germany
3. Fascism belongs to this country.
   Answer: Italy
4. Head quarters of League of Nations.
   Answer: Geneva
5. Czechoslovakia
6. Romania
7. Mediterranean sea
8. Burma / Myanmar
9. Australia
10. Bulgaria

Answer:

These AP 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social 5th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Indian Rivers and Water Resources

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
1. What are the twin sources of ‘Ganga’?
Answer:
The twin sources of Ganga are:

1. Bhagirathi,
2. Alakananda

Question 2.
Why are the Himalayan rivers called perennial?
Answer:
Himalayan rivers are called perennial because they flow throughout the year.

Question 3.
Suggest two activities that can be taken up so that the groundwater can be restored.
Answer:
The following activities are suggested to restore the ground water.

1. Check dams,
2. Percolation tanks,
3. Loose boulder structures,
4. Plantations on forest lands and roadsides etc. (Any two you can write).

Question 4.
What are the tributaries of the Indus river?
Answer:
The tributaries of the Indus river are the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Ravi, the Beas, and the Sutlej.

Question 5.
Name any two tributaries of river Indus.
Answer:
Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, Sutlej.

Question 6.
What are the two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India?
Answer:
The two branches of south-west monsoons which bring rains to India are

1. The Arabian sea branch
2. The Bay of Bengal branch

Observe the map given and answer questions 7 and 8.

Question 7.
Name the two rivers that flow into the Arabian sea.
Answer:
The rivers that flow into the Arabian sea are

1. Sabarmati
2. Mahi
3. Narmada
4. Tapati

Question 8.
Through which states, river Tungabhadra flows?
Answer:
River Tungabhadra flows through Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh

Question 9.
Observe the map and answer the questions below?

a) Which river is shown in the map?
b) Which state does the river form a delta?
Answer:
a) River Godavari
b) Andhra Pradesh.

Question 10.
What are the three physiographic units of the drainage of India?
Answer:

1. The Himalayas
2. The Peninsular Plateau and
3. The Indo-Gangetic plain

Question 11.
Divide the Indian drainage system on the basis of its origin.
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers.
2. The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
Name the three Himalayan rivers. (OR)
Mention the three principal river system to which the Himalayan Rivers belong.
Answer:

1. The Indus
2. The Ganges
3. The Brahmaputra

Question 13.
Which rivers are perennial? Write the reason.
Answer:
The Himalayan rivers are perennial. This is because the rivers are supplied on rainfall as well as the melting snow.

Question 14.
Where does the Indus originate? What is its route?
Answer:
The Indus originates in the northern slopes of the Kailash range in Tibet near lake Manasarovar. It follows a north-westerly course through Tibet.

Question 15.
Where does the Indus enter India?
Answer:
It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 16.
What do the water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

Question 17.
What is the significance of ‘Devaprayag’?
Answer:
Bhagirathi and Alakananda join at ‘Devaprayag’ to form the Ganga.

Question 18.
Where does the Brahmaputra rise?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra in Tibet rises from the snout of the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near Manasarovar.

Question 19.
Where does the Brahmaputra enter India?
Answer:
The Brahmaputra enters in a great loop southwest through Arunachal Pradesh in India, first as Siang and then as Dihang.

Question 20.
What are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra?
Answer:
The Dibang and the Lohit are the two tributaries of the Brahmaputra.

Question 21.
Where do the peninsular rivers originate?
Answer:
The peninsular rivers the Krishna, the Godavari and the Cauveri originate in the Western Ghats. The Mahanadi originates in the Vindhya Satpura ranges.

Question 22.
Which is the largest peninsular river system?
Answer:
The Godavari is the largest peninsular river system.

Question 23.
What is the source of the river Godavari?
Answer:
The source of the Godavari is in the Triambak plateau near Nasik in Maharashtra and discharges its water into the Bay of Bengal.”

Question 24.
Write the ‘inflow’ as a formula?
Answer:
Inflow = Precipitation + Surface flow + Groundwater flow.

Question 25.
What is called evaporation?
Answer:
The turning of water into vapour is called evaporation.

Question 26.
What is called transpiration?
Answer:
Living things give off water into the atmosphere through their breathing process, this is called transpiration.

Question 27.
What is called evapotranspiration?
Answer:
The total amount of water added to the atmosphere from both evaporation and transpiration is called evapotranspiration.

Question 28.
When would the surface flow increase?
Answer:
The surface flow would increase during the monsoon months.

Question 29.
How does the water reach the root zone of crops?
Answer:
Water reaches the root zone of crops either through rainfall or some process of irrigation.

Question 30.
Which kind of water is the vital need?
Answer:
Water used for drinking, cooking, washing, cleaning and for animals is vital need.

Question 31.
Name the surface storages.
Answer:
Tanks, ponds, lakes, etc. are the surface storages.

Question 32.
What is the question that we face today about the groundwater?
Answer:
The question that we face today is the depletion of groundwater storage and tendency not to care about the availability for future generations.

Question 33.
What are the two parts of the Tungabhadra basin?
Answer:

1. The upper and middle catchment in Karnataka and
2. The lower portion of the catchment in Andhra Pradesh.

Question 34.
Which water is available to us?
Answer:
The annual flows and stocks that recharge wells and tubewells is the water that is available for us.

Question 35.
When can the mining water be done?
Answer:
The mining water can be done only in extreme drought situations and replenished in good rainfall years.

Question 36.
How are the low portions of the Tungabhadra basin characterized in Andhra Pradesh?
Answer:
They are characterized by low rainfall and drought.

Question 37.
What is the result of the encroachment of public land for cultivation?
Answer:
It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.

Question 38.
What is the result of the rampant felling of trees and mining activity?
Answer:
Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna.

Question 39.
Why did the Tungabhadra basin lose its water storage capacity?
Answer:
With the accumulation of silt due to mining, dust, soil erosion, debris the Tungabhadra Dam lost its water storage capacity.

Question 40.
How is water shared?
Answer:
Water is shared based on agreements between state governments.

Question 41.
What is the result of industrialization and urbanization?
Answer:
While increased industrialization and urbanization have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution, especially by industrial units.

Question 42.
Why do the interstate disputes arise between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka?
Answer:
Interstate disputes between Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka arise due to the trans-boundary nature of the river.

Question 43.
Where is Hiware Bazar located?
Answer:
Hiware Bazar is located in the Ahmednagar district in Maharashtra. It is situated on the eastern side of the Sahyadri mountain ranges that run north-south and separate Konkan, the coastal region, from the rest of Maharashtra.

Question 44.
Expand CCT.
Answer:
Continuous Contour Trenches.

Question 45.
Why were CCTs dug?
Answer:
The CCTs were dug on the hill slopes to arrest the erosion of soil, harvest water and encourage growth of grass.

Question 46.
Name some water harvesting structures.
Answer:
Check dams, percolation tanks and loose boulder structures.

Question 47.
Name the four bandis.
Answer:

1. Kurhad bandi
2. Charai bandi
3. Nasbandi
4. Nashabandi

Question 48.
What are the other bans which were added later?
Answer:

1. The ban on borewells for irrigation,
2. Growing sugarcane and banana and
3. Selling one’s own land to any outsider.

Question 49.
Why do the farmers in Hiware Bazar keep rainfall data meticulously?
Answer:
They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 50.
What happens when there is so much extraction of water?
Answer:
When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.

Question 51.
What laws and regulations are needed for water consumption?
Answer:
Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that, Panchayati Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 52.
Which judgments illustrate the confusion over our laws today?
Answer:
The judgments in the case of Perumatty Gram Panchayat in Kerala and Coca Cola company illustrate the confusion over our laws today.

Question 53.
What do water resources require?
Answer:
The water resources require both collective action at the local level and appropriate laws and policies at the state and national level.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The Himalayan rivers are perennial, which means these rivers are filled with water throughout the year.
What are the two reasons that they are called perennial rivers?
Answer:

1. The Himalayan rivers are perennial rivers as a result of the melting of ice and glaciers.
2. During rainy season they depend on rainfall.

So they are filled with water throughout the year.

Question 2.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) What is the River Ganga called in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Padma.
b) On the banks of which River is Kolkata situated?
Answer:
River Hooghly. (Hugly)

Question 3.
Create two slogans on water conservation or the importance of water. (OR)
Write two slogans to bring awareness on saving of water in consumption.
Answer:
a) Save water – Save future.
b) Without water – there’s no future.
(Students can create a few of their own)

Question 4.
What were the conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under Adarsh Gram Yojana?
Answer:
The conditions set by the Maharashtra government for the selection of villages under the Adarsh Gram Yojana are

1. Kurhad bandi – ban of felling trees
2. Charai bandi – ban of free grazing
3. Nasbandi – family planning
4. Nashabandi – ban on liquor
5. Shramadan – voluntary physical labour.

Question 5.
Categories the drainage system based on its origin.
Answer:
On the basis of the origin, the drainage system in India is categorized into

Question 6.
Suggest measures to be taken to conserve water.
Answer:
Measures to conserve water:

1. Check dams
2. Percolation tanks
3. Loose boulder structures
4. Plantation

Question 7.
Give a few suggestions for the betterment of groundwater level in Telangana in the present situation.
Answer:

1. All people should maintain rainwater harvesting pits.
2. They should construct and maintain check dams. The government should take responsibility.
3. Continuous contour trenches are to be built up.
4. Silt is to be removed every year from the tanks.
5. Plantation should be taken up seriously.
6. Digging of deep borewells should be avoided.

Question 8.
Even in years of continuous drought, there was no drinking water shortage in Hiware Bazar.
What are the reasons for this?
Answer:

1. The main thing is the social control over groundwater extraction and no bore-wells usage for irrigation, no water-intensive crops like sugarcane.
2. Water for irrigation was taken only through dug wells.
3. They also worked out certain thumb rule type of things like if they get good rainfall, then they can take full rabi crop; if the rainfall is less, then they bring down the area under rabi crop etc.
4. They keep rainfall data meticulously and use it for crop planning and water use prioritization.

Question 9.
As a student, how do you save water in your house and in your school?
Answer:

1. Make it a classroom activity to check for leaks regularly.
2. Install rainwater tanks.
3. Fix any leaking taps, toilets.
4. Raise awareness of the importance of water.

Question 10.
Create a poster on water importance.
Answer:

WATER IS LIFE

Water has been important for people for thousands of years. Without water there would be no life on earth.
We use water in our houses for cooking, bathing and washing the dishes. Water is used to grow food. In many dry areas farmers must bring water to the fields through canals and expensive irrigation systems.

Industries and factories also use water. Fruits and vegetables must be cleaned before they can be processed and sold in supermarkets. Water is used for cooling in many areas, for example in steel production.

Many countries around the world use water to produce energy. Power stations burn coal which turns water into steam. Countries with many mountains and rivers use the power of water to produce electricity.

Water is important for our free time. People enjoy themselves at seaside resorts or on cruise trips.

Transportation was at first carried out on waterways. Ancient civilizations traded goods across the Mediterranean Sea. Today oil, coal, wheat and other products are transported on waterways.

Question 11.
Write about the drainage of India.
Answer:
The drainage of India has evolved and adjusted itself with the evolution of the three physiographic units:

1. the Himalayas
2. the Peninsular plateau and
3. the Indo- Gangetic plain. On the basis of its origin, the drainage system in India can be broadly divided into two categories,
   i) The Himalayan rivers and ii) The Peninsular rivers.

Question 12.
“Rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people” – Comment on it.
Answer:

1. The river system provides irrigation, potable water, cheap transportation, electricity and livelihoods for a large number of people all over the country and to rural areas.
2. This easily explains why nearly all the major cities of India are located by the banks of rivers.
3. Several major rivers along with their tributaries make up the river system of India.
4. So rivers of India play an important role in the lives of the Indian people.

10th Class Social 5th Lesson Indian Rivers and Water Resources 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
In which place has the water level gone down in your area? What are the reasons for the reduction of water levels according to your opinion?
Answer:
The water level has gone down in many of our areas. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture. If groundwater is not available, there will be many problems.
My opinion is that because of modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used. Very deep borewells cause for drawing out water from the ground. Water has become a source of business. Many multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles. Water conservation is also a major issue and it is taken as a serious one.

Question 2.
Explain any four river systems of India in the prescribed table form.

Sl No.	Nameof the River	Origin or Birth place	Direction of Flow	Tributaries	Flow through which States

Answer:

Question 3.
Today underground water is the main source of water for people. When there is so much extraction it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore one can’t allow individual land owners to extract as much water as they wish from the land. There should be some restrictions.
Do you agree, with this? Write your opinion.
Answer:
Yes. I agree with this statement.

1. Water should be treated as a common pool resource.
2. There are no boundaries in the flowing water underground.
3. Land ownership should not be applied to underground water.
4. Drinking water should be the first priority as well as a human right.
5. Panchayat Raj Institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.

Question 4.
“The current laws about groundwater in many states are both outdated and inappropriate. They were developed at a time when groundwater was a marginal source of water. Today shallow and deep tubewells have the potential to draw a lot of water.”
Write your comment on the judicious way of using and equal distribution of groundwater and suggest few measures in this regard.
Answer:

1. Today underground water is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects the stock of water that would be available to future generations.
3. Therefore the landowners cannot be allowed to extract as much as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions.
4. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn through tube wells on the land.

Question 5.
“Usage of water without keeping in view about the future leads to non-availability of underground water for future generations.” Comment.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the major source of water for people.
2. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas.
3. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations.
4. So individual land owners should not be allowed to extract as much water as they wish.
5. There should be some restrictions.
6. The relation between the land ownership and the extraction of water should be delinked.
7. They only the restrictions will be implemented properly.
8. Groundwater should be treated as a common pool resource.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
What is required are laws and rules to recognize that water is common flowing resource? Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right and that Panchayat Raj institutions must have control over the use of groundwater.
Answer:
In my opinion.

1. Groundwater benefits a wide range of people and the environment.
2. But there are number of threats to the sustainability of this natural resource, which are compounded by a lack of understanding it.
3. Groundwater is often seen as a resource that can be drawn on when surface water is scarce.
4. Due to over use of groundwater the quality of water is deteriorating.
5. If the people drink that polluted water, they will get diseases.
6. Drinking water is the first priority as well as a human right.
7. So, the Panchayat Raj institution think about water is common flowing resource at the same time these institutions have control on groundwater for the sake of future generations and provide it equitable manner.
   Example: In Kerala, Perumatti grama panchayat, the Panchayat Raj institution give first priority to drinking water and next will give importance to Cocacola company. Here, the people’s health is most important.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
Today, this is the major source of water for people. When there is so much extraction, it affects others in connected areas. It affects the stock of water that would be available for future generations. Therefore, one can’t allow individual landowners to extract as much water as they wish from their land. There should be some restrictions. These restrictions will be acceptable if we first delink the connection between ownership of land and water drawn from the underground system through tube-wells on the land.
Answer:

1. Today groundwater is the main source for people.
2. But excessive extraction of the groundwater is more effect to not only present people but also future generations.
3. But there are no appropriate laws to regulate the usage of the groundwater resources.
4. All the present laws were designed when the usage was minimum.
5. The owner of the land is not the owner of the groundwater beneath his land.
6. A link should be designed between the land ownership and control.
7. The government should control the individuals in using underground water resources.

Question 8.
Explain the use of water in the river basin of Tungabhadra.
Answer:

1. River water of Tungabhadra is shared by Karnataka, Telangana and the Andhra Pradesh States.
2. Approximately 80% of rural area people are dependent on agriculture with Tungabhadra water.
3. In some areas people constructed storage tanks based on Tunghabhadra water.
4. Surface flows by canals that carry water from dams built along Tungabhadra in other areas.
5. More land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
6. There are 27 large industries and 2543 small industries are depend on Tungabhadra water.
7. It provides supply of drinking water to neighbour areas.
8. Improved standard of living for some.
9. Disputes also arised between Karnataka and Andhra on the base of availability of water.

Question 9.
Explain the Himalayan river systems.
Answer:

Himalayan River Systems

The Indus system, The Ganga system and the Brahmaputra system come under the Himalayan river systems:

1. The Indus System: The Indus originates in Kailash range near Manasarovar. It enters Indian territory in Jammu and Kashmir. The Ravi, the Jhelum, the Chenab, the Beas and the Sutlej are its tributaries.
2. The Ganga System: The Ganga is formed joining Bhagirathi with Alakananda which join at Devaprayag. It has large number of tributaries.
3. The Brahmaputra System: The Brahmaputra rises from Kailash range near Manasarovar. It covers Tibet, and joins Arunachal Pradesh in India. It has different names in different places and is known as the Brahmaputra. The Dibang and the Lohit are its tributaries.

Question 10.
Read the given paragraph and write your opinion.
Regulation is not easy. This is also because for some resources like water, electricity, oil, natural gas, etc. consumption by one person or a sector affects what is available for others. In fact, in a number of states, the answer to falling water tables has not been to address the issue itself. State governments have thus often chosen to increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of groundwater possible.
Answer:
The given paragraph says that the regulation of natural resources like water, natural gas, etc. is not easy. Gradually water table is decreasing. Governments increase power subsidies to make extraction of ever deeper layers of ground water possible.

My interpretation is that water, electricity, oil and natural gas are essential for all people. These are to be used in control. Whatever we use should be useful to the next coming genera¬tion. Natural resources are sustainable. They can be useful to all generations. Water is an essen¬tial commodity. It is the people who decide the future. For a few decades we have been observ¬ing that more groundwater is being pumped out. Sinking water is gradually decreasing. In forests also water is not available. So monkeys, leopards are coming to villages. Deforestation is increased. Quarrying is also increased. Clouds are coming but they are not giving rain. Temperature is increasing day by day. People should understand the need of the future and act accordingly. Per head consumption is increasing drastically. Water conservation is an essential one. Not only human beings, birds, animals, plants also depend on water. Water harvesting pits are promoted at every house. Water shed programs are to be taken up. Every drop of water should be caught perfectly and saved with proper proposals. Government concentrates on the conservation of water to make the next coming generation happy.

Question 11.
“India is heading towards water scarcity.” Trace the possible solutions to tackle this problem.
Answer:

1. Construction of multi purpose projects and canals.
2. Solving river water disputes quickly.
3. Inter-basin transfer of water.
4. Measures to raise the underground water table.
5. Rainwater harvesting.
6. Watershed development.
7. Avoiding pollution of water bodies.
8. Preventing the wastage of water.
9. Interlinking of Rivers.

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and state your opinion on it.
Encroachment of public lands for cultivation is common. It results in more land being brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover. Rampant felling of trees and mining activity is resulting in forest degradation, along with the destruction of the habitat of highly threatened flora and fauna. Inflows of groundwater depend on the tree cover in the catchment areas. Inadequate tree hover leads to water run-off as surface flow without getting a chance to recharge the underground system. Moreover, this also causes flash floods. If we wish to be fair to both the rainfed and canal irrigated regions, we must adopt a different plan for water conservation and a system of sharing water.
Answer:

1. In recent years public land is brought under cultivation at the expense of tree cover.
2. The felling of trees and other mining activities threatened flora and fauna.
3. The inadequate free cover leads to water run off.
4. There is less chance for recharging groundwater.
5. It causes flash floods.
6. The felling of trees threatened flora and fauna.
7. Hence we must be alert and adopt a different plan for water conservation.

Question 13.
Read the para and answer the following questions.
Let us see the dispute over water use between the Perumatty Grama Panchayat in Kerala and the Coca Cola Company. The Panchayat decided not to renew the license for extraction of water because of the lowering of the water table in neighbouring areas. There was also decreasing water quality to the extent that the local government primary health centre had concluded that the water was not fit for drinking. The issue was brought to the courts and is now pending in the Supreme Court as on January 2014. The two decisions given by the judges in Kerala gave two opposing views of groundwater regulation. The first judge found that groundwater is a public resource meant for all, and that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive exploitation. Additionally the judge made the link that drinking water is a priority. The second judge took a completely different perspective and asserted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater. These two contradictory decisions illustrate the confusion over our laws today.
Answer:

1. The para is an example of the confusion over our laws today.
2. The Coca Cola company was extracting more and more underground water.
3. This was reducing the groundwater levels and the water is getting polluted.
4. The issue was brought to the court.
5. Two judges gave contradicting judgments.
6. The first judge stated that the state has a duty to protect it against excessive
7. The second judge insisted the primacy of landowners’ control over groundwater.
8. Hence we can conclude that there should be some clarity regarding the laws relating to ground-water.
9. The laws are outdated and inappropriate.
10. There should not be any contradiction regarding public interest.

Question 14.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
During the fast two decades there has been an increasing trend in the number of small towns and industrial areas. This has made the competing demands for water more complex. While increased industrialization and growth of urban areas have improved standards of living for some, the same activities have caused pollution especially by industrial units.
Answer:

1. According to the given paragraph, it is clear that urbanization leads to water problems.
2. Another point is that some people are leading prosperous life whereas many poor people are facing the problems of pollution.
3. In my opinion, in this modern age urbanization has become mandatory.
4. People from villages are coming to cities and towns for different reasons.
5. Education for children, medical facilities and different livelihoods are the needs of the rural people.
6. As they come to cities and towns they face the problems of basic need like food, water, shelter and cloth.
7. In conclusion I don’t say that urbanization is not necessary but the problems of the poor migrants also should be considered.
8. At industries and working cites water facility is to be provided.
9. In all the areas protected water supply is necessary.

Question 15.
Read the following paragraph and write your comment on it.
Over the past few decades groundwater has become the main source, especially for domes¬tic use and agriculture. This tremendous increase in the use of groundwater has significant impact on water availability and access to it.
Answer:

1. According to this paragraph the groundwater level is the crucial one to all the people.
2. The groundwater is useful for both domestic purpose and for agriculture.
3. If groundwater is not available there will be many problems.
4. My opinion is that because of the modernization of agriculture motor pumps of high horsepower are being used.
5. Very deep bore wells cause for drawing out water from the ground.
6. Water has become a source of business many Multinational companies draw water and sell in the form of bottles.
7. Every individual should think about the importance of water as it is useful to all people.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and comment on it.
Current laws on groundwater use are inappropriate because the basic links between access to groundwater and land ownership on which these rules are based are flawed. Since groundwater has to be extracted from the land above, a link was established between land ownership and control.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that the current laws are not appropriate and there is no link between accesses to groundwater and land ownership.
2. Proper laws are to be made and implemented otherwise there will be a mass problem of water.
3. I would like to comment on this paragraph that current laws are not being implemented in a right way.
4. The government should have true spirit of implementation of laws. There are so many laws made in the time of the British rule.
5. After independence these would have been modified or changed according to the present needs or new laws according to the situations and necessities have to be made time to time. This was not done.
6. The government should take necessary action to bring in new laws and they should be implemented in a right way.

