AP State Important Questions

These AP 9th Class Physical Science Important Questions 6th Lesson Reactions and Equations will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Physical Science 6th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Reactions and Equations

9th Class Physical Science 6th Lesson Chemical Reactions and Equations 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Fe₂O₃ + 2 Al → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe
Name the compound which is oxidized in the above reaction.
Answer:
In the reaction Fe₂O₃ + 2Al → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe,
Aluminium (Al) is oxidised and formed as Al₂O₃.

Question 2.
Give an example for displacement reaction.
Answer:
1) In displacement reaction one element displaces another element from its compound and takes its place there in.

2) Eg : Zinc pieces react with dilute hydrochloric acid and liberate Hydrogen gas.
Zn_(s)+ 2HCl_(aq) → ZnCl_2(aq) + H_2(g)

Question 3.
A shiny brown coloured element ‘X’ on heating in air becomes black in colour. Assume and write the name of the element ‘X’ and also predict the substance formed black in colour.
Answer:
Element X – Copper.
Black substance – Copper Oxide

Question 4.
Iron gets rust but Gold doesn’t, why?
Answer:
Gold does not oxidized.
(OR)
Gold is least reactive metal.

Question 5.
What happens if iron articles are exposed to moist air? Write the chemical equation to represent that reaction.
Answer:
Rusting takes place on iron articles when they are exposed to moist air.
2Fe_(s) + O_2(g) + 4H⁺_(aq) → 2Fe²⁺_(aq) + 2H₂O_(l)

Question 6.
On adding dilute hydrochloric acid to copper oxide powder, the solution formed is blue green. Write the new compound formed.
Answer:
Copper oxide reacts with hydrochloric acid and forms copper chloride and water. Copper chloride is in blue green colour.
CuO + 2 HCl → CuCl₂ + H₂O

Question 7.
Write the equation for the chemical decomposition reaction of silver chloride in the presence of sunlight.
Answer:

Question 8.
Balance the following chemical equation.
Na + H₂O → NaOH + H₂
Answer:
2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂

Question 9.
If you keep an iron piece in solid state CuSO₄ crystals, does it get any reaction? Guess the reason.
Answer:
Reaction will not takes place if an iron piece is placed in solid state CuSO₄ crystals because there will not exist separate Cu⁺², SO₄^-2 ions in CuSO₄ Crystals. In aqueous solution, they exists. So iron can not displace copper.

Question 10.
What is a chemical equation?
Answer:
Chemical Equation :
Describing a chemical reaction using least possible words or symbols is called a chemical equation.
Ex : CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂

Question 11.
What are “Reactants” and “Products”?
Answer:
1) Reactants :
The substances which undergo chemical change in the reaction are called ‘Reactants’.

2) Products:
The new substances formed in a chemical reaction are called ‘Products’.
Ex : Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ ↑
3) In above reaction Zn and 2HCl are called reactants, ZnCl₂ and H₂ are called products.

Question 12.
What is a balanced chemical equation?
Answer:
Balanced Chemical Equation :
A chemical reaction in which the number of atoms of different elements on the reactants side (left side) are same as those on product side (right side) is called a balanced chemical equation.
Ex : Mg + O₂ → MgO (Unbalanced chemical equation)
2 Mg + O₂ → MgO (Balanced chemical equation)

Question 13.
What is chemical change?
Answer:
Chemical Change :
The process in which the change is affecting the identity of a molecule by a change in chemical composition is called a “chemical change”.

Question 14.
What is physical change?
Answer:
Physical Change: The process where a change is occurring only in physical properties, without affecting the identity of the molecules is called a “physical change”.

Question 15.
What is the meaning of “Exo”, “Endo” and “Thermo”?
Answer:
The term ‘Exo’ means outside, ‘Endo’ means inside and ‘Thermo’ means heat.

Question 16.
What is oxidation? Give examples.
Answer:
Oxidation is a reaction that involves the addition of oxygen or loss of hydrogen or electrons.

Question 17.
What is a reduction? Give examples.
Answer:
The process in which a substance loses oxygen or gains hydrogen or electrons is known as reduction.

Question 18.
What is corrosion?
Answer:
Corrosion :
When some metals are exposed to moisture, acids etc. they tarnish due to the formation of respective metal oxide on their surface. This process is called “corrosion”.

Question 19.
What is “galvanizing”?
Answer:
It is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating them a thin layer of zinc.

Question 20.
What is combustion?
Answer:
The process of burning a substance in the presence of oxygen is called “combustion”.

Question 21.
What do you mean by “rancidity”?
Answer:
Food materials containing fat / oil are exposed to air, for a long time they react with atmospheric oxygen and it is responsible for spoiling of food. This process is called “rancidity”.

Question 22.
How do you know that respiration is an exothermic reaction?
Answer:
During the respiration reaction energy releases, so it is an exothermic reaction.

Question 23.
What will happen in chemical reaction?
Answer:
New substances are formed in chemical reaction.

Question 24.
What is precipitate?
Answer:
A precipitate is a solid product’ which separates out from the solution during a chemical reaction.

Question 25.
How does precipitation reaction occur? Explain with an example.
Answer:

1. Prepare lead nitrate and potassium iodide solutions in separate test tubes.
2. Mix the two solutions.
3. A yellow colour substance which is insoluble in water, is formed. This insoluble substance is known as precipitate. The precipitate here in this reaction is lead iodide.
   Pb(NO₃)₂ + 2KI → Pbl₂ + 2KNO₃

Question 26.
What is a balanced chemical equation?
Answer:
A balanced chemical equation has an equal number of atoms of different elements in the reactants and products.

Question 27.
What is an unbalanced equation?
Answer:
An unbalanced chemical equation has an unequal number of atoms of one or more elements in the reactants and products.

Question 28.
Why do the smell and taste of food items change?
Answer:
When fats and oils are oxidized they become rancid. So their smell and taste change.

Question 29.
“Freshly cut apple turning brown, the iron articles shiny when new, but gradually become reddish brown when left for sometime ………”. How do these changes occur?
Answer:
Oxygen molecules interact with different substance from metal to living tissue which may come into contact with it. The above changes occur. These are all the examples of the process of oxidation.

Question 30.
What are antioxidants?
Answer:
Antioxidants :
The spoilage of food can be prevented by adding preservatives which prevent oxidation. The substances which prevent oxidation are called antioxidants.
(OR)
The substances which prevent oxidation added to food containing fats and oil are called antioxidants.

Question 31.
Complete the following reaction.
Pb(NO₃)₂ + 2 KI → …………….. + …………………
Answer:
Pb(NO₃)₂ + 2 KI → Pbl₂ + 2KNO₃

Question 32.
If iron nail is dipped in copper sulphate solution, after sometime copper will be formed. Write the chemical equation for this reaction.
Answer:
Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu

Question 33.
Which metal is used in the manufacture of Diwali crackers?
Answer:
The metal used in manufacture of Diwali crackers is Magnesium.

Question 34.
What are new substances formed due to decomposition of lead nitrate?
Answer:
The new substances formed are lead oxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen.

Question 35.
Balance the following chemical equation. C₂H₆ + O₂ → CO₂ + H₂O
Answer:
2C₂H₆ + 7O₂ → 4CO₂ + 6H₂O

Question 36.
NH₄Cl → NH₃ + HCl. Which type of reaction is this?
Answer:
This is decomposition reaction.

Question 37.
Which chemical reaction is involved in the corrosion of iron?
Answer:
The chemical reaction involved in corrosion of iron is oxidation reaction.

Question 38.
Which metal is used for wrapping food material? Why?
Answer:
Aluminium is used to wrap food material because it reacts with oxygen and forms a protective layer of aluminium oxide which prevents further oxidation.

Question 39.
Write states of the reactants and products and also write conditions required for the completion of reaction.
Answer:
2H₂O → 2H₂ + O₂
H₂O is in liquid state. H₂ and 0₂ are in gaseous state.
The reaction is carried out in the presence of electricity.

Question 40.
Give an example for chemical combination reaction where only elements take part.
Answer:
2 H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
Here hydrogen and oxygen both are elements.

Question 41.
Give an example for chemical combination where element and compound take part in the reaction.
Answer:
2 NaN02 + O₂ → 2 NaNO₃
Here O₂ is element and NaNO₂ is compound.

Question 42.
Give an example where two compounds combine together to form a compound.
Answer:
CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂
Here both calcium oxide, water are compounds which combine together to form calcium hydroxide.

Question 43.
Before burning in air, why is Mg ribbon cleaned by rubbing with a sand paper?
Answer:
To remove the protection layer of basic magnesium carbonate from the surface of magnesium

Question 44.
X Pb(NO₃)₂ → Y PbO + Z NO₂ + W O₂.
If the equation is a balanced equation, what are values of coefficients X, Y, Z and W?
Answer:
The balanced equation is 2 Pb(NO₃)₂ → 2 PbO + 4 NO₂ + O₂.
∴ The values are X = 2,Y = 2, Z = 4 and W = 1.

Question 45.
Why does a layer of zinc prevent rusting of iron?
Answer:
Zinc reacts with oxygen and forms layer of zinc oxide which prevents further oxidation. So a layer of zinc protects iron from rusting.

Question 46.
Why does jewellery made of gold not rust?
Answer:
Gold does not react with air because it has least reactivity. So gold jewellery does not rust.

Question 47.

What type of reaction is this? Which element between A and C is more reactive? Why?
Answer:
This reaction is chemical displacement. ‘C’ is more reactive than ‘A’. So C displaces ‘A’ from AB and occupies its place.

Question 48.
Given AB + CD → AD + CB. What type of chemical reaction is this? What is the condition which makes the reaction possible?
Answer:
This is double displacement reaction. This reaction can be possible if ionisation of both the salt solutions are possible.
i.e., AB → A⁺ + B^–
CD → C⁺ + D^–

Question 49.
An iron nail is completely immersed in a test tube containing oil. Do you observe any rust on the iron nail? If not, why?
Answer:
No, I do not observe any rust because both air and moisture are required for rusting of iron.

Question 50.
How can we prevent rusting of iron?
Answer:
Rusting of iron can be prevented or at least minimised by shielding the metal surface from oxygen and moisture. It can be prevented by painting, oiling, greasing, galvanizing, chrome plating or making alloys.

Question 51.
Suggest few methods to avoid corrosion.
Answer:
Some methods to avoid corrosion

1. Painting, oiling, greasing on the surfaces of the metals.
2. Galvanizing the metal with thin layer of zinc.
3. Making alloy metals prevents corrosion,
   eg : brass, bronze and steel.

Question 52.
Some metals react with oxygen to form their oxides. It is serious problem. Give some examples for oxidation of metals and write balanced equations.
Answer:
1) Iron reacts with oxygen and forms iron oxide.
4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃.

2) Copper reacts with oxygen and forms copper oxide.
2Cu + O₂ → 2CuO

3) Silver tarnishes when reacts with hydrogen sulphide and oxygen
4Ag + 2H₂S + O₂ → 2Ag₂S + 2H₂O

Question 53.
Which pipes are suggestable/suitable for water supply? Justify your answer.
Answer:
Steel, PVC and CPVC pipes are suitable/suggestable for water supply.
Reasons:

1. They are not oxidised in moisture.
2. They do not form oxides.
3. They are not corroded.
4. So, they are durable and safe to use in supply of water.

Question 54.
Which pipes are used by you for water supply to your house?
Answer:

1. PVC, CPVC and steel pipes are used for water supply in my house.
2. Because they do not corrode.

Question 55.
List of metals are given below. Classify them into corroded and non-corroded metals. Aluminium, Silver, Iroh, Copper, Gold, Tin, Tungsten, Platinum.
Answer:
Corroded metals :
Aluminium, Silver, Iron, Copper

Non-corroded metals :
Gold, Tin, Tungsten, Platinum.

9th Class Physical Science6th Lesson Chemical Reactions and Equations 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
A light yellow coloured compound ‘X’ is exposed to sunlight for some time. It is turned into gray coloured material. What is the name of ‘X’? Predict the type of chemical reaction occured in it.
Answer:
1) The name of the compound ‘X’ is Silver Bromide (AgBr).

This is a decomposition reaction and also it occurs in the presence of sunlight. Hence, it is a photo chemical reaction.

Question 2.
Oil and fat containing food item packets are flushed with Nitrogen gas. Why?
Answer:
By stopping the oxidation it prevents the rancidity of food material.

Question 3.
N_2(g) + O_2(g) + heat → 2NO_(g)
What information do you get from the above equation? Comment.
Answer:

• Nitrogen gas reacts with oxygen gas in the presence of heat energy and forms nitric oxide gas.
• It is an endothermic reaction.
• This is an example for chemical combination reaction.
• In this reaction, the reactants are gases and products are also gases.

Question 4.
Write an activity about how you conduct an experiment to show that more reactive metals replace less reactive metals from their compounds.
Answer:

• Take two iron nails and clean then by rubbing with sand paper.
• Take two test tubes and mark them ‘A’ and ‘B’.
• Pour copper sulphate solution in the test tube ‘A’ and Zinc Chloride solution in the test tube ‘B’.
• Dip iron nails in both test tubes.
• Keep them without disturbing for 20 min.

Observation :

1. The nail which is dipped in Copper Sulphate solution becomes brownish colour.
2. The nail which is dipped in Zinc Chloride solution doesn’t change.

Reaction :
In test tube ‘A’: CuSO₄ + Fe → FeSO₄ + Cu
In test tube ‘B’: ZnCl₂ + Fe → No reaction.

Conclusion :

1. Iron is more reactive than copper. So it displaces copper from Copper Sulphate solution.
2. Iron is less reactive than zinc. So, it doesn’t displace zinc from ZnClr

Question 5.
i) CaCO_3(s) → CaO_(s) + CO_3(g)
ii) 2Ag Br_(s) → 2Ag_(s) + Br_2(g)
Mention the types of reactions to which the above equations belong. Also mention which of them is a photochemical reaction.
Answer:
1) i) CaCO_3(s) → CaO_(s) + CO_2(g). It is a chemical decomposition reaction.
ii) 2Ag Br_(s) → 2Ag_(s) + Br_2(g). It is also a chemical decomposition reaction.

2) 2Ag Br_(s) → 2Ag_(s) + Br_2(g). It is a photochemical reaction. Because, this reaction
takes place in the presence of sunlight only.

Question 6.
Write the products of given reactions, if any. Give reason.
FeCl₂ + Zn →
ZnCl₂ + Fe →
Answer:
FeCl₂ + Zn → ZnCl₂ + Fe (Displacement reaction)
ZnCl₂ + Fe → No reaction. (Low reactive metals cannot displace high reactive metals)

Question 7.
Balance the following chemical equations:
i) Na + H₂O → NaOH + H₂
ii) K₂CO₃ + HCl → KCl + H₂O + CO₂
Answer:
i) 2Na + 2H₂O → 2NaOH + H₂
ii) K₂CO₃ + 2HCl → 2KCl + H₂O + CO₂

Question 8.
Observe the following balanced chemical equation and answer the given questions.
C₃H_8(g) + 5O_2(g) → 3CO_2(g) + 4H₂O_(g)
i) How many molecules of Oxygen are involved in this chemical reaction?
ii) How many moles of Propane are required to get 20 moles of Water?
Answer:
i) In this chemical reaction five molecules of oxygen are involved.
ii) Five moles of propane are required to get 20 moles of water.

Question 9.
What do you do to prevent rusting of copper and silver articles?
Answer:
I can follow some rules given below to prevent rusting of copper and silver articles.

1. Shielding the metal surface from oxygen and moisture.
2. By painting.
3. By oiling, greasing.
4. By galvanizing, chrome plating.
5. By making alloys.

Question 10.
What are the important characteristics of chemical reactions?
Answer:
The important characteristics of chemical reactions are

1. Evolution of a gas
2. Formation of a precipitate
3. Change in colour
4. Change in temperature
5. Change in state

Question 11.
What symbols do we use to indicate the physical state of reactants and products in an equation?
Answer:

1. Solid state is indicated by the symbol (s)
2. Liquid state is indicated by the symbol (l)
3. Gaseous state is indicated by the symbol (g)
4. Aqueous solution is indicated by the symbol (aq)

Question 12.
What can we do to make a chemical equation more informative?
(OR)
How can chemical equation be made more informative by knowing?
Answer:

1. Physical state,
2. Heat changes (exothermic and endothermic reactions),
3. Gas evolved,
4. Precipitate formed.

Question 13.
Commemt on “C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + Heat” equation.
Answer:

• The burning of carbon in oxygen is an exothermic reaction because heat is evolved in this reaction.
• An exothermic reaction is indicated by writing + Heat or + Heat energy or just + Energy on the products side of an equation.

Question 14.
Comment on “N_2(g) + O_2(g) + Heat → 2 NO_(g)” equation.
Answer:

• The reaction between nitrogen and oxygen to form nitric oxide is an endothermic reaction because heat is absorbed in this reaction.
• An endotheumic reaction is usually indicated by writing + Heat or + Heat energy or just”+ Energy” on the reactants side of an equation.

Question 15.
Balance the following equations.
1) Na + O₂ → Na₂O
2) H₂O₂ → H₂O + O₂
3) Mg(OH)₂ + HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂O
4) Fe + O₂ → Fe₂O₂
Answer:

1. 4 Na + O₂ → 2 Na₂O
2. 2 H₂O₂ → 2 H₂O + O₂
3. Mg(OH)₂ + 2 HCl → MgCl₂ + 2 H₂O
4. 4 Fe + 3 O₂ → 2 Fe₂O₃

Question 16.
2 Cu + O₂ → 2 CuO
What information do you get from above equation?
Answer:
The above equation tells us that,

1. Copper reacts with oxygen to form copper oxide.
2. The formula of copper oxide is CuO and that of oxygen is O₂.
3. 2 moles of copper atoms react with 1 mole of oxygen molecules (O₂) to produce 2 moles of copper oxide (CuO).

Question 17.
Write examples for oxidation reaction.
Answer:
Oxidation :
It is a reaction involving addition of oxygen or removal of hydrogen from a substance.
1) Magnesium reacts with oxygen to form magnesium oxide.
2 Mg + O₂ → 2 MgO

2) Copper reacts with oxygen to form copper oxide.
2 Cu + O₂ → 2 CuO

3) Iron reacts with oxygen to form ferric oxide.
4 Fe + 3 O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃

Question 18.
Write examples for reduction reaction.
Answer:
Reduction :
It is a reaction involving addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen from a substance.
1) Nitrogen gas reacts with hydrogen gas to produce Ammonia.
N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃

2) Oil reacts with hydrogen to form fat.
Oil + H₂ → Fat

Question 19.
Write the examples for corrosion reaction.
Answer:
1) The black coatings on silver.
4 Ag + 2H₂S + O₂ → 2 Ag₂S + 2H₂O

2) Green coating on copper.
2 Cu + O₂ → 2 CuO

Question 20.
Name the reactants and products in the following chemical equations.
Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + NaCl
Answer:
Reactants are Sodium sulphate and Barium chloride. Products are Barium sulphate and Sodium chloride.

Question 21.
Balance the following chemical equation and follow the steps involved in balancing a chemical equation.
Cu₂S + O₂ → Cu₂O + SO₂
Answer:
Step – 1 : Write the unbalanced equation using correct chemical formula for all substances.
Cu₂S + O₂ → Cu₂O + SO₂

Step – 2 : Compare number of atoms of each element on both sides.

Atom	No. of atoms in LHS	No. of atoms in RHS
Cu	2	2
S	1	1
O	2	3

Balancing Cu, S, O atoms both sides
2Cu₂S + 3O₂ → 2Cu₂O + 2SO₂
The equation is balanced.

Step – 3 : Write the coefficient of smallest ratio.
2Cu₂S + 3O₂ → 2Cu₂O + 2SO₂

Step – 4 : Verify above equation for balancing of atoms of each element on both sides.
2Cu₂S + 3O₂ → 2Cu₂O + 2SO₂

Question 22.
Write the difference between oxidation and reduction. Give example.
Answer:

Oxidation	Reduction
1) Addition of oxygen or removal hydrogen from a compound is called oxidation.	1) Addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen from a compound is called reduction.
2) e.g.: C + O2 → CO2	2) e.g. :N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

Question 23.
Give two examples for chemical reactions in which precipitate is formed.
Answer:
The reactions in which a substance insoluble in water is formed are called precipitation reactions.
e.g.:
1) When lead nitrate solution reacts with potassium iodide solution it forms a yellow precipitate of lead iodide.
Pb(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2KI_(aq) → PbI_2(s) + 2KNO_3(aq)

2) When sodium sulphate solution reacts with barium chloride solution it forms a white precipitate of barium sulphate.
Na₂SO4_(aq) + BaCl_2(aq) → BaSO_4(s) + 2NaCl_(aq)

Question 24.
What are exothermic and endothermic reactions?
Answer:
Exothermic reaction :
A chemical reaction in which heat is released is called exothermic reaction.
Ex :
C + O₂ → CO₂ + Heat,
CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + Heat

Endothermic reaction :
A chemical reaction in which heat is absorbed is called endothermic reaction.
Ex :
2NaHCO₃ + Heat → Na₂CO₃ + H₂O + CO₂

Question 25.
What is an alloy? Give one example.
Answer:
A metallic substance made by mixing and fusing two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal, to obtain desirable qualities such as hardness, lightness and strength is called alloy.
Ex : Brass, bronze, steel.

Question 26.
What is photochemical reaction? Give example.
Answer:
The decomposition reaction occurs in the presence of sunlight is called photochemical.. reaction.
Ex : 2AgBr_(s) → 2Ag_(s) + Br_2(g)

Question 27.
Why is power supply to our home from the electrical pole interrupted?
Answer:

• Sometimes during rainy season the power supply to our home from the electric pole will be interrupted due to the formation of the metal oxide layer on the electric wire.
• This metal oxide is an electrical insulator.

Question 28.
Name the reactions involved in the following reactions with reasons.

Answer:
a) It is a decomposition reaction carried out in the presence of heat. So it is thermal decomposition reaction.
b) It is a decomposition reaction carried out in the presence of light. So it is photochemical reaction.
c) It is a decomposition taking place in the presence of electricity. So it is electrolysis reaction.
d) Lead is more reactive than copper. So lead displaces copper from salt solution. So the reaction is chemical displacement reaction.

Question 29.
Ramu told Ravi that all material made of iron and its alloys are rusted when exposed to air. How do you correct him by asking suitable questions?
Answer:

1. What are the material we will generally use in our cooking utensils?
2.  What are the material used for surgical equipments?
3. What happens when stainless steel vessels are exposed to air?

Question 30.
What are the gases released when lead nitrate is heated and how do you identify those gases?
Answer:
When lead nitrate is heated it decomposes into lead oxide, nitrogen dioxide and oxygen.

Nitrogen diox-ide is identified by its reddish brown co|our. Oxygen makes the burning splinter to burn brightly when it is placed in test tube containing oxygen.

Question 31.
Write some chemical reactions occurring in our daily life.
Answer:

1. Souring of milk
2. Formation of curd from milk
3. Cooking of food
4. Digestion of food in our body
5. Fermentation of grapes
6. Rusting of iron
7. Burning of fuels
8. Burning of candle wax
9. Ripening of fruits.

Question 32.
If 40 gm of methane is burnt, then how much amount of CO₂ is released ?
Answer:

When 16 g of methane is burnt it releases 44 g of CO₂. The amount of CO₂ released when 40 g methane burnt 44
= \(\frac{44}{16}\) × 40=110g

Question 33.
Calculate the amount of calcium oxide formed when 2 kg of calcium carbonate is decomposed. (The atomic masses of Ca = 40 U, C = 12 U, O = 16 U).
Answer:
The balanced equation is
CaCO_3(s) → CaO_(s) + CO_2(g)
(40 + 12 + 3 x 16) U → (40 + 16) U + (12 + 2 x 16) U
100 U → 56 U + 44 U
100 g → 56g + 44g
100 g calcium carbonate on decomposition produces 56 g of calcium oxide.
Amount of calcium oxide formed due to decomposition of 2 kg of calcium carbonate

Question 34.
A solution of common salt when added to silver nitrate solution yields a precipitate of silver chloride (0.28 g). Find the mass of sodium chloride in the solution and also the mass of sodium nitrate formed.
Answer:

Question 35.
0.29 g of hydrocarbon when burnt completely in oxygen produces 448 ml of carbon dioxide at STP. From the information, calculate the
i) mass of carbon dioxide formed
ii) mass of element carbon in carbon dioxide
iii) mass of hydrogen in hydrocarbon.
Answer:
i) Gram molecular weight of carbon dioxide = 12 + 2 × 16g = 44 g.
22.4 litres of CO₂ at STP weighs 44 g.

The weight of 448 ml of CO₂ at STP = \(\frac{44}{22400}\) × 448 = 0.88 g

ii) 44g of CO₂ contains 12 g of carbon.
The amount of carbon present in 0.88 g of CO₂ = \(\frac{12}{44}\) × 0.88 = 0.24 g

iii) Weight of hydrogen = Weight of hydrocarbon – Weight of carbon
= 0.29 – 0.24 = 0.05 g

Question 36.
Calculate the weights of carbon dioxide and water that will be obtained by completely burning 0.25 g of an organic compound having molecular formula C₄H₄O₄.
Answer:

Question 37.
What weight of sulphuric acid will be required to completely dissolve 3g of magnesium carbonate? Calculate the volume of carbon dioxide evolved at STP.
Answer:

Question 38.
If 16.4 g of calcium nitrate is heated : (a) Calculate the volume of Nitrogen dioxide obtained at STP and (b) The mass of calcium oxide obtained.
Answer:

Question 39.
Give some examples for corroded and non-corroded metals and give the reasons for non-corrosion of metals.
Answer:
Examples to corroded metals :

1. Iron
2. Copper
3. Silver

Reactions:
4Fe + 3O₂ → 2Fe₂O₃
2Cu + O₂ → 2CuO
4Ag + 2H₂S + O₂ → 2Ag₂S + 2H₂O

Exmples to non-corroded metals :

1. Gold
2. Platinum
3. Brass
4. Bronze
5. Steel

Reasons:

1. Gold and platinum metals do not react with oxygen and have resistance to corrosion.
2. Brass, bronze and steel are alloys. So they have a quality of resistance to corrosion.

Question 40.
Iron is a corroded metal. Through alloying we can prevent corrosion. Justify.
Answer:

• Alloying is a very good method of improving properties of metal.
• Generally pure form of iron is very soft and stretches easily when hot.
• When iron is mixed with carbon, nickel and chromium, an alloy stainless steel is obtained.
• The stainless steel is hard and does not rust.
• So, through alloying iron we can prevent corrosion.

Question 41.
“Through alloying corrosion can be prevented.” For the justification pose some questions.
Answer:

1. What is alloying?
2. How are alloys prepared?
3. What are the qualities of alloys?
4. Which quantity prevents the corrosion in alloys?
5. Can we prevent corrosion by alloying a metal ?

9th Class Physical Science6th Lesson Chemical Reactions and Equations 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the balanced chemical reaction for the following and identify the type of reaction in each case.
A) Magnesium_(s) + Iodine_(g) → Magnesium iodide_(s)
B) Zinc_(s) + Hydrochloric acid_(aq) → Zinc chloride_(aq) + Hydrogen_(g)
Answer:
A) Magnesium_(s) + Iodine_(g) → Magnesium iodide_(s)
Mg + I₂ → Mgl₂. This reaction is chemical combination.

B) Zinc_(s) + Hydrochloric acid_(aq) → Zinc chloride_(aq) + Hydrogen_(g)
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ ↑
This reaction is chemical displacement.

Question 2.
Write an activity to each of the following chemical reaction.
A) Photo chemical reaction
B) Chemical displacement reaction.
Answer:
A) Photo chemical reaction :
1) Take a pinch of Silver Bromide in a watch glass and it in the presence of sunlight.
2) Silver Bromide decomposes to silver and Bromine in sunlight.

B) Chemical displacement:

1. Take a small quantity of zinc dust in a conical flask and add some drops of dilute hydrochloric acid slowly.
2. Immediately we can observe the gas bubbles coming out from the solution.
3. This is because zinc reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid and liberates hydrogen gas.
   Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ ↑
4. In this reaction the element zinc has displaced hydrogen from hydrochloric acid.

Question 3.
Why should we balance a chemical equation ? Take any one chemical equation and explain the procedure of balancing it.
Answer:
Chemical reactions obey law of conservation of mass. So the total number of atoms of each elements in the reactants must be equal to the total number of atoms of each element in the

products. So we should have to balance chemical equation.
Eg : H₂ + O₂ → H₂O

Step -1 : Unbalanced equation = H₂ + O₂ → H₂O
Step – 2 : Compare no.of atoms of each element on both sides.

Atom	No. of atoms in L.H.S	No. of atoms in R.H.S
H	2 (in H2)	2 (in H2O)
0	2 (in O2)	1 (in H2O)

No.of 0 atoms balancing – H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
No.of H atoms balancing – 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O

Step – 3 : The above equation is balanced and write the coefficients in the smallest ratio. 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O

Step – 4 : Verify above equation for balancing of atoms each element on both sides. Hence the equation is balanced.
∴ 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O

Question 4.
Balance the following chemical equations.
i) Zn_(s) + Ag NO_3(aq) → Zn (NO₃)_2(aq) + Ag_(s)
ii) Fe₂O_3(s) + C_(s) → Fe_(s) + CO_2(g)
iii) Ag_(s) + H₂S_(g) → Ag₂S_(s) + H₂O_(l)
iv) Cu_(s) + O_2(g) → CuO_(g)
Answer:
i) Zn_(s) + Ag NO_3(aq) → Zn (NO₃)_2(aq) + Ag_(s)
Balanced equation : Zn_(s) + 2 AgNO_3(aq) → Zn (NO₃)_2(aq) + 2Ag_(s)

ii) Fe₂O_3(s) + C_(s) → Fe_(s) + CO_2(g)
Balanced equation : 2Fe₂O_3(s) + 3C_(s) → 4Fe_(s) + 3CO_2(g)

iii) Ag_(s) + H₂S_(g) → Ag₂S_(s) + H₂O_(l)
Balanced equation :
We cannot balance the equation because atom ‘O’ does not exist in the reactants.

iv) Cu_(s) + O_2(g) → CuO_(s)
Balanced equation :
2Cu_(s) + O_2(g) → 2CuO_(s)

Question 5.
Write the equation for the reaction of zinc with hydrochloric acid and balance the equation. Find out the number of molecules of hydrogen gas produced in this reaction, when 1 mole of HCl completely reacts at S.T.P.
[Gram molar volume is 22.4 liters at S.T.P., Avogadro’s number is 6.023 × 10²³]
Answer:
Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂

• In the reaction 2 moles of HC/ produce 1 mole of H₂.
• If 1 mole of HCl participate in reaction, Vi mole of hydrogen will be produced.
• 1 mole of H₂ gas contains 6.023 × 10²³ molecules at STP.
  Number of molecules in ½ mole of H₂ gas = 6.023 × 10²³ × ½ = 3.011 × 10²³

Question 6.
Write the examples for chemical combination.
Answer:
1) Magnesium burns in oxygen to form magnesium oxide.
2 Mg + O₂ → 2 MgO

2) When coal is burnt in oxygen, carbon dioxide is produced.
C + O₂ → CO₂ + Q (cheat energy)

3) Slaked lime is prepared by adding water to quick lime.
CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂ + Q (heat energy)

4) When hydrogen reacts with oxygen, it gives water.
H₂ + O₂ → 2 H₂O

5) Hydrochloric acid is obtained by adding hydrogen to chlorine.
H₂ + Cl₂ → 2 HCl

6) Magnesium reacts with iodine to magnesium iodide.
Mg + l₂ → Mgl₂

7) Sodium reacts with chlorine to form sodium chloride.
2 Na +Cl₂ → 2 NaCl

8) Iron reacts with oxygen to form haematite.
Fe + 3O₂ → 2 Fe₂O₃

Question 7.
Write examples for chemical decomposition reaction.
Answer:
1) Calcium carbonate on heating decomposes to calcium oxide and carbon dioxide.

2) On electrolysis, water decomposes to water and hydrogen.
2 H₂O → 2 H₂ + O₂

3) Silver bromide decomposes to silver and bromine in sunlight.
2 AgBr → 2 Ag + Br₂

4) Silver chloride decomposes to silver and chlorine.
2 AgCl → 2 Ag + Cl₂

5) Glucose decomposes to ethanol and carbon dioxide.
C₆H₁₂O₆ → 2 C₂H₅OH + 2 CO₂

6) Sodium bicarbonate decomposes to sodium carbonate, water and carbon dioxide.
2 NaHCO₃ + Heat → Na₂CO₃ + H₂O + CO₂

7) On heating lead nitrate decomposes to lead oxide, oxygen and nitrogen dioxide.