Question 17.
People are facing the problem of water scarcity in all the areas. It may be there in your locality also. Write a note on the condition of water scarcity that you recently observed.
Answer:

1. Scarcity of water has become a common problem everywhere.
2. People of all corners are facing the same problem.
3. They purchase even two glasses of water by paying twenty or twenty five rupees.
4. Human activities like deforestation, using plastic, cement and concrete roads are a few rea¬sons for the depletion of groundwater level.
5. Deforestation leads to low rainfall.
6. Rainwater is not percolated properly because of two reasons.
7. By constructing small check dams, it is better to store the water and so it could be useful to restore the groundwater.
8. Then it will be expected that drinking water is available.

Question 18.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.
a) Mention any two tributaries of river Ganga.
Answer:
Gandak, Ghagra, Gomati, Son, Betwa, Chambal, Yamuna are the tributaries of river Ganga. (Any two can be written)
b) River Brahmaputra joins a river before joining into Bay of Bengal. What is the name of the river?
Answer:
The river in which the Brahmaputra joins is the Ganga.
c) Two countries are sharing the water of the river Teesta. What are the two countries?
Answer:
India and Bangladesh.
d) Which river is called ‘Padma’ in Bangladesh?
Answer:
River Ganga.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Brahmaputra river
2. Drainage area of Indus river
3. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
4. The project on Sutlej river
   Answer: Bhakra Nangal
5. The river which is parallel to river Narmada.
   Answer: Tapti
6. The lake which in between Krishna and Godavari rivers.
   Answer: Kolleru
7. Locate Hiware Bazar.
8. Konkan Coast.
9. The Coast of Tamilnadu
   Answer: Coromandel
10. Capital of Madhya Pradesh.
    Answer: Bhopal

These AP 9th Class Physical Science Important Questions 8th Lesson Gravitation will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Physical Science 8th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Gravitation

9th Class Physical Science 8th Lesson Gravitation 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the precautions to be taken while doing an activity to locate centre of gravity of a regular object?
Answer:

1. Tie the rope at geometrical centre of an regular object.
2. Draw the line along the rope after object come to rest.

Question 2.
What path will moon take when the moon stops rotating round the earth?
Answer:
Moon take the path of tangent to the orbit, in which it rotates around the earth.

9th Class Physical Science 8th Lesson Gravitation 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
If a person of mass 60 kg went to the Moon, then
a) Is there any change in his Mass and Weight?
Answer:
Mass does not change and remains 60 kgs. But, weight changes,

b) What will be his weight on the Earth?
Answer:

Question 2.
Consider the gravitational force formula \(\mathbf{F}=\mathbf{G} \frac{\mathbf{M}_{1} \mathbf{M}_{2}}{\mathbf{R}^{2}}\) and answer the following
questions.
i) What is the value of G?
Answer:
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 Nm² kg^-2

ii) What does the term ‘R’ indicate here?
Answer:
R indicates “distance between two objects.”

Question 3.
To know about the center of gravity of the atmosphere of the earth, Ravi asked some questions to his teacher. Guess which question he asked and the answer given by the teacher.
Answer:

1. Where would be the centre of gravity of atmosphere of earth?
2. What is centre of gravity?

Answer from the teacher :

1. The centre of gravity of the earth’s atmosphere is in the centre of the earth.
2. The point where total weight appears to act is called centre of gravity.

Question 4.
Consider the following equation of motion and rewrite them for a free fall body v = u + at
s = ut + ½ at²
Answer:
For a free fall body u = 0; a = g and s
i) v = u + at ⇒ v = 0 + gt ⇒ v = gt
ii) s = ut + ½at² ⇒ h = 0 + ½gt² ⇒ h = ½gt²

9th Class Physical Science 8th Lesson Gravitation 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Two spherical balls of mass 20 kg each one placed with their centres 20 cm apart. Find the gravitational force of attraction between them.
(G = 6.67 × 10^-11 Nm². Kg^-2)
Answer:
Masses of balls M₁ and M₂ = 20 kg each
distance (d) = 20 cm = 0.2 m.
Gravitational force of attraction between M₁ and M₂

Question 2.
a) Draw the centre of gravity of the following uniform objects.
i) equilateral triangle
ii) square
iii) circle
Answer:

b) What is the speciality of centre of gravity of a material?
Answer:

1. Stability depends upon the centre of gravity of a material.
2. If we draw a line straight down from the centre of gravity of an object of any
   shape and it falls inside the base of the object, then the object will be stable.

9th Class Physical Science 8th Lesson Gravitation Important Questions and Answers

9th Class Physical Science 8th Lesson Gravitation 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define centripetal force.
Answer:
The net force which can change only the direction of the velocity of a body is called “centripetal force”.

Question 2.
Define centripetal acceleration.
Answer:
The acceleration which can change only the direction of velocity of a body is called “centripetal acceleration”.

Question 3.
State Newton’s universal law of Gravitation.
Answer:
The universal law of gravitation states that every body in the universe attracts other body with a force which is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

Question 4.
What do you mean by acceleration due to gravity?
Answer:
The acceleration produced due to gravitational force of the earth near the surface is called free-fall acceleration or acceleration due to gravity.

Question 5.
What is universal gravitational constant?
Answer:
The value of ‘G’ i.e., the universal gravitational constant is equal to the magnitude of force between a pair of 1 kg – masses that are lm apart.
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 Nm² kg^-2.

Question 6.
When do you say that a body is freely falling?
Answer:
A body is said to be free-fall body when only one gravitational force acts on that body.

Question 7.
Define weight.
Answer:
Weight of a body is the force of attraction on the body due to earth.
W = mg

Question 8.
What is centre of gravity?
Answer:
The point where total weight appears to act is called centre of gravity.

Question 9.
When will a body be stable?
Answer:
If we draw a line straight down from the centre of gravity of an object of any shape and it falls inside the base of the object, then the object will be stable.

Question 10.
What is time period?
Answer:
The time taken by a body executing uniform circular motion, to complete one revolution is called time period.

Question 11.
The earth and the moon are attracted to each other by gravitational force. Does the earth attract the moon with a force that is greater or smaller or the same as the force with which the moon attracts the earth? Why?
Answer:
Moon attracts with same gravitational forces as earth attracts moon. They form action reaction pair.

9th Class Physical Science 8th Lesson Gravitation 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw a diagram showing the balancing of fork and spoon.
Answer:

Question 2.
When could we say that an object is stable?
Answer:
If we draw a line straight down from the centre of gravity of an object of any shape and it falls inside the base of the object, then the object will stable.

If the line through the centre of gravity falls outside the base then the object will be unstable.

Question 3.
The mass of the earth is 6 × 10²⁴ kg and that of the moon is 7.4 × 10²² kg. If the distance between the earth and the moon is 3.84 × 10⁵ km. Calculate the force exerted by the earth on the moon.
Answer:

Thus the force exerted by the earth on the moon is 2.01 × 10²⁰ N.

Question 4.
A car falls off an edge and drops to the ground in 0.5 s.
i) What is its speed on striking the ground?
ii) What is the average speed during the 0.5 s?
iii) What is the height of the edge from the ground?
Answer:

Question 5.
An object is thrown vertically upwards and rises to a height of 10 m. Calculate,
i) the velocity with which the object was thrown upwards.
ii) the time taken by the object to reach the highest point.
Answer:
i) s = 10 m, v = 0 m/s, a = – g = – 9.8 m/s2.
v² – u² = 2as
0 – u² = 2 × – 9.8 × 10 ⇒ u = \(\sqrt{196}\) ⇒ u = 14 m/s.

ii) v = u + at
0 = 14 – 9.8 × t
t = 1.43 s

Question 6.
Mass of an object is 10 kg. What is its weight on the earth?
Answer:
m = 10 kg, g = 9.8 m/s².
W = mg = 10 × 9.8 = 98 N.

Question 7.
Why is the weight of an object on moon 1/6th its weight on the earth?
Answer:
The acceleration due to gravity on moon is 1/6th of its value on earth.
We know, weight = mass × acceleration due to gravity.
∴ The weight on moon is 1 /6th its weight on earth.

Question 8.
How does the force of gravitation between two objects change when the distance between them is reduced to half?
Answer:
The force between two objects is inversely proportional to square of distance.
\(\mathrm{F} \propto \frac{1}{\mathrm{~d}^{2}}\)
If the distance between the objects reduced to half then force increases by four times.

Question 9.
Gravitational force that acts on all objects is proportional to their masses. It is when a heavy object does not fall faster than a light object.
Answer:
The acceleration due to gravity attained by an object due to gravitational force does not depend on mass of the object. So heavy object and lighter object falls at a time on earth.

Question 10.
If the moon attracts the earth, why the earth does not move towards the moon?
Answer:
Moon attracts with same force as earth attracts moon. But we know acceleration is inversely proportional to mass. As the mass of earth is greater than moon. So earth does not move towards the moon.

Question 11.
What happens to force between two objects, if
i) the mass of one object is doubled?
ii) the distance between objects boubled and tripled?
iii) the masses of both objects are doubled?
Answer:
i) If mass of one object is doubled the force also would be doubled. Since F ∝ m.
ii) If the distance between the objects boubled and tripled the force is reduced by 4 times and 9 times respectively.
Scince, \(\mathrm{F} \propto \frac{1}{\mathrm{~d}^{2}}\)
iii) If masses of both the objects are doubled, then force is increased by 4 times.
Scince, F ∝ m₁m₂.

Question 12.
A ball is thrown vertically upward with a velocity of 49 m/s. Calculate,
i) the maximum height to which it rises.
ii) the total time to return to the surface of the earth.
Answer:
i) u = 49 m/s, g = 9.8 m/s².

Question 13.
A stone is released from the top of tower of height 19.6 m. Calculate the final velocity just before touching the ground.
Answer:
h = 19.6
u = 0
a = + g = 9.8 m/s²
v² = 2gh

Question 14.
What is universal gravitational constant?
Answer:
The value of ‘G’ i.e., the universal gravitational constant is equal to the magnitude of force between a pair of 1 kg – masses that are lm apart.
G = 6.67 × 10^-11 Nm² kg^-2.

Question 15.
When does an object get stability?
(OR)
Write a short notes on “stability”.
Answer:

• The location of the center of gravity is important for stability.
• If we draw a line straight down from the center of gravity of an object of any shape and it falls inside the base of the object, then the object will be stable.
• If the line through the center of gravity falls outside the base, then the object will be unstable.

Question 16.
State the universal law of gravitation and explain it.
Answer:
The universal law of gravitation :
The universal law of’gravitation states that every body in the universe attracts other body with a force which is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

Explanation :
Let two bodies of masses M₁ and M₂ be separated by a distance of ’d’. Then the force of gravitation between them

G is a proportionality constant, called universal gravitational constant.
The value of G = 6.67 × 10^-11 Nm² kg^-2

9th Class Physical Science 8th Lesson Gravitation 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define centripetal force and derive an expression for it.
Answer:
Centripetal force :
The net force which can change only the direction of the velocity of a body is called “centripetal force.”

Derivation :
Newton’s second law says that the net force on a moving body produces an acceleration in it, which is directed along the net force.

So in uniform circular motion, a net force acts towards the centre, called as centripetal force.

According to Newton’s second law of motion,

Here R is the radius of the circle.

Question 2.
Calculate the speed of moon.
Answer:
1) We know that the motion of the moon around the earth is approximately uniform circular motion.

2) We can calculate the speed of the moon using the equation.
\(\mathrm{v}=\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{T}}\) ……… (1)
R = distance of the moon from the centre of the earth
T = Time period of the moon

3) Thus the acceleration of the moon towards the centre of the earth

Question 3.
What is the ‘universal law of gravitation’? Derive a formula to it.
(OR)
Derive \(\mathbf{F}_{\text {grav }}=\frac{\mathbf{G M}_{1} \mathbf{M}_{2}}{\mathbf{d}^{2}}\)
Answer:
1) The universal law of gravitation states that every body in the universe attracts other body with a force which is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

2) The direction of the force of attraction is along the line joining the centers of the two bodies.

3) Let two bodies of masses M₁ and M₂ be separated by a distance of ’d’. Then the force of gravitation between them.

6) G is a proportionality constant called universal gravitational constant and found by Henry cavendish to be G = 6.67 × 10_-11 Nm² Kg^-2

Question 4.
Prove that acceleration due to gravity is independent of masses.
Answer:

Let us drop a body of mass’m’ near the earth’s surface.
Let ‘M’ be the mass of the earth and ‘R’ be the radius of the earth.
Now the force of attraction on the mass is given by
\(\mathrm{F}=\frac{\mathrm{GMm}}{\mathrm{r}^{2}} \Rightarrow \frac{\mathrm{F}}{\mathrm{m}}=\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)
From Newton’s second law, F/m is equal to acceleration.
Here this acceleration is denoted by ’g’.
Hence, \(\mathrm{g}=\frac{\mathrm{GM}}{\mathrm{R}^{2}}\)
From above equation, we can conclude that g’ is independent of the mass of the body.

Question 5.
Find the acceleration of a body which is in uniform circular motion with speed ‘v’ and radius ‘R’.
(OR)
Derive \(\mathrm{a}_{\mathrm{c}}=\frac{\mathrm{V}^{2}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
1) Let a body move with a constant speed ‘v’ in a circular path of radius ‘R’.

2) DV will be represented by the base of the isosceles triangle as shown in the figure.

3) The exact value of the sum of the magnitudes of the changes in velocity of the body during the course of revolution will be equal to the circumference ‘2πu” of the circle.

4) We know that the magnitude of the acceleration is equal to the ratio of magnitude of change in velocity for one revolution and the time period.

5) Let ac be magnitude of acceleration of the body in uniform circular motion.

6) That is a_c = 2π v/T.

7) Where ‘T’ is time required to complete one revolution.

8) We know that T = \(\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{R}}{\mathrm{v}}\)

9) Substituting this expression we get \(a_{c} \frac{v^{2}}{R}\)

Question 6.
How can you find the center of gravity of an irregular body?
Answer:

1. Take an irregular shaped object.
2. Suspend a plum in one position and draw a line along the rope of the plum.
3. Change the position of the object and do the same.
4. In this way draw lines in all possible positions.
5. The center of gravity lies where the lines intersect.
6. In this way we can find the center of gravity of an irregular shaped object.

These AP 10th Class Biology Important Questions and Answers 10th Lesson Natural Resources will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Biology 10th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Natural Resources

10th Class Biology 10th Lesson Natural Resources 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Recently a new programme was launched in our state known as “Vanam – Manain”. Prepare any two slogans to promote the programme.
Answer:
a) Save forest, forest will save you.
b) Grow the plants and get the fresh air.

Question 2.
Suggest any two practices suitable to farmers with less water resources.
Answer:

1. Construction of percolation tanks (or) Soak pits
2. Irrigation techniques like drip irrigation and usage of sprinklers.

Question 3.
Why should we conserve forests? Give two reasons.
Answer:
a) Forests serve as lungs for the world. They purify the air and protect the earth from greenhouse effect and global warming,
b) Forests are rich habitats for plants

Question 4.
Ravi observed symbol on the plastic water bottle purchased by him. What does this symbol indicate? and animals.
Answer:
The symbol on the plastic bottle indicates that the bottle is made from recycled plastic and after its use it can be recycled.

Question 5.
Write any two suggestions for the conservation of biodiversity at your village.
Answer:

1. Protecting and preserving the natural habitats of birds and animals.
2. Replace the wood products with alternative sources.
3. Using Recycled products and following the 4’R Principle in day to day life.

Question 6.
Suggest any two activities to check soil erosion in your school.
Answer:

1. Observe the school ground after the rain.
2. Conduct a field project on soil erosion.

Question 7.
To create awareness on “Water conservation” in your locality, what slogan you will suggest?
Prepare two slogans on ‘Save Water’ propaganda.
Answer:
“Don’t Waste Water”.
“Save every drop”.
“Water is life”.

Question 8.
The symbol is there on the item you bought. What it instructs? (OR)
What does the given logo indicate? What does it mean?

Answer:
It is the Recycle logo. It indicates that the item we bought is prepared from recycled materials or the item can be recycled after use.

Question 9.
What happens if the forest area decreases rapidly?
Answer:
If the forest area decreases

1. It destroys wildlife habitat.
2. It increases soil erosion.
3. It releases green house gases into the atmosphere contributing to global warming.
4. It also harms people who relay on forest for their survival, hunting and gathering, harvesting forest products or using timber and firewood.

Question 10.
Write two activities which you are performing to save electricity.
(OR)
Write any two measures vou take in your home to reduce the consumption of electricity.
Answer:

1. We can reduce the consumption of electricity by putting off the fans and lights when there is no need.
2. We can use LED (Lighting Emitting Device) bulbs to save electricity.
3. To shut down laptops and computers when they are not in use.

Question 11.
Prepare two slogans on protecting non-renewable resources.
Answer:

1. Use Biofuel – Reduce Fossil Fuel.
2. Use alternative resources – Save the environment.

Question 12.
Write two examples for non-renewable resources.
Answer:
Examples for non-renewable resources are coal, petroleum and natural gas.

Question 13.
What is sustainable development? Is it needful for us?
Answer:
When we use the environment In ways that ensure we have resources for the future, It Is called sustainable development. It Is needed because development and conservation can coexist In harmony.

Question 14.
What are examples for natural resources?
Answer:
Examples for natural resources are water, soil, forests, flora, fauna, etc.

Question 15.
What are percolation tanks?
Answer:
Percolation tanks are normally earthen dams with masonry structures where water may overflow.

Question 16.
What are Kharif crops?
Answer:
Crops grown In the rainy season are termed as Kharif crops, e.g: Paddy, maize, millet and cotton crops.

Question 17.
What are Rabi crops?
Answer:
The crops that are grown only in winter season are generally called Rabi crops, e.g.: Wheat, Gram and Mustard.

Question 18.
What is the average fall of ground water level in Andhra Pradesh state during the period of 1998 – 2002?
Answer:
The average fall of ground water level In Andhra Pradesh state during the period of 1998 – 2002 Is 3 meters.

Question 19.
Which agency in villages of Warangal district helped in recharging wells that were being dried up?
Answer:
Centre for water solidarity (Secundrabad, T.S.) helped In recharging wells that were drying up In the villages.

Question 20.
Give examples for micro irrigation techniques.
Answer:
Drip irrigation, sprinklers are the examples for micro irrigation techniques.

Question 21.
Mow did the boundaries between the villages were fixed in ancient times?
Answer:
In ancient times village boundaries were decided upon a water shed (Land between water sources usually of two rivers or streams) basis fixed at the common point of the drainage system In between two villages by the expert farmers In the village.

Question 22.
Expand ICRISAT.
Answer:
International Crop Research Institute for Semi-Arid Tropics.

Question 23.
What is the other name for Sri Rama Sagar Project?
Answer:
Sri Rama Sagar Project also known as the Pochampadu project on the Godavari river,

Question 24.
What is the use qf planting Gliricidia on field bunds?
Answer:
Planting Gliricidia on field bunds help In strengthen them and make the soli nitrogen-rich.

Question 25.
What is the micro irrigation system that can reduce water consumption by 70%?
Answer:
Drip irrigation can reduce water consumption by 70%.

Question 26.
Who predicted that by 2025, 1.8 billion people will be living in countries or regions with absolute water scarcity ?
Answer:
The Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) of the united nations has predicted that by 2025, 1.8 billion people will be living in countries or regions with absolute water scarcity.

Question 27.
What happens if we use resources wisely?
Answer:
If resources are used wisely and efficiently they will last much longer. Through conservation people can reduce waste and manage natural resources wisely.

Question 28.
Give an example of country where restrictions on water usage were imposed.
Answer:
In Australia restrictions were imposed on activities like, watering lawns by using sprinkler systems, washing vehicles, using house pipes to clean paved areas, and refilling swimming pools.

Question 29.
Why are the natural resources used up quickly?
Answer:
The population of human beings has grown enormously in the past two centuries. Billions of people use up resources quickly as they eat food, build houses, produce goods and burn fuel for transportation and electricity.

Question 30.
What happens if we damage a forest resource?
Answer:
Harm to animals that may be forced to find new habitats. If we damage a forest resource indiscriminately the depletion of resources occur and we may have to face problem for water and timber in future.

Question 31.
What are the results of deforestation?
Answer:
Deforestation destroys wild life habitats and increases soil erosion and also releases green house gases into atmosphere, contributing to global warming.

Question 32.
How the people in China and Mexico recycle paper? (OR)
Give an example of recycling paper by the people. What is the use of recycling paper?
Answer:
People in China and Mexico reuse much of their waste paper, including writing paper, wrapping paper and card board.

Question 33.
How the soil is important for us ? How the soil is importane for us?
Answer:
Soil is vital to food production and also important to plants that grow in the wild.

Question 34.
What are the reasons for depletion of nutrients in soil?
Answer:
Poor farming methods, such as repeatedly planting the same type of crop in the same place cause depletion of nutrients in the soil.

Question 35.
What is biodiversity?
Answer:
Biodiversity is the variety of living things that populate the Earth.

Question 36.
How are people speeding up the loss of biodiversity?
Answer:
Through hunting, pollution, habitat destruction, people are speeding up the loss of biodiversity.

Question 37.
How many plant species are being used by us for medicines world wide?
Answer:
We use between 50,000 to 70,000 plant species for medicines world wide.

Question 38.
What is selective harvesting?
Answer:
The practice or removing individual plants or small groups of plants leaving other plants standing to anchor the soil is called selective harvesting.

Question 39.
How are fossil fuels produced?
Answer:
The fuels that are produced from the remains of ancient plants and animals are called fossil fuels. They include coal, petroleum and natural gas.

Question 40.
What are the alternate sources of energy?
Answer:
The alternate sources of energy are sun, wind and water.

Question 41.
What are the other products made from petroleum?
Answer:
Plastic, synthetic, rubber, fabrics like nylon, medicines, cosmetics, waxes, cleaning products, medical devices, etc., are the other products made from petroleum.

Question 42.
Which plant’s seeds are used for the production of bio-fuel?
Answer:
Seeds from the Jatropa Curcas plant are used for the production of bio-fuel.

Question 43.
How does the mining method, Mountain Top Removal mining (MTR) devastate the environment?
Answer:
The mining method Mountain Top Removal mining devastate the environment. They destroy soil, plants and animal habitats.

Question 44.
In which country car manufacturers recycle many raw materials used in making automobiles?
Answer:
In Japan car manufacturers recycle many raw materials used in making automobiles.

Question 45.
In which country nearly one third of the iron produced comes from recycled automobiles?
A. In the United States, nearly one-third of the iron produced comes from recycled automobiles.

Question 46.
What does the Indian tradition teach us?
Answer:
The Indian tradition teaches us that all forms of life – human, animal and plant are so closely inter linked that disturbance of one gives rise to imbalance in the other.