Question 8.
Write the examples for chemical displacement reaction.
Answer:
1) Zinc pieces react with dilute hydrochloric acid and liberate hydrogen gas
Zn + 2 HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂

2) Iron reacts copper sulphate to form iron sulphate and copper.
Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu

3) Zinc is mixed with silver nitrate to form zinc nitrate and silver.
Zn + 2 AgNO₃ → Zn(NO₃)₂ + 2Ag

4) Lead reacts with copper chloride to form lead chloride and copper.
Pb + CuCl₂ → PbCl₂ + Cu

5) Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen.
2 Na + 2H₂O → 2 NaOH + H₂

6) Aluminium reacts with copper chloride to form aluminium chloride and copper.
2 Al + 3 CuCl₂ → 2 AlCl₃ + 3 Cu

7) Zinc reacts with sulphuric acid to form zinc sulphate and hydrogen.
Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂

Question 9.
Write examples for chemical double displacement reaction.
Answer:
1) Sodium sulphate solution on mixing with barium chloride solution forms a white precipitate of barium sulphate and soluble sodium chloride.
Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + 2 NaCl

2) Sodium hydroxide reacts with hydrochloric acid to form sodium chloride and water.
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O

3) Sodium chloride spontaneously combines with silver nitrate in solution giving silver chloride precipitate.
NaCl + AgNO₃ → AgCl + NaNO₃

4) Mix lead nitrate solution and potassium iodide solution to form a yellow precipitate of lead iodide and potassium nitrate.
Pb(NO₃)₂ + 2Kl → PbI₂ + 2KNO₃

5) Calcium hydroxide reacts with nitric acid to form water and calcium nitrate.
Ca(OH)₂ + 2 HNO₃ → 2H₂O + Ca(NO₃)₂

6) Magnesium chloride reacts with potassium hydroxide to form magnesium hydroxide and potassium chloride.
MgCl₂ + 2 KOH → Mg(OH)₂ + 2 KCl

Question 10.
Balance the following equations.
1) Al(OH)₃ → Al₂O₃ + H₂O
2) NH₃ + CuO → Cu + N₂ + H₂O
3) Al₂(SO₄)₃ + NaOH → Al(OH)₃ + Na₂SO₄
4) HNO₃ + Ca(OH)₂ → Ca(NO₃)₂ + H₂O
5) NaOH + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + H₂O
6) BaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + HCl
Answer:

1. 2 Al(OH)₃ → Al₂O₃ + 3 H₂O
2. 2 NH₃ + 3 CuO → 3 Cu + N₂ + 3 H₂O
3. Al₂(SO)₃ + 6 NaOH → 2 Al(OH)₃ + 3 Na₂SO₄
4. 2 HNO₃ + Ca(OH)₂ → Ca(NO₃)₂ + 2 H₂O
5. 2 NaOH + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + 2 H₂O
6. BaCl₂ + H₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2 HCl

Question 11.
How many types of chemical reactions are there? Explain with examples.
Answer:
There are four types of chemical reactions. They are :
i) Chemical combination :
A chemical reaction in which two or more substances combine together to form a new substance is called chemical combination.
e.g.: 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂

ii) Chemical decomposition :
The reaction in which a compound breaks up into two or more simpler substances are known as decomposition reaction. These reactions are generally carried out by means of heat, light, electricity or catalysts.
e.g.: CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂
2Pb(NO₃)₂ → 2 PbO + 4NO₂ + O₂

iii) Chemical displacement:
The chemical reaction in which one element takes the place of another element in a compound is called displacement reaction.
In these reactions, an atom or group of atoms in a molecule is replaced by another atom or a group of atoms.
e.g.: Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ ↑
Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu

iv) Chemical double displacement: The reaction in which two compounds react to form two other compounds by mutual exchange of their ions is called double displacement reaction.
e.g.: NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)
NaNO_3(aq) + AgCl_(aq) → AgNO_3(s) + NaCl_(aq)

Question 12.
Balance the following chemical equations.
a) Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + NaCl
b) Al₄C₃ + H₂O → CH₄ + Al(OH)₃
c) Pb(NO₃)₂ → PbO + NO₂ + O₂
d) Fe₂O₃ + Al → Al₂O₃ + Fe
Answer:
a) Na₂SO₄ + BaCl₂ → BaSO₄ + 2NaCl
b) Al₄C₃ + 12H₂O → 3CH₄ + 4Al(OH)₃
c) 2Pb(NO₃)₂ → 2PbO + 4NO₂ + O₂
d) Fe₂O₃ + 2Al → Al₂O₃ + 2Fe

Question 13.
How can we make a chemical equation information?
Chemical equations can be made more informative by expressing following characteristics of the reactants and products.
1. Expressing the physical state :
The different states, i.e. gaseous, liquid and solid states are represented by the notations (g), (l) and (s) respectively. If the substance is present as a solution in water the word aqueous is written.

2. Expressing the heat changes :
Q is heat energy which is shown with plus ’+’ sign on product side for exothermic reactions and minus sign on product side for endothermic reactions.
e.g.: a) C_(s) + O_2(g) → CO_2(g) + Q (exothermic reaction)
N_2(g) + O_2(g) → 2NO_(g) ” Q (endothermic reaction)

3. Expressing the gas evolved :
If a gas evolved in a reaction, it is denoted by an upward arrow ↑ or (g).
Zn_(s) + H₂SO_4(aq) → ZnSO_4(aq) + H_2(g)↑

4. Expressing precipitate formed: If a precipitate is formed in the reaction, it is denoted by downward arrow ↓.
AgNO_3(aq) + NaCl_(aq) → AgCl_(s) ↓ + NaNO_3(aq)

Question 14.
Give daily life examples of oxidation.
Answer:
Daily life examples :

1. Combustion of fuels.
2. Corrosion of metals.
3. Change of colour of fruits like apples, bananas, when they are cut.
4. Burning of crackers.
5. Rancidity of food material.
6. During rainy season the power supply to our home from the electric pole will be interrupted due to formation of metal oxide layer on the electric wire.
7. Rising of dough with yeast depends on oxidation of sugars to carbon dioxide and water.
8. Bleaching of coloured objects using moist chlorine.
9. Respiration.

Question 15.
What is the information giyen by balanced chemical equation?
Answer:

• A chemical equation gives information about the reactants and products through their symbols and formulae.
• It gives the ratio of molecules of reactants and products.
• As molecular masses are expressed in unified masses, the relative masses of reactants and products are known from the equation.
• If the masses are expressed in grams, then the equation also gives the molar ratios of reactants and products.
• If gases are involved, we can equate the masses to their volumes.
• Using molar mass and Avagadro’s number we can calculate the number of molecules and atoms of different substances from the equation.

Question 16.
Write the balanced equation and identify the type of reaction.
1) Magnesium Hydroxide_(aq) + Nitric Acid_(aq) → Magnesium Nitrate_(aq) + Water_(l)
2) Magnesium_(s) + Carbon Monoxide_(g) → Magnesium Oxide_(s) + Carbon_(g)
3) Barium Chloride_(aq) + Sodium Sulphate_(aq) → Barium Sulphate_(s) + Sodium Chloride_(aq)
4) Sodium Nitrate_(s) → Sodium Nitrite_(s) + Oxygen_(g)
Answer:
1) Mg(OH)_2(aq) + 2 HNO_3(aq) → Mg(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2 H₂O_(l)
It is both double displacement and neutralisation reaction.

2) Mg_(s) + CO_(g) → MgO_(s) + C_(s)
It is a redox reaction in which magnesium is oxidised and carbon monoxide is reduced.

3) BaCl_2(aq) + Na₂SO_4(aq) → BaSO_4(s) ↓ + 2 NaCl_(aq)
It is both precipitation and double displacement reaction.

4) 2 NaNO_3(s) → 2 NaNO_2(s) + O_2(g)
It is both endothermic and decomposition reaction.

Question 17.
We write symbol of water as H₂O. State why we should not write it as HO₂.
Answer:
1) The hydrogen atom has only T electron in its outermost shell, so it needs 1 more electron to achieve the stability. ‘2’ electrons are required to get inert gas electronic configuration.

2) The oxygen atom has ‘6’ electrons in its outermost shell and it needs ‘2’ more electrons to compare the stability. ‘8’ electron arrangement of inert gas is neon.

In the water molecule, central oxygen atom has two pairs of unshared electrons which have not been utilised in the formation of bonds.

So, we write symbol of water as H20 and we should not write it as HO₂.

Question 18.
Latha took some quantity of powder of a substance in a test tube. Heated it with spirit lamp. A gas was liberated. She sent the gas into another test tube. The colour of solution in the second test tube turned into milk white.
Answer the following questions :
a) Which substance was heated?
b) Which gas was liberated?
c) What was the solution taken in second test tube?
d) Which type of chemical reactions involved the experiment?
Answer:
a) The substance is calcium carbonate.
b) The gas liberated is carbon dioxide.
c) The solution taken in the second test tube was solution of slaked lime.
d) Two types of reactions took place in this experiment, i.e. decomposition and double displacement.
CaCO_3(s) → CaO_(s) . CO₂ ↑
Ca(OH)_2(aq) + CO_2(g) → CaCO_3(s) + H₂O

Question 19.
A light yellow colour substance (some quantity) on a watch glass is put in the sunlight. It changes into grey colour substance.
a) What is the light yellow colour substance?
b) What is the grey colour substance?
c) Which type of chemical reaction it is?
d) Write the chemical equation for the reaction.
Answer:
a) The light yellow colour substance is silver bromide.
b) The grey colour substance is silver.
c) The type of chemical reaction is photochemical reaction.

Question 20.
Heat is liberated in the reactions where water is added to calcium oxide and hydrochloric acid added to zinc pieces.
Rarnu says that they are same type of chemical reactions. Eswar’s opinion is that the reactions are not similar. What is the basis of Eswar’s opinion ? Write equations for the above reaction.
Answer:
Eswar’s thinking is correct. Although both are exothermic reactions, the type of chemical reactions is different.
Case (i) : When water is added to calcium oxide it forms calcium hydroxide. It is an example for combination reaction.
CaO_(s) + H₂O → Ca(OH)_2(aq)

Case (ii) : When hydrochloric acid is added to zinc pieces it would liberate hydrogen gas which is an example for displacement reaction.
Zn_(s) + HCl_(aq) → ZnCl_2(aq) + H_2(g) ↑

Question 21.
We see many combustion and oxidation reactions in our daily life. Among them every combustion reaction is an oxidation reaction. But not all the oxidation reactions are combustion reactions. Do you agree or disagree with the statement? Explain with proper reasons.
Answer:
1) Yes, I agree with the statement because combustion reaction is nothing but burning of a substance in the presence of oxygen so it is an oxidation reaction. So every combustion reaction is an oxidation reaction.

2) Whereas some reactions which do not require burning still they are oxidation reactions.
Eg :

1. Corrosion of metals.
2. Change of colour of fruits like apples, bananas when they are cut.
3. Rancidity of food materials.
4. Respiration.
5. Bleaching of coloured objects using moist chlorine.
   So all oxidation reactions are not combustion reactions.

Question 22.
Explain the following :
1) What happens when iron filings are added to zinc sulphate solution?
2) What happens when solid silver nitrate is added to solid sodium chloride?
Answer:
1) No reaction takes place because zinc is more reactive than iron. So iron cannot displace zinc from its salt solution.

2) No reaction takes place because in solid state silver nitrate as well as sodium chloride is unable to dissociate into constituent ions. So exchange of ions is not possible.

Question 23.
Why is steel not used for surgical equipment and what is the material used for surgical equipment? Why is that material used for surgical equipment?
Answer:
1) Steel undergoes rusting when It exposed to air. So it is not useful for preparation of surgical equipment. If we use it in surgical equipment it may cause septic of wound.

2) The material used for surgical equipment is stainless steel which is an alloy of iron, carbon, nickel and chromium. Chromium does not easily react with oxygen. So, addition of chromium makes the stainless steel free from rusting. Therefore it is used in surgical equipment.

Question 24.
Give reasons for the following.
1) Why do we add salt to water during electrolysis of water?
2) Why does hydrogen gas put off the burning splinter and it burns with blue flame?
3) Why does carbon dioxide turn lime water milky?
Answer:
1) Pure water is a bad conductor of electricity. By adding a small amount of salt the solution becomes conductor of electricity.

2) Hydrogen does not support combustion. So it puts off the burning splinter and also it is combustible. So burns with blue flame.

3) When we pass carbon dioxide through lime water it turns into milky because lime water (calcium hydroxide) reacts with carbon dioxide and forms a white milky substance, i.e. calcium carbonate.

Question 25.
A student was given the following substances and was asked to show types of chemical reactions through experiment. Write how he would have done that. Copper sulphate solution, barium chloride solution, ferrous sulphate crystals, iron nails, calcium oxide, water.
Answer:
Given chemicals are CuSO₄ solution, BaSO₄ solution, iron nails (Fe), Ferrous sulphate (FeSO₄), Calcium oxide (CaO) and water (H₂O).

i) Chemical combination :
Chemicals chosen : CaO, H₂O
CaO + H₂O → Ca(OH)₂

When we add water to calcium oxide it produces Calcium hydroxide. This is an example for chemical combination.

ii) Chemical decomposition:
Chemicals chosen : Ferrous sulphate

When we heat FeSO₄ it dissociates into Ferric oxide, Sulphur dioxide and Sulphur trioxide respectively.

iii) Chemical displacement :
Chemicals chosen : Iron nail – CuSO₄
Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu ↓

When iron nail is placed in CuSO₄ solution, the solution turns into light green due to formation of FeSO₄ and reddish brown deposit of Copper.

iv) Double displacement:
Chemicals chosen : CuSO₄ solution and BaCl2 solution.
CuSO_4(aq) + BaCl_2(aq) → BaSO_4(s) ↓ + CuCl_2(s)

When CuSO₄ is mixed with BaCl₂ solution it forms white precipitate of BaSO₄ and aqueous solution of Copper (II) Chloride.

This is an example for double displacement reaction.

Question 26.
Take two beakers and prepare lead nitrate aqueous solution and potassium iodide aqueous solutions. What are the colours of the solutions? Now mix them in another beaker. What happens? What type of chemical reaction it is? What are products?
Answer:
The colours of the solutions are white or colourless. When lead nitrate solution is mixed with potassium iodide solution we will get yellow precipitate of lead iodide. This is double displacement reaction. The products are lead iodide and potassium nitrate.
Pb(NO₃)_2(aq) + 2Kl_(aq) → Pbl_2(s) + 2KNO_3(aq)

Question 27.
Observe the following equation which shows the action of heat on Calcium Nitrate
2 Ca(NO₃)₂ → 2 CaO + 4 NO₂ + O₂
a) How many moles of NO₂ are formed when a mole of 2 Ca(NO₃)₂ is decomposed?
b) What is the volume of NO₂ produced when 164 gm of Ca(NO₃)₂ is heated at constant temperature and pressure?
c) Calculate the mass of Calcium Oxide formed when 82 gm of Ca(NO₃)₂ is heated.
d) What is the quantity of Ca(NO₃)₂ required to produce 5 moles of gaseous products?
Answer:
Given balanced equation is
a) From the balanced equation 2 moles of Ca(NO₃)₂ releases 4 moles of NO₂.
b) Molecular weight of Ca(NO₃)₂ and CaO respectively are 164 and 56.
From the equation at STP 2 × 164 g. of Ca(NO₃)₂ releases 4 × 22.4 litres of NO₂.
At similar conditions 164 g. of Ca(NO₃)₂ releasing NO₂ in litres is
= \(\frac{164}{2 \times 164}\) × 22.4 × 4 = 2 × 22.4 = 44.8 liters.

c) From the balanced equation 164 g. of Ca(NO₃)₂ decomposes and forms 112 g. of CaO. Similarly 82 g. of Ca(NO₃)₂ decomposes and forms
\(\frac{82}{164}\) × 112 = 56 g. of CaO.

d) From the above balanced equation 2 moles of Ca(NO₃)₂ releases 5 moles of gaseous products.
∴ The mass of Ca(NO₃)₂ required is 2 × 164 = 328 g.

Question 28.
Zn + HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂
Calculate amount of zinc required to release 500g of hydrogen. (Zn = 65 U, H = 1 U, Cl = 35.5 U are the atomic masses).
Answer:
The balanced chemical equation is
Zn + 2 HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂
65 U + (2 × 36.5) U → (65 + 2 × 35.5) U + 2 U
65 g + 73 g → 136 g + 2g
As per the balanced equation
65 g Zinc is reacting with hydrochloric acid to produce 2g of Hydrogen.

Question 29.
Calculate the volume, mass and number of molecules of carbon dioxide when 104 g of acetylene (C₂H₂) burnt in air. (Atomic masses of C = 12 U, H = 1 U, O = 16 U).
Answer:
The balanced chemical equation is
2C₂H₂ + 5O₂ → 4CO₂ + 2H₂O
2 × (2 × 12U + 2 × lU) + 5 × (2 × 16U) → 4 × (12U + 2 × 16U) + 2(2 × 1U + 16U)
52 g + 160g → 176 g + 36 g
52 g of acetylene when burnt in air produces 176 g carbon dioxide.
The amount of carbon dioxide produced when 104 g acetylene burnt

At S.T.P. 1 gram molar mass of any gas occupies 22.4 litres.
So 44g carbon dioxide occupies 22.4 litres volume.
The volume occupied by 352 g carbon dioxide = \(\frac{352}{44}\) × 22.4 = 8 × 22.4 = 179.2 litres.
44 g of carbon dioxide i.e., 1 mole of CO₂ contains 6.02 × 10²³ molecules. So the number of molecules present in 352 g of carbon dioxide
352
= \(\frac{352}{44}\) × 6.02 × 10²³ = 8 × 6.02 × 10²³
= 4.816 × 10²⁴ molecules.

These AP 10th Class Physical Science Chapter Wise Important Questions 4th Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Chemistry 4th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Acids, Bases and Salts

10th Class Chemistry 4th Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Take some water in a test tube and add concentrated H₂SO₄ to it. Shake the test tube well. If you touch the bottom of the test tube, you feel it as hot. Now, instead of H₂SO₄, if you add NaOH pellets to water in another test tube and touch the bottom, what do you observe? (TS June 2015)
Answer:
The bottom of test tube is also hot because reactions of acids, bases with water are exothermic reactions.

Question 2.
What happens if the copper sulphate crystals taken into dry test tube are heated? (TS June 2016)
Answer:

• When copper sulphate crystals are heated, water present in crystals is evaporated and the salt turns white.
• Evaporated water appears as droplets on the walls of the test tube.
• Blue coloured copper sulphate (CuSO₄ 5H₂O) is turned into white colour because 5H20 molecules are evaporated from crystals.

Question 3.
Why does the soil of agricultural lands get tested for pH?
Answer:
Plants require a specific pH range for their healthy growth. So, finding pH of a soil suggested the farmers to treat the fields with acidic or basic substances to maintain the required pH range.

Question 4.
Write the molecular formulae of common salt and baking soda which are widely used at home. (TS June 2017)
Answer:
Common Salt: NaCl; Backing soda : NaHCO₃

Question 5.
Mention the precautions to take while conducting an experiment to prove acids produce ions only in aqueous solutions. (TS June 2018)
Answer:

• Testing of the evolved gas by using dry litmus paper first. Then with wet litmus paper.
• Use gaurd tube containing calcium chloride.

Question 6.
What are antacids?
Antacids are mild alkalies. These are used for getting relief from acidity and indigestion and sometimes even headache. When taken orally, it reacts with hydrochloric acid present in the stomach and reduces its strength by consuming some of it.
Ex: Milk of magnesia.

Question 7.
Tap water conducts electricity whereas distilled water does not. Why?
Answer:
Tap water contains some impurities in the form of salts. Due to presence of salts, it conducts electricity. Distilled water is free from all kinds of salts and hence does not conduct electricity.

Question 8.
What do you mean by dilution of an acid or base? Why is it done?
Answer:
Dilution of an acid or base means mixing an acid or base with water. This is done to decrease the concentration of ions per unit volume. In this way the acid or the base is said to be diluted.

Question 9.
What is a universal indicator?
Answer:
An indicator which passes through a series of colour changes over a wide range of H₃O⁺ ions concentration is called universal indicator.

Question 10
What is tooth decay?
Answer:
Tooth enamel is chemically calcium phosphate Ca₃(PO₄)₂. It starts corroding when pH falls below 5.5. Food particles left in the mouth degrade to produce acid which lower the pH of the mouth. This is called tooth decay.

Question 11.
Define Alkalis and give some examples.
Answer:
Alkalis : An alkali is a base that dissolves in water.

Examples :
i) Sodium Hydroxide (NaOH),
ii) Potassium Hydroxide (KOH),
iii) Magnesium Hydroxide (Mg(OH)₂)

Question 12.
Why should we not taste or touch alkalis?
Answer:
We should not taste or touch alkali. Because they are corrosive.

Question 13.
Salts conduct electricity. Why?
Answer:
Salts contains ions. So they conduct electricity.

Question 14.
Why are calcium sulphate hemihydrates called Plaster of Paris?
Answer:
Calcium sulphate hemihydrates are used as plaster for supporting fractured bones in the right position. So, it is called Plaster of Paris.

Question 15.
Why does an aqueous solution of acid conduct electricity?
Answer:
An aqueous solution of acid liberates H⁺ ions. This makes the aqueous solution of acid to conduct electricity.

Question 16.
How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H₃O⁺) affected when a solution of an acid is diluted?
Answer:
When a solution of an acid is diluted, concentration of H₃O⁺ ions decreases.

Question 17.
What is pH?
A. pH is a scale for measuring hydrogen ion concentration in a solution. It is the negative logarithm of H⁺ concentration.
pH = – log [H⁺].

Question 18.
How is pH of a solution related to the [H₃O⁺] of that solution?
Answer:
The presence of H₃O⁺ ions indicate us whether it is a strong acid or weak acid.

Question 19.
There are two solutions of pH values 6 and 8. Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of this is acidic and which one is basic?
Answer:

• The solution whose pH value 6 is acid and has more hydrogen ion concentration.
• The solution of pH value 8 is basic and has less hydrogen ion concentration.

Question 20.
Can you give example for use of olfactory indicators in daily life?
Answer:
Examples of olfactory indicators : Onion, vanilla extract.

Question 21.
How do acids neutralize bases?
(OR)
How do acids and bases react with each other?
Answer:
According to Arrhenius theory acids produce H⁺ ions and bases produce OH^– ions in aqueous media.
The combination of H⁺ and OH^– ions is called ‘neutralization’.
Thus acids neutralize bases.

Question 22.
How strong are acids and base solutions?
Answer:
The acids of pH value as much less as possible have more concentration [pH < 7], Basic nature increases as pH value increases.

Question 23.
What do you say about salts of both weak acid and weak base?
Answer:
The pH of aqueous solutions of salt obtained from both weak acid and weak base is nearly 7.

Question 24.
Which base is used for removing permanent hardness of water?
Answer:
Sodium carbonate is used for removing permanent hardness of water.

Question 25.
Name two antacids used to get rid of our indigestion problem.
Answer:
Magnesium hydroxide and a mild base (baking soda).

Question 26.
Under what soil conditions would a farmer would treat the soil of his fields with quicklime (calcium hydroxide) or calcium carbonate?
Answer:
When the field has acidic nature, the farmer uses quicklime or calcium carbonate to neutralize it.

Question 27.
Write the formulas of Gypsum and Plaster of Paris.
Answer:
The formulae of Gypsum is CaSO₄ . 2H₂O and Plaster of Paris is CaSO₄ . ½H₂O.

Question 28.
Write any two Acid Base indicators.
Answer:

1. Methyl orange
2. Phenolphthalein.

Question 29.
Which salt is used in the manufacture of borax?
Answer:
Washing soda (Na₂CO₃.10H₂O)

Question 30.
What is family of salts? Give examples.
Answer:
Salt having the same positive or negative radical is called family of salts.
Eg : Family of sodium salts : NaCl, Na₂SO₄
Family of chloride salts : NaCl, KCl.

Question 31.
‘A’ is a substance which is acidic and it is added in solution to preserve pickles. What is A and what is the name given to its dilute solution?
Answer:
‘A’ is acetic acid and its dilute solution is called vinegar.

Question 32.
What are the chemical names of the following?
1) Baking soda
2) Gypsum
Answer:

• The chemical name of baking soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO₃).
• The chemical name of gypsum is calcium sulphate dihydrate (CaSO₄ • 2 H₂O).

Question 33.
Write the water of crystallisation of following compound.
a) Hydrous copper sulphate
b) Washing soda
c) Gypsum
d) Plaster of Paris
Answer:

Compound	Formula	Water of crystallisation
1) Hydrous copper sulphate	CuSO4 . 5H2O	5
2) Washing soda	Na2CO3 . 10 H2O	10
3) Gypsum	CaSO4 . 2 H2O	2
4) Plaster of Paris	CaSO4 . ½H2O	½

Question 34.
Why don’t we use a strong base like NaOH as antacid?
Answer:
Strong bases like potassium hydroxide (KOH), sodium hydroxide (NaOH) are corrosive in nature. So they can harm the internal organs. Therefore we should not use them as antacid.

Question 35.
What do you mean by HsO⁺ ion?
Answer:
Hydrogen ions cannot exist as base ions. They associate with water molecules and exist as hydrated ions with each H⁺ attached by 4 to 6 water molecules. For this we represent H⁺ as hydronium ion, H³O⁺.
H⁺ + H₂O → H₃O⁺

Question 36.
Which indicator is useful at all pH? Why?
Answer:
Universal indicator is useful to test solutions of all pH because it gives different colours at different pH range.

Question 37.
Which substance is useful in removing permanent hardness of water?
Answer:
The permanent hardness of water is due to chloride and sulphate salts of magnesium and calcium, which can be removed by adding washing soda.

Question 38.
Given two examples for strongest bases.
Answer:
Sodium hydroxide – NaOH
Potassium hydroxide – KOH

Question 39.
What is the confirmation test for hydrous and anhydrous salt?
Answer:

• On heating hydrous salt in a test tube it will form water droplets on the sides of test tube.
• On heating anhydrous salt in a test tube it will not form water droplets on the sides of test tube.

Question 40.
P.O.P, cement, calcium chloride should be stored in moisture proof containers. Why?
Answer:

• P.O.P, cement and calcium chloride react with moisture (H₂O) in the atmosphere and set into hard solid masses.
• To avoid availability of moisture they should be stored in moisture proof containers.

Question 41.
Give some examples for hydrous and anhydrous salts.
Eg : For hydrous salts :

1. CuSO₄ . 5H₂O
2. Na₂CO₃ . 10H₂O
3. CaSO₄ . 2H₂O

Eg : for anhydrous salts :

1. NaCl
2. MgCl₂
3. Na₂CO₃

Question 42.
How are bitter and sour taste substances tested without testing?
Answer:

• Sour taste substances turn blue litmus to red.
• Bitter taste substances turn red litmus to blue. By these tests we can test them as acids and bases.

Question 43.
Do the metallic oxides react with acids?
Answer:
Yes, metallic oxides are basic in nature. They react with acids and form salt and water.

Question 44.
Does non-metallic oxide react with base?
Answer:
Yes, non-metallic oxide is acidic in nature. It reacts with base and forms salt and water.

Question 45.
Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry litmus paper?
(OR)
Prove that dry HCl gas is not an acid but HCl aqueous solution is an acid using an activity.
Answer:

• Dry hydrogen chloride gas is not an acid. Hence it can’t turn blue litmus into red.
• Hydrochloric acid is an aqueous solution. Hence it can turn blue litmus into red.

Question 46.
Do you know that the atmosphere of Venus is made up of thick white and yellowish clouds of sulphuric acid? Do you think life can exist on this planet?
Answer:

1. No, it is not possible.
2. When pH value decreases, the survival of living organisms becomes difficult.
3. Hence there is not any possibility of life on Venus.

Question 47.
Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water?
Answer:
Acids don’t show acidic behaviour in the absence of water as H⁺ ions are absent in them.

Question 48.
How is the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH^–) affected when excess base is dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide?
Answer:
When a base like NaOH (Sodium hydroxide) is dissolved in water, it liberates (OH^–) ions.
Equation :

OH^– ion concentration increases.

Question 49.
How does the nature of the solution change with change in concentration of H⁺_(aq) ions?
Answer:
The concentration of H⁺ ions is responsible for the acidic nature of a substance.
If [H⁺] > 1 × 10^-7 mol/lit the solution is acidic.
If [H⁺] < 1.0 × 10^-7 mol/lit the solution is basic.

Question 50.
Do basic solutions also have H⁺_(aq) ions? If yes, then why are these basic?
Answer:
Yes. Basic solutions have OH^–_(aq) ions and bases have less number of H₃O⁺ ions. H⁺_(aq) ions are less in base. In basic solution [OH^–] > [H⁺].

Question 51.
What do acids have in common?
Answer:
(Acids have sour taste and conduct electricity. They release H₂ (Hydrogen) gas on reacting with metals). All acids have H⁺_(aq) ions.

Question 52.
What do bases have in common?
Answer:
Bases are slippery to touch and bitter to taste. All bases have OH^–_(aq) ions.

Question 53.
Why does pure acetic acid not turn blue litmus to red?
Answer:
Pure acetic acid is a weak acid so it does not have sufficient H⁺_(aq) ion to change the colour of blue litmus to red.

Question 54.
What will happen if the pH value in your body increases?
Answer:
It affects our digestion system.

Question 55.
A student checked pH of a salt solution and found that its pH is more than 7. How is that type of salt formed?
Answer:

• When a strong base reacts with weak acid then the solution is basic in nature. So its pH is more than 7.
• For example when acetic acid reacts with sodium hydroxide the salt formed has basic nature.

Question 56.
Explain the procedure that you follow to reduce water from a given salt.
Answer:
Procedure to reduce water from a given salt :

1. Take a boiling test tube.
2. Drop given salt in the test tube.
3. Heat the test tube gently.
4. Water from salt evaporates.
5. In this way we can reduce the water from salt.

Question 57.
Write the observations, when the hydrated salt or unhydrated salt is heated.
Answer:

• When hydrated salt is heated water droplets form inside the walls of test tube and sometimes blue or green colour salt turns into white colour.
• When unhydrated salt is heated it does not form water droplets inside the test tube walls and colour also does not change.

Question 58.
On heating the hydrated salt it loses water molecules present in it. To show this what are the equipment required?
Answer:
1) On heating the hydrated salt it loses water molecules present in it.
2) To show this the given equipment are required

1. Boiling tube
2. Test tube holder
3. Burner

Question 59.
Try to collect the information to reasons for calling calcium sulphate hemihydrates as Plaster of Paris (POP).
Answer:

• Gypsum plaster (or) Plaster of Paris (POP) is produced by heating gypsum to about 300°F.
• A large gypsum deposit is found at Montmartre in Paris (France).
• This gave the name Plaster of Paris to calcium sulphate hemihydrates.
• The term plaster can refer to gypsum.

Question 60.
Is the substance present in antacid tablet acidic or basis?
Answer:
The substance present antacid is weakly basic.

Question 61.
Give pH of neutral, acid and base.
Answer:

Nature of substance	pH range
Neutral	7
Acid	0 – 7
Base	7 – 14

Question 62.
Which nature of Plaster of Paris makes its importance? Appreciate it.
Answer:
Plaster of Paris is a white powder. It is very soft and can be used to make toys, materials for decoration and to make surfaces smooth.

But on mixing with water, it changes to a hard solid mass (Gypsum). This is the important character of Plaster of Paris (POP).

Question 63.
What is acid rain? How does it affect our aquatic life?
Answer:
When the pH of rain water is less than 5.6 it is called acid rain. When acid rain flows into the rivers, it lowers the pH of the river water. Since our body works within a narrow pH range close to 7 the survival of aquatic life in river water mixed with rain water becomes difficult.

Question 64.
Why are pickles and sour substances not kept in brass and copper vessels?
Answer:
Pickles and sour substances contain acidic nature which may react with brass and copper vessels to produce toxic substances.
So, we don’t keep them in brass arid copper vessels.

Question 65.
Can you suggest some examples of use of pH in everyday life?
Answer:
Uses of pH in everyday life :

1. pH value helps us to identify acids, bases and neutrals.
2. If pH value is less in our mouth, it leads to tooth decay. We can find it as the reason for our tooth decay.
3. pH value helps us to know about acid rain.

Question 66.
Write any two uses of Bleaching powder.
Answer:

• It is used for disinfecting drinking water to make it free of germs.
• It is used as a reagent in the preparation of chloroform.

10th Class Chemistry 4th Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What value of pH in the mouth leads to tooth decay? Why? (TS June 2015)
Answer:

• Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5.
• Tooth enamel, made of calcium phosphate is the hardest substance in the body.
• It does not dissolve in water, but is corroded when the pH in the mouth is below 5.5.
• Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by degradation of sugar and food particles remaining in the mouth.

Preventions :

1. Clean the mouth after eating food.
2. Using tooth pastes, which are generally basic neutralize the excess acid and pre¬vent tooth decay.

Question 2.
Equal lengths of Magnesium ribbons are taken in two test-tubes X and Y. Hydro¬chloric acid is added to test-tube X and Acetic acid is added to test-tube Y. In which test-tube, the reaction will be more vigorous? Why? (TS March 2015)
Answer:
The speed of the reactions is higher in X test tube than Y test tube.

Reason :
Due to strong acidic nature, Hydrochloric acid reacts very fast with magnesium ribbon.

Question 3.
Name the four chemicals that are obtained from common salt and write their molecular formulae. (TS March 2015)
Answer:
Chemicals that can be obtained from common salt are

1. Sodium Hydroxide – NaOH
2. Baking soda / Cooking soda / Caustic soda / Sodium bicarbonate / Sodium Hydrogen carbonate. – NaHCOv
3. Washing soda / Sodium carbonate – Na₂CO₃ 10H₂O
4. Bleaching powder / Calcium Oxy Chloride – CaOCl₂

Question 4.
Observe the information given in the table and answer the questions given below the table. (TS March 2017)

Substance (in aqueous solution)	Colour change with Blue Litmus	Colour change with Red Litmus
A	Red	No change
B	No change	Blue
C	No change	No change

i) Which one of them may be the neutral salt among A, B, C?
ii) What may happen when some drops of phenolphthalein is added to the substance B?
Answer:
i) C
ii) Pink Colour

Question 5.
Why do we use antacids? Write it’s nature. (TS March 2018)
Answer:
Pain and irritation will be caused in stomach during the acidity problem/indigestion problem. Antacids used to neutralize the excess acid in the stomach and gives relief from acidity Antacids are basic in nature.

Question 6.
Which product will form when CaO is dissolved in water? How do you find the nature of product? (TS March 2018)
Answer:
CaO reacts with water and gives calcium hydroxide [Ca(OH₂)]. The nature of the calcium hydroxide will be tested with red litmus paper or pH paper.

Calcium Hydroxide turns red litmus into blue. Thus we can say that ca(OH)₂ is basic in nature.

Ca(OH)₂ shows pH value more than 7. Thus we can say that Ca(OH)₂ is basic in nature.

Question 7.
How do you test the nature of the solution formed by dissolving CaO in water? What is the nature of the solution? (TS June 2019)
Answer:

• The solution formed by dissolving CaO in water is tested with red litmus paper, it turns into blue colour, (or) It is tested with methyl orange, it turns into yellow in colour.
• The solution of CaO and water is basic in nature.

Question 8.
Write the experimental procedure to test carbon dioxide gas. (AP SCERT: 2019-20)
Answer:

1. Pass the CO₂ gas through lime water [Ca(OH)₂].
2. The lime water appears as milky white.
3. The reaction is Ca(OH)₂ + CO₂ → CaCO₃ ↓ + H₂O.
4. The milky white is caused by CaCO₃.