Question 47.
Expand IUCN.
Answer:
IUCN stands for International Union for the Conservation of Nature.

Question 48.
How is IUCN planning to protect wild life and habitats?
Answer:
IUCN monitors the status of endangered wild life, threatened national parks and preserves.

Question 49.
What are the four R’s to save the environment?
Answer:
Reduce, Reuse, Recycle, Recover are the four R’s to save the environment.

Question 50.
How did Amritha Devi and her daughters protest against the king’s order?
Answer:

1. Amritha Devi and her daughters, followed by villagers, who clung to trees in the forest surrounding their village and laid down their lives to save them.
2. They protested against the king’s order to collect wood for the construction of his palace.

Question 51.
Write a method of soil conservation.
Answer:
One soil conservating method is called contour strip cropping. Several crops such as corn, wheat and clover are planted to alternating strips across a slope or across the path of the prevailing wind.

Question 52.
What is the rate of extinction by the estimation of the scientists?
Answer:

1. Scientists estimate that the current rate of extinction is 1,000 times the natural rate through hunting, pollution, habitat destruction.
2. Based on various estimates of the number of species on Earth, we could be losing anywhere from 200 to 1,00,000 species each year.

Question 53.
What is the need to protect biodiversity?
Answer:
We need to protect biodiversity to ensure plentiful and varied food sources. Biodiversity is important for more than just food because many plant species are being used for medicines.

Question 54.
Mention two ways in which water harvesting can be undertaken?
Answer:
The two ways by which water harvesting can be undertaken are

1. Capturing run off water from, rooftops.
2. Capturing run off water from local catchments.

Question 55.
On the basis of the issues raised in the chapter management of natural resources, what changes you in corporate in your lifestyle in a move towards a sustainable use of our resources?
Answer:
I would incorporate the maximum of four R’s i.e., reduce, recycle, reuse and recover in my lifestyle in a move towards a sustainable use of our resources.

10th Class Biology 10th Lesson Natural Resources 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Rahul remarked that different human activities are responsible for global warming.
What might be the reasons for his statement?
Answer:

1. Deforestation.
2. Industrialisation and urbanization.
3. Conversion of agriculture lands into residential areas.
4. Home appliances like A/C, refrigerators, vehicle pollution.
5. Population explosion.

Question 2.
What steps do you take to improve natural resources?
Answer:

1. Motivate the people to conserve water.
2. Try to avoid wastage of water whenever possible.
3. Plantation in the vacant lands.
4. Educating the farmer regarding proper utilization of water for irrigation.
5. Encourage the people to recycle the water wherever possible.

Question 3.
Proper utilisation of natural resources is the way to show gratitude to our nation.
Can you support this statement? Give your argument.
Answer:

1. Natural resources of a nation influence its economical and social development.
2. Natural resources are freely available in nature and help in many activities and development of people.
3. The generation of natural resources take a lot of time.
4. They disappear by indiscriminate usage.
5. So proper utilization of natural resources is the way to show gratitude to our nation.

Question 4.
The humans are utilising natural resources indiscriminately. These resources are decreasing more rapidly. Guess what will be the consequences in future?
Answer:
Indiscriminate usage of natural resources causes the following consequences.

1. Reduction in rainfall
2. Drought will occur.
3. Atmospheric temperature becomes increase.
4. The rare species become extinct.

Question 5.
Write any four slogans on the conservation of natural resources.
Answer:
Slogans:

1. Waste water today – live in desert tomorrow
2. Practice eco-friendly methods.
3. Use natural resources judiciously.
4. Save nature – Save future.

Question 6.
There is an increase in the atmospheric temperature year by year. If it continues, guess and write what would be the consequences?
Answer:
If the temperature on earth increases, the consequences would be as follows.
a) All the glaciers and the frozen ice in the polar region start melting leading to rise in the sea water levels.
b) It results in the submergence of low lying coastal areas throughout the world. Millions of people of those areas would lost their homes.
c) Changes in rainfall patterns take place and it result in the occurance of droughts and decrease in crop production.
d) Global warming results in climate change which cause the breakout of climatic sensitive diseases like Malaria, Dengue, Diarrhoea, etc.

Question 7.
There is water scarcity in Ravi’s village during summer. He wants to conduct a rally to create awareness regarding conservation of water. Write any four slogans required to conduct this rally.
Answer:

1. Water is life.
2. Save water – Save a life.
3. Today’s rain water is tomorrow’s life saver.
4. No matter your occupation, water conservation is your obligation.

Question 8.
What steps you take to conserve the biofuels in your daily life?
Answer:

1. Development and usage of alternative energy resources in place of bio-fuels.
2. Minimise the usage of bio-fuels whenever possible.
3. Use public transport, ride by bicycle and walking regularly.
4. Use and purchase energy efficient appliances to save bio-fuels.

Question 9.
Why do we use fossil fuels judiciously?
Answer:

1. Fossil fuels were produced from the remains of ancient plants and animals.
2. They include coal, petroleum (oil) and natural gas.
3. We need to use fossil fuels judiciously because they are non – renewable resources.
4. We need to conserve fossil fuels so we don’t run out of them.
5. The pollution caused by them when burnt, to limit our fossil fuel use.
6. Future generations may not get these resources.
7. Balance in the nature will be disturbed.
8. Electricity production will be stopped.
9. Vehicles running with fossil fuels become useless.

Question 10.
Write two suggestions to create awareness on groundwater conservation.
Answer:

1. We need to adapt different methods to Improve the quality and increase the quantity of groundwater.
2. We should dig water harvesting pits for every house.
3. We should clean the silt, mud fill in tanks and ponds.
4. We should prohibit the establishment of borewells for extraction of groundwater for agricultural and Industrial use.
5. These measures will improve quality and quantity of groundwater.

Question 11.
What is the importance of 4R’s in achieving the goal of “Swachh Bharat”?
Answer:

1. Reduce the production of garbage.
2. Reuse the garbage for the production of manure and electricity.
3. Recycle the garbage by separating It as dry and wet garbage.
4. Recover the plants.

Question 12.
Suggest four measures to conserve fossil fuels.
Answer:
Measures to conserve fossil fuels:

1. Usage of alternatives to fossil fuel.
2. Minimise the usage of fossil fuel.
3. Walk, ride by bicycle and use public transportation whenever possible.
4. Purchase energy efficient appliances.
5. Turn off light and other electronics when you are not using them.

Question 13.
The indiscriminate digging of Borewells may result in what type of consequences in future?
Answer:

1. Due to over drilling of borewells and pulling out water by electric motors, the ground water level Is decreasing day by day.
2. It Is goes on without recharging, ground water becomes scarce.
3. It shows impact on agriculture and the productivity will decrease.
4. Fluorine levels In ground water will increase.
5. Sometimes, saline water may intrude Into the interior places of land and water becomes unfit for consumption.
6. Farmers have to drill the bore wells to more depths which Increase the losses for them.

Question 14.
Ramaiah made broad bed furrow around his field under employment guarantee scheme. Guess the reasons for if. If all the farmers of your village work together, will their water scarcity meet?
Answer:
The reason for Ramaiah making broad bed furrow around his field was, it is useful to conserve soil and water, fertilizer application weeding operations. It also conserves rain water.

The farmers are over coming the water scarcity by sharing water available in the village. They formed groups of farmer including large and small ones who would use the same water resource. Farmers were also motivated to use irrigation techniques like drip irrigation.

Question 15.
What are renewable sources and non-renewable resources?
Answer:
Renewable resources: Resources that can be replaced after they are used are called renewable resources.
Ex: Air, water and soil.
Non-renewable resources: Some other resources, cannot be replaced at all: Once they are used up they are gone forever and are called non renewable resources.
Ex: Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas (fossil fuels).

Question 16.
How do people waste natural resources?
Answer:

1. People often waste natural resources.
2. Animals are over hunted, forests are cleared, exposing land to wind and water damage.
3. Fertile soil is exhausted and lost to erosion because of poor farming practices.
4. Fuel supplies are depleted.
5. Water and air are polluted.
6. Water resources is indiscriminately used for crop growth.

Question 17.
How do people use the forest resources differently?
Answer:

1. The need to conserve resources often conflicts with other needs.
2. For some people, a forest area may be a good place to put a farm.
3. A timber company may want to harvest the area’s trees for construction materials.
4. A business company may want to build a factory or a shopping mall on the land.

Question 18.
What are die effects of deforestation?
Answer:

1. Deforestation destroys wild life habitats and increases soil erosion.
2. It also releases green house gases into the atmosphere, contributing to global warming,
3. Deforestation accounts for 15 per cent of the world’s green house gas emissions.
4. Deforestation also harms the people who rely on forests for their survival, hunting and gathering, harvesting forest products, or using the timber for firewood.

Question 19.
In your opinion What are the causes for soil erosion?
Answer:

1. Soil erosion is caused by poor farming methods such as repeatedly planting the same type of crop in the same place.
2. These methods deplete nutrients in the soil.
3. Soil erosion Is also caused by water and wind currents.
4. When farmers plough up and down hills, soil erosion occurs.
5. Overgrazing by cattle also causes soil erosion.
6. Natural floods causes the extensive damage to the top layer of the soil.

Question 20.
What is Biodiversity? Explain.
(OR)
What is the importance of biodiversity?
Answer:

1. Biodiversity is the variety of living things that populate the earth.
2. The products and benefits we get from nature rely on biodiversity.
3. We need to protect biodiversity to ensure plentiful and varied food sources.
4. Biodiversity is important for more than just food. For instance we use between 50,000 to 70,000 plant species for medicines world wide.

Question 21.
How can we use the fossil fuels carefully?
Answer:
We can use the fossil fuels carefully by taking the following measures.

1. Turn off lights and other electronics when we are not using them.
2. Purchase energy-efficient appliances.
3. Walk, ride a bicycle, if the distance is less.
4. Use public transportation whenever possible.
5. It is better to prefer public transport system like bus or train, instead of travel in personal vehicles.

Question 22.
Why the prices of aluminium and iron are expensive?
Answer:
Earth’s supply of raw material resources is in danger. Many mineral deposits that have been located and mapped have been depleted. As the ores for minerals like aluminium and iron become harder to find and extract, their prices go up.
This makes tools and machinery more expensive to purchase and operate.

Question 23.
What are the effects of mining?
Answer:

1. Many mining methods such as Mountain Top Removal mining (MTR) devastate the environment.
2. They destroy soil, plants and animal habitats.
3. Many mining methods also pollute water and air, as toxic chemicals leak into the surrounding ecosystem.

Question 24.
What did Smt. Indira Gandhi said, while launching the world conservation strategy in India on 6th March 1980?
Answer:
“The interest in conservation is not a sentimental one but the discovery of a truth well known to our ancient stages. The Indian tradition teaches us that all forms of life- human, animal and plant – are so closely inter-linked that disturbance in one gives rise to imbalance in the other” said by Smt. Indira Gandhi.

Question 25.
What are the steps taken by the government to conserve resources?
Answer:

1. Government enacts laws defining how land should be used and which areas should be set aside as parks and wild life preserves.
2. The government enforces laws designed to protect the environment from pollution, such as requiring factories to install pollution control devices and also provide incentives for conserving resources.

Question 26.
What is the necessity of sustainable management of natural resources? Out of the two methods reuse and recycle which one would you suggest to practice and why?
Answer:

1. Sustainable management of natural resources is necessary to Increase the over all life of natural resources specially non renewable resources and also to control the environmental pollution.
2. Both reuse and recycle are the good choice.
3. Reuse: If we reuse something then the cost of recycle will be saved.
4. Recycle: It is not necessary that each and everything can be reused, so after getting recycled the life of the resource will be enhanced.

Question 27.
“Burning fossil fuels is a cause of global warming”. Justify this statement?
Answer:

1. Fossil fuels are composed of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen and sulphur.
2. When these are burnt they produce CO₂, H₂O, Oxides of Nitrogen and Sulphur.
3. Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels produces green house gases such as CO₂,
4. If huge amount of fossil fuels are burnt, It would produce high amount of CO₂ resulting intense global warming.

Question 28.
Can you suggest some changes in your school which would make it environment friendly?
Answer:
The changes that would make my school environment friendly are

1. Save energy by turning off lights that we are not using.
2. I will suggest to buy recycled paper for decoration and other purposes.
3. Use writing paper on both the sides.
4. Growing trees and plants all around the play ground.

Question 29.
What is the necessity of replenishment of forest? State four reasons.
Answer:
The replenishment of forest is necessary because of the following reasons.

1. It is used to conserve soil.
2. It provides shelter to wild animals.
3. It reduces atmospheric pollution.
4. It controls flood and increases frequency of rainfall.

10th Class Biology 10th Lesson Natural Resources 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Forest is renewable resource. But, each year, the Earth loses about 36 million acres of forest. In this type of situation, what suggestions do you give to save forests from turning into non-renewable resources ?
Answer:

1. Forests are the lungs of the world. So I will suggest the following measures to save forests from turning into non-renewable resources.
2. Sustainable forestry practices for ensuing resources into the future.
3. Low impact logging practices, harvesting with natural regeneration in mind. Prevention of removing all the high value trees or all the largest trees from the forests. Recycling methods should be adopted.
4. Replace wood products with alternative sources.
5. Preventing forest fires.
6. Implementing methods like agro forestry, social forestry crop rotation, green plantation, etc. are essential.

Question 2.
What are four R’s? Explain how they help to conserve the environment?
(OR)
Write about the 4 ‘R’s needed for the protection and conservation of environment.
Answer:
By pursuing the maximum of four R’s i.e., Reduce, Reuse, Recycle and Recover, we can save the environment in an effective way.

1. Reduce : It means to use less, I would save electricity by switching off unnecessary lights and fans, prefer walking or cycling than using a vechicle, turn off the engine of car at red light, repair leaky taps and would not waste food.
2. Recycle: It means to collect used things like plastic, paper, galss and metal items and recycle these materials to make required things instead of synthesising or extracting fresh plastic, paper, glass or metal.
3. Reuse: It refers to use things again and again. For example instead of throwing away used envelops, they can be used by pasting new labels.
4. Recover: We should implement ‘recover’ to prevent environmental threat. For example when we cut trees to construct industries or roads for transportation, it is important to grow trees in another areas.

Question 3.
What steps you would like to follow on your part to conserve bio-diversity?
Answer:

1. Biodiversity is the variety of living things that populate the earth.
2. To conserve biodiversity we should avoid hunting.
3. Sustainable forest conservation methods should be followed.
4. I will actively participate Vana Mahosthavam programmes.
5. I will educate and encourage people and make them participate in conservation programmes.
6. Create awareness programmes in and around school.
7. Writing slogans and also make some posters about conservation of biodiversity
8. Judicious use of electricity wherever possible.
9. Finding out of various alternative sources of energy.
10. Plant the saplings in the habitat.
11. Encouraging of social forestry.

Question 4.
Observe the pie diagram showing water resources available in our state for agriculture and answer the given questions.
A) Which water resource is using more for agriculture?
B) What are the consequences of excess utilization of underground water?
C) Which water resource should be utilized for agriculture?
D) What are the alternative ways to increase the underground water resources?

Answer:
A) Ground water.
B) Underground water table will be depleted and scarcity of drinking water will arise.
C)

1. Tanks should be constructed to harvest with rain water.
2. Projects should be constructed across the rivers to store water that can be utilized for agriculture.

D)

1. Construction of rain water storage structures on large scale.
2. Constructing soaking or percolation pits.
3. Contour field bunding.
4. Recharge of wells by building dykes or barriers in the nalla.
5. Plantation in waste lands.
6. Adapting micro irrigation techniques.
   (Any two points you can write)

Question 5.
Forests are renewable resource. Write four sentences supporting this.
(OR)
“Forest is a renewable resource”. Do you agree? Justify.
Answer:

1. Forests are rich habitat for plants and animals. Forests serve as lungs for the world and a bed of nutrients for new fife to prosper.
2. Forest’s pure air protects the earth from green house effect by removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and converts it into oxygen.
3. Many fruits, medicines, dyes, sandle wood and bamboo is obtained from forest by local people.
4. Forest provide employment to large number of people and also help in generating revenue.

Question 6.
Observe the above table and answer the following questions.

Village	Type of Farmer	Income per acre on Crops
		Paddy	Cotton	Mirchi	Maize
A	Small	7,500	9,300	5,200	5,000
	Large	26,700	38,000	16,700	12,900
B	Small	7,200	8,750	4,900	5,100
	Large	32,900	42,000	18,400	13,700′

1. Which crop is most suitable to cultivate for small farmer in both the villages?
Answer:
Cotton, paddy

2. If you are a large farmer, which crop do you select to cultivate?
Answer:
Cotton, paddy, mirchi

3. What similarities you have identified in village A and village B?
Answer:
Small and large fanners cultivated same type of crop in both villages. Large farmer gets more income per acre on crops than small farmer in both the villages.

4. Which is the lowest income crop ?
Answer:
Mirchi.

5. Is there any relationship between production of crops and income ? How ?
Answer:
Commercial crops are good for income. Income may or may not related to production of crop. It depends upon demand of the market.

Question 7.
Read the given information and answer the following questions.

A survey was conducted in two villages, Vanaparthy and Vaddicherla of Warangal district in Telangana State. The first with no scarcity and the second with scarce groundwater. Well census was carried out in the villages in order to get a complete picture of well irrigation and its status as well as availability of water. There are no alternative sources of supply as against wells in Vaddicherla, where there is an existing tank that has been converted into a percolation tank, so that the water situation is much better in Vanaparthy.

i) Why did they conduct survey?
Answer:
A compartive study on available water resources irigation method in the Vaddicharla and Wanaparthi of Warangal Dist of Telangana State.

ii) What are irrigation resources in Telangana State?
Answer:
Lakes, wells, canals and ground water etc…,

iii) In which village, do you suggest drip irrigation?
Answer:
Vaddicherla.

iv) Why the water situation is much better in Vanaparthy village compared to Vaddicherla?
Answer:
Existing tank has been converted into a percolation tank.

Question 8.
Observe the Pie diagram and answer the following questions.
i) Identify the fossil fuels from the above diagram.
Answer:
Coal, natural gas, oils are fossil fuels.

ii) Why wastes should be considered as primary energy source in future?
Answer:
The fossil fuels may be exhausted in future. So we may be considered that wastes are primary alternative energy resources.

iii) Why can’t we depend on fossil fuels forever?
Answer:
We can’t depend on fossil fuels forever because fossil fuels are non-renewable resources.

iv) What are the alternatives for fossil fuels?
Answer:
Solar energy, wind energy, tide energy, nuclear energy, energy from waste materials.

Question 9.
Explain the importance and implementation of community based interventions and farmer based interventions for water management.
Answer:
Community based interventions:

1. For water harvesting, there is an urgent need to construct earthen and masonry dams. They help us to store rain water during rainy seasons. They are help in increasing the ground water table.
2. Construction of percolation pits and field bunding are very helpful in the harvesting every rain drop.
3. Open dry wells near nalla canal were recharged by building dykes or barriers in the nalla and maintaining the run – off rain water. The ground water is recharged by these community based interventions.
   Farmer based interventions:
4. Broad Bed Furrow (BBF) land form and contour planting methods are very useful to conserve soil, water and fertilizer application and weeding operations.
5. Planting Gliricidia, a leguminous plant adapted to grow in dry areas on field bunds to strengthen them and make the soil nitrogen rich.
6. Farmers were encouraged to use water resource jointly and irrigate land using micro irrigation methods like sprinklers and drip irrigation.

Question 10.
Explain the farmer based and community based interventions to conserve soil and water resources.
Answer:

Water Management	Collected information
Farmer based water management	1. Farmer based water management implemented individual fields were Broad Bed Furrow (BBF) land form and Contour Planting to conserve in situ soil and water. 2. Use of tropiculator for planting, fertilizer appli­cation and weeding operations. Planting Gliricidia on field bunds to strengthen bunds conserve rain water and supply nitrogen rich organic matter for in situ application to crops. 3. Farmers will obtain 250 kg more pigeon pea and 50 kg more maize per hectare using broad bed furrows and micro irrigation techniques.
Community based water management	1. Fourteen water storage structures (one earthen and 13 masonry dams) with water storage capac­ity of 300 to 2000 m3 were to be constructed in Kothapally village of Rangareddy district. 2. More than 250 rain harvesting structures such as checkdams mini percolation pits, sunken pits and gully plugs were erected in watershed throughout the topo – sequence. 3. Farmers were encouraged for water sharing methods. They formed groups of farmers including large and small ones who would use the same water resource. 4. Farmers have to motivated to use irrigation techni- quies like drip irrigation, sprinklers, etc. 5. Construction of soak pits will help to tap rain water optimally should carry out as community effort.

Question 11.
“The humans who were developed by using the natural resources, today has become the reason for destroying them”. Explain analytically.
Answer:
“The humans who were developed by using the natural resources, today has become the reason for destroying them” – This statement is absolutely true.

1. Primitive man lived in forests and hills. He used the natural resources for his livelyhood. He worshipped nature and used them wisely for his development.
2. After his development, he becomes greedy and using the natural resources indiscriminately and held responsible for their destruction.
3. To meet the needs of growing population, industrialization, urbanization, and huge constructive activities, man utilised natural resources Indiscriminately. At the same time, he did not planned for their revival.
4. But now he realised the importance of natural resources and taken up steps for their conservation. The concept of “Sustainable development” is being implemented in natural resource management.
5. He focussed on development of alternatives for fossil fuels, conservation of water and soil at community level and farmer based interventions.
6. Now he is so keen on conserving forests, wild life and biodiversity.
7. He is so cautious in minimising the utilization of natural resources by following 4’R principle in the day to day life [R – Reduce, R – Reuse, R – Recycle, R – Recover]
8. Now, he is adopting micro-irrigation methods like sprinklers and drip Irrigation to minimise the water usage in low water available areas.
9. He is very interested in following eco-friendly techniques, natural farming methods, using biofertilizers, vermicompost and natural pest control methods in place of toxic chemical pesticides.

Question 12.
The wells and tanks in your village become dry. Ground water levels decreased. Assume the causes for this. Will there be no water scarcity if all the farmers of your village work collectively?
Answer:
Causes for decreasing ground water levels:

1. Varying monsoon behaviour in recent years, there is a pressure on ground water utilization.
2. Indiscriminate tapping of ground water in our village by too much drilling and construction of deep tube wells and bore wells have resulted in over exploitation and depletion of ground water resources.
3. There will be no water scarcity if all the farmers of our village work collectively. Farmers in our village were encouraged to use water resource jointly and irrigate land using micro irrigation techniques. By using micro irrigation techniques farmers in our village obtained more crop yield. Farmers in our village follow the micro irrigation method i.e. drip irrigation and can reduce water consumption by 70% in our village.