Question 9.
Write two reactions of acids with carbonates and metal hydrogen carbonates. (AP SA-I : 2019-20)
Answer:
Reactions :

Question 10.
What do acids have in common?
Answer:
Common characteristics of acids :

1. Similar chemical properties.
2. Acids generate hydrogen gas on reacting with metals.
3. Hydrogen is common to acids.
4. Acids are sour in taste and turn blue to red when react with bases form salt and water.

Question 11.
What do bases have in common?
Answer:
Common characteristics of bases :

1. Bitter in taste.
2. Soapy in nature.
3. Turn red to blue colour.
4. On heating decompose into metal oxides and water.
5. React with acids to form salt and water.
6. Produce OH^– ions in aqueous solution.

Question 12.
How is bleaching powder produced?
Production of bleaching powder :
Bleaching powder is produced by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime (Ca(OH)₂).
Equation :

Question 13.
What can you conclude about the ideal soil pH for the growth of plants in your region?
Answer:
1) Soil is considered the ‘skin of the earth’. The soil pH plays a vital role in the growth of a plant and it influences plant nutrition.
2) Soil pH strongly affects the nutrients required for the plant growth.
3) The nutrients may be stored on soil colloids, and live or dead organic matter, but may not be accessible to plants due to extremes of pH.

Conclusion :
For optimum plant growth, the generalized content of soil components by volume should be roughly 50% solids (45% mineral & 5% organic matter), and 50% voids of which half is occupied by water and half by gas.

Question 14.
How can you prepare turmeric indicator? What is the use of it?
Answer:
i) Turmeric indicator is prepared from turmeric.
ii) It has red colour in basic solution.

Question 15.
Name two salts and write their formulae which possess water of crystallization.
Answer:

1. Hydrous copper sulphate. Its formula is CuSO₄ . 5H₂O
2. Gypsum. Its formula is CaSO₄ . 2H₂O

Question 16.
What is neutralization reaction? Give two examples.
Answer:
When an acid reacts with base it forms salt and water. This reaction is called neutralisation reaction.
e.g.: NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)
H₂SO_4(aq) + 2Na0H_(aq) → Na₂SO_4(aq) + 2H₂O_(l)

Question 17.
All alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis. Do you agree with the statement? If yes, why?
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the statement. Because alkalis are those bases which are soluble in water. So all alkalis are bases but all bases are not alkalis.

Question 18.
Why are solutions of acids, bases and salts good conductors of electricity?
Answer:
For passage of electricity through a material or substance charged particles are required. In metals charged particles are electrons whereas in solutions ions are charged particles which carry electrical energy. Solutions of acids, bases and salts undergo ionisation and produce ions. So they are good conductors of electricity.

Question 19.
What is strength of acid ? What are the factors that influence strength of acid?
Answer:
The extent which an acid undergoes ionisation is called strength of acid.
Factors influence strength of acid :

1. Degree of ionisation.
2. Concentration of hydronium ions produced by acid.

Question 20.
Why are organic acids weak acids when compared with mineral acids?
Answer:

• Strength of acid depends on extent of ionisation.
• Organic acids do not undergo 100% ionisation. Their ionisation is less than 30%. There is equilibrium between ionised and unionised molecules whereas mineral acids undergo complete ionisation.
• So mineral acids behave like strong acids when compared with organic acids.

Question 21.
“Acids do not contain OH^– ions”. Do you agree with this statement? If not, why?
Answer:
No. I do not agree with the statement because all acids also contain OH^– ions but in acid solutions, H⁺ ions are more than OH^– whereas in bases OH^– ions are more than H⁺.

Question 22.

If B is calcium chloride, what are A, C, D and E?
Answer:
A is calcium carbonate or calcium hydrogen carbonate.
C is water and D is carbon dioxide.
E is calcium carbonate and F is water.

Question 23.
Some salts are given below. Classify them into hydrous and anhydrous salts. Sodium carbonate, Sodium chloride, Sodium hydrogen carbonate, Copper sulphate, Hypo, Magnesium Sulphate (epsum salt)
Answer:
Hydrous salts :

1. Hypo (Na₂S₂O₃ • 2H₂O)
2. Epsum (MgSO₄ • 7H₂O)
3. Copper sulphate (CuSO₄ • 5H₂O)

Anhydrous salts :

1. Sodium chloride (NaCl)
2. Sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃)
3. Sodium hydrogen Carbonate (NaHCO₃)

Question 24.
If someone in the family is suffering from a problem of acidity, which of the following would you suggest as a remedy : lemon juice, vinegar or baking soda solution? Which property do you think of while suggesting the remedy?
Answer:

• I suggest baking soda solution. As acidity can be neutralized by baking soda solution, we can use it.
• Neutralizing property of baking soda solution.

Question 25.
Why are curd and sour substances not kept in copper vessels?
Answer:
Curd and sour substances contain acids which react with copper vessels and form poisonous substances. So curd and sour substances should not be kept in copper vessels.

Question 26.
Which gas is liberated when acids react with metals? Give one example.
Answer:
When acids react with active metals they release hydrogen gas.
Zn_(s) + 2HCl_(aq) → Zncl_2(aq) + H₂ ↑_(g)

Question 27.
Why should pickles not be stored in metallic containers?
Answer:
Pickles contain acids which react with metallic containers and form poisonous substance. So they are kept in plastic containers.

Question 28.
Solution x turned blue litmus red and Solution y turned red litmus blue.
a) What products could be formed when x and y are mixed?
b) Which gas is released when we put magnesium pieces in solution x?
c) Will any chemical reaction take place when zinc pieces are put in solution y?
d) Which of the above solutions contain more hydrogen ions?
Answer:
Given solution Y turned blue litmus into red so, Y is an acid.
Given solution ‘y’ turned red litmus into blue so, ‘y’ is a base.
a) The reaction of an acid (x) with a base to give a salt and water.
b) When we put magnesium pieces in solution releases hydrogen gas.
c) When zinc pieces are put in solution y, a chemical reaction will take place there.
d) Acids contain more H+ ions in the given solutions, Y has more H+ ions because it is an acid.

Question 29.
Acid should be added to water but not water to the acid. Why?
Answer:

• The dissolving of an acid or base in water is an highly exothermic process. Care must be taken while mixing concentrated HNO₃ or concentrated H₂SO₄ with water.
• The acid must always be added slowly to water with constant stirring.
• If water is added to a concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out and cause bums.
• The glass container may also break due to excessive local heating.

Question 30.
Explain the procedure to confirm the given salt is a hydrous or anhydrous.
Answer:

1. Take given salt in a test tube
2. Observe the colour of salt
3. Heat the test tube gently
4. Observe the colour of salt and also moisture (droplets) inside of the test tube walls.
5. If its colour changes or forms water droplets, it is hydrous salt.
6. Otherwise, it is anhydrous salt.

Question 31.
Categorize the following as acids, bases, and salts :
Lemon juice, salt water, soap water, tamarind juice, surf water, lime water.
Answer:
Acids :

1. Lemon juice
2. Tamarind juice

Bases :

1. Soap water
2. Surf water
3. Lime water

Salts :

1. Salt water

Question 32.
Classify the following salts as family of salts having same cation or anion and prepare a table.
Potassium sulphate, Sodium sulphate, Calcium sulphate, Magnesium sulphate, Copper sulphate, Sodium chloride, Sodium nitrate, Sodium carbonate and Ammonium chloride.
Answer:

Question 33.
Observe the table and answer the following questions.

Solutions	pH value
Blood	7.3
Pure water	7.0
Gastric fluid	1.2
Sodium hydroxide	13

1) Which of the solutions among these is a strongest base?
2) Which body fluid has slightly basic nature?
3) What is the nature of pure water?
4) Which body fluid is strongest acid?
Answer:

1. Sodium hydroxide because its pH is 13.
2. Blood because its pH is 7.3.
3. Pure water is neutral in nature because its pH is 7.
4. Gastric juice because its pH is 1.2.

Question 34.
The diagram given below shows the removal of water crystallisation. Find error in the diagram.

Answer:
Error in the diagram

1. Test tube is placed towards observer. It causes bums on his hands.
2. So, test tube should be placed away from the observer.

Question 35.
What are the uses of Plaster of Paris?
Answer:

• The substance which doctors use as plaster for supporting fractured bones in the right position.
• Plaster of Paris is used for making toys, materials for decoration and for making surfaces smooth.

Question 36.
What are the applications of pH in daily life?
Answer:
1) In medical science :
The pH values of urine and blood are taken for diagnosis of various diseases.

2) In dairies :
Milk has pH of 6.6. A change in the pH of milk indicates that milk has turned sour.

3) In agriculture :
For better growth of crops the pH of the soil is regularly tested.
For examples :

1. Citrus fruits require slightly alkaline soil.
2. Rice requires acidic medium.
3. Sugarcane requires neutral soil.

4) In technology:
Organic and biochemical reactions are carried out under control pH.

10th Class Chemistry 4th Lesson Acids, Bases and Salts 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw a neat diagram showing a base solution in water conducts electricity. Why the solution of sugar/glucose in water do not conduct electricity? (AP March 2017)
Answer:

The solution of sugar/glucose in water do not conduct electricity because there is no H⁺ ions in the solution.

Question 2.
Explain an activity to show the water of crystallisation in CuSO₄ • 5H₂O. (AP June 2018)
Answer:

• Take a few crystals of copper sulphate in a dry test tube and heat the test tube.
• We observe water droplets on the walls of the test tube and salt turns white.
• Add 2 – 3 drops of water on the sample of copper sulphate obtained after heating.
• We observe the blue colour of copper sulphate crystals is restored.

Question 3.
Read the information given in the table and answer the following questions. (TS March 2016)

a) List out the acids in the above table.
Answer:
The acids are HCl and lemon juice.

b) What is the nature of the solution which gives pink colour with Phenolphthalene solution?
Answer:
The nature of the solution which turns pink colour with phenolphthalene solution is basic.

c) List out the neutral solutions in the above table.
Answer:
The neutral solutions are distilled water and NaCl.

d) Name the strongest acid and the strongest base among the given solutions.
Answer:
The strongest acid is HCl and the strongest base is NaOH.

Question 4.
Observe the following table and answer the questions given below. (TS June 2o17)
The table contains the aqueous solutions of different substances with the same concentrations and their respective pH values.

i) Which one of the above acid solutions is the weakest acid? Give a reason.
Answer:
Weakest acid is ‘C’. Because its pH value is less than 7 and it is nearer to 7.

ii) Which one of the above solutions is the strongest base? Give a reason.
Answer:
Strongest base is ‘D’. Because it’s pH value is near to 14.

iii) Which of the above two produce maximum heat when they react ? What does that heat energy called?
Answer:
B, D produce maximum heat when they react. This heat energy is known as neutralization energy.

iv) Which one of the above solutions has the pH equal to that of the distilled water? What is the name given to solutions of that pH value?
Answer:
‘G’ has the pH equal to that of the distilled water. These type of solutions are known as neutral solution.

Question 5.
List out the materials required to test whether the solutions of given acids and bases contain ions or not. Explain the procedure of the experiment. (TS March 2017)
Answer:
Required Materials :
Beaker, Bulb, Graphite rods, connecting wires, 230 V AC current, water, different acids, bases.

Experimental Procedure :

1. Connect the two connecting wires to the graphite rods.
2. Keep the graphite rods into the beaker, take care that two graphite rods do not touch each other.
3. Arrange a bulb in the circuit.
4. Pour dilute acid into the beaker.
5. Connect the ends of the connectors to 230 V AC.
6. In this way, change the acid / base and do the experiment.

The bulb glows in the experiment when the beaker contains acid or base. Hence, when the bulb glows we can say that acid or base contain ions.

Question 6.
List out the material for the experiment “when Hydrochloric acid reacts with NaHCO₃ and evolves CO₂“. Write the experimental procedure. (TS March 2018)
Answer:
Required material : Stand, test tubes, delivery tube, thistle funnel, two hole rubber corks, Ca(OH)₂, NaHCO₃, HCl.

Experimental procedure :

1. Take NaHCO₃ in a test tube and fix two hole cork to the test tube.
2. Fix thistle funnel in one hole of cork and insert delivery tube in the second hole of the cork. Insert the second end of the delivery tube in the other test tube which is containing Ca(OH)₂/lime water.
3. Pour dil. HCl into the test tube using thistle funnel.
4. Due to chemical reaction, gas is evolved and pass into the Ca(OH)₂ through delivery tube. It turns in to milky. We can conclude that it is CO₂ gas.

Question 7.
Prepare a table based on the colour responses of acid, base and salt with indicators such as indicators. (AP SA-I:2018-19)
Answer:

Question 8.
Draw universal pH value indicator and identify different substances. (AP SA-I : 2019-20)
(OR)
Draw a neat diagram showing variation of pH with the chage in concentration of H⁺_(aq) ion and OH^–_(aq) ions.
Answer:

Variation of pH with the change in concentration of H⁺_(aq) ions and OH^–_(aq) ions.

Question 9.

Answer the following questions by using above information. (TS June 2019)
1) Which of the above is neutral solution?
2) Which of the above is used to neutralize the acidity in stomach?
3) Which is the strong acid among the above solutions?
4) What is the colour of Phenolphthalein indicator in NaOH solution?
Answer:

1. Distilled water
2. Milk of Magnesia
3. Gastric juice
4. Pink

Question 10.
If the pH values of solutions X, Y and Z are 13, 6 and 2 respectively, then
a) Which solution is a strong acid? Why?
b) Which solution contains ions along with molecules of solution?
c) Which solution is a strong base? Why?
d) Does the pH value of a solution increase or decrease when a base is added to it? Why?
Answer:
The strength of an acid (or) an alkali can be tested by using pH value of a solution. If the value of a pH of a solution is less, then that solution exhibits acidic nature.

If the value of a pH of a solution is more, then that solution exhibits basic nature.
pH value of a solution “X” is 13
pH value of a solution “Y” is 6
pH value of a solution “Z” is 2

a) Solution ‘Z’ is strong acid because its pH is 2.
b) Among given solutions, solution X is weakest acid. Weak solution contains ions along with molecules of solution. So X exhibits like this character.
c) Solution X is strong base. Because its pH is 13.
d) If base is added to solution ‘Z’, then its pH will increase.

Question 11.
Distinguish between acids and bases.
Answer:

Acids	Bases
1) They are sour to taste.	1) They are better to taste and soapy to touch.
2) When non-metallic oxides dissolved in water they form acids.	2) When metallic oxides dissolved in water they form bases.
3) They react with bases to form salt and water.	3) They react with acids to form salt and water.
4) They produce aqueous H+ ions.	4) They produce aqueous OH- ions.
5) They turn blue litmus into red.	5) They turn red litmus into blue.
6) They turn methyl orange indicator to red.	6) They turn methyl orange indicator to yellow.
7) The turn phenolphthalein indicator to colourless.	7) They turn phenolphthalien indicator to pink.

Question 12.
Explain chlor-alkali process.
Answer:
When electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium chloride, it decomposes to form sodium hydroxide. The process is called chloralkali process because of the products formed chlor for chlorine and alkali for sodium hydroxide.
2 NaCl (aq) + 2H₂O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl₂(g) + H₂(g)

Chlorine gas is given off at the anode and hydrogen gas at the cathode and sodium hydroxide is formed near the cathode.

Question 13.
Define the following. Give one example for each.
a) Strong acid
b) Strong base
c) Weak acid
d) Weak base.
Answer:
a) Strong acid :
The acid which undergoes 100% ionisation is called strong acid.
e.g.: HCl, H₂SO₄

b) Strong base :
The base which undergoes 100% ionisation is called strong base.
e.g.: NaOH, KOH

c) Weak acid:
The acid which undergoes less than 100% ionisation is called weak acid.
e.g.: CH₃COOH, H₂CO₃

d) Weak base:
The base which undergoes less than 100% ionisation is called weak base.
e.g.: NH₄OH, Mg(OH)₂

Question 14.
Write any four chemical properties of acids.
Answer:
Chemical properties of acids :
1) Active metals react with acids and liberate hydrogen gas.
Zn + HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂ ↑

2) Acids react with bases to form salt and water.
HCl_(aq) + NaOH_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)

3) Acids react with metallic oxides to form salt and water.
MgO_(s)+ 2HCl_(aq) → MgCl_2(aq) + H₂O_(l)

4) Acids react with carbonates and hydrogen carbonates and release carbon dioxide gas.
CaCO_3(s) + 2HCl_(aq) → CaCl_2(aq)+ H₂O_(l) + CO_2(g) ↑
Ca(HCO₃)_2(l) + 2HCl_(aq) → CaCl_2(aq) + 2H20((| + 2CO_2(g) ↑

Question 15.
Write the formulae of the following salts.
a) Sodium sulphate
b) Ammonium chloride
Identify the acids and bases for which the above salts are obtained. Also write chemical equations for the reactions between such acids and bases. Which type of chemical reactions are they?
Answer:
a) Formula of sodium sulphate is Na2S04. When sulphuric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide it forms sodium sulphate.
H₂SO_4(aq)+ 2NaOH_(aq) → Na₂SO_4(aq) + 2H₂O_(l)

b) Formula of Ammonium chloride is NH4C/. When Ammonium hydroxide reacts with hydrochloric acid it forms Ammonium chloride.
NH₄OH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) → NH₄Cl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)

Question 16.
Write balanced equations to satisfy each statement,
a) Acid + Active metal → Salt + Hydrogen
Answer:
Zn_(s) + 2HCl_(aq) → ZnCl_2(aq) + H_2(g)

b) Acid + Base → Salt + Water
Answer:
NaOH_(aq) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l)

c) Acid + Carbonate / Hydrogen carbonate → Salt + Water + Carbon dioxide
Answer:
CaCO_3(s) + 2 HCl_(aq) → CaCl_2(aq) + H₂O_(l) + CO_2(g) ↑
NaHCO_3(s) + HCl_(aq) → NaCl_(aq) + H₂O_(l) + CO_2(g) ↑

d) Metal oxide + Acid → Salt + Water
Answer:
CaO_(s) + 2 HCl_(aq) → CaCl_2(aq) + H₍₂₎O_(l)

e) Non metal oxide + base → Salt + Water
Answer:
CO_2(g) + 2 NaOH_(aq) → Na₂CO_3(aq) + H₂O_(l)

Question 17.
Give important products obtained from chloralkali process.

Answer:
Result:
Five water molecules are present in one formula unit of copper sulphate. Water of crystallization proves that the crystals contain a fixed quantity of water in them.

Question 18.
Give the equations for the preparation of each of the following.
i) Copper sulphate from copper (II) oxide.
Answer:
CuO + H₂SO₄ → CuSO₄ + H₂O

ii) Potassium sulphate from potassium hydroxide solution.
Answer:
2 KOH + H₂SO₄ → K₂SO₄ + 2 H₂O

iii) Lead chloride from lead carbonate.
Answer:
PbCO₃ + 2 HCl → PbCl₂ + H₂O + CO₂

Question 19.
How are the following salts prepared?
1) Calcium sulphate from calcium carbonate
Answer:
When calcium carbonate is treated with sulphuric acid it forms calcium sulphate.
CaCO₃ + H₂SO₄ → CaSO₄ + H₂O + CO₂

2) Lead carbonate from lead nitrate
Answer:
When lead nitrate is treated with carbonic acid we will get lead carbonate.
Pb(NO₃)₂ + H2CO₃ → PbCO₃ + 2 HNO₃

3) Sodium nitrate from sodium hydroxide
Answer:
When sodium hydroxide is reacted with nitric acid it will form sodium nitrate.
NaOH + HNO₃ → NaNO₃ + H₂O

4) Magnesium carbonate from magnesium chloride
Answer:
When magnesium carbonate is reacted with hydrochloric acid it forms magnesium chloride.
MgCO₃ + 2 HCl → MgCl₂ + H₂O + CO₂

Question 20.
Which of the following reactions are considered as neutralization reactions? Why?
1) NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O
2) CaO + 2 HCl → CaCl₂ + H₂O
3) CO₂ + 2 NaOH → Na₂CO₃ + H₂O
4) SiO₂ + CaO → CaSiO₃
Answer:
All of them are considered as neutralization reactions.

1. An acid (HCl) reacts with base (NaOH) and forms salt and water. So it is a neutralization reaction.
2. Here metallic oxide which is basic in nature reacts with acid and forms salt and water. So it is also a neutralization reaction.
3. In third case non-metallic oxide (acidic oxide) reacts with base (NaOH) and forms salt and water. So it is also a neutralization reaction.
4. In fourth case a metallic oxide (CaO) reacts with non-metallic oxide (SiO₂) and forms salt. So it is also a neutralization reaction in the absence 6f water.

Question 21.
Which metals produce hydrogen gas when they are reacted with bases like NaOH and KOH? Write the chemical equations for the reactions.
Answer:
Zinc, aluminium and lead react with bases like NaOH and KOH and produce hydrogen gas.

Question 22.
i) A solution has a pH of 7. How would you increase its pH and decrease its pH? Explain.
Answer;
We can increase the pH of a solution by adding base because we know that bases have pH > 7. We can decrease the pH of a solution by adding an acid because acidic solution have pH < 7.

ii) If a solution changes the colour of litmus from red to blue, then what can you say about its pH?
Answer:
Bases can change red litmus into blue. So the pH of the solution is greater than 7.

iii) What can you say about pH of a solution that liberates carbon dioxide from sodium carbonate?
Answer:
Acids react with carbonates and liberate hydrogen gas. So the pH of the solution is less than 7.

Question 23.
Write the pH values of some solutions.
Answer:

pH value	Solutions
0	Battery Acid
1	Con. H2S04
2	Lemon juice
3	Orange juice
4	Tomato juice
5	Black coffee, Bananas
6	Milk, urine
7	Pure water
8	Sea water, eggs
9	Baking soda
10	Milk of magnesia
11	Ammonia solution
12	Soapy water
13	Bleach oven cleaner
14	Liquid drain cleaner

Question 24.
Fill the following table of results of reactions between some substances (acids, bases, neutral substances) and indicators.

Answer:

Question 25.
The pH values of six solutions A, B, C, D, E, F are given as 5,2,1,3,7 and 9 respectively. Which solution is
a) Neutral
b) Strongly alkaline
c) Strongly acidic
d) Weakly acidic?
Arrange the pH in increasing order of Hydrogen ion concentration.
Answer:
a) Solution E is neutral.
b) Solution F is Alkaline.
c) Solution C is strongly acidic.
d) Solution A is weakly acidic.
e) Solution B is strongly acidic.
f) Solution D is strongly acidic.
g) Ascending order of increase of Hydrogen ion concentration is F, E, A, D, B, C.

Question 26.
Collect information about various organic acids different occurring naturally and prepare a table.
Answer:

1. Acetic acid	Vinegar (obtained from fruits after fermentation).
2. Citric acid	Citrus fruits like orange and lemons.
3. Butyric acid	Butter gone bad or rancid
4. Lactic acid	Curd
5. Malic acid	Apples
6. Oleic acid	Olive oil
7. Tartaric acid	Fruits such as grapes, apples and tamarind
8. Stearic acid	From fats
9. Succinic acid	From vegetables like lettuce and unripe fruits
10. Uric acid	From urine

Question 27.
Complete the table.

Answer:

Question 28.
Fill the table.

Answer:

Question 29.
Draw a diagram to show the reaction of acids with metals.
Answer:

Reaction of Zinc granules with dil. HCl and testing hydrogen gas by a burning candle

Question 30.
Draw a diagram to show that all metal carbonates and react hydrogen carbonates
Answer:

Question 31.
What are the uses of Bleaching powder?
Answer:

• It is used for bleaching cotton and linen in the textile industry for bleaching wood pulp in paper industry and for bleaching washed clothes in laundry.
• Used as an oxidizing agent in many chemical industries.
• Used for disinfecting drinking water to make it free of germs.
• Used as a reagent in the preparation of chloroform.

Question 32.
What are the uses of Baking soda?
Answer:
1) Baking powder is a mixture of baking soda and a mild edible acid such as tartaric acid. When baking powder is heated or mixed in water, the following reaction takes place.

Carbon dioxide produced during the reaction causes bread or cake to rise making them soft and spongy.

2) Sodium hydrogen carbonate is also an ingredient in antacids. Being alkaline, it neutralizes excess acid in the stomach and provides relief.

3) It is also used in soda-acid, fire extinguishers.

4) It acts as mild antiseptic.

Question 33.
What are the uses of Washing soda?
Answer:

• Sodium carbonate (washing soda) is used in glass, soaps and paper industries.
• It is used in the manufacture of sodium compounds such as borax.
• Sodium carbonate can be used” as a cleaning agent for domestic purposes.
• It is used for removing permanent hardness of water.

Question 34.
Write the chemical formulae of the following :
i) Bleaching powder
ii) Sodium Chloride
iii) Slaked lime
iv) Baking Soda
v) Washing Soda
vi) Gypsum
vii) Plaster of Paris
viii) Acetic acid
ix) Sodium Hydroxide
x) Limestone
Answer:
i) Bleaching powder = CaOCl₂
ii) Sodium Chloride = NaCl (Common Salt)
iii) Slaked lime (or) lime water = Ca(OH)₂
iv) Baking Soda = NaHCO₃
v) Washing Soda = Na₂CO₃, 10H₂O
vi) Gypsum = CaSO₄ . 2H₂O
vii) Plaster of Paris = CaSO₄ . ½H₂O
viii) Acetic acid = CH₃COOH
ix) Sodium Hydroxide = NaOH
x) Limestone = CaCO₃

Question 35.
What are the various applications of neutralization?
Answer:

• The acidity of soil is reduced by adding slaked lime.
• The sting of yellow wasps contains alkalis. If acetic acid is rubbed on affected area, they are neutralized.
• Ants and bees have formic acid in their stings which can be neutralised by applying soap and some other alkali.
• Antacids tablets contain magnesium hydroxide, persons suffering from acidity are administered these tablets.
• The affect of nettle plant leaves is neutralized by leaves of dock plant.

Question 36.
Mention two situations where you use hydrated and unhydrated salts in your daily life.
Answer:

• NaCl is unhydrated salt. It flows freely when filled in a container.
• NaHCl (Baking soda) is unhydrated salt. It flows freely when filled in a container.
• NaCO₃ . 10H₂O (washing soda) is hydrated salt. It leaves wetness inside the container.
• CaSO₄ . 2H₂O (Gypsum) is also hydrated salt. On careful heating of gypsum it loses water molecules partially to become (CaSO₄ . ½H₂O) P.O.P. It is used in hospitals as plaster for supporting fractured bones in right position.

These AP 10th Class Telugu Important Questions 7th Lesson మా ప్రయత్నం will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Telugu 7th Lesson Important Questions and Answers మా ప్రయత్నం

10th Class Telugu 7th Lesson మా ప్రయత్నం 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

ఈ క్రింది ప్రశ్నలకు నాలుగైదు వాక్యాల్లో సమాధానాలు రాయండి.

ప్రశ్న 1.
పీఠిక అంటే ఏమిటి? వివరించండి. (June 2017)
(లేదా)
‘పీఠిక’ సాహిత్య ప్రక్రియను వివరింపుము. (March 2017)
ఒక పుస్తకం యొక్క తాత్త్వికతను, అంతస్సారాన్ని తెలియజేసే దానిని ‘ముందుమాట’ లేదా ‘పీఠిక’ అంటారు గదా ! ‘పీఠిక’ ప్రక్రియ గురించి వ్రాయండి. (March 2019)
జవాబు:
ఒక గ్రంథాన్నీ, గ్రంథ నేపథ్యాన్ని పరిచయం చేస్తూ వ్రాసే ముందుమాటను పీఠిక అంటారు. దీనిని రచయిత కానీ, విమర్శకుడు కానీ, వేరే వ్యక్తి కానీ వ్రాయవచ్చు.

పీఠికకు ముందుమాట, ప్రస్తావన, తొలిపలుకు, మున్నుడి, ఆముఖం అని కూడా అంటారు.

ప్రశ్న 2.
‘మహిళావరణం’ అనే పుస్తకానికి రచయిత్రులు రాసిన ‘పీఠిక’ ప్రక్రియ వివరించండి. (S.A. I – 2018-19)
(లేదా)
మా ప్రయత్నం పాఠ్యాంశ ప్రక్రియను రాయండి. (S.A. I – 2019-20)
జవాబు:
ఒక గ్రంథాన్నీ, గ్రంథ నేపథ్యాన్ని పరిచయం చేస్తూ వ్రాసే ముందుమాటను పీఠిక అంటారు. దీనిని రచయిత కానీ, విమర్శకుడు కానీ, వేరే వ్యక్తి కానీ వ్రాయవచ్చు.

పీఠికకు ముందుమాట, ప్రస్తావన, తొలిపలుకు, మున్నుడి, ఆముఖం అని కూడా అంటారు.

ప్రశ్న 3.
ఓల్గా గారి గురించి వ్రాయండి.
జవాబు:
ఈమె ప్రముఖ స్త్రీవాద రచయిత్రి. ఈమే తన కథలు, కవితలు, నవలలతో తెలుగు సాహిత్యంలో స్త్రీవాద ఉద్యమానికి ఉత్తేజాన్ని అందించింది. ఈమె ఎన్నో పుస్తకాలకు సంపాదకత్వం వహించారు. అనేక పురస్కారాలు, అవార్డులను ఆమె అందుకొన్నారు.

ప్రశ్న 4.
వసంత కన్నబిరాన్ గురించి వ్రాయండి.
జవాబు:
ఈమె 1930లో హైదరాబాద్ లో జన్మించారు. ఈమె ఇంగ్లీషు లెక్చరర్‌గా పనిచేశారు. మానవహక్కులు, స్త్రీ సమానత్వం కోసం ఆమె కృషి చేస్తున్నారు. ఆమె “నేషనల్ అలయెన్స్ ఆఫ్ ఉమెన్”, “ఇండియన్ నేషనల్ సోషల్ యాక్షన్ ఫోరం”లో పనిచేస్తున్నారు.

ప్రశ్న 5.
కల్పన కన్నబిరాన్ గురించి వ్రాయండి.
జవాబు:
ప్రముఖ న్యాయవాది కె.జి. కన్నబిరాన్, రచయిత్రి వసంత కన్నబిరాన్ల కుమార్తె కన్నబిరాన్. ఈమె హైదరాబాద్లోని ‘సెంటర్ ఫర్ నేషనల్ డెవలప్ మెంట్’ కు సంచాలకులుగా పనిచేస్తున్నారు. సామాజిక న్యాయం, సామాజిక ఉద్యమాలలో క్రియాశీలకంగా బాధ్యతలు నిర్వర్తిస్తున్నారు. ‘జెండర్ స్టడీస్’, ‘క్రిమినల్ లా’లో విస్తృత అధ్యయనం, పరిశోధనలు చేశారు. చాలా విలువైన గ్రంథాలు రాశారు.

10th Class Telugu 7th Lesson మా ప్రయత్నం 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

ఈ క్రింది ప్రశ్నలకు 10 లేక 12 వాక్యాల్లో జవాబులు రాయండి.

ప్రశ్న 1.
“స్త్రీలు ప్రధానమైన చరిత్ర నిర్మాతలు” అని రచయిత్రులు భావించడానికి గల కారణాలను ‘మా ప్రయత్నం’ పాఠం ఆధారంగా వివరించండి. (June 2018)
జవాబు:

1. కొత్త కాలంలోకి అడుగు పెడుతున్న కాలంలో గడచిన కాలాన్ని గుర్తుకు తెచ్చుకొని భవిష్యత్తుపై ఒక అంచనాకు రావటం సహజం.
2. గత శతాబ్దపు సామాజిక మార్పులలో, అభివృద్ధిలో స్త్రీల భాగస్వామ్యాన్ని గురించి ఆలోచించిన రచయిత్రులకు చరిత్ర నిర్మాతలుగా స్త్రీలు ప్రధానంగా ఉన్నారనే భావం కలిగింది.
3. గడచిన శతాబ్దంలో స్త్రీలు చేసిన పోరాటాలూ, వారు నడిపిన ఉద్యమాలూ, రాణించిన రంగాలు ఎన్నో ఉండటమే ఆ భావనకు ప్రధాన కారణం.
4. మొదటిసారి చదువుకొన్న స్త్రీలు, మొదటి వితంతు వివాహం చేసుకొనే సాహసం చేసిన స్త్రీలు, స్త్రీ విద్య కోసం పాటుపడినవారు, ఉద్యమాలలో పాల్గొని జైలుకు కూడా వెళ్ళేందుకు తెగించిన స్త్రీలు, కళారంగంలో తొలిసారి కాలుమోపిన మహిళలు, మొదటి తరం డాక్టర్లూ, శాస్త్రవేత్తలూ – వారు చేసిన పోరాటాలు రచయిత్రుల భావాన్ని బలపరిచాయి.
5. స్త్రీలకు తగిన గుర్తింపు లభించలేదని, సంప్రదాయ చరిత్రకారులు స్త్రీలకు తగిన ప్రాధాన్యం, ప్రాతినిధ్యం ఇవ్వలేదని రచయిత్రులు భావించారు.
6. చరిత్ర అనే జగన్నాథ రథ చక్రాల క్రింద నలిగిపోయినందున చరిత్ర నిర్మాతలుగా స్త్రీలకు గుర్తింపు లభించలేదని, కానీ, ప్రధాన చరిత్ర నిర్మాతలుగా వారిది తిరుగులేని స్థానమని రచయిత్రులు భావించారు.

ప్రశ్న 2.
“మహిళావరణం” పుస్తక రూపకల్పనలో రచయిత్రులు పడిన శ్రమను, పొందిన అనుభవాలను తెల్పండి. (March 2018)
జవాబు:
1) గడచిన శతాబ్దంలో సామాజికాభివృద్ధిలో, సామాజిక మార్పులలో, స్త్రీల యొక్క భాగస్వామ్యం గురించి ఆలోచించిన – ఓల్గా తదితర స్త్రీవాద రచయితల ముందుకు ఎన్నో విషయాలు వచ్చాయి. గడచిన శతాబ్దంలో చాలా అంశాలలో స్త్రీల భాగస్వామ్యం అధికంగా ఉందని చరిత్ర నిర్మాతలుగా వారిది తిరుగులేని స్థానమని రచయిత్రులు భావించారు.