Question 13.
Whom do you meet to collect the information of the methods of farmer based, community based water management? Prepare information table to note down your observation.
Answer:
I will meet officials of International Crop Research Institute for Semi – Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) located at Hyderabad to collect information of the methods of farmer based and community based water management.
I also collect information from Central Research Institute for Dry Land Agriculture (CRIDA), National Remote Sensing Agency (NRSA), District Water Management Agency (DWMA) and M Venkatarangaiah Foundation (MVF) and NGO.
The information I gathered from these institutions is summarised below.
Information table:
For Information table See Q.No. 10 in 4 Marks.

Question 14.
Think that there is much scarcity of water for drinking and cultivation in your village. What advice do you give to prevent this?
(OR)
How do you overcome the problem of water scarcity in your village?
Answer:

1. Motivate the people to conserve water.
2. I will educate the people to avoid wastage of water whenever possible.
3. Construction of recharge pits in the house, school and in the open areas to increase the underground water level.
4. Planting trees wherever possible in the village particularly in the vacant lands.
5. Educate the farmers about the micro irrigation system like drip irrigation, sprin¬klers, etc.
6. Encourage the farmers to form groups to share available water among themselves.
7. Construction of percolation tanks in the low lying areas of the village.

Question 15.
What type of fossil fuels are used in your house? What measures do you take to conserve them?
Answer:
Fossil fuels are sources of energy for cooking, heating and burning in our households. Petrol and diesel are being used in our house for transport and running generators and water pumps.
Measures to be taken to conserve fossil fuels in my house :

1. I will put the food material to be cooked on the stove only after arranging all the things which are necessary for cooking.
2. By using pressure cookers 20% gas on rice and 41.5% on meat would be saved when compared to Other cooking means.
3. We must reduce the flame as soon as the boiling process starts in a pressure cooker. This process saves nearly 35% of fuel.
4. I will soak the food material before cooking. It saves 22% of fuel.
5. I will cook food in broad and low depth vessel.
6. I will keep lid on the cooking vessel. If not, it takes more time to cook.
7. For short distances to travel I will go by walk to save fuel for longer distance. I use public transport.
8. Encourage people to use solar water heater and solar cooker.

These AP 9th Class Biology Important Questions 1st Lesson Cell its Structure and Functions will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Biology 1st Lesson Important Questions and Answers Cell its Structure and Functions

9th Class Biology 1st Lesson Cell its Structure and Functions 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What are the cell organelles present in a cell?
Answer:
The cell organelles present in a cell are endoplasmic reticulum, golgi apparatus, lysosomes, mitochondria, ribosomes, plastids and vacuoles.

Question 2.
What is the role played by cell wall in plant cells?
Answer:

• Cell wall excretes and inward wall pressure to resists the outward directed pres¬sure exerted by cell sap.
• So, the plant cells can withstand much greater changes in surrounding medium than animal cells.

Question 3.
What is cell theory?
Answer:

• Cell theory was proposed by Schleiden and Schwann.
• All living organisms are composed of cells and product of cell.
• All cells arise from pre-existing cells.

Question 4.
Write one precaution while observing nucleus in cheek cells.
Answer:

• Do not scrap the cheek too hard as it may injure the buccal mucosa.
• Excess stain should be drained off.

Question 5.
Name the colourless plastids in plants.
Answer:
Leucoplasts

Question 6.
Write the name of the plastids that are responsible for different colours in flowers and fruits.
Answer:
Chromoplasts

Question 7.
Mention the cell organell that is called “Protein factories”.
Answer:
Ribosomes

Question 8.
Name the cell organell that is known as “suicidal bags of the cell”.
Answer:
Lysosomes.

Question 9.
Write the main function of Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum.
Answer:
The SER helps in the manufacture of fat molecules or lipids important for cell function.

Question 10.
What happens if Endoplasmic reticulum is destroyed in the cell?
Answer:
The transportation of substances from one part to another part of the cell will not occur.

Question 11.
What is the site of protein synthesis in the cell?
Answer:
Ribosomes

Question 12.
Write some examples for prokaryotic cells.
Answer:
Bacterium, Cyanobacteria and Blue green algae are examples for prokaryotic cells.

Question 13.
Write the unique feature seen in plant cells.
Answer:
Presence of cell wall is the unique feature seen in plant cells.

Question 14.
Name the selectively permeable membrane that covers the cell.
Answer:
Plasma membrane

Question 15.
What is an enzyme?
Answer:
An organic catalyst which catalyses a reaction within a cell.

Question 16.
Who coined the term ’Cytoblast’ and why?
Answer:
Schleiden called the nucleus as cytoblast, because he thought that new cells were created from the nucleus.

Question 17.
What is the site of cellular respiration?
Answer:
Mitochondria

Question 18.
What are vacuoles and write their function.
Answer:
Vacuoles are the fluid filled sac like structures present in the cytoplasm. They store solid or liquid contents.

9th Class Biology 1st Lesson Cell its Structure and Functions 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is the difference between protoplasm and cytoplasm?
Answer:

• There is a fluid present inside the cell.
• For a long time it was believed that the essence of life was stored in the fluid.
• Hence the fluid was named as protoplasm, which means life fluid.
• When it became clear that the fluid is basically a medium in which various particles and membranes float, protoplasm was renamed as cytoplasm.

Question 2.
Take one grape fruit and place it in salt solution, Note the observations.
Answer:

• I take one grape fruit and placed it in salt solution.
• After sometime I observed that the fruit shrunk.
• This is because of loss of water inside the fruit, it comes out into salt solution.
• During this, the process of osmosis takes place.

Question 3.
Collect some parts of plants like, orange, beetroot, raddish, drumsticks, lady’s fin-ger, Jasmine, etc. and put a tick mark if you find the listed plastids present in them.
Answer:

Question 4.
Why animals depend upon plants for food?
Answer:

• Animal cells do not have chloroplasts.
• Chloroplast trap the energy from sunlight.
• It converts solar energy to chemical energy which takes place during photosynthesis.
• During the process of photosynthesis food materials are formed.
• Due to lack of chloroplasts animals are unable to prepare their own food.
• So, animals depend on plants for food.

Question 5.

Cell organelle	Function
Nucleus	Nucleus regulates and controls all the functions of a cell and determines the characteristics of the organism.
Endoplasmic reticulum	1. It serve as channels for the transport of materials within the cell.
	2. It also functions as a cytoplasmic framework for various biochemical activities.
Golgi Apparatus	It package various substances. Proteins are altered slightly by golgi apparatus.
Lysosomes	It participates in intracellular digestion. It destroys the cell contents.
Mitochondria	It produces energy through cellular respiration.
Plastids	These are responsible for the colour of the plant cell.
A. Chloroplasts	These trap solar energy and convert this to chemical energy during photosynthesis.
B. Chromoplasts	These are responsible for the coloured fruits, flowers.
C. Leucoplasts	These are colourless, stores carbohydrates, oils and proteins.

Study the table and answer the questions.
1) Name the cell structure that helps in photosynthesis.
2) Name the cell organell that participates in intercellular digestion.
Answer:

1. Chloroplasts
2. Lysosomes

Question 6.
What happens if stomata are closed with paraffin wax?
Answer:

• Stomata helps in exchange of gases in leaf.
• If the stomata are closed with paraffin wax gaseous exchange will not takes place.

Question 7.
What questions do you pose to know more details about plasma membrane?
Answer:

1. How can you say that plasma membrane is also known as selectively permeable membrane?
2. Name the substances that can pass through the plasma membrane.
3. Give examples for selectively permeable membrane.

Question 8.
Write the main function of the cell wall.
Answer:

• The cell wall is tough but flexible porous layer that gives a definite shape to the cell.
• It provides protection to the cell from the external shocks.

Question 9.
Venu is asking his teacher about different functions of cell organells of Eukaryotic cell. What questions he would ask to his teacher ?
Answer:

1. Prokaryotic cells devoid of nucleus . Why?
2. Are the cell organells of same size in all the higher animals?
3. Why lysosomes are called suicidal bags of the cell?
4. What happens if cell wall is not present in plant cell?

Question 10.
Write about plastids.
Answer:

• Plastids are present only in plant cells.
• Plastids mainly of two types. 1. Chromoplasts (coloured) and leucoplasts (colourless).
• Chloroplasts are the type of chromoplasts present only in plants.
• The primary function of a chloroplast is to trap the energy of sunlight and transform it to chemical energy thus helping to carryout photosynthesis.
• Chromoplasts are responsible for having various colours of fruits, flowers and leaves.
• Leucoplasts are used to store starch, oil and proteins.

Question 11.
Write differences between plasma membrane and cell wall.
Answer:

Plasma membrane	Cell wall
1. Made up of lipid and proteins.	1. Made up of cellulose.
2. It is Living.	2. It is Dead.
3. Present in both plant and animal cell.	3. Found exclusively in plant cells.

Question 12.
What is the reason for colour change in tomatoes? (green – white – yellow – red)
Answer:
1) Plastids are responsible for colour change in tomatoes.

2) Plastids are of three types :
1. Chromoplasts (coloured)
2. Leucoplasts (colourless)
3. Chloroplasts (green)

3) All the three plastids have the capacity to change from one to another.

4) As the young tomatoes mature we see green, white, yellow and red coloured tomatoes.

Question 13.
Draw a neat and labelled diagram of nucleus.
Answer:

Question 14.
Draw a neat and labelled diagram showing L.S of mitochondria.
Answer:

Question 15.
Draw a neat and labelled diagram showing the structure of chloroplast.
Answer:

Question 16.
Draw a neat and labelled diagram of Endoplasmic Reticulum find in electron microscope.
Answer:

Question 17.
What is the function of a nucleus in a cell?
Answer:

• The nucleus plays a vital role in the cell.
• It controls all functions of the cell. It controls cell division.
• Nucleus contains chromosomes. These chromosomes contain DNA and proteins.

Question 18.
“Cell is the structural and functional unit of life” – How?
Answer:
a) A cell is capable of independently carrying out all necessary activities of life,
b) Hence, it is called the structural and functional unit of life.

Question 19.
What is Protoplasm? Who coined this term and when?
Answer:
a) The living fluid substance of the cell is called “Protoplasm”
b) Purkinje in 1839 coined the term protoplasm.

Question 20.
Name the smallest and largest known cells in this world?
Answer:
a) The smallest known cells is pneumonea cell. It is about 0.1 m in diameter.
b) An Ostrich egg cell is the largest known cell. It is 170 x 135 mm approximately.

Question 21.
What will happen to the size of the cell if it is placed in such solutions which vary in their concentrations.
a) When placed in Hypotonic solution?
b) When placed in Isotonic solution?
Answer:

• When a cell is placed in Hypotonic solution (dilute solution), water enters into the cell. Hence the cell swells up.
• When a cell is placed in Isotonic solution (same concentration), there is no movement of water. Hence the cell will stay the same size.

Question 22.
“A cell is a building unit of an organism”. Do you agree with this statement? If yes, explain why.
Answer:

• I agree with the above statement.
• A cell is a building unit of an organism because it is responsible for building the entire body of an organism.

Question 23.
What is Osmosis?
Answer:
Osmosis is the passage of water or any solvent from a region of its lower concentration to a higher concentration through a semi permeable membrane.

Question 24.
What are genes? What is their function?
Answer:
Genes are the segments of DNA present on the chromosomes. These are the hereditary units which are transmitted from one generation to another by chromosomes.

9th Class Biology 1st Lesson Cell its Structure and Functions 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write a short note on the Golgi apparatus.
Answer:

• Camillo Golgi first observed the golgi bodies in 1898.
• This is made up of several membranes.
• These membranes create sac-like structure around which many fluid-filled vesicles abound.
• The proteins and other substances produced in the ribosomes reaches the golgi body through these vesicles.
• This organelle package various substances before Ciste they are transported to other parts of the cell. _
• The number of golgi bodies varies from cell to cell. Golgi apparatus
• They are large in number in those cells that secrete hormones and enzymes.

Question 2.
Write about mitochondria.
Answer:

• Mitochondria are small, spherical or cylindrical in shape.
• They are 2-8 micron long and about 0.5 micron wide.
• It is about 150 times smaller than the nucleus.
• 100 – 150 are present in each cell.
• They are made of a double-membrane
• The inner membrane of the wall protrudes into the interior in folds and forms cristae.
• The space between cristae is known as the matrix.
• They are responsible for cellular respiration.
• Energy generated and stored in mitochondria.
• Hence they are also called as cell’s power house.

Question 3.
Write a note on Cytoskeleton.
Answer:

• Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) is one of the important cell organelle.
• It extends all over the cell, so it is also called as cytoskeleton.
• It is responsible for the transport of substances from one part of the cell to another.

• RER has ribosomes on its surface which are caused for protein manufacture.
• The SER helps in the manufacture of fat molecules.
• Invertebrate liver cells SER plays a crucial role in detoxifying many poisons and drugs.

Question 4.
How could you appreaciate the function of nucleus in a cell?
Answer:

• Nucleus is the most prominent one of all cell organelles.
• This is also known as cell’s control room.
• It was named by Robert Brown in 1831.
• All cells have nucleus except a few cells.
• In mammal red blood cells and phloem sieve tube in plants nucleus is absent.
• It regulates and controls all the functions of the cell.
• It determines the characteristics of the organism.
• It is the barrier of all genetic information.
• It involved in the process of cell division.
• If there is no nucleus in the cell, growth of organism not takes place.

Question 5.
Draw the diagram of nucleus and label it.
Answer:

Question 6.
Why the colouring fruits or vegetables changes? Support your answer.
Answer:

• In plants plastids are responsible for the colouring of fruits and vegetables.
• There are 3 types of plastids present in plants.
• Chloroplasts are responsible for green colour.
• Chromoplasts are responsible for different colours, i.e., orange, yellow, red etc.
• Leucoplasts are responsible for white colour.
• These plastids have the capacity to change from one form to another.
• E.g. : Young tomatoes are white in colour as they mature they turn to green and then to red in colour.

Question 7.
In what way different colours in flowers helpful to bio-diversity?
Answer:

• We can easily identify their species at a glance.
• By having different colours plants attracts insects for pollination, for their propagation.
• By having different colours plants appeal to the aesthetic sense of man, immense pleasure and happiness.
• This is useful in the propagation of plants by the human beings.
• Generally butterflies are known as the pollinators, but in fact they are the indicators of the health of an ecosystem.

Question 8.
Describe endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer:

• The network or membranes present in the cytoplasm for the transport of substances
  from the one part of the cell to another is known as endoplasmic reticulum.
• Endoplasmic reticulum is of two types.
  i) Rough endoplasmic reticulum and
  ii) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
• Endoplasmic reticulum having ribosomes on their surface is known as rough endoplasmic reticulum.
• The rough endoplasmic reticulum is the sites of protein synthesis.
• Ribosomes are absent in smooth endoplasmic reticulum and is involved in lipid synthesis.
• One function of the endoplasmic reticulum is to serve as channels for the transport of materials within the cytoplasm.
• It also function as a cytoplasmic framework providing a surface for some of the biochemical activities of the cell.

Question 9.
Observe the following slides under the microscope and draw their pictures. Write the cell organelles in them.
Answer:

Organelles present in Amoeba :
Nucleus, contractile vacuole, food vacuole etc.

Organelles present in Euglena :
Nucleus, chloroplasts, contractile vacuole, reservoir, paraflagellar body, endosome etc.

Cell organelles present in Paramoecium :
Anterior and posterior contractile vacuoles, micronucleus, macronucleus, cytostome, cytopyge, food vacuole etc.

Question 10.
Collect the names and photographs of scientists helped for the development of cell biology. Give brief note on them.
Answer:

• 1632 – 1723 Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek constructed simple microscope and draws protozoa, verticella from rain water and bacterium from his mouth.
• 1665 Robert Hooke discover cells in Cork, then in living plant tissues using an early compound microscope.
• In 1831 Robert Brown discovered nucleus. In 1839 Purkinje coined the term protoplasm.
• In 1839 Theodar Schwann and M.J. Schleiden proposed cell theory.
• 1855 – Rudolf Carl Virchow observed cell division.
• 1931 – Earnest Ruska built first transmission electron microscope.
• 1953 – Watson & Crick made their first announcement on the double helix structure of DNA.
• Albert Claude, father of cell biology awarded Nobel prize for Physiology (Medicine) in 1974.
• 1981 – Lynn Margulis published symbiosis in cell evolution detailing the endosymbiotic theory.

9th Class Biology 1st Lesson Cell its Structure and Functions Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What happens if there are no mitochondria in eukaryotic cell?
Answer:
If Mitochondria are absent in Eukaryotes, the energy required to perform all cellular activities will not be released. Hence, all the biological activities occurring in the cell will be stopped ultimately. This leads to the death of the eukaryotic cell.

Question 2.
What are the differences between protoplasm and cytoplasm?
Answer:

• Protoplasm is the content of the cell including the cell membrane, cytoplasm and the cell nucleus.
• Cytoplasm is the jelly like substance surrounding the nucleus within the cell membrane. The cytoplasm contains the cell organelles like mitochondria, ribosomes, etc.

Question 3.
a) Identify the figure and write the parts.
b) Write a short note on the above figure.

Answer:
a)

1. Matrix
2. Cristae
3. Inner membrane
4. Outer membrane

b)

1. The above shown cell organelle is mitochondria.
2. It performs cellular respiration and releases energy required for all cellular activities.
3. Mitochondria is also known as “Power house of the cell”.
4. Mitochondria are made up of a double membrane wall. The inner membrane of the wall protrudes into the interior in folds and forms structures called cristae.
5. The space between cristae is filled with a fluid known as the matrix.

Question 4.
Write the functions of the following cell organelles.

Answer:

• Mitochondria performs cellular respiration. They release energy for all biological activities of the cell.
• Chloroplasts trap the solar energy and helpful in photosynthesis through which plants derive their food.

Question 5.
a) Draw a neat labelled diagram of a plant cell.
b) Write the functions of endoplasmic reticulum.
Answer:
a)

b) Functions of Endoplasmic Reticulum :

1. The ER is to serve as channels for the transport of materials between various regions of the cytoplasm or between the cytoplasm and the nucleus.
2. It is the site of many bio – chemical activities in the cell.
3. It helps in the synthesis of proteins and lipids.
4. In vertebrate liver cells, SER plays a crucial role in detoxifying many poisons and drugs.

Question 6.
What does the modern cell theory propose?
Answer:
i) All living organisms are composed of cells and products of the cells.
ii) All cells arise from the pre existing cells.

Question 7.
What happens if lysosomes are absent in the cell?
Answer:
The materials that need to be destroyed are sent to lysosomes. They release the enzymes and digest them. If lysosomes are not present, the harmful substances which are dangerous to the cell would not be destroyed. The cell may die.

Question 8.
Name the chemical substance used in cheek cell lab activity.
Answer:
Methylene blue

Question 9.
Describe the nucleus of cell with the help of a well labelled diagram.

Answer:

• The membrane that encloses the nucleus and separates it from contents of cytoplasm is known as nuclear membrane.
• The entire genetic material of the cell is found in the nucleus.
• The nucleus has fluid like substance called nucleoplasm.
• In the centro of the nucleus, we can see a round shaped structure called nucleolus.
• Nucleus controls and regulates all the activities of the cell.
• Nucleus is closely involved in the process of cell division.

WorkBook Part

1. Write an activity to observe the nucleus in cheek cells.
2. Write a brief notes about mitochondria with help of the diagram.
3. Draw the diagram of Nucleus and label its parts.
4. Write name of the following figure and write its parts.
5. Write the name of the following figure and write its parts.

These AP 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions 14th Lesson Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 19th Century will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social 14th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 19th Century

9th Class Social 14th Lesson Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 19th Century 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How do you appreciate the Cavours role in unification of Italy? (SA-II : 2017-18)
Answer:
Cavour’s work in the Unification of Italy is appreciable.
He unify the regions of Italy through a tactful diplomatic alliance with France and he worked neither a revolutionary nor a democrat.

Question 2.
Who formed ‘Young Italy’? Why? (SA-I : 2019-20)
Answer:
Young Italy was formed by Joseph Mazzini.
The main reason is to unified Italy and would touch off a European wide revolutionary movement.

9th Class Social 14th Lesson Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 19th Century 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.

Read the map given above and answer the following questions. (SA-III : 2016-17)
1. Mention the names of any two islands that are shown in the map?
2. The states which are shown above, are parts of which country now?
Answer:
1. Corsica, Sardinia, and Sicily.
2. At present the states which are shown in map are related to the country Italy.

Question 2.
What were the political, social, and economic ideas supported by the liberals in France in the beginning of 19th century? (SA-I : 2018-19)
Answer:
Political, social, and economic ideas supported by liberals.
→ Freedom for the individual.
→ Equality of all before the law.
→ Concept of government by consent.
→ End of autocracy and privileges of the church.
→ Constitution and representative government through parliament.
→ Inviolability of private property.

Question 3.
With reference to the Unification of Germany, answer the following questions. (SA-I : 2019-20)
i) Which country took leadership for Unification of Germany?
Answer:
Prussia.

ii) With what 3 countries did Bismarck go to war to achieve German unification?
Answer:
Denmark, Austria, and France.

9th Class Social 14th Lesson Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 19th Century 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
The French women fought for which rights ? in the context of India, were the women given all these rights? Write your analysis. (SA-I : 2018-19)
Answer:
French women fought for Right to vote, Right ot contest to Legislature, and Right to capture political power.
Then in the context of India all Indian women who are eligible, get all the above rights. Even though in the issue of gaining above the rights some negligence is there in India.

1. Representation of women in legislature is very less.
2. Women Reservation bill is still not approved in Lok Sabha.
3. Very less women are in political posts.

Question 2.
Describe the process of Italian Unification in 19th Century. (SA-II : 2018-19)
Answer:
Unification of Italy :
I Stage :
In 1830s Guiseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent programme for a Unitary Italian Republic.
He had also formed a secret society called Young Italy for the dissemination of his goals.

II Stage :

• Prime Minister Cavour who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy, was neither a revolutionary nor a democrat.
• Through a tactful diplomatic alliance with France, he defeated Austria.

III Stage :

• Under the leadership of Garibaldi, a large number of Red Shirts army joined the fray.
• In 1860 they marched into South Italy and the kingdom of the Two Sicilies and succeeded in winning the support of the local peasants in order to drive out the Spanish rulers.

IV Stage :
Finally, Victor Emmanel II occupied Rome, and Unification of Italy completed. In 1871 Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed king of unified Italy.