2) ఆ విషయాన్ని సాధికారికంగా, సోదాహరణంగా నిరూపించటానికి రచయిత్రులు ఒక పుస్తకాన్ని తీసుకురావాలను కొన్నారు. అలా “మహిళావరణం” పుస్తక రూపకల్పనకు శ్రీకారం చుట్టారు. ఈ క్రమంలో వారెన్నో కష్టాలనెదుర్కొన్నారు. ఒళ్ళు పులకించే అనుభవాలను పొందారు.

3) గడచిన శతాబ్దంలో స్త్రీలు చేసిన పోరాటాలు, రాణించిన రంగాలు ఎన్నో ఉన్నాయి. ఆ స్త్రీలను అందరినీ ఒకచోట చేర్చటం రచయిత్రులకెంతో ఉత్సాహాన్నిచ్చింది. ఇంతమంది స్త్రీలను ఒకే చోట చూడటం వలన, స్త్రీలు వెనుకబడిపోయారనే భావంతో ఉన్న రచయిత్రులకు కనువిప్పు కలిగింది. ఒక చైతన్య ప్రవాహంగా స్త్రీలను వాళ్ళు చూడగలిగారు.

4) ఎక్కడో ఒకచోట కొంతమంది స్త్రీలను గురించి చదవటానికి, ఒకేసారి వందమందికి పైగా స్త్రీలను, వివిధరంగాలలో వారు చేసిన కృషిని, సాధించిన విజయాలను తెలుసుకోవటానికి గల తేడాను, అనుభూతిలో గల భేదాన్ని రచయిత్రులు గ్రహించారు.

5) చరిత్రను నిర్మించడానికి ఆనాటి స్త్రీలు ఎంత మూల్యం చెల్లించారో తలచుకొంటే రచయిత్రుల గుండెలు బరువెక్కాయి. ఆర్థికంగా, శారీరకంగా, మానసికంగా, ఎంతో శ్రమకోర్చి. రచయిత్రులు ఈ “మహిళావరణం” పుస్తకాన్ని రూపొందించారనటం అక్షర సత్యం.

ప్రశ్న 3.
సామాన్యంగా చరిత్ర నిర్మాతలుగా స్త్రీలకు ఎందుకు గుర్తింపు లభించదో వివరించండి.
జవాబు:
చరిత్ర రచయితలకు, స్త్రీలను గూర్చి, వారు చేసిన కృషిని గురించి, అంతగా గౌరవమూ, శ్రద్ధ లేకపోవడం వల్లనే, స్త్రీలు చరిత్రలో ఎక్కకపోవడానికి కారణం అయి ఉంటుంది. చరిత్ర అనే జగన్నాథ రథచక్రాల క్రింద, ఆ స్త్రీల యొక్క ఉనికి, ముక్కలయ్యింది.

అదీగాక చరిత్రకారులకు, స్త్రీలపై చిన్నచూపు ఉండడం కూడా అందుకు కారణం అయి ఉంటుంది. చరిత్రకారుడికి ఆ స్త్రీలను గూర్చి అంతగా వివరంగా తెలియకపోవడం కూడా ఒక కారణం అయి ఉంటుంది. అందుకే సంప్రదాయ చరిత్ర రచయితలు స్త్రీలను చరిత్రలో అక్కడక్కడ పౌడర్ అద్దుతారు. బాగా ప్రసిద్ధులయిన స్త్రీలను గురించి మాత్రమే ఆ చరిత్రకారులు రాసి ఉంటారు. అదీగాక, ఈనాటి వలె ఆ రోజుల్లో సమాచారం అంతగా తెలిసికోడానికి సాధనాలు కూడా లేవు. అందువల్లనే ఆయారంగాల్లో అక్కడక్కడ కృషి చేసిన స్త్రీల గూర్చి ఆ చరిత్రకారుల దృష్టికి సరిగా వచ్చి ఉండదు. కొంతమంది ఉద్యమ స్త్రీలను గురించి, చరిత్ర రచయిత విని ఉన్నా, ఆ స్త్రీల వివరాలు, వారు చేసిన కృషి, చరిత్రకారుల దృష్టికి వచ్చియుండకపోవచ్చు.

అందువల్లనే సామాన్యంగా చరిత్ర నిర్మాతలుగా పెక్కుమంది స్త్రీలకు గుర్తింపు లభించలేదని మనం గ్రహించాలి.

ప్రశ్న 4.
“మహిళావరణం” శీర్షిక గురించి మీ అభిప్రాయాలు రాయండి.
జవాబు:
గడచిన 20వ శతాబ్దంలో స్త్రీలు ఆయారంగాల్లో కీలకస్థానాల్లో కీలక సమయాలలో పనిచేసి, అక్కడ తమ ముద్రవేసిన వందమంది స్త్రీలను గురించి మహిళావరణం సంపాదకులు ఒక పుస్తకం తీసుకువచ్చారు. ఆ పుస్తకానికి “మహిళావరణం” అని పేరు పెట్టారు. ‘మహిళావరణం’ అంటే, స్త్రీలను వరించడం, అనగా కోరుకోవడం అని భావము. 20వ శతాబ్దంలో విభిన్నరంగాలలో కీలక సమయాల్లో, కీలక స్థానాల్లో పనిచేసిన నారీమణులను, ఈ పుస్తకం సంపాదకులు కోరి వారికి తమ గ్రంథములో చోటు కల్పించారు. వారి దృష్టికి, ఎంతోమంది స్త్రీలు చరిత్రకు ఎక్కవలసినవారు కనిపించారు. ఆర్థిక పరిస్థితుల దృష్ట్యా అందులో కొంతమందినే ఏరి కోరుకొని, ఈ పుస్తకంలో, వారికి, చోటు కల్పించారు.

అంటే ఈ పుస్తకంలోకి ఎక్కిన స్త్రీలు, సంపాదకులు కోరి వరించిన వారన్న మాట. అందుకే ఈ పుస్తకానికి ‘మహిళావరణం’ అని, సంపాదకులు అర్థవంతమైన చక్కని పేరు పెట్టారని నా అభిప్రాయము.

అయితే, ఈ పుస్తకానికి “20వ శతాబ్దపు ప్రసిద్ధ నారీమణులు” అని కూడా పేరుపెట్టవచ్చు. సంపాదకుల దృష్టికి సుప్రసిద్ధ నారీమణులు సుమారు 300 మంది వచ్చారు. వారిలో కేవలం 118 మంది మహిళామణులనే ఏరి కోరుకొని, స్థానం కల్పించారు. అందువల్లనే ‘మహిళావరణం’ అన్న పేరు “సమంజసంగా ఉంది.

ప్రశ్న 5.
చరిత్ర సాగిన క్రమాన్ని ప్రతివాళ్ళూ ఎందుకు ప్రశ్నించారు?
జవాబు:
మహిళావరణం సంపాదకులు, విభిన్నరంగాల్లో విశిష్ట కృషి చేసిన స్త్రీమూర్తులను కలసికొన్నారు. అందులో వారు సరిదె మాణిక్యాంబగారిని కలిసినప్పుడు, వేశ్యాకులం వారిని మొదట ఆడవద్దని ప్రభుత్వం వారు, వారి మాన్యాలను తీసికొన్నారని, కానీ ఇప్పుడు అన్ని కులాలవారు జీవనోపాధి కోసం ఆడుతున్నారనీ, వేశ్యలను నాట్యం చేయవద్దనడం నేరం కదా అని ప్రశ్నించింది.

ఈ విధంగా మాణిక్యాంబగారే కాక, మరెందరో స్త్రీలు చరిత్ర సాగిన క్రమాన్నీ, అందులో స్త్రీలకు జరిగిన అన్యాయాన్నీ ప్రశ్నించారు. ఆ రోజుల్లో స్త్రీలకు ఉన్నత విద్య చదువుకొనే అవకాశం ఉండేది కాదు. స్త్రీలు రేడియో, సినిమా వంటి రంగాల్లో పనిచేయడానికి అవకాశం ఉండేది కాదు.

వితంతు స్త్రీలకు తిరిగి వివాహం చేసుకొనే హక్కు ఉండేది కాదు. అందుకే సాహసవంతులయిన స్త్రీ మూర్తులు నాడు చరిత్ర సాగిన క్రమాన్ని ప్రశ్నించారు.

ప్రశ్న 6.
ప్రతివాళ్ళూ ప్రశ్నించే విధంగా చరిత్ర ఎందుకు సాగింది? దీనికి కారణాలు ఏమిటి? విశ్లేషించండి.
జవాబు:
20వ శతాబ్దం నాటికి సంఘంలో నేడు ఉన్నంత చైతన్యం లేదు. పెద్దవాళ్ళు పాటించిన రీతిలోనే చరిత్ర సాగిపోయేది. స్త్రీలకు బాల్యవివాహాలు ఉండేవి. విధవ వివాహాలు చేసేవారు కారు. స్త్రీలకు అన్నిరంగాల్లోనూ ప్రవేశం ఉండేది కాదు. స్త్రీలు ఉన్నత విద్య చదివే సావకాశం లేదు.

స్త్రీలు బిడియపడుతూ ఉండేవారు. ఆనాడు అంతా మనుధర్మశాస్త్రం ప్రకారం అంటూ, మూఢాచారాలు పాటించేవారు, ఆ రోజుల్లోనే కందుకూరి వీరేశలింగము, రాజ్యలక్ష్మి, విలియం బెంటిక్, రాజారామమోహనరాయ్ వంటి సంఘ సంస్కర్తల ప్రభావంతో సంఘంలో కొంత మార్పు వచ్చింది.

స్త్రీ సహగమనము వంటి దురాచారాలు తగ్గాయి. విధవా పునర్వివాహాలు, సామాన్య స్త్రీలు విద్యాభ్యాసం చెయ్యడం వంటివి సాగించారు. మొత్తంపై ఆ 20వ శతాబ్దంలో మొదట్లో కొన్ని సాంఘిక దురాచారాల వల్ల స్త్రీలు అంతగా రాణించలేకపోయారు.

అందువల్లనే ప్రతివాళ్ళూ ప్రశ్నించే విధంగా నాడు చరిత్ర సాగింది. ఆ స్త్రీలు అందరూ చరిత్రను మార్చటానికి గట్టిగా ప్రయత్నించారు.

ప్రశ్న 7.
చరిత్ర నిర్మాతలుగా స్త్రీలు ప్రధానంగా ఉన్నారనడానికి కారణాలను వివరించండి.
జవాబు:
20వ శతాబ్దం సామాజికాభివృద్ధిలో, సామాజిక మార్పులలో, స్త్రీల భాగస్వామ్యాన్ని గూర్చి ఆలోచిస్తే, 20వ శతాబ్దపు చరిత్ర నిర్మాతలుగా, వారికి తిరుగులేని స్థానం ఉందని సంపాదకులకు అనిపించింది.

20వ శతాబ్దంలో స్త్రీలు చేసిన పోరాటాలు, వారు పాలుపంచుకున్న ఉద్యమాలు, రాణించిన రంగాలు ఎన్నో ఉన్నాయి. అటువంటి స్త్రీలు ఎంతోమంది ఉన్నారు. అటువంటి స్త్రీలు ఎంతోమంది సంపాదకులకు గుర్తుకు వచ్చారు.

20వ శతాబ్దంలో మొదటిసారి చదువుకున్న స్త్రీలు, ఉద్యమాల్లో చేరి జైలుకు వెళ్ళడానికి సైతం సిద్ధపడిన స్త్రీలు, మొదటగా వితంతు వివాహం చేసుకునేందుకు సాహసించిన స్త్రీలు, స్త్రీ విద్యకోసం ఉద్యమించిన స్త్రీలు, నాటకం, రేడియో, సినిమా రంగాలలో మొదటిసారి అడుగు పెట్టిన స్త్రీలు, మొదటి తరం డాక్టర్లూ, శాస్త్రవేత్తలూ, సంగీత నృత్య కళాకారిణులూ, విద్యావేత్తలూ ఎందరో సంపాదకులకు కనిపించారు. దానితో చరిత్ర నిర్మాతలుగా స్త్రీలు ప్రధానంగా ఉన్నారనే భావన సంపాదకులకు కలిగింది.

ప్రశ్న 8.
‘స్త్రీలే ప్రధానమైన చరిత్ర నిర్మాతలు’ – సమర్థించండి.
జవాబు:
20వ శతాబ్దపు సామాజికాభివృద్ధిలో, సామాజిక మార్పులలో, స్త్రీలకు కల భాగస్వామ్యాన్ని గురించి ఆలోచిస్తే, ఎన్నో విషయాలు మహిళావరణం సంపాదకుల ముందుకు వచ్చాయి. 20వ శతాబ్దాన్ని స్త్రీల శతాబ్దంగా చెప్పవచ్చునని వారికి అనిపించింది. జరిగిన శతాబ్దం చరిత్ర నిర్మాతలుగా, స్త్రీలకు తిరుగులేని స్థానం ఉందని వారికి అనిపించింది.

గడిచిన 20వ శతాబ్దంలో స్త్రీలు చేసిన పోరాటాలు, వారు పాలుపంచుకున్న ఉద్యమాలు, వారు రాణించిన రంగాలు ఎన్నో ఉన్నాయి. 20వ శతాబ్దంలో మొదటిసారి చదువుకున్న స్త్రీలు, మొదటి వితంతు వివాహం చేసుకున్న సాహసురాండ్రు, స్త్రీ విద్య కావాలని, ఉద్యమించిన స్త్రీలు, ఉద్యమాలు చేసి జైలుకు వెళ్ళిన స్త్రీలూ ఉన్నారు. నాటకం, సినిమా, రేడియో, వంటి రంగాలలో స్త్రీలు మొదటిసారిగా 20వ శతాబ్దంలోనే అడుగుపెట్టారు. స్త్రీలలో ఎందరో మొదటితరం డాక్టర్లు, శాస్త్రవేత్తలు, కళాకారిణులు, విద్యాధికులు నాడు ఉన్నారు.

శరీరం పులకరింపజేసే ఎందరో సాహసమూర్తులు, ఆ శతాబ్దంలోనే ఉన్నారు. అందువల్లనే 20వ శతాబ్దంలో స్త్రీలే .. ప్రధానమైన చరిత్ర నిర్మాతలు అని చెప్పవచ్చు.

ప్రశ్న 9.
చరిత్ర నిర్మాతలుగా స్త్రీలు నిలదొక్కుకొనేందుకు ఎంత కష్టపడి ఉంటారు?
జవాబు:
చరిత్ర నిర్మాతలుగా స్త్రీలు నిలదొక్కుకోడానికి వారు చాలా కష్టపడి యుంటారు. ఆ విషయం తలచుకోగానే ఈ గ్రంథము సంపాదకులకు గుండెలు బరువెక్కాయట. ఆ స్త్రీలు, వాస్తవ జీవితానికి వ్యతిరేకమైన పరిస్థితులతో పోరాడారు. ఆ స్త్రీలు కొత్త కలలు కనడానికి, కొత్త జీవిత విధానాలు కనుక్కోడానికి, వారు ఎన్నో కఠిన పరీక్షలకు గురి అయ్యారు. మొదటిసారిగా వివాహం చేసుకున్న వితంతువు పరిస్థితి తలచుకొంటే, ఆ సామాన్య స్త్రీల సాహసం అసామాన్యమైనదని, సంపాదకులకు అనిపించింది.

ఉద్యమాలలో చేరి జైలుకు వెళ్ళిన స్త్రీ మూర్తులను, మొదటిసారి సినిమాలలో నటించిన స్త్రీలను చూస్తే వారు ఆనాడు ఎంత సాహసం చేశారో మనకు తెలుస్తుంది. ఆనాడు సమాజంలో స్త్రీలకు నేటి స్వాతంత్ర్యం లేదు. ఎన్నో కట్టుబాట్లు ఉండేవి. ఆ పరిస్థితులలో చరిత్ర నిర్మాతలుగా నిలదొక్కుకోడానికి ఆనాటి స్త్రీలు చాలా కష్టపడి ఉంటారని మనం గ్రహింపవచ్చు.

ప్రశ్న 10.
రచయిత్రుల గుండెలు ఎందుకు బరువెక్కాయి?
జవాబు:
స్త్రీలు దేశం కోసం, తమ కోసం ఒక సమూహంగా చేసిన పోరాటాలకూ, వారు పడిన సంఘర్షణలకూ, వారు సాధించిన విజయాలకూ చరిత్రలో సరైన గుర్తింపు దొరకలేదు. చరిత్ర అనే జగన్నాథ రథచక్రాల కింద వారి సామూహిక ఉనికి ముక్కముక్కలయ్యింది.

మహిళావరణం పుస్తకంలో స్త్రీమూర్తులందరినీ గూర్చి వరుసగా రాయడం జరిగింది. ఆ స్త్రీలందరి గూర్చి చదివేటప్పటికి, వారు సాధించిన విజయాలను గూర్చి తెలిసికొనేటప్పటికి, స్త్రీల చైతన్య ప్రవాహవేగం, జీవం, ఆ ప్రవాహక్రమంలోని మార్పులూ ఈ గ్రంథ సంపాదకులకు ఒక కొత్త విషయాన్ని చెపుతున్నట్లు అనిపించింది.