9th Class Social 14th Lesson Democratic and Nationalist Revolutions 19th Century Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write about Jacobins constitution.
Answer:

• Under the Jacobian constitution, all people were given the right to vote and the right to insurrection.
• The constitution stated that the Government must provide the people with work or livelihood.
• The happiness of all was proclaimed as the aim of government.
• The government abolished slavery.
• Hence the Jacobians was the first genuinely democratic constitution in history.

Question 2.
How did nationalism and the idea of the nation-state emerge?
Answer:

• A nation state was one in which the majority of its citizens came to develop a sense of common identity and shared common history.
• This commonness did not exist from time immemorial, it was forged through struggles, through the actions of leaders and the common man.
• The French revolution gave the term “nation” its modern meaning.
• A nation is not the territory but the people who make it.
• The French revolution gave the meaning of sovereignty that the people constituting the nation are the source of all power and authority.
• Government is answerable to its people.

All these ideals led to the formation of the nation-states.

Question 3.
Discuss the importance of language and popular traditions in the creation of national identity.
Answer:

• Language and popular traditions are important in the creation of national identity.
• National identity means people feeling that they belong to a nation irrespective of their caste, religion, colour, etc.
• The language makes people identify themselves as a one race or a nation.
• Also, the popular traditions such as Roman culture and tradition etc. easily attracted the people and strengthened the national integrity.

Question 4.
In what ways do you think could the French revolutionaries help the other people of Europe to become nations?
Answer:

• I think the French revolutionaries could help the other people of Europe to become nations.
• The French revolutionaries fought for the principles of liberty, equality, and fraternity.
• They proved that France was not just a territory but the French people.
• The revolutionaries further declared that it was the mission and the destiny of the French nation to liberate the peoples of Europe from despotism, in other words, to help other people of Europe to become nations.

Question 5.
Do you think the anti-Nizam movement was a nationalist movement like French revolution? Compare the similarities and differences between the two movements.
Answer:

• Anti-Nizam movement was a nationalist movement like French Revolution.
• Both these were against the rulers at that time.
• The revolutionaries in French revolution became violent at times, whereas the activists in anti-Nizam movements suffered a lot in the hands of Nizam army.

Question 6.
Why do you think liberal democracy was reluctant to give right to vote to women and propertyless men?
Answer:

• Liberals did not ensure universal right to vote for all the people.
• Right to vote and get elected was given only to property – owing men.
• Men without property and all the women were not given any political rights.

Question 7.
In what ways were the liberals different from the conservative monarchists and how were they different from the radical poor?
Answer:

• Liberals believe that government should work by consent of people.
• Liberals believe people should have equal freedom and all are equal before law.
• Constitutional Monarchists believe in privilege of rich landlords and powers of monarch.
• They want to use modernization as a tool to increase control over the state.
• Radical poor wanted to bring change in the order with a reign of terror.

Question 8.
Why do you think were defeated by the conservatives?
Answer:

• Liberals talked of political democracy only and no equality was propogated.
• They did not even supported universal franchise and equality before law.
• But conservatives used modernization to have greater control overstate.
• They wanted to abolish serfdom and federalism and installation of modern army, dynamic economy, etc.

Question 9.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.

Linder the Jacobin constitution, all people were given the right to vote and the right of insurrection. The constitution stated that the government must provide the people with work or livelihood. The happiness of all was proclaimed as the aim of government. Though it was never really put into effect, it was the first genuinely democratic constitution in history. The government abolished slavery in the French colonies. Napoleon’s rise to power was a step backward. However, though he destroyed the Republic and established an empire, the idea of the republic couldn’t be destroyed. After the defeat of Napoleon, the old ruling dynasty of France was restored to power. However, within a few years, in 1830, there was another outbreak of revolution. In 1848, the monarchy was again overthrown though it soon reappeared. Finally, in 1871, the Republicwasagain proclaimed.

1) What was the first genuinely framed constitution in the world?
Answer:
Jacobin’s constitution was the first genuinely framed constitution in the world.

2) Why was the Jaccobians constituion called the first genuinely framed constitution?
Answer:
1) The Jacobin’s constitution gave the right to vote to all citizens.
2) The constitution stated that the government must provide the people with work. Hence it was called the first genuinely framed constitution in the world.

3) Who was the dictator that ruled over France during early 19th century?
Answer:
Napoleon.

4) When were the revolutions occurred in France in the early 19th century?
Answer:
In 1830 and 1848, the France experienced revolutions.

5) When was the Republic proclaimed in france?
Answer:
The Republic was proclaimed in France in 1871 A.D.

Question 10.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.

The Habsburg Empire that ruled over Austria-Hungary, for example, was a patchwork of many different regions and peoples. It included the Alpine regions -the Tyrol, Austria, and the Sudetenland – and Bohemia, where the aristocracy was predominantly German-speaking. It also included the Italian-speaking provinces of Lombardy and Venetia. In Hungary, half of the population spoke Magyar while the other half spoke a variety of dialects. In Galicia, the aristocracy spoke Polish. Besides these three dominant groups, there also lived within the boundaries of the empire, a mass of subject, peasant peoples -Bohemians and Slovaks to the north, Slovenes in Carniola, Croats to the south, and Roumans to the east in Transylvania. Such differences did not easily promote a sense of political unity. The only tie binding these diverse groups together was a common allegiance to the emperor.

1) Name the Alpine regions is the Habsburg Empire.
Answer:
The Tyrol, Austria and the Sudetenland, and Bohemia were the Alpine region.

2) In which language did the aristocracy speak in the Alphine region?
Answer:
The Aristocracy in the Alphine spoke in German.

3) What were the Italian speaking provinces of the Habsburg Empire?
Answer:
Lombardy and Venetia were Italian provinces.

4) A mass of subject peasant people lived in the empire. Name them.
Answer:
Bohemians, Slovaks, Slovens, Croats, and Roumans were peasant people that lived in the empire.

Question 11.
Why do you think conservatism needs to curb freedom to express one’s opinion and criticise?
Answer:

• Conservatism is the dominance of society by an aristocracy. It is incompatible with democracy, prosperity, and civilization in general.
• The conservatives did not tolerate criticism and dissent and sought to curb activities that questioned the legitimacy of autocratic governments.
• They imposed censorship laws to control the ideas of liberty and freedom associated with the French Revolution.

Question 12.
Read the following information and answer the questions given below.

Some important years
1797	Napoleon invades Italy; Napoleonic wars begin.
1814-1815	Fall of Napoleon; the Vienna Peace Settlement.
1821	Greek struggle for independence begins.
1848	Revolutions in Europe; artisans, industrial workers, and peasants revolt against economic hardships; middle classes demand constitution and representative governments; Italians, Germans, Magyars, Poles, Czechs, etc., demand nation-states.
1859-1870	Unification of Italy.
1866-1871	Unification of Germany.
1905	Slav nationalism gathers force in the Habsburg and Ottoman Empires.

a) What are the demand of middle classes? (SA-III : 2016-17)
Answer:
The demands of middle classes were

1. Constitution and
2. Representative government.

b) With the invasion on which country, did Napoleanic wars begin? (SA-III : 2016-17)
Answer:
Nepoleonic wars begin with invasion of Italy.

c) In which year was the Vienna peace conference held? (SA-I : 2018-19)
Answer:
Vienna Peace Conference was held in 1815 A.D.

d) Who was ruling France during the 1848 revolution? (SA-I : 2018-19)
Answer:
Louis Phillippe.

e) Who completed the unification of Italy? (SA-I : 2018-19)
Answer:
Victor Immanuel-ll, completed the Unification of Italy.

f) The Greek struggle for independence started in which year? (SA-I : 2018-19)
Answer:
1821 A.D.

g) When did Napoleon invade Italy?
Answer:
Napoleon invaded Italy in 1797 AD.

h) When was the Vienna Peace Settlement signed?
Answer:
The Vienna Peace Settlement was signed in 1815 A.D.

i) What were the two nations that united in the mid 19th centuries?
Answer:
Italy and Germany were the two nations that united in the mid 19th century.

j) Who revolted against economic hardship?
Answer:
Industrial workers and peasants revolted against economic hardship.

k) What were the demands of the middle class in 1848 revolt?
Answer:
The middle class demanded constitutions and representative governments.

Question 13.
Do you think our country has a liberal democratic political system? Give your reasons.
Answer:

• In India supreme power rests with the people.
• India is a republic country.
• Everyone is equal before law.
• Every citizen of 18 years and above has the right to vote.
• Any citizen is eligible to contest for any political office.

Hence we can say India has liberal democratic political system.

Question 14.
Point out the following on the Europe map.

1. Corsica
2. Sardinia
3. Poland
4. Germany
5. France

Question 15.
Locate the following on the Europe map.

1. Hungary
2. Serbia
3. London

Question 16.
What is the caricature? What does it represent?
Answer:

• A funny drawing of someone that makes them look silly or sometimes criticizes someone.
• It usually tells us about an incident or a person of that age.
• It symbolizes the wrong practices or criticizes that person on that grounds or informs us about the other side of that person.

These AP 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Social 14th Lesson Important Questions and Answers The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II

10th Class Social 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What does the term “Great Depression” signify?
Answer:

1. There was a worldwide economic decline triggered by a decline in demand and fall in prices. It was called “Great Depression”.
2. The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939.

Question 2.
Read the following map and answer the question.
Name any one country that shared land boundary with India and not under the control of Japan.
Answer:
Nepal, Tibet, Bhutan.

Question 3.
What was your opinion on Hitler’s treatment of the Jews in Germany?
Answer:
The treatment of Hitler towards Jews is very cruel and unjust.

Question 4.
Mention the important aspects of “New Deal”.
Answer:

1. Relief to the victims of depression.
2. Reform of financial institutions.
3. Steps to ensure economic recovery.

Question 5.
Write any two consequences of economic depression.
Answer:

1. Decline in demand and fall in prices.
2. Massive unemployment.
3. Decline of real incomes of ordinary people.

Question 6.
Write any two economic reforms of Hitler.
Answer:
Hitler’s Economic Policies:

1. Hitler banned all strikes.
2. He reduced tax burden on people.
3. He established war industries.
4. He created employment opportunities.

Question 7.
Write about collective farming.
Answer:

1. In U.S.S.R all small and large farmers were forced to join collective farms.
2. These farms were united and mechanised farming was introduced and the produce was divided among the members.

Question 8.
How did Hitler get all powers to sideline Parliament?
Answer:
Hitler got all powers to sideline parliament by passing the Enabling Act.

Question 9.
What was the intention of the Communist Party of India for helping Britain during the Second World War?
Answer:
The Communist Party of India helped Britain during the Second World War as the Nazis attacked on the soviet union. Intentionally the communists helped Britain.

Question 10.
What was the ‘New Deal Policy’ of Franklin D. Roosevelt?
Answer:
Relief to the victims of depression.
Reform of financial institutions and steps to ensure Economic Recovery by undertaking large public works.

Question 11.
Who was the leader of Bolsheviks in Russia?
Answer:
Lenin was the leader of Bolsheviks in Russia.

Question 12.
What was the major incidence occurred in 1924 in Russia?
Answer:
Union of Soviet Socialistic Republic was established.

Question 13.
Who became the leader of Russia after Lenin in 1924?
Answer:
Stalin.

Question 14.
Enlist Indians that were inspired by communism.
Answer:
M.N. Roy, Tagore and Nehru.

Question 15.
Name the book written on the violation against the opposition in Russia and who wrote it.
Answer:
George Orwell wrote his famous satire “Animal farm” to highlight how the ideals of Russian Revolution were compromised in USSR.

Question 16.
What were the famous “3 Rs” of New Deal Policy?
Answer:
The famous “three Rs” of New Deal are …

1. Relief to the victims of depression.
2. Reform of financial institutions.
3. Recovery of the economy.

Question 17.
What happened to Germany after World War – II?
Answer:
Eventually, Germany was divided into

1. German Democratic Republic of Germany (GDR).
2. Federal Republic of Germany (FRG).

Question 18.
Where were the Nazi generals put to trial?
Answer:
The leaders and Nazi generals were captured and put to trial in the famous “Nuremberg trials.”

Question 19.
Name the organization formed after World War – II to establish peace.
Answer:
United Nations Organization.

Question 20.
Enlist the countries that got independence by 1950.
Answer:
India,. China, Indonesia, Vietnam, Egypt, Nigeria, etc.

Question 21.
What were the super powers emerged after 1945?
Answer:
The USA and the USSR.

Question 22.
What was “Socialistic camp”?
Answer:
Eastern Europe and China together came to be known as “the Socialistic camp.”

Question 23.
Why did the common people not want the war?
Answer:
Fatigued by military reserves and upset at economic shortages, the common people did not want the war.

Question 24.
Who led Bolsheviks?
Answer:
Vladimir Lenin led the Bolsheviks.

Question 25.
Why could full peace not return to Russia after October Revolution?
Answer:
Full peace could not return to Russia, as the liberals decided to continue the war to preserve the honour of their land.

Question 26.
Expand the USSR.
Answer:
The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics.

Question 27.
When did the Great Depression begin?
Answer:
The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939 when the Second World War began.

Question 28.
Who was the President during the Depression?
Answer:
Franklin Delano Roosevelt.

Question 29.
What was the ‘New Deal’?
Answer:
It was a programme created by the US to help the Americans and the economy.

Question 30.
What were ‘Three Rs’?
Answer:
The Three Rs are:

1. Belief to the victims of Depression.
2. Reform of financial institutions and
3. Steps to ensure economic Recovery.

Question 31.
What else was introduced in the US?
Answer:
The Social Security system was introduced.

Question 32.
What is meant by Social Security system?
Answer:
It is a permanent system of universal retirement pensions, unemployment insurance, and welfare benefits for handicapped and needy children in families without father present.

Question 33.
Why did Germany face severe crises of the war?
Answer:
German economy faced severe crises after the war as it was saddled with the burden of paying war damages, etc.

Question 34.
Which act of the German government resulted in unheard of inflation?
Answer:
The German government began to print currency notes on a large scale and this resulted in unheard of inflation.

Question 35.
How did Hitler mobilise his supporters?
Answer:

1. Hitler mobilized his supporters on the promise of establishing the racial supremacy of Aryan Germans over the world and by targeting minority communities like Jews as the main cause of all problems.
2. He also guaranteed employment to people.

Question 36.
How did Hitler attack communism and capitalism?
Answer:
Hitler attacked communism and capitalism terming both of them as Jewish conspiracies and promised to build a strong state which would counter both.

Question 37.
How did he appeal to the middle class?
Answer:
Hitler appealed especially to the middle class which felt threatened by capitalism and the Great Depression and at the the same time was opposed to working-class movement led by the Communists and Socialists.

Question 38.
Name the security forces in Germany.
Answer:
Regular police in a green uniform and the SA or the Storm Troopers, Gestapo (secret state police), the SS (the protection squads), criminal police and the Security Service (SD).

Question 39.
What was Auschwitz?
Answer:
Auschwitz was a killing centre.

Question 40.
Why were Soviet forces welcomed all over Eastern Europe?
Answer:
Soviet forces were welcomed all over Eastern Europe as liberators from the hated Nazi rule and eventually captured Berlin, the capital of Germany.

Question 41.
What happened to Hitler and his close associates?
Answer:
Hitler and his close associates committed suicide to avoid being captured and tried.

Question 42.
Who sentenced the Nazis?
Answer:
The Nuremberg Tribunal sentenced only eleven leading Nazis to death.

Question 43.
What were the two super powers?
Answer:
The USA and the USSR.

Question 44.
What did Hitler promise?
Answer:

1. Hitler promised employment for those looking for work and a secure future for the youth.
2. He promised to weed out all foreign influences and resist all foreign ‘conspiracies’ against Germany.

Question 45.
Who laid way for planned economic development in Russia?
Answer:
Stalin in 1928.

Question 46.
What were the policies of Stalin?
Answer:
Stalin followed a twin policy of rapid industrialization and collectivization of agriculture.

Question 47.
Name Indian Leaders who were inspired by the Russian Revolution.
Answer:
M.N. Roy, Tagore and Nehru were inspired by the Russian Revolution.

Question 48.
What does the book “Animal Form” mention about?
Answer:
The book highlighted, how the ideals of the Russian Revolution were compromised in USSR.

Question 49.
What was the Enabling Act?
Answer:
The Act was passed in 1933. This act established a dictatorship in Germany.

Question 50.
Who was the famous economist of Hitler?
Answer:
Hjalmar Schacht.

Question 51.
Expand GDR and FDR.
Answer:
G.D.R – German Democratic Republic.
F.D.R – Federal Republic of Germany.

Question 52.
What happened to Germany after World War – II?
Answer:
Germany was divided into two portions.

1. The Eastern Part – GDR.
2. The Western Part – FDR.

Question 53.
Which countries came under “the socialist camp”?
Answer:
Russia along with the Eastern European countries and China came under the socialistic camp.

10th Class Social 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following paragraph and answer the question.

“In fact, the second World War helped USA grow out of its economic misery caused by the Great Depression. Far from the theatres of war, the industries and agriculture of USA prospered and achieved full employment and high productivity. In Harry Truman’s words, “We have emerged from this war as the most powerful nation in the world.”

How do you think the Second World War helped USA grow out of its economic misery from the Great Depression? Write your comment.
Answer:
The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939 when the World War-II began. There was a sudden fall in the American stock market.

This effected almost all the nations in the world. Roosevelt, the US President, announced ‘The New Deal which promised Relief to the victims of Depression. However, the real break came from the outbreak of war when state expenditure on armies and armaments suddenly increased giving a big boost to factory production and demand for farm produce. Thus the Second World War helped USA grow out of its economic misery from the Great Depression.

Question 2.
Observe the given timeline chart and answer the following questions.

a) How do you think the victory on Auschwitz and liberation by the Soviet Union led to an easy success for the Allied nations?
Answer:
After the liberation of Auschwitz the Allied got victory in Europe. So I can say so.

b) What were the main incidents which occurred in 1941 in world’s history?
Answer:

1. Germany invaded the USSR.
2. Mass murder of the Jews begins.
3. The United States joins the Second World War.

Question 3.
Observe the given map and answer the questions:
a) What is Dutch East India called now?
Answer:
Indonesia

b) Which Chinese region was under the control of Japan?
Answer:
Manchuria

Question 4.
Write any two effects of great depression.
Answer:

1. Increase in unemployment.
2. Fall in prices.
3. Closure of industries.
4. Decrease in the purchasing capacity of the people.

Question 5.
Read the below paragraph.

“This earth is not allotted to anyone nor is it presented to anyone as a gift. It is awarded by providence to people who in their hearts have the courage to conquer it, the strength to preserve it, and the industry to put it to the plough. A vigorous nation will always find ways pf adapting its territory to its population size.”

Do you think world should belong to those who have power and strength alone – Comment.
Answer:

1. No. I don’t think like that.
2. The world belongs to all. All are equal by birth.

Question 6.
“Constitution is a living and changing document.” Would you agree with it? Justify it.
Answer:

1. Yes, I agree with it.
2. Our constitutional makers are aware that laws will have to be amended from time to time. So they provided an opportunity to amend laws.

Question 7.
Observe the Map and answer the questions given below:

1. Name any two countries which were not under the control of Japan.
Answer:
India, Nepal and Tibet.

2. Dutch East Indies was the former name of which country?
Answer:
Indonesia.

Question 8.
What will be the consequences of the World War that may happen after the Second World War?
Answer:
The consequences of the World War that may happen after the Second World War are

1. Huge loss of life on the earth
2. Destruction of properties
3. Increase of environmental damage
4. The existence of life becomes difficult

Question 9.
What were the changes brought about by Russian revolution of 1917 in the Russian Society?
Answer:

1. The immediate change was the elimination of the democratic provisional councils called Soviets in various larger cities.
2. Under Bolshevik rule Russia got out of World War-II.
3. A Socialist system was imposed on the country which all but the smallest businesses were taken over by the government.
4. Land was redistributed to peasant farmers and food distribution was temporarily improved.
5. Soon though, many people became disenchanted with the Bolsheviks and the Russian Civil war broke out in 1918 and lasted until 1920.

Question 10
Observe the map and answer the questions.

1. Mention any two countries that were NOT under Japanese control.
Answer:
India, Tibet, Nepal, Mongolia, U.S.S.R. (any two)

2. Which part of the Ocean did Japan dominant in 1942?
Answer:
North Part of Pacific Ocean.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.

“With this began a great experiment of building a country without exploiters like feudal lords, Kings or capitalists. The USSR tried to build a society that was industrialized and modern and yet did not have inequality or exclusion of people on basis of birth, gender, language, etc.”

Answer:

1. The Soviets under the leadership of Bolsheviks seized power from the provisional government in 1917.
2. Peace could not be established as civil war lasted from 1918-20.
3. Finally the USSR was established in 1924.
4. This was an experiment as there was no place for feudal lords, kings or capitalists.
5. The USSR tried to establish a society where there was no scope for inequality or exploitation on the basis of birth, gender, language, etc.
6. Socialism was established and gave a big’ blow to the capitalistic world.

Question 12.
Observe the map and answer the following questions.

1. Mention any two countries which are not under the control of Japan.
Answer:
India and China are not under the control of Japan.

2. Mention any two places which are under f ‘ the control of Japan and lying on its western side.
Answer:
Korea and Manchuria.

Question 13.
What do you know about Tsarist Russia?
Answer:
Tsarist Russia was vast landmass spread over two continents and making it a Euro Asian Power. It had the third-largest population in the world, viz. 156 million, after China and India. It comprised of several nations like the Russia, Ukraine, Uzbekistan, .’Kazakhstan, Tajikistan, Turkomania, etc.

Question 14.
What was the first Russian revolution of 1917?
Answer:
On March 8th 1917, around 10,000 women of the capital, St Petersburg, took out a procession demanding ‘Peace and Bread’. Workers joined them in this protest. Unnerved at the protest in the capital, Tsar Nicholas II ordered the army to suppress the demon¬strators, even by firing at them. Instead, the soldiers joined the demonstrators. In just two days, the situation went so much out of hand that the Tsar abdicated and non-aristocratic Russians made a Provisional government. This was the first Russian revolution of 1917 and it was called the March Revolution.

Question 15.
“The October Revolution was not spontaneous” – Why?
Answer:
A bigger revolution was made later in October 1917 and it was not spontaneous. The liberals and aristocrats, who ruled Russia after the abdication of the Tsar, decided to continue the War to preserve the honor of the fatherland. Fatigued by military reverses and upset at economic shortages, the common people did not want the War. They began organizing themselves in councils which were called Soviets. Such Soviets of soldiers, industrial workers, and also people in rural areas were the expression of com-mon people’s power which was channelized by a group of Russian Communist party called Bolsheviks.

Question 16.
Why were Bolsheviks able to win the confidence of the Soviets?
Answer:
Bolsheviks were able to win the confidence of the Soviets because they took up the demand for immediate and unconditional peace, nationalization of all land and its redistribution to the peasants and control over prices and nationalization of all factories and banks.

Question 17.
What effect did the war have, on the industry of Russia?
Answer:
Russian industries were very few numbers and the country was cut off from other suppliers of industrial goods by German control of the Baltic sea. Industrial equipment disintegrated more rapidly in Russia than elsewhere in Europe. By 1916 railway, lines began to breakdown. Able-bodied men were called up to the war. As a result, there were labour shortages and small workshops producing essential commodities were shut down.

Question 18.
Discuss briefly the Five-Year Plans.
Answer:

1. A process of centralized planning was introduced by Stalin in 1928. Officials assessed how the economy could work and set targets for a five-year period, on this basis they made five-year plans.
2. The government fixed all prices to pro-mote industrial growth during the first two plans. (1927-32, 1933 – 38)
3. Centralised planning led to economic growth.

Question 19.
Appreciate the role of Lenin in the Revolu¬tion and his economic policy.
Answer:

1. Vladimir Lenin played an important role in the Russian Revolution of 1917.
2. He led the revolutionaries after the fall of the war.
3. The Bolshevik party put forward clear policies to end the war.
4. He transferred land to the peasants and advance the slogan ‘All power to the Soviets’.
5. These were the real objectives of the Russian Revolution and he fulfilled them. So, Lenin’s name has become inseparable from the Russian Revolution.

Question 20.
Write any two conditions which led to the Russian civil war in 1918-1920.
Answer:

1. The Russian army began to break up after the Bolsheviks ordered land redistribution. Soldiers who were mostly peasants wished to go home for the land and desert.
2. Supporters of private property among ‘Whites’ took harsh steps with peasants who had seized land.

Question 21.
How can you say that the experience of the USSR inspired people all over the world including India?
Answer:
The experience of the USSR inspired people all over the world who were committed to the ideals of equality and national liberation. A large number of them now became communists and tried for a communist revolution in their countries. Many of them like MN Roy, Tagore and Nehru were inspired by it even though they did not agree with many aspects of communism like suppression of opposition political parties.

Question 22.
Describe what happened to Germany after its defeat in the First World War.
Answer:

1. World War -1, ended with the Allies defeating Germany and the Central Powers in November 1918.
2. The Peace Treaty of Versailles with the Allies was a harsh and humiliating treaty.
3. Germany lost its overseas colonies, a tenth of its population, 13 percent of its territories, 75 percent of its iron and 26 percent of its coal to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania.
4. The Allied Powers demilitarised Germany to weaken its power. Germany was forced to pay compensation amounting to 6 billion.

Question 23.
Explain the role of women in Nazi Germany.
Answer:

1. According to Hitler’s ideology, women were radically different from men.
2. The democratic idea of equal rights for men and women was wrong and would destroy society.
3. While boys were taught to be aggressive, masculine and steel-hearted, girls were told that they bad to become good mothers and rear pure-blooded Aryan children.

Question 24.
Explain the rallies of Nazis.
Answer:
Hitler devised a new style of politics. He understood the significance of rituals and spectacle in mass mobilization. Nazis held massive rallies and public meetings to demonstrate the support for Hitler and instill a sense of unity among the people. The Red banners with the Swastika, the Nazi salute, and the ritualized rounds of applause after the speeches were all part of this spectacle of power.

Question 25.
Write about the Enabling Act.
Answer:
On 3 March 1933, the famous Enabling Act was passed. This Act established a dictatorship in Germany. It gave Hitler all powers to sideline Parliament and rule by decree. All political parties and trade unions were banned except for the Nazi Party and its affiliates. The state established complete control over the economy, media, army and judiciary.

Question 26.
Explain the condition of the people of Germany after the famous Enabling Act passed.
Answer:
People could now be detained in Gestapo torture chambers, rounded up and sent to concentration camps, deported at will or arrested without any legal procedures. The police forces acquired powers to rule with impunity.
These powers were used to arrest and torture millions of political activists, trade unionists and people of minority communities and build a state of unprecedented horror and fear.

Question 27.
What happened in the far east with the bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki?
Answer:
In the far east with the bombing of Hiroshima and Nagasaki Japan surrendered to the USA. US armies occupied Japan but keeping in the sentiments of Japanese allowed the Japanese Emperor to continue. But it built a Constitutional Monarchy like in England. Japan was to be ruled by the elected government responsible to the Parliament (DIET).

Question 28.
Name the Indian leaders inspired by the USSR Communist regime.
Answer:

1. The experience of the USSR inspired people all over the world who were committed to the ideals of equality and national liberation.
2. Many of them like Manavendra Nath Roy, Rabindranath Tagore, and Jawaharlal Nehru were inspired by it even though they did not agree with many aspects of communism like suppression of opposition political parties, etc.

Question 29.
How was the economic revival planned after World War II?
Answer:

1. There were many economies that collapsed after World War II.
2. The USA came up with the Marshall Plan to fund the economic revival of West European countries.
3. The USSR came up with a package for the revival of East European countries.

10th Class Social 14th Lesson The World Between Wars 1900-1950 Part II 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write a short note on the measures taken by the USSR under the great depression.
Answer:

1. USSR was not integrated with the international market.
2. It had a planned economy.
3. The state decided what and how much has to be produced.
4. This enabled them to maintain a balance between demand and supply.

Question 2.
A) Locate and Label any four of the permanent members of United Nations Security Council on the World map given.
Point out the following countries on the World map given.
B) 1) Portugal 2) Nigeria S) Chile 4) Japan
Answer:
Question 3.
Explain the rise of Nazism in Germany.
Answer:

1. German economy was the worst hit by the Great Depression.
2. This economic crisis created deep anxieties and fears in people.
3. Hitler and his Nazi party used this situation in an intelligent manner.
4. Hitler, by his words and passion, moved the people.
5. He promised them to construct a strong Germany in all aspects.
6. He devised a new style of politics and attracted people.
7. As a result of this, the Nazi Party has become the largest party by 1932.
8. By passing the Enabling Act in 1933, Hitler became the dictator of Germany. Nazi government had become most powerful.

Question 4.
Answer the questions with the help of Time-line chart.

1. What was the immediate cause for the Second World War?
Answer:
Invasion of Poland by Germany.

2. When did the United States enter into the World War – II?
Answer:
Dec. 8, 1941

3. The Weimar Republic belongs to which country ?
Answer:
Germany

4. Write any two important incidents occurred in 1941.
Answer:
Germany invades the USSR Mass murder of the Jews begins The United States joins Second World War

Question 5.
Observe the graph and answer the questions given below:

1. Which was the first country that established the socialist government in the world?
Answer:
Russia (OR) USSR.

2. Why did the Civil war occur in Russia?
Answer:
Civil war was broke out between Bolshevik group and White army for establishment of Socialism and political monarchism, ecomonic capitalism. Bolsheviks were favour to Socialism and White group was favour to Economic capitalism.

3. What were the Russian emperors called?
Answer:
Tzars.

4. Name the international organization which was formed to promote socialist ideology.
Answer:
Formation of Comintern (Third international at Moscow in 1919).

Question 6.
Russian revolution brought in many changes in their society. What were they? And what challenges did they face?
Answer:
Changes in the Russian Society:

1. The immediate change was the elimination of the democratic provisional councils called Sovi¬ets in various larger cities.
2. Under Bolshevik rule Russia got out of World War – II.
3. A Socialist system was imposed on the country which all but the smallest businesses were taken over by the government.
4. Land was redistributed to peasant farmers and food distribution was temporarily improved.
5. Soon though, many people became disenchanted with the Bolsheviks and the Russian Civil war broke out in 1918 and lasted until 1920.

Challenges they faced:

1. Famines
2. Resistances
3. Low standards of living
4. The Great Depression
5. Unemployment
6. Lack of educational facilities
7. Cheap public health care, etc.

Question 7.
What were the agricultural reforms of Joseph Stalin in the USSR?
Answer:

1. After the death of Lenin in 1924 Stalin emerged as the leader of the Communist Party.
2. The USSR began a programme of planned economic development with its Five Year Plans in 1928.
3. This pursued a twin policy of rapid industrialization and collectivization of agriculture.
4. The USSR under the leadership of Joseph Stalin tried to end small peasant production by forcing all small and large farmers to surrender their lands and join “Collective Farms” and share the products.
5. Farmers worked together and the produce was divided among the members of the farms.
6. After an initial period of decline, agricultural production soon rose and helped the USSR to also build its industries on an unprecedented scale.
7. All industries were owned by the state which did not allow a free-market system.
8. An extended schooling system developed, and arrangements were made for factory workers and peasants to enter universities.

Question 8.
What are the impacts of the great economic depression in the USA?
Answer:
Impacts of the great economic depression in the USA:

1. The Great Depression began around the end of 1929 and lasted almost till 1939 when the Second World War began.
2. In this period decline in demand and fall in prices.
3. The decline in demand led to closure of factory production which in turn meant further de-cline in the purchasing power of people.
4. It initially began with a stock market collapse in the U.S.A., but before long affected almost every country.
5. As many as 25% Americans were unemployed.
6. This in turn caused a collapse of prices (up to 60%) for agricultural produce causing pauperisation of millions of farmers and stopping of cultivation.
7. It had devastating social consequences sharply increasing poverty, desolation, homelessness, etc.
8. F.D. Roosvelt who became the President of the US announced “the New Deal” policy to re-cover America from Great Depression.

Question 9.
What are the consequences of the World Wars?
Answer:
The World Wars had a long-lasting impact on the politics, society and economy of the world.
These can be enumerated as follows:

1. Enormous human cost: The first consequence of the wars was widespread deaths and injuries. Many persons who were under forty years of age died.
2. Democratic principles asserted : The two wars also brought home the dangers of having un-democratic governments and greatly strengthened the case for democratisation of power.
3. New balance of power: With World War I the German, Austro-Hungarian, Russian and Turk-ish empires came to an end. When World War II came to an end, the map of the world changed yet again as ex-colonies rose to become independent nations.
4. New international organisations After World War I, the League of Nations was formed to resolve disputes peacefully and the United Nations Organisation (UNO) was formed after World War II.
5. Enfranchisement of women : After a long struggle for political right like right to vote – British women got these rights in 1918. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with the confidence of being bread-winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.

Question 10.
Read the following paragraph and write your interpretation.
“USSR, started a great experiment of building a country without exploiters like feudal lords, kings or capitalists. The USSR tried to build a society that was industrialized and modern and yet didn’t have inequality or exclusion of people on the basis of birth, gender, language, etc.”
Answer:

1. The given paragraph says that USSR has established a country with equality.
2. There are no exploiters, no dominants and no sufferers.
3. Though if followed industrialisation and modern technology and updated life, it didn’t have no inequality in any form.
4. It is the real spirit of socialism.
5. A country with equality and modern development is never expected in any country but it happened in USSR at that time.
6. In any country, we can see some sort of discrimination.
7. In some countries, discrimination is seen in the form of colour, i.e. the Blacks and the Whites.
8. In our country, some castes are treated as high castes and some other castes as low.
9. Boys are sent to higher education whereas the girls are not sent because of various reasons like safety and security.
10. Many countries have mentioned in the preamble of their constitutions that they give impor¬tance to equality and there will be no discrimination in any form.
11. In conclusion, I would say that every country should maintain equality.
12. The downtrodden should be uplifted.
13. A country with equal treatment is always an ideal one to all the nations.

Question 11.
Read the following paragraph and write your interpretation.
“The Nazi’s police powers were used to arrest and torture millions of political activists, trade unionists and people of minority communities, especially the Jews. They did all this to build a state of horror and fear”.
Answer:

1. The given paragraph conveys about the cruel policy of the Nazi soldiers.
2. Hitler arrested and tortured millions of German political leaders and activists, trade union leaders.
3. Minorities were also targeted.
4. This situation created a horrible state under the leadership of Hitler in Germany.
5. When Hitler won the elections of 1932 he brought the Enabling Act and many special forces like Gestapo, protection squads, security services besides different troopers.
6. These forces worked brutally and created horror and fear among the people.
7. Hitler did not allow any political party or trade union to work out.
8. He instructed all the people to follow the Nazis.
9. There was no peace.
10. He treated the Jewish people as his enemies.
11. Everyone criticized Hitler mainly because of his cruel treatment with the Jewish people.
12. The whole Germany was horrified of his activities.
13. In conclusion, I feel that Hitler’s activities are unlawful and undemocratic.
14. Nowadays all the countries are moving towards democratic governments.
15. All the countries should concentrate on literacy rate and so various programmes are to be taken up and implement strictly.
16. So that there will be no scope for such situation in any country.

Question 12.
What are the situations that led to strengthening Nazism in Germany?
Answer:
The situations that led to strengthening Nazim in Germany:

1. The burden of paying war-damages.
2. Inflation increased.
3. The economy was worst hit by depression.
4. Unemployment increased.
5. Savings of the people diminished.
6. Small businessmen were ruined.
7. Big businessmen were in a crisis.
8. Organized workers could manage to survive.
9. Peasants were affected by fall in agricultural prices.
10. Women were unable to feed their children.
11. No stable rule.

Question 13.
Observe the following table and write a paragraph analysing it.

Answer:
Annual National Defence Expenditure

1. The table shows that the annual defence expenditure of great countries Britain and Germany has been increasing since 1933.
2. In the year of 1939, the expenditure increases because of the armament race, protection from enemies why because already they tasted the World War -1.
3. The government of these countries also helped to them to spend more money on defence. Ag-gressive nationalism also created proud of their country and desire of superiority in the world and also responsible to more expenditure on defence.
4. Million dollars spend for defence only during the period of 1933 to 1939.
5. At present some countries also spend more money on defence because of enemies. If every country realise and maintain friendly relations with other countries, and they spend million dollars for peace and development of poor people, automatically the world peace will de¬velop and every person live with without fear of war and tension in the world.

Question 14.
Observe the following Bar-graph and analyse it.
Answer:

1. The given bar graph is about the Explosive Production of two developed industrialised countries of West, i.e. Britain and Germany during World War-1.
2. Both countries belonged to two enemy groups or blocks.
3. In 1914 the explosive production of Britain and Germany is 4 tonnes and 8 tonnes respectively.
4. From that year onwards the production increased on a large scale in both the countries.
5. The difference is that the explosive production is less for Britain when compared to Germany in 1914.
6. But this situation reversed in 1917. The explosive production of Britain increased by over 45 times, i.e. from 4 tonnes to 184 tonnes during the years from 1914 to 1917 whereas the production of Germany increased by approximately 18 times, i.e. from 8 tonnes to 140 tonnes for the same period.

Question 15.
Explain briefly about the consequences of the World Wars.
Answer:
The World Wars had a long-lasting impact on the politics, society and economy of the world.
These can be enumerated as follows:

1. Enormous human cost: The first consequence of the wars was widespread deaths and injuries. Many persons who were under forty years of age died.
2. Democratic principles asserted: The two wars also brought home the dangers of having un-democratic governments and greatly strengthened the case for democratisation of power.
3. New balance of power: With World War I the German, Austro-Hungarian, Russian and Turkish empires came to an end. When World War II came to an end, the map of the world changed yet again as ex-colonies rose to become independent nations.
4. New international organisations: After World War I, the League of Nations was formed to resolve disputes peacefully and the United Nations Organisation (UNO) was formed after World War II.
5. Enfranchisement of women: After a Jong struggle for political right like right to vote – British women got these rights in 1918. With men away in the battle fields, more women had to work in factories, shops, offices, voluntary services, hospitals and schools. Beginning with the confidence of being bread-winners, women began raising their voice for equality in all walks of life.

Question 16.
Observe the poster and answer the questions.
a) Which country issued this poster?
b) What was the purpose of this poster?
c) What does the Swastika in the poster stand for?
d) During which war was this poster was published?
Answer:
a) U.S.A issued this poster.
b) War bonds were offered by the U.S.A. Government for purchase by the public to fulfill the military operations and other expenditure in times of war.
c) The three young children, apprehensive and fearful, as they are enveloped by the large dark arm of swastika shadow.
(OR)
Simply, Germany is going to occupy the U.S.A also.
d) This war bonds poster was published during the time of second World War.

Question 17.
Describe the course of Russian Socialist Revolution.
Answer:

1. Russian socialist revolution in 1917 took place in two phases – March 1917 and November 1917.
2. 10,000 women took procession demanding ‘Peace and Bread’ and supported by many later.
3. In just two days Tsar Nicolas II abdicated throne and provisional government was set up in search 1917.
4. It wished to continue the war and economic shortage was not addressed.
5. Soviets (the councils of peasants, workers and soldiers) were organised by Bolshevik leader Lenin.
6. They seized political power from provisional government.
7. They took steps to end the war and redistributed land.
8. They made control over prices and nationalized industries, banks, etc.
9. They suppressed the long-drawn civil wars.
10. By 1924, the USSR – Union of Soviet Socialist Republics was formed.

Question 18.
Give an estimate of the world at the end of first half of the 20th century.
Answer:

1. The first half of the 20th century ended with the nightmare of Hiroshima and Nagasaki and with the hopes generated by the founding of the UNO.
2. The Second World War ended with the ending of large colonial empires of Britain, France, Japan, Italy and Germany.
3. By 1950, countries like India, China, Indonesia, Vietnam, Egypt, Nigeria etc. became independent.
4. Britain which was the most powerful country now became a secondary power.
5. Two new superpowers emerged on the World scene : the USSR and the USA.
6. The USSR, which bore the main burnt of Hitler’s war and faced enormous destruction, gradually rebuilt its economy.
7. Its victory however, greatly enhanced its prestige in the world and it was now joined by the entire Eastern Europe and China to form a large ‘Socialist Camp’.

Question 19.
Observe the timeline chart and answer the following questions.

1. When and how were the foundation for socialism laid?
Answer:
The foundations for socialism were laid between 1850¬1880 due to debates over socialism.

2. How many revolutions took place in Russia?
Answer:

1. Revolution of 1905 .
2. The February Revolution of 1917 and the October revolution of 1917.

3. Did the peace establish in Russia after 1917?
Answer:
No, civil war broke out between 1918-20.

4. What do you mean by collectivization?
Answer:
The land was collected and farmer worked together and shared the produce. This was collectivization.

Question 20.
Locate the following points in the world map.

1. St. Petersberg
2. Moscow
3. Kyrgyzstan
4. Ukraine
5. Uzbekistan
6. Tajikistan
7. Kazakistan
8. Turkomania

Answer:

Question 21.
Observe the following map.

Answer the following questions after reading the map.

1. Which neighbouring country of India was occupied by Japan?
Answer:
The neighbouring country of India that was occupied by Japan was Burma.

2. What is Dutch East India called now ?
Answer:
Dutch East India is now called ‘Indonesia’.

3. Most of the area under control of Japan is a part of which ocean?
Answer:
Most of the area under the control of Japan is a part of Pacific Ocean.

4. Which Chinese region was under the control of Japan ?
Answer:
Manchuria was the Chinese region that was under the control of Japan.

5. Was Mongolia under the control of Japan in 1942?
Answer:
No. It was not under the control of Japan in 1942.

Question 22.
Locate the following in the given map of World.

1. Stalingrad

2. In 1939 Germany attacked on this country
Answer:
Poland

3. St. Petersberg

4. This country faced more destruction due to releasing atom bombs by America
Answer:
Japan

5. Capital of Poland
Answer:
Warsaw

6. Capital of Austria
Answer:
Vienna

7. Corsica Island

These AP 10th Class Physical Science Chapter Wise Important Questions 10th Lesson Chemical Bonding will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Chemistry 10th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Chemical Bonding

10th Class Chemistry 10th Lesson Chemical Bonding 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is a chemical bond? (AP March 2015)
Answer:
An attractive force between two atoms in a molecule is called a chemical bond.

Question 2.
Write the names of any two compounds which have ionic bond. (TS June 2016)
Answer:
1) NaCl
2) MgCl₂

Question 3.
Draw the structural diagram of Ammonia molecule as per the valence-shell electron pair repulsion theory. (TS March 2016)
Answer:

Question 4.
Show the formation of HC/ molecule with Lewis dot structures using the information given below. (TS March 2017)

Answer:

Question 5.
Explain, why bonding angle (HOH) in water is 104° 31′ instead of 109° 28′? (TS June 2018)
Answer:
Due to the repulsion between the lone pair of electrons and bond pair of electrons in water molecule the bond angle will be 104° 31′ rather than 109° 28′.

Question 6.
Imagine and write what type of ion can be formed generally by an atom of element with low ionisation energy, low electron affinity with high atomic size? (AP March 2019)
Answer:
Cation or positivity charged ion can be formed generally by an atom of element with low ionisation energy, low electron affinity with high atomic size.

Question 7.
Draw the structure of Methane molecule and mention bond angle. (TS March 2019)
Answer:
Structure of methane CH₄. Tetrahedral structure with bond angle 109°28′.

Bond Angle is 109°28′

Question 8.
Why do elements form chemical bonds? (TS SCERT: 2019-20)
Answer:

• Elements are unstable if they contain less than eight electrons (octet) in their valency shell.
• Hence, they form chemical bond with other elements to get octet in their valency shell.

Question 9.
How is covalent bond formed?
Answer:
A covalent bond is formed by the sharing of electrons between two atoms.
Ex : Bonding in H₂ molecule, O₂ molecule, N₂ molecule, etc.

Question 10.
What is ‘Octet rule’?
Answer:
Octet rule :
Presence of 8 electrons in the outermost shell of an atom or a molecule is called ‘octet rule’.

Question 11.
What is ‘Bond length’?
Answer:
Bond length :
It is the inner-nucleus distance between the two atoms in a molecule. It is measured in Angstrom, 1 Å = 10^-8 cm.

Question 12.
How is a cation formed?
Answer:
A cation is formed when an atom loses electrons.

Question 13.
How is an anion formed?
Answer:
An anion is formed when an atom gains electrons.

Question 14.
Which type of compounds are more soluble in polar solvents?
Answer:
Ionic compounds are more soluble in polar solvents.

Question 15.
Which compounds exhibit high melting and boiling points?
Answer:
Ionic compounds exhibit high melting and boiling points.

Question 16.
What is electronic configuration?
Answer:
A systematic arrangement of electrons in the atomic orbits is called electronic configuration.

Question 17.
Why are molecules more stable than atoms?
Answer:
Molecules have lower energy than that of the combined atoms. Molecules are more stable than atoms since chemical species with lower energy are more stable.

Question 18.
What is ionic linkage?
Answer:
When two oppositely charged ions are engaged in a bond, it is known as ionic linkage.

Question 19.
On which factors do anions depend?
Answer:

1. Atomic size
2. Ionisation potential
3. Electron affinity
4. Electronegativity

Question 20.
How do you know the valence of a metal?
Answer:
The number of electrons lost from a metal atom is the valence of its element which is equal to its group number.
Ex : Na and Mg have valence 1 and 2 respectively.

Question 21.
How do you know the valence of a non-metal?
Answer:
The number of electrons gained by a non-metal element for its atom is its valency, which is equal to 8 – its group number. Ex : The valency of chlorine is (8 – 7) = 1.

Question 22.
What is Tonic bond’?
Answer:
The electrostatic attractive force that keeps cation and anion together to form a new electrically neutral compounds is called ionic bond.

Question 23.
Why do atoms combine and form molecules?
Answer:
The energy of molecule is less than the total energy of constituent atoms. Therefore atoms combine and go to a stable state of lower energy.

Question 24.
What is ‘orbital concept of bond formation’?
Answer:
Atoms with half-filled or vacant orbitals try to get paired electrons in those orbitals by bond formation, i.e. by losing, gaining or sharing of electrons.

Question 25.
Name the bonds present in the molecules
i) BaCl₂
ii) C₂H₄.
Answer:
i) In BaCl₂ – Ionic.
ii) In C₂H₄ – Covalent (double bond H₂C = CH₂).

Question 26.
Why are ionic compounds good electrolytes?
Answer:

• Electrolytes produce ions in solution, which carry current.
• Ionic compounds in the fused state and aqueous solutions contain ions moving freely. Hence they conduct electricity.

Question 27.
When is ionic bond formed between atoms?
Answer:
Ionic bond is readily formed between atoms of elements with a low ionisation energy and atoms of elements with high electronegativity.

Question 28.
What is crystal lattice’?
Answer:
In a crystal of an ionic compound, each ion is surrounded by oppositely charged ions. The ions arrange themselves at an optimum distance with regular periodicity in a well-defined three-dimensional network called crystal lattice.

Question 29.
What is Lattice energy’?
Answer:
The energy released when gaseous positive and negative ions are brought together from infinity to form one mole ionic crystals is called lattice energy.

Question 30.
How is a σ (sigma) bond formed?
Answer:
By the axial or head on overlap of pure orbitals or hybrid orbitals of two atoms.

Question 31.
How is a π (pi) bond formed?
Answer:
By the lateral or parallel overlap of only pure atomic orbitals after the a bond formation.

Question 32.
Which type of atoms easily enter ionic bonding?
Answer:
An atom with low ionization potential and another with high electron affinity.

Question 33.
What is a polar bond?
Answer:
A covalent bond in a heteroatomic molecule.
Eg : HCl.

Question 34.
What is meant by inter-nuclear axis?
Answer:
The hypothetical line joining the centre of nuclei of two atoms in a molecule.

Question 35.
What are multiple bonds?
Answer:
Double and triple bonds are multiple bonds.

Question 36.
How many a and π bonds are in O₂ molecule?
Answer:
One σ and one π bond.

Question 37.
What are Lewis structures?
Answer:
The symbol of the atom gives the core (or kernel) of the atom, in which valence electrons are shown as dots (•), circles (O) or crosses (x). Thus in Na, Na represents the core of sodium atom and the cross (x) represents the valence electron of sodium.

Question 38.
What are the structures of sodium chloride and calcium chloride crystals?
Answer:
Sodium chloride has face centered cubic structure. Calcium chloride has body centered cubic structure.

Question 39.
NaCl dissolves in water but not in benzene. Explain.
Answer:
NaCl dissolves in water because of hydration. Water being a polar molecule has positive and negative ends which hydrate Na⁺ and Cl^– ions. Benzene being non-polar cannot solvate the ions of NaCl.

Question 40.
What are the bond angles in H₂O and NH₃ molecule?
Answer:
Bond angle in H₂O molecule is 104° 30′.
Bond angle in NH₃ molecule is 107°.

Question 41.
What are the forces present in an ionic bond?
Answer:
Electrostatic forces of attraction are present in ionic bonds.

Question 42.
Which forces are weaker forces and where are they operative?
Answer:

1. Van der Waal’s forces are very weak forces.
2. They are operative between non-polar molecules.

Question 43.
Which compounds exhibit low melting and boiling points?
Answer:
Covalent compounds exhibit low melting and boiling points when compared to ionic compounds.

Question 44.
How are cations formed?
Answer:
The metal atoms lose electrons to form positively charged ions or cations.

Question 45.
Why is a molecule of hydrogen more stable than the uncombined atoms?
Answer:
When a molecule of hydrogen is formed from the atoms, energy is released (104 Kcal/mol). Thus the molecules possessing lower energy are more stable than the atoms.

Question 46.
How many sigma and pi bonds are present in acetylene molecule between carbon atoms?
Answer:
\(\mathrm{HC} \equiv \mathrm{CH}\), one sigma and two pi bonds are present.

Question 49.
In case of ionic substances, a more appropriate term is formula weight, rather than ‘molecular weight’. Why?
Answer:
Molecules are not present in ionic substances. Only ions are present. The formula of an ionic substance represents the simpler ratio of ions in one mole of crystal. Hence a more appropriate term is ‘formula weight’.

Question 50.
Write a short note on bond angles.
Answer:
It is the average angle between two adjacent atoms bonded to the central atom in a molecule. Molecules with larger bond angles are more stable than those with smaller angles.

Question 51.
Sulphur dioxide is a diamagnetic molecule. Explain.
Answer:
Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) is a diamagnetic molecule because it has all electrons paired (no free electrons).

Question 52.
What is an ion?
Answer:
An ion is an electrically charged atom (or group of atoms).

Question 53.
What is a Coordination number?
Answer:
The number of ions of opposite charge that surround a given ion of given charge is known as coordination number of that given ion. –

Question 54.
What factors affect or which factors influence the formation cation or anion?
Answer:
Factors affecting formation of anion or cation are :

1. Atomic size,
2. Ionization potential,
3. Electron affinity,
4. Electronegativity.

Question 55.
Two elements X and Y have the following configurations.
X = 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s²
Y = 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁵
What is the formula of the compound?
Answer:
The electronic configuration of X is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s².
So its valency is 2.
The electronic configuration of Y is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁵.
So its valency is 1.
∴ The formula of the compound is XY₂.

Question 56.
The electronegativities of two elements are 1 and 3. What type of bond is formed between the two elements? Why?
Answer:
The electronegativity difference of elements = 3 – 1 = 2.
So the electronegativity difference is more than 1.9. Therefore the bond formed between the elements is ionic in nature.

Question 57.
What do you mean by Doublet configuration?
Answer:
If two electrons are present in valence shell, then it is called doublet configuration.
Eg.: Helium exhibits doublet configuration.

Question 58.
Write Lewis symbol of potassium and calcium.
Answer:
Potassium – \(\dot{\mathrm{K}}\) and Calcium – •Ca•

Question 59.
Which of the following is / are true?
1) Ionic compounds exist as solids.
2) Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points.
3) Ionic compounds conduct electricity in solid state.
4) Ionic compounds have low melting and boiling points.
Answer:
Ionic compounds generally exists as solids and they have very high melting and boiling points and they conduct electricity in aqueous or molten state.
So first and second statements are true.

Question 60.
How many a and n bonds are there in acetylene molecule?
Answer:
The structure of acetylene is given by
\(\mathrm{H}-\mathrm{C} \equiv-\mathrm{H}\)
So they are 3a and 2n bonds.

Question 61.
What is the valency of carbon in CO₂?
Answer:
The valency of oxygen is 2. So the valency of carbon = 2 × 2 = 4.

Question 62.
Which of the following does not get Helium configuration during formation of chemical bonding?
1) Hydrogen,
2) Lithium,
3) Beryllium,
4) Oxygen.
Answer:
Oxygen attains Neon configuration when it undergoes chemical bondings and the rest will attain Helium configuration.

Question 63.
Write the valencies of following elements.
a) Be
b) N and what is the compound formed when these two reacted?
Answer:
a) The electronic configuration of Be is 1s² 2s². So its valency is 2.
b) The electronic configuration of Nitrogen is 1s² 2s² 2p³. So its valency is 3.
∴ Formula of the compound is Be₃N₂.

Question 64.
Which of the following solutions are conductors of electricity?
a) Sugar solution,
b) Alcohol solution,
c) Glucose solution,
d) Salt solution.
Answer:
Salt solution is good conductor of electricity because common salt (NaCl) is an ionic compound and the rest are covalent compounds.

Question 65.
Why are noble gases (inert gases) stable?
Answer:

1. Noble gases are stable because their outermost orbit contains 8 or 2 electrons.
2. Noble gases exist an individual atoms.

10th Class Chemistry 10th Lesson Chemical Bonding 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Represent each of the following molecules using Lewis notation. (TS March 2015)
(i) Calcium and Chlorine to form Calcium chloride.
(ii) Formation of Oxygen molecule from Oxygen atoms.
Answer:

Question 2.
Between a neutral atom and its cations which has bigger size? Why? (TS June 2016)
Answer:

• A neutral atom has bigger in size than its cation.
• A cation has more protons and nucleus of the cation attracts the electrons in the outermost orbital more.
• Hence, the radius of the anion decreases. It means size of the anion decreases.
• So, a neutral atom is bigger than its cation.

Question 3.
Draw the diagram to show the formation of Oxygen molecule by Valence bond theory. (TS March 2017)
Answer:

Question 4.
Explain Ionic bond with suitable example. (TS June 2018)
Answer:
1) Sodium (Na) looses one electron and forms Sodium ion (Na⁺).
Na → Na⁺ + 1e^–

2) Chlorine (Cl) gains one electron and forms chloride ion (Cl^–).
Cl + 1e^– → Cl^–

3) Positive sodium ion (Na+) and negative chloride (Ct) ion come together due to electrostatic forces, participates in ionic bond and form NaCl.
Na⁺ + Cl^– → NaCl

Question 5.
Give two examples of each to ionic and covalent compounds. (AP SCERT: 2019-20)
Answer:
1) Ionic compounds eg : NaCl, MgCl₂
2) Covalent compounds eg : Cl₂, HCl

Question 6.
Distinguish between a sigma and a pi bond.
Answer:

Sigma bond	Pi bond
1. It is formed by the end-end on overlap of orbitals.	1. It is formed by the lateral overlap of orbitals.
2. It has independent existence.	2. It has no independent existence.
3. It is a strong bond. Because axial overlap is more.	3. It is a weak bond. Because lateral overlap is less.
4. There can be only one a bond.	4. There can be one or two 7t bonds between two atoms.
5. All orbitals form ‘o’ bond.	5. Only p, d orbitals form a bond.

Question 7.
Write about ‘Hydrogen bond’
Answer:

• Hydrogen bond is formed between molecules in which hydrogen atom is attached to an atom of an element with large electronegativity and very small size (F, O, N). Because in hydrogen bond the molecules associate themselves and hence possess higher B.P’s and M.P’s.
• The hydrogen bond formed between two molecules is called inter-molecular hydrogen bond.
• The hydrogen bond formed between different groups of the same molecule is called intra-molecular hydrogen bond.

Question 8.
Bring out the difference between ionic and covalent bonds.
Answer:

Ionic bond	Covalent bond
1. It is formed by transference of electrons from one atom to the other.	1. It is formed by the sharing of electron pairs by two atoms.
2. Electrostatic.	2. Not electrostatic, but rigid.
3. Ionic substances are formed by ionic bonds.	3. Molecules are formed by covalent bonds.
4. Non-directional.	4. Directional.

Question 9.
What is hybridisation?
Answer:
In the formation of molecules, the atomic orbitals of the atoms may hybridise.

1. It is the process of mixing up of atomic orbitals of an atom to form identical hybrid orbitals.
2. This takes place only during the formation of bond.
3. There should not be much difference in the energies of the orbitals that hybridise.
4. The number of hybrid orbitals formed is equal to the number of hybridising atomic orbitals.
5. Hybrid orbitals form a bonds only not n bonds.

Question 10.
What is ionisation? Give one example.
Answer:
1) The process of removal of electron (s) from an atom or molecule is termed as ionisation.
Eg : Na → Na⁺ + e^–

2) Dissociation of an ionic solid into constituent ions upon its dissolution in a suitable solvent, is also called ionisation.
Eg : NaCl_(aq) → Na⁺_(aq) + Cl^–_(aq)

Question 11.
Write a short note on octet rule with example.
Answer:
Atoms try to get 8 electrons in their outermost shell (inert gas structure) by combining with other atoms. In order to get 8 outer electrons, atoms may lose to, gain from or share electrons with other atoms.

Question 12.
What are the important characteristic features of hybridisation?
Answer:

• Orbitals on a single atom only would undergo hybridization.
• The orbitals involved in hybridisation should not differ largely in their energies.
• The number of hybrid orbitals formed is equal to the number of hybridising orbitals.
• The hybrid orbitals form stronger directional bonds than the pure s, p, d atomic orbitals.
• It is the orbitals that undergo hybridisation and not the electrons.
• Concept of hybridisation is useful in explaining the shape of molecules.

Question 13.
Why is a large amount of energy needed to remove an electron from a neutral gaseous neon atom than the energy needed to remove an electron from gaseous sodium atom?
Answer:
Na (g) +118.4 K.cal → Na⁺ + e^–
Ne (g) + 497.0 K.cal → Ne⁺ + e^–

Orbitals which are fully-filled are very stable, so need large amount of energy to remove an electron from them.

Question 14.
What are the drawbacks of electronic theory of valence?
Answer:
1) When covalent bond formed between any two atoms, irrespective of the nature of the atoms, the bond lengths and bond energies’ are expected to be same. But practically it was observed that bond lengths and bond energies are not same when the atoms that form the bond are different.

2) This theory fails to explain the shapes of molecules.

Question 15.
What is the structure of NaCl and write its coordination number of its constituent ions?
Answer:
The structure of NaCl is face centred cubic lattice.
Its coordination number is 6 for Na⁺ and Cl_–.

Question 16.
Why is there absorption of energy in certain chemical reactions and release of energy in other reactions?
Answer:
If bond dissociation energy of reactants is more than bond energy of products, then energy is absorbed in the chemical reaction.

If bond dissociation energy of reactants is less than bond energy of products, then energy is released in the chemical reaction.

Question 17.
Why do ionic compounds dissolve in polar solution and covalent compounds dissolve in non-polar solution?
Answer:
Ionic compounds are polar in nature so they are soluble in polar solvents whereas covalent compounds are non-polar in nature so they are soluble in non-polar solvents.

Question 18.
Identify the following whether they are either oxidation or reduction reactions.

Answer:
i) Oxygen atom is gaining electrons. So it is reduction reaction.
ii) Potassium atom is losing electron. So it is oxidation reaction.
iii) Ferric ion is gaining electron. So it is reduction reaction.

Question 19.
Elements A, B, and C have atomic numbers 9, 20, and 10 respectively.
a) State which one is (i) a metal, (ii) a non-metal, (iii) chemically inert.
b) Write down the formula of the compound formed by two of the above elements.
Answer:
a) i) Element with atomic number 20 is a metal because its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 8, 2. It belongs to 2^nd group and the element is calcium.
ii) Element with atomic number 9 is a non-metal because its electronic configuration is 2, 7. So it belongs to 17^th group and it is Fluorine.
iii) Element with atomic number 10 is inert gas because its electronic configuration is 2, 8 and the element is Neon.

b) The formula of compound formed between elements Calcium and Fluorine is CaF₂.

Question 20.
In the formation of the compound XY₂, an atom X gives one electron to each Y atom. What is the nature of bond in XY₂? Give two properties of XY₂.
Answer:
Two electrons are transferred from X to Y. X forms positive ion and Y forms a negative ion. So the bond formed is ionic in nature.
Properties of ionic compounds :
a) They are hard crystals.
b) They have high boiling point and melting point.
c) They are soluble in water.

Question 21.
Element X is a metal with valency 2. Element Y is a non-metal with valency 3.
i) Write equations to show X and Y form ions.
Answer:
X is a metal with valency 2.

ii) If Y is a di-atomic gas, write the equation for the direct combination of X and Y to form a compound.
Answer:
4X + 3Y₂ → 2X₂Y₃

Question 22.
What are the differences between sodium atom and sodium ion?
Answer:

• Sodium atom is neutral whereas sodium ion has unipositive charge.
• The size of sodium ion is smaller than sodium atom.
• The properties of sodium ion is different when compared with sodium.

Question 23.
What is the percent of p-character in sp, sp² and sp³ hybrid orbitals?
Answer:
In sp the p-character is 50%.
In sp² the p-character is 66.66%.
In sp³ the p-character is 75%.

Question 24.
What is the percent of s-character in sp, sp² and sp³ hybrid orbitals?
Answer:
In sp hybrid orbitals s-character is 50%.
In sp² hybrid orbitals s-character is 33.33%.
In sp³ hybrid orbitals s-character is 25%.

Question 25.
A chemical compound has following Lewis notation.

a) How many valence electrons does element Y have?
b) What is the valency of element Y?
c) What is the valency of element X?
d) How many covalent bonds are there in the molecule?
e) Suggest a name for the element X and Y.
Answer:
a) The valence electrons in Y are 5.
b) The valency of Y is 3.
c) The valency of X is 1.
d) There are three covalent bonds.
e) The element Y is Nitrogen and X is Hydrogen.

Question 26.
The electronic configurations of three elements.
X is 2, 6; Y is 2, 8, 7; Z is 2, 8,1.
In each ease given below state whether the bonding is ionic or covalent and give the formula of molecules of the compound formed,
a) Between two atoms of X.
Answer:
As we move from left to right in a period non-metallic character increases. So Z is a metal and remaining two are non-metals.
Therefore between two atoms of X, there would be covalent bond. The formula of compound is X₂.

b) Between the atom X and atom Z.
Answer:
X is a non-metal and Z is a metal. So between these two atoms, there would be an ionic bond.
The valency of X is 2 and the valency of Z is 1.
So the formula of compound is Z₂X.

c) Between the atom Y and atom Z.
Answer:
Y is also non-metal and we know Z is metal.
The valency of Y is 1.
So the compound formed is ZY.

Question 27.
Electronic configuration of X is 2, 8, 1 and electronic configuration of Y is 2, 8, 7. Explain what type of bond is formed between them.
Answer:
The element with electronic configuration 2, 8,1 is sodium which is a metal. Similarly the element with electronic configuration 2, 8, 7 is chlorine which is a non-metal. The electronegativity difference between these two elements is more than 1.9 so they form ionic bond.

Question 28.
Complete the following statements.
i) The bond which is formed by transfer of an electron from one atom A to another atom B is called ……………
Answer:
Ionic bond

ii) The atoms A and B become ions. Thus A – 2e^– = …………….. and B + e^– = ………….
Answer:

iii) The formula of the compound is
Answer:
The valency of A is 2 and valency of B is 1. So the compound formed is AB₂.

Question 29.
Answer the following.
i) What is the valency of Nitrogen in Ammonia?
Answer:
The formula of Ammonia is NH₃. We know valency of hydrogen is 1. So valency of Nitrogen is 3.

ii) What is the valency of Oxygen in Water?
Answer:
The formula of water is H₂O. The valency of hydrogen is 1. So the valency of oxygen is 2.

iii) What is the valency of Carbon in Carbon tetra chloride?
Answer:
The formula of carbon tetra chloride is CCl₄. The valency of chlorine is 1. So the valency of carbon is 4.

10th Class Chemistry 10th Lesson Chemical Bonding 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is Hybridisation? Explain the formation of BeF, molecule using hybridisation. (AP June 2017)
Answer:
Hybridisation :
Hybridisation is a phenomenon of intermixing of atomic orbitals of almost equal energy which are present in the outer shells of the atom and their reshuffling or redistribution into the same number of orbitals but with equal properties like energy and shape.

Formation of BeF₂ molecule :

1. ₄Be has electronic configuration 1s² 2s².
2. In excited state electronic configuration of ₄Be is 1s² 2s¹ 2p_x¹
3. ₄Be allows its 2s orbitals and 2p_x orbitals which contain unpaired electrons to intermix and redistribute to two identical orbitals.
4. The hybridisation is called ‘sp’ hybridisation and form two ‘sp’ hybrid orbitals. Each orbital contains one electron.
5. ₉F has electronic configuration 1s² 2s² 2p⁵ (or) 1s² 2s² 2px² 2py² 2pz¹
6. F contains one unpaired electron.
7. Two Fluorine atoms come closure to Be and form two covalent bonds.
   σsp – p and σsp – p
8. Now the BeF₂ has (F \(\widehat{\mathrm{Be}}\) F) angle of 180°.
   

Question 2.
The arrangement of electrons in different shells of atoms of 18th Group elements is given in the table.

Answer the following : (AP March 2017)
(i) What is the general electronic configuration of the above elements except He?
(ii) What is the valency of Argon?
(iii) Write Lewis dot structure of Neon.
(iv) Why the above elements do not take part in bond formation?
Answer:
(i) ns² np⁶
(ii) Zero
(iii)

(iv) They are stable as they have 8 electrons (except Helium) in their outer most orbit.

Question 3.
“Nitrogen and Hydrogen react to form a molecule of Ammonia (NH₃). Carbon and Hydrogen react to form a molecule of Methane (CH₄).”
For each reaction :
a) What is the valency of each of the atom involved in the reaction?
b) Draw the dot structure of the products that are formed. (AP June 2018)
Answer:
a) In ammonia : Nitrogen valency – 3, Hydrogen valency – 1
In methane : Carbon valency – 4, Hydrogen valency – 1

b)

Question 4.
Explain the formation of Boron tri-fluoride molecule by Hybridization. (TS June 2018)
Answer:
1) Electron configuration of Boran at ground state.

2) Electron configuration of Boran at excited state is

3) As it forms three identical B-F bonds in BF₃.
4) In excited state of Boran, one ‘s’ orbital and two ‘p’ orbitals undergoes hybridization and forms three sp² orbitals.
1s + 2p → 3sp²
5) Three sp² orbitals make end – on – end overlap with three ‘p’ orbitals of fluorine atoms.
6) They form three sp² – p sigma bonds.
7) In this way Boran tri-fluoride molecule is formed.
8)

Question 5.
Explain the formation of BF₃ molecule with the help of Valence Bond theory? (TS March 2018)
Answer:
Formation of BF₃ molecule :

1. ₅B has electronic configuration 1s² 2s² 2p_x.
2. The excited electronic configuration of ₅B is 1s² 2s¹ 2p_x¹ 2p_y¹.
3. As it forms three identical B-F bonds in BF₃
4. It is suggested that excited ‘B’ atom undergoes hybridisation.
5. There is an intermixing of 2s, 2p_x, 2p_y orbitals and their redistribution into three identical orbitals called sp² hybrid orbitals.
6. For three sp² orbitals to get separated to have minimum repulsion the angle between any two orbitals is 120° at the central atom and each sp² orbital gets one electron.
7. Now three fluorine atoms overlap their 2p_z orbitals containing unpaired electrons (F₉ 1s² 2s² 2p_x² 2p_y² 2p_z²) the three sp² orbitals of ‘B’ that contain unpaired electrons to form three ssp²-p bonds.

Question 6.
Explain the formation of N₂ molecule using Valence Bond theory. (TS June 2019)
Answer:
Formation of N, molecule (Valence Bond theory) :

1. ₇N has electronic configuration 1s² 2s² 2p_x¹ 2p_y¹ 2p_z.
2. Suppose that p_x orbital of one ‘N’ atom overlaps the ‘p_x‘ orbital of the other ‘N’ atom giving σ p_x – p_x bond along the inter – nuclear axis.
3. The p_y and p_z orbitals of one ‘N’ atom overlap the p_y and p_z orbital of other ‘N’ atom laterally, respectively perpendicular to inter – nuclear axis giving π p_y – p_y and π p_z-p_z bonds.
4. Therefore, N₂ molecule has a triple bond between two nitrogen atoms.

Question 7.
If the electronic configurations of atoms A and B are 1s², 2s², 2p₆, 3s², 3p¹ and 1s², 2s², 2p₄ respectively, then
a) which atom forms negative ion?
Answer:
Given electronic configuration of atom A is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p¹, i.e. Aluminium and B is 1s² 2s² 2p⁴, i.e. Oxygen.

The atom ‘B’ tends to form negative ion by gaining two electrons in order to get nearest inert gas. Neon’s configuration is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶. So its valency is 2.

b) which atom forms positive ion?
Answer:
The atom ‘A’ tends to form positive ion by losing three electrons in order to get nearest inert gas. Neon’s configuration is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶.

c) what is the valency of atom A?
Answer:
Valency of atom ‘A’ is ‘3’.

d) what is the molecular formula of the compound formed by atoms A and B ?
Answer:
According to Criss-Cross method, the molecular formula of the compound formed by atoms both A and B is A₂B₃, i.e. Al₂O₃.

Question 8.
Writs the salient features of VSEPRT.
(OR)
Explain VSEPR theory.
Answer:
The full form of VSEPRT is Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion Theory.

1. VSEPRT considers electrons in the valence shells which are in covalent bonds and in lone pairs as charge clouds that repel one another and stay as far apart as possible which will give specific shapes to molecules.
2. The presence of lone pair in the central atom causes slight distortion of bond angles from expected regular shape.
3. If the angle between lone pair and bond pair increases at the central atom due to more repulsion, the actual bond angles between atoms must be decreased.
4. If two bond pairs are present without any lone pair, the shape of the molecule is linear with bond angle 180°.
5. If three bond pairs are present without any lone pair, the shape of the molecule is trigonal planar with bond angle 120°.
6. If there are four bond pairs in the valency shell of central atom without lone pair, the shape is tetrahedron and the bond angle is 109°28′.
7. If there are three bond pairs and one lone pair, the shape of the molecule is pyramidal.
8. If there are two bond pairs and two lone pairs, the shape is V.

Question 9.
Do you think that a pair of Na⁺Cl^– as units would be present in the solid crystal? Explain.
Answer:

• No, the electrostatic forces are non-directional.
• Therefore, it is not possible for one Na⁺ to be attracted by one Cl^– and vice-versa.
• Depending upon the size and charge of particular ion, number of oppositely charged ions get attracted by it, but, in a definite number.
• In sodium chloride crystal each Na⁺ is surrounded by 6 Cl^– and each Cl^– by six Na⁺ ions.
• Ionic compounds in the crystalline state consists of orderly arranged cations and anions held together by electrostatic forces of attractions in three dimensions.

Question 10.
Explain the valence bond theory.
Answer:
Valence bond theory :

1. A covalent bond between two atoms is formed when the two atoms approach each other closely and one atom overlaps its valence orbital containing unpaired electron with the valence orbital of other atom that contains the unpaired electron of opposite spin.
2. The greater the overlapping of the orbitals, the stronger will be bond.
3. Valence bond theory gives a directional character to the bond when other than ‘s’ orbitals are involved.
4. Electron pair in the overlapping orbitals is shared bv both the atoms involved in the overlapping.
5. If orbitals overlap along inter-nucleus axis, they form a strong bond called sigma (σ) bond.
6. If the orbitals overlap laterally, they form a weak bond called pi (π) bond.

Question 11.
Answer the following.
a) Name the charged particles which attract one another to form ionic or electro-valent compounds.
Answer:
The charged particles are ions which are formed due to transfer of electrons from atom of one element to atom of other element.

b) In the formation of ionic compounds, electrons are transferred from one element to another. How are electrons involved in the formation of covalent compounds?
Answer:
In the formation of covalent bond electrons are mutually shared between atoms of elements.

c) The electronic configuration of Nitrogen is 2, 5. How many electrons in the outer- shell of a nitrogen atom are not involved in the formation of Nitrogen molecule?
Answer:
In the formation of Nitrogen molecules three pairs of electrons are mutually shared by the two nitrogen atoms. So each Nitrogen has two electrons which do not take part in bonding. Those two electrons are called lone pair.

d) In the formation of magnesium chloride, name the substance that is oxidized and the substance that is reduced.
Answer:
Two electrons are transferred from Magnesium atom to Chlorine atom in the formation of Magnesium chloride.

So Magnesium is oxidised (loss of electrons is oxidation) and Chlorine is reduced (gain of electrons is reduction).

Question 12.
The symbols of two elements with their atomic numbers are given below. ₁₆A and ₂₀B
i) Which element will form a cation?
Answer:
The atomic number of B is 20. So its electronic configuration is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s² or 2, 8, 8, 2. So it easily loses two electrons to form cation thereby attain inert gas stability.

ii) Which element will form an anion?
Answer:
The atomic number of A is 16. So its electronic configuration is 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁴ or 2, 8, 6. So it easily gains two electrons to form anion. Therefore it attains inert gas stability.

iii) Show how each element forms an ion.
Answer:

iv) Which element will be oxidised in forming the ion?
Answer:
B is losing electrons. So it is oxidised. .

v) When the elements react, what will be the nature of the bond formed?
Answer:
When the elements react they form ionic bond because B is metal and A is non-metal.

Question 13.
Give one example for each of the following.
i) A polar covalent bond formed from two dissimilar atoms one of which is oxygen.
Answer:
In the formation water molecule, polar covalent bond is formed between two dissimilar atoms hydrogen and oxygen.

ii) A non-polar covalent compound formed from two similar atoms.

Answer:
The examples for a non-polar covalent compound formed from two similar atoms are Fluorine (F₂), Chlorine (Cl₂).

iii) A solid non-polar covalent compound.
Answer:
The example for solid non-polar covalent compound is Iodine (I₂).

iv) A polar covalent compound containing three shared pairs of electrons.

Answer:
The polar covalent compound containing three shared pairs of electrons is Ammonia.

Question 14.
The list of some substances is given below.
HCl, H₂O, Cl₂, NaBr, CH₄, NH₃, N₂, O₂, CaO, HF, I₂ and Br₂.
From the list above choose the substance / substances.

i) Which have only ionic bond in the molecules?
Answer:
NaBr, CaO have only ionic bond in the molecules,

ii) Which has a triple covalent bond in its molecule?
Answer:
N₂ has a triple covalent bond in its molecule (\(\mathbf{N} \equiv \mathbf{N}\)).

iii) Which are solids?
Answer:
Generally ionic compounds are solids. So NaBr, CaO are solids. I₂ being a covalent compound still it is solid.

iv) Which has a double covalent bond in its molecule?
Answer:
O₂ has a double covalent bond in its molecule (O = O).

v) Which is non-polar covalent liquid?
Answer:
The non-polar covalent liquid is Br₂.

Question 15.
There are elements with atomic numbers 4, 14, 8, 15 and 19. From this information answer the following questions.
a) A solid non-metal of valency 3.
Answer:
The element with atomic number 15 is phosphorus. Its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 5. So its valency is 3 and it is a solid non-metal.

b) A gas of valency 2.
Answer:
The element with atomic number 8 is oxygen. Its electronic configuration is 2, 6. So its valency is 2 and it is a gas.

c) A metal of valency 1.
Answer:
The element with atomic number 19 is potassium. Its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 8, 1. So its valency is 1 and it is a metal.

d) A non metal of valency 4.
Answer:
The element with atomic number 14 is silicon. Its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 4. Its valency is 4 and it is a non-metal.

Question 16.
Explain the following.
a) Ionic compounds conduct electricity.
Answer:
Ionic compounds can be electrolysed to give their constituent ions. The ions obtained by dissociation move freely in solution and hence conduct electricity. When ionic compound is dissolved in water or melted, it becomes a good conductor of electricity.

b) Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points while covalent compounds have low melting and boiling points.
Answer:
The forces existing between ionic compounds are electrostatic in nature. They are strong forces. So in order to break these forces lot of energy is required. Therefore ionic compounds have higher boiling and melting points.

c) Ionic compounds dissolve in water whereas covalent compounds do not.
Answer:
Ionic compounds are polar in nature. So they are soluble in polar solvent like water whereas covalent compounds are non-polar in nature. So they are insoluble in water.

d) Ionic compounds are usually hard crystals.
Answer:
Due to strong attractive forces they are usually hard crystals.

Question 17.
If A, B, C and D are elements given that B is an inert gas (not Helium).

Element	Atomic Number
A	Z- 1
B	Z
C	Z + 1
D	Z + 4

What type of bonding would take place between (i) A and C and (ii) D and A and write their formulae?
Answer:
1) Given that B is inert gas.
So the valency of A is 1 and it is a non-metal and valency of C is 1 and it is metal and valency of D is 4 and it is a non-metal.

2) The bond formed between C and A is ionic nature and its formula is CA.
The bond formed between D and A is covalent nature and its formula is DA₄.

Question 18.
State whether the following statements are true or false. If statement is false, correct it.
i) In polar compounds the electropositive atom attracts the electron pair towards it.
Answer:
This statement is wrong. In polar compounds the more electronegative atom attracts the electron pair towards it which is known as electronegativity.

ii) Hydrogen chloride gas is a di-polar molecule.
Answer:
Chlorine is more electronegative than Hydrogen. So the electron pair shifts more towards chlorine atom. Thus partial positive charge is formed on Hydrogen and partial negative charge is formed on Chlorine. So it is dipolar molecule. So the statement is true.

iii) Covalent compounds are generally gases due to presence of weak electrostatic forces of attraction.
Answer:
This statement is false. The forces are not electrostatic and also they are weak.

iv) Atoms achieve stable electronic configuration only by transfer of electrons from one atom to another.
Answer:
This statement is false because they can acquire by not only electron transfer but also mutually sharing of electrons.

v) Ionic compounds are soft, solids or liquids at ordinary temperature.
Answer:
This statement is false because ionic compounds are generally hard solids.

Question 19.
Five atoms are labelled from A to E.

Atoms	Atomic Number	Mass Number
A	20	40
B	9	19
C	3	7
D	8	16
E	7	14

a) Which one of these atoms (i) contain 7 protons, (ii) has an electronic configuration 2, 7?
Answer:’
i) The atom E contains 7 protons because its atomic number is 7.
ii) The atom with electronic configuration 2, 7 is B because its atomic number is 9.

b) Write down the formula of the compound formed between C and D.
Answer:
The electronic configuration of C is 2, 1 since its atomic number is 3. The electronic configuration of D is 2, 6 since its atomic number is 8.
So the valency of C is 1. –
The valency of D is 2 (8 – 6 = 2).
∴ The compound formed between C and D is C₂ D.

c) Predict which are (i) metals, (ii) non-metals?
Answer:
Metals are A, C.
Non-metals are B, D, E.

Question 20.
Can you suggest an experiment to prove that ionic compounds possess strong bonds when compared to that of covalent bonds? Explain the procedure.
Answer:

• Take a small amount of sodium chloride (NaCl) on a metal spatula (having an insulated handle).
• Heat it directly over the flame of a burner.
• We will see that sodium chloride (NaCl) does not melt easily.
• Sodium chloride melts (and becomes a liquid) only on strong heating.
• This shows that sodium chloride which is an ionic compound possesses strong bonds.
• So it has a high melting point.
• Whereas covalent compound like naphthalene and carbon tetra chloride has low boiling points such as 80° C and 77° C respectively.
• The force of attraction between the molecules of a covalent compound is very weak.
• Only a small amount of heat energy is required to break these weak molecular forces, due to which covalent compound has low melting points and low boiling points.

Question 21.
The electronic configurations of following elements are given below.

From these values complete the table.

Compound	Type of bonding
Lithium chloride
Lithium hydride
Hydrogen chloride
Carbon tetrachloride

Answer:
a) Lithium is metal and chlorine is non-metal. So the bond is ionic in nature.
b) Lithium is metal and hydrogen is non-metal. So the bond is ionic in nature.
c) Hydrogen and chlorine are two dissimilar non-metals. So the bond formed is polar covalent bond.
d) Carbon and chlorine are dissimilar non-metals but electronegativity difference is less. So they form non-polar covalent bond.

Compound	Type of bonding
Lithium chloride	Ionic bond
Lithium hydride	Ionic bond
Hydrogen chloride	Polar covalent bond
Carbon tetrachloride	Non-polar covalent bond

Question 22.
Draw the structure of O₂ by using valence bond theory.
Answer:
O₂ Formation :

Question 23.
Draw the structure of N₂.
Answer:

Question 24.
Draw the structure of molecules by Lewis method.
Answer:
Formation of F₂:

Formation of O₂ :

Formation of N₂ :

Formation of CH₄ :

Formation of NH₃ :

Formation of H₂O :

Formation of BeCl₂ :

Formation of BF₃ :

Question 24.
Explain the formation of the following molecules using Lewis theory.
a) N₂
b) O₂
(OR)
Write the formation of double bond and triple bond according to Lewis theory.
Answer:
a) Formation of N₂ molecule by Lewis theory :

1. The electronic configuration of ’N’ atom is 2, 5 and to have octet in the valence shell it requires three more electrons.
2. When two nitrogen atoms approach each other, each atom contributes 3 electrons for bonding.
3. There are six electrons shared between two nitrogen atoms in the form of three pairs.
4. Therefore, there is a triple bond between two nitrogen atoms in N₂ molecule.

b) Formation of O₂ molecule by Lewis theory :

1. The electronic configuration of ₈O is 2, 6.
2. Oxygen atom has six electrons in its valence shell.
3. It requires two more electrons to get octet in its valence shell.
4. Therefore oxygen atoms come close and each oxygen atom contributes two electrons for bonding.
5. Thus, there exist two covalent bonds between two oxygen atoms in O₂ molecule as there are two pairs of electrons shared between them.
6. Two pairs of electrons are distributed between two oxygen atoms.
7. So, we can say that a double bond is formed between two oxygen atoms in O₂ molecule.
8. By viewing the following diagram, both the oxygen atoms have octet in the valence shell.

These AP 9th Class Maths Important Questions 1st Lesson Real Numbers will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Maths 1st Lesson Important Questions and Answers Real Numbers

Question 1.
Represent \(\frac{-13}{5}\) on number line.
Solution:
Draw number line, having, -3, -2, -1,0, 1 integers on it.

→ Divide each unit as 5 equal parts on either side of zero.
→ From these count 13 parts on left side of the zero, which indicates \(\frac{-13}{5}\)

Question 2.
Find any two irrational numbers between 0.5 and 0.55.
Answer:
Two irrational numbers between 0.5 and 0.55 are (0.52515345 ……………….. and
0.541656475 …………….. ).

Question 3.
Simplify (25)^3/2 × (625)^-1/4
Solution:
Given that (25)^3/2 × (625)^-1/4
= (5²)^3/2 × (5⁴)^-1/4
= \(5^{2 \times \frac{3}{2}} \times 5^{4 \times\frac{-1}{4}}\) = 5³ × 5^-1 = 5^3-1 = 5² – 25.

Question 4.
Find two rational numbers between 0.2 and 0.3.
Solution:
The rational numbers between 0.2 and 0.3 is 0.25 and 0.28.
It means \(\frac{25}{100}, \frac{28}{100}=\frac{1}{4}, \frac{7}{25}\)

Question 5.
Convert \(\sqrt[3]{5}\) from the radical form to the exponential form.
Solution:
As \(\sqrt[n]{a^{m}}=(a)^{\frac{m}{n}}\) = \(\sqrt[n]{a}=(a)^{\frac{1}{n}}\)
\(\sqrt[3]{5}=(5)^{\frac{1}{3}}\)

Question 6.
Find the value of \(\text { (625) } \frac{-1}{4} \text { . }\) .
Solution:

Question 7.
Simplify: \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}+\sqrt{2}}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2}}\)
Solution:

Question 8.
Prove that if x is odd, then x² is also odd.
Solution:
x is an odd number, x = 2k + 1
{definition of odd}
x = 2k + 1
squaring on both sides
(x)² = (2k + 1)²
x² = 4k² 4k + 1 = 2(2k² + 2k) + 1 = 2l + 1
x² = 2l + 1 {l = 2k² + 2k}
∴ x² is an odd number.

Question 9.
Express \(5 . \overline{25}\) in from where q ≠ 0, p and q are co primes.
Solution:
Let x = \(5 . \overline{25}\)
x – 5.25 25 25 ……………… (1)
Multiply by 100 to (1)
100 x = 525.25 25 25 ………….. (2)
Subtract (1) from (2)

Question 10.
Express as a decimal number.
Solution:
For the correct process of division.
For expressing = 0.5222222 …………
= \(0.5 \overline{2}\)

Question 11.
If = a + b√3, then find the value of a³ + b³
The Rationalising Factor of 7 – 4√3 and √3 – 2 is 7 + 4√3 and √3 + 2

= 7 + 4√3 – √3 – 2
= 5 + 3√3 = a + b√3
Here a = 5,b = 3
∴ a³ + b³ = (5)³ + (3)³ = 125 + 27 = 152

Question 12.
Visualize the value of √5 upto 3 decimals on a number line, using successive magnification.
Solution:

Question 13.
If x = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}+\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2}}\) and y = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{3}+\sqrt{2}}\), then find the value of x² + y².
Solution:
Given that x = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}+\sqrt{2}}{\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2}}\)
R.F. of √3 – √2 is √3 + √2

x² + y² = (5 + 2√6 )² + (5 – 2√6 )²
= 25 + 20√6 + 24
+ 25 – 20√6 + 24
= 98

Question 14.
If √2 = 1.414, √3= 1.732, then find then value of \(\frac{4}{3 \sqrt{3}-2 \sqrt{2}}+\frac{3}{3 \sqrt{3}+2 \sqrt{2}}\).
Solution:
Given that √2 = 1.414 and √3 = 1.732

Question 15.
If \(\frac{5+2 \sqrt{3}}{7+4 \sqrt{3}}\) = a + b√3, then find the values of a and b.
Solution:
Given that \(\frac{5+2 \sqrt{3}}{7+4 \sqrt{3}}\)
Now rationalise the denominator, (Rational Factor of 7+4√3 is 7 – 4√3 )
= \(\frac{5+2 \sqrt{3}}{7+4 \sqrt{3}} \times \frac{7-4 \sqrt{3}}{7-4 \sqrt{3}}\)
= \(\frac{35-20 \sqrt{3}+14 \sqrt{3}-8 \times 3}{(7)^{2}-(4 \sqrt{3})^{2}}\)
= \(\frac{11-6 \sqrt{3}}{49-48}\) = 11 – 6√3
a + b√3 – 11 – 6√3 =11 + (-6)√3
.’. a = 11, b = -6.

Question 16.
Visualise \(4.6 \overline{7}\) on number line upto 3 decimal places, using successive magnification.
Solution:

Question 17.
Represent -√3 and √3 on number line.
Solution:

Question 18.
Find the value of ‘a’ and ‘b’, if \(\frac{(\sqrt{5}-\sqrt{3})}{2 \sqrt{5}+3 \sqrt{3}}\) = a + b\(\sqrt{15}\)
Solution:
The Rationalising Factor of \(\frac{(\sqrt{5}-\sqrt{3})}{2 \sqrt{5}+3 \sqrt{3}}\)
is 2√5 – 3√3 , multiplying the numerator and denominator with 2√5 – 3√3.

Question 19.
Represent 2.019 on number line using the method of successive magnification.
Solution:

Question 20.
Simplify:
\(15 \sqrt[5]{32}+\sqrt{225}-8 \sqrt[3]{343}+\sqrt[4]{81}\)
Solution:
= \(15 \sqrt[5]{32}+\sqrt{225}-8 \sqrt[3]{343}+\sqrt[4]{81}\)
= \(15 \sqrt[5]{2^{5}}+\sqrt{15^{2}}-8 \sqrt[3]{7^{3}}+\sqrt[4]{3^{4}}\)
= (15 × 2) + 15 – (8 × 7) + 3
= 30 + 15 – 56 + 3 = – 8.

Question 21.
Express \(5.12 \overline{3}\) in \(\frac{\mathbf{p}}{\mathbf{q}}\) form where p and q are co-primes.
Solution:
Let x = \(5.12 \overline{3}\)
=> x = 5.12333 ……………. (1)
Here periodicity is 1.
So, we have to multiply (1) with 10.on both sides.
=> 10 × x = 10 × 5.12333 ……………….
10 x = 51.2333. …………… (2)
(2) – (1)

x = \(\frac{46.11}{9}=\frac{46.11}{9}\) × \(\frac{100}{100}=\frac{4611}{900}\)
∴ x = \(\frac{4611}{900}\)

Question 22.
The length of a rectangular field is \(\sqrt[3]{5}+\sqrt[3]{2}\) Find the measure of its breadth such that the area of the rectangle is a rational number.
Solution:
Given that the length of a rectangular
field (l) = \(\sqrt[3]{5}+\sqrt[3]{2}\).
If we want to get area of rectangle as a rational number, then we should take the breadth as Rationalising Factor of length.

Question 23.
Simplify:
\(\sqrt[4]{81}-8 \cdot \sqrt[5]{243}+15 \cdot \sqrt[5]{32}+\sqrt{225}\)
Solution:
\(\sqrt[4]{81}-8 \cdot \sqrt[5]{243}+15 \cdot \sqrt[5]{32}+\sqrt{225}\)
= \(\sqrt[4]{3^{4}}-8 \cdot \sqrt[5]{3^{5}}+15 \cdot \sqrt[5]{2^{5}}+\sqrt{15^{2}}\)
= \(\left(3^{4}\right)^{\frac{1}{4}}-8 \cdot\left(3^{5}\right)^{\frac{1}{5}}+15\left(2^{5}\right)^{\frac{1}{5}}+\left(15^{2}\right)^{\frac{1}{2}}\)
= 3 – 8.3 + 15.2 + 15
= 3 – 24 + 30+ 15
= 48 – 24 = 24