ఆ స్త్రీలు అందరూ చరిత్ర నిర్మాణానికి ఎంత కష్టపడి ఉంటారో కదా! అని తలచుకొనేటప్పటికి, సంపాదకుల గుండెలు బరువెక్కాయి. ఆ స్త్రీలు వాస్తవ జీవిత ప్రతికూల పరిస్థితులతో తలపడ్డారు. వారు కొత్త కలలు కనడానికీ, కొత్త జీవిత విధానాలు కనుక్కోడానికీ, ఎన్నో కఠిన పరీక్షలకు గురయ్యారు. అవి తలచుకుంటే, ఆ సామాన్య స్త్రీల సాహసం అసామాన్యమైనదని సంపాదకులకు అనిపించింది.

ఆ స్త్రీలు చరిత్రను నిర్మించేందుకు ఎంతగానో కష్టనష్టాలకు గురై ఉంటారని సంపాదకులు అభిప్రాయపడ్డారు.

10th Class Telugu 7th Lesson మా ప్రయత్నం Important Questions and Answers

ప్రశ్న 1.
మహిళల ప్రగతిని వివరిస్తూ వ్యాసం రాయండి.
జవాబు:
ఈనాడు సమాజంలో స్త్రీలు అన్ని రంగాల్లో అగ్రగాములుగా ఉంటున్నారు. చదువుల్లో వారు సరస్వతీమూర్తులుగా మంచి ర్యాంకులు సాధిస్తున్నారు. వారు విమానాలను నడుపుతున్నారు. మిలటరీలో కూడా చేరి రాణిస్తున్నారు. శాస్త్రవేత్తలుగా ఎన్నో చక్కని పరిశోధనలు చేసి పేరు గడిస్తున్నారు. ఐ.ఎ.యస్, ఐ.పి.యస్ ఆఫీసర్లుగా పరిపాలనా రంగంలో స్త్రీలు చక్కగా రాణిస్తున్నారు.

M.L.Aలుగా, MLC లుగా, MP లుగా, ముఖ్యమంత్రులుగా, ప్రధానమంత్రులుగా, కేంద్రమంత్రులుగా స్త్రీలు చక్కగా రాణిస్తున్నారు. స్త్రీలు గొప్ప పరిపాలనాదక్షలుగా నిరూపించుకున్నారు. నిరూపించుకుంటున్నారు.

ఒకనాడు స్త్రీలు ఉన్నత విద్యారంగంలో ఉండేవారు కాదు. అటువంటిది ఈనాడు స్త్రీలకు ప్రత్యేక కళాశాలలు, విశ్వవిద్యాలయాలు వచ్చాయి. పురుషులతో సమానంగా స్త్రీలు విద్యావంతులై రాణిస్తున్నారు. స్త్రీలలో మంచి డాక్టర్లు, ఇంజనీర్లు నేడు ఉన్నారు. స్త్రీలు పంచాయతీ బోర్డు మెంబర్ల దగ్గర నుండి, దేశ ప్రధానులుగా కూడా తమ పరిపాలనా దక్షతను ప్రదర్శిస్తున్నారు. ఇందిరాగాంధీ, మార్గరెట్ థాచర్, సిరిమావో- భండారనాయకే, జయలలిత, మమత వంటి స్త్రీమణులు, మంచి పరిపాలన దక్షలుగా రాణించారు. రాణిస్తున్నారు.

స్త్రీలల్లో మంచి క్రీడాకారిణులు ఉన్నారు. ఉషా, అశ్వినీ వంటి స్త్రీలు, పరుగుపందెంలో రాణించారు. సైనా నెహ్వాల్, సెరెనా విలియమ్స్, హంపి, సానియామీర్జా వంటి క్రీడాకారిణులు వివిధమైన ఆటలలో ప్రపంచంలో మొదటివారుగా ఉన్నారు.

వ్యాపార రంగంలో ఎందరో స్త్రీలు చక్కగా రాణిస్తున్నారు. కిరణ్ బేడీ వంటి మంచి పోలీసు ఆఫీసర్లు స్త్రీలలో ఉన్నారు. ఈ విధంగా స్త్రీలు అన్ని రంగాలలో నేడు ముందంజలో ఉంటున్నారు. నేటి మహిళల ప్రగతికి, 20వ శతాబ్దంలో స్త్రీ విద్యకై పోరాడిన స్త్రీ మూర్తులే కారణం అని మనం ఎప్పుడూ మరువకూడదు.

ప్రశ్న 2.
అత్యున్నత స్థాయికి చేరిన ఒక మహిళ ఆత్మకథ రాయండి.
జవాబు:
నాకు నచ్చిన మహిళ (శ్రీమతి ఇందిరా గాంధీ) : భరతమాత ముద్దుబిడ్డలలో, ఇందిరాగాంధీ ఒకరు. ప్రపంచ ప్రఖ్యాతి పొందిన మహిళామణులలో, ఇందిర సుప్రసిద్ధురాలు. ఈమె 1917వ సంవత్సరము నవంబరు 19వ తేదీన అలహాబాదులో జవహర్లాల్ నెహ్రూ – కమలా నెహ్రూ దంపతులకు జన్మించింది.

ఇందిర శాంతినికేతన్లో రవీంద్రుని వద్ద చదివింది. ఈమె గొప్ప దేశ భక్తురాలు. ఈమె భర్త ఫిరోజ్ గాంధీ, మహమ్మదీయుడు. ఆ వివాహం ఈమెకు మత సహనాన్ని నేర్పింది. ఈమె తండ్రితో పాటు దేశ విదేశాలు పర్యటించి, రాజనీతి చతురజ్ఞ అయ్యింది.

ఈమె భారతదేశ ప్రధానమంత్రిగా 15 సంవత్సరాలు పనిచేసింది. ఆ కాలంలో ఈమె బ్యాంకులను జాతీయం చేసింది. రాజభరణాలను రద్దు చేసింది. భూ సంస్కరణలను చేపట్టింది. ‘గరీబీ హఠావో’ అని ఈమె ఇచ్చిన నినాదం భారతదేశం అంతటా మారుమ్రోగింది.

ఈమె బడుగువర్గాల ఆశాజ్యోతిగా, దళిత వర్గాల కన్నతల్లిగా పేరు తెచ్చుకొంది. ఈమె గొప్ప సాహసురాలు. గొప్ప రాజనీతిజ్ఞురాలు.

ప్రశ్న 3.
మహిళల పట్ల చూపుతున్న వివక్షను, వారిపై జరుగుతున్న దాడులనూ ఖండిస్తూ నినాదాలు రాయండి.
జవాబు:

1. ఆడపిల్ల ఇంటికి మహాలక్ష్మి – ఆమెను పువ్వుల్లా చూడండి.
2. స్త్రీ, పురుషులు ఇద్దరూ సమానమే – స్త్రీలపట్ల వివక్ష విడవండి.
3. స్త్రీలు నీకు కన్నతల్లులు, సోదరీమణులు – స్త్రీలను నీవు గౌరవించు.
4. స్త్రీలను అవమానించావా! నిర్భయ చట్టానికి లొంగుతావు జాగ్రత్త.
5. ఆడపిల్లల జోలికి వస్తే – అడుగంటిపోతావు జాగ్రత్త.
6. మహిళలు లక్ష్మీ స్వరూపిణులు, సరస్వతీ స్వరూపిణులు. వారిని గౌరవించండి.
7. పార్లమెంటులో స్త్రీలకు రిజర్వేషన్లు కల్పించండి – స్త్రీ పురుష సమానత్వాన్ని గౌరవించండి.
8. స్త్రీలపై దాడిచేస్తే – మాడు పగులుగొడతారు జాగ్రత్త.
9. ఆడా మగా తేడావద్దు – స్త్రీ పురుష భేదం నేటితో రద్దు.
10. భ్రూణహత్యలను నివారించండి – మహిళామణులను ఆదరించండి.

ప్రశ్న 4.
మహిళలను గౌరవించవలసిన ఆవశ్యకతను గురించి వివరిస్తూ, మీ మిత్రునికి లేఖ వ్రాయండి.
జవాబు:

లేఖ, ఒంగోలు, x x x x x. ప్రియమైన స్నేహితుడు శంకరు, నీ స్నేహితుడు రాజేష్ వ్రాయు లేఖ. నేను క్షేమంగానే ఉన్నాను. అక్కడ మన మిత్రులంతా క్షేమంగా ఉన్నట్లు తలచెదను. స్త్రీలను గౌరవించడం మన భారతీయ ధర్మం కదా ! మొన్న ఒక రోడ్ సైడు రోమియో ఒక అమ్మాయిని ఏడిపిస్తుంటే చూశాను. స్త్రీలు ఆనందించిన చోట దేవతలు ఉంటారు. సిరిసంపదలు వృద్ధి చెందుతాయి. మన అమ్మ, అక్క, చెల్లి, ఉపాధ్యాయురాలు కూడా స్త్రీయే, స్త్రీలను గౌరవించలేని సమాజం అనాగరిక సమాజం. అందుకే స్త్రీలను గౌరవించాలి. స్త్రీలను హేళన చేయడం, దూషించడం తప్పు. నా ఎదురుగా ఇటువంటి పనులు చేస్తే పోలీసు కంప్లైంటు ఇస్తాను అని చెప్పాను. దానితో వాడు పరారైపోయాడు. ఈ ఉంటాను మరి. మీ అమ్మగారికి, నాన్నగారికి నా నమస్కారాలని చెప్పు. మన స్నేహితులందరినీ అడిగినట్లు చెప్పు. ఇట్లు, కె. రాజేష్. చిరునామా : జి. శంకర్, 10వ తరగతి, బాలుర ఉన్నత పాఠశాల, నరసరావుపేట, గుంటూరు జిల్లా.

10th Class Telugu 7th Lesson మా ప్రయత్నం 1 Mark Bits

1. దీపావళి పండుగరోజు ఆబాలగోపాలం ఆనందిస్తారు – గీత గీసిన పదం ఏ సమాసం? (June 2017)
A) బహుజొహి
B) అవ్యయీభావం
C) తత్పురుషం
D) కర్మధారయం
జవాబు:
B) అవ్యయీభావం

2. అవ్యయీభావ సమాసానికి ఉదాహరణను గుర్తించుము. (March 2017)
A) సేవావృత్తి
B) మృదుమధురం
C) అనుకూలం
D) పదాబ్దములు
జవాబు:
C) అనుకూలం

3. ప్రతిదినము పాఠశాల అసెంబ్లి సమయంలోపే పాఠశాలకు రావాలి – గీత గీసిన పదం సమాసం పేరు గుర్తించండి. (June 2018)
A) అవ్యయీభావ సమాసం
B) రూపక సమాసం
C) షష్టీతత్పురుష సమాసం
D) ద్వంద్వ సమాసం
జవాబు:
A) అవ్యయీభావ సమాసం

4. క్రింది వానిలో సంభావన పూర్వపద కర్మధారయ సమాసానికి సరియైన ఉదాహరణ గుర్తించండి. (June 2018)
A) రామబాణం
B) గంగానది
C) మూడు రోజులు
D) తల్లిదండ్రులు
జవాబు:
B) గంగానది

5. విద్యార్థులు ప్రతిదినము పాఠాలను చదవాలి. (సమాసం గుర్తించండి) (S.A. I – 2018-19)
A) అవ్యయీభావ సమాసం
B) ద్విగు సమాసం
C) ద్వంద్వ సమాసం
D) షష్ఠీ తత్పురుష
జవాబు:
A) అవ్యయీభావ సమాసం

6. ఆహా ! ఎంత బాగుందీ ! (ఏ వాక్యమో గుర్తించండి.) (June 2017)
A) ఆశ్చర్యార్థకం
B) విధ్యర్థకం
C) ప్రేరణార్థకం
D) సందేహార్ధకం
జవాబు:
A) ఆశ్చర్యార్థకం

7. రమేష్ బడికి వస్తాడో, రాడో. (ఏ వాక్యమో గుర్తించండి.) (June 2017)
A) ప్రార్థనార్థకం
B) సందేహార్థకం
C) ప్రశ్నార్థకం
D) నిషేధార్థకం
జవాబు:
B) సందేహార్థకం

8. ప్రతి పనికి లాభం ఉంటుంది – దీనికి వ్యతిరేకార్థక వాక్యాన్ని గుర్తించండి. (March 2017)
A) ప్రతి పనికి లాభం ఉంటుందా?
B) ప్రతి పనిలో లాభం ఉంటుంది.
C) ప్రతి పనికి లాభం ఉండే ఉంటుంది.
D) ప్రతి పనికి లాభం ఉండదు.
జవాబు:
D) ప్రతి పనికి లాభం ఉండదు.

9. సోముడు అడవికి వెళ్ళి, కట్టెలు తెచ్చాడు – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యమో గుర్తించండి. (March 2017)
A) సంయుక్తం
B) సంక్లిష్టం
C) ప్రశ్నార్థకం
D) ఆశ్చర్యార్థకం
జవాబు:
B) సంక్లిష్టం

10. ‘ఆకాశం నీలంగా ఉంటుంది’ – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యమో గుర్తించండి. (March 2017)
A) సంక్లిష్టం
B) చేదర్థకం
C) సామాన్యం
D) సందేహార్థకం
జవాబు:
C) సామాన్యం

11. “నీవు శాస్త్రవేత్తవు కాగలవు” – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యమో గుర్తించండి. (March 2017)
A) సామర్థ్యార్థకం
B) సందేహార్థకం
C) సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం
D) సంయుక్త వాక్యం
జవాబు:
A) సామర్థ్యార్థకం

12. ‘ఆహా’ ఎంత రుచిగా ఉందో ! – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యమో గుర్తించండి. (March 2017)
A) చేదర్థకం
B) సందేహార్థకం
C) ఆశ్చర్యార్థకం
D) అప్యర్థకం
జవాబు:
C) ఆశ్చర్యార్థకం

13. ‘వాహనాన్ని వేగంగా నడుపవద్దు’ – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యమో గుర్తించండి. (March 2017)
A) నిషేధాకం
B) ఆశ్చర్యార్థకం
C) ప్రశ్నార్థకం
D) సందేహార్థకం
జవాబు:
A) నిషేధాకం

14. “మీరంతా పాఠం చదవండి” – ఏ రకమైన వాక్యమో గుర్తించండి. (March 2017)
A) చేదర్థకం
B) ప్రశ్నార్థకం
C) సందేహార్థకం
D) విధ్యర్థకం
జవాబు:
D) విధ్యర్థకం

15. ‘తిండి కలిగితే కండ గలదు’ – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యమో గుర్తించండి. (March 2017)
A) విధ్యర్థకం
B) చేదర్థకం
C) అభ్యర్థకం
D) అనుమత్యర్ధకం
జవాబు:
B) చేదర్థకం

16. ప్రతివాళ్ళు ప్రశ్నించారు చరిత్ర సాగిన క్రమాన్ని – కర్మణి వాక్యం గుర్తించండి. (June 2018)
A) చరిత్ర సాగిన క్రమాన్ని ఎందుకు ప్రశ్నించాలి.
B) ప్రతి ఒక్కడు ప్రశ్నించకూడదు చరిత్ర సాగిన క్రమాన్ని.
C) చరిత్ర సాగిన క్రమం ప్రతి వాళ్ళచేత ప్రశ్నించబడింది.
D) ఎవరూ ప్రశ్నించలేదు చరిత్ర సాగిన క్రమాన్ని.
జవాబు:
C) చరిత్ర సాగిన క్రమం ప్రతి వాళ్ళచేత ప్రశ్నించబడింది.

17. విమల టి.వి. చూస్తూ నృత్యం చేస్తున్నది – ఏ రకమైన వాక్యమో గుర్తించండి. (June 2018)
A) అప్యర్థక వాక్యం
B) సంయుక్త వాక్యం
C) చేదర్థక వాక్యం
D) శత్రర్థక వాక్యం
జవాబు:
D) శత్రర్థక వాక్యం

18. రవి లెక్కలు బాగా చేయగలడు – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యమో గుర్తించండి. (June 2018)
A) సామర్థ్యార్థకం
B) సంభావనార్థకం
C) ఆశ్చర్యార్థకం
D) ఆశీరర్థకం
జవాబు:
A) సామర్థ్యార్థకం

19. నేను తప్పక వస్తాను – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యమో గుర్తించండి. (June 2018)
A) అనుమత్యకం
B) విధ్యర్థకం
C) నిశ్చయార్థక వాక్యం
D) నిషేధకం
జవాబు:
C) నిశ్చయార్థక వాక్యం

20. సీత ఆటలు ఆడి అన్నం తిన్నది – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యమో గుర్తించండి.
A) అభ్యర్థకము
B) విధ్యర్థకము
C) చేదర్థకము
D) క్వార్థకము
జవాబు:
D) క్వార్థకము

21. భారతదేశంలో వస్తువుల ఉత్పత్తి పెరిగినా ధరలు తగ్గలేదు – ఇది ఏ రకమైన వాక్యమో గుర్తించండి. (June 2018)
A) అష్యకము
B) విధ్యర్థకము
C) క్వార్ధకము
D) చేదర్థకము
జవాబు:
A) అష్యకము

22. తామంతా కుటుంబ స్త్రీలం కామా ? అని శ్యామలగారన్నారు. (ప్రత్యక్ష కథనం గుర్తించండి)
A) “మేమంతా కుటుంబ స్త్రీలం కామా?” అని శ్యామల గారన్నారు.
B) “మనమంతా కుటుంబ స్త్రీలం కామా?” అని శ్యామల గారన్నారు.
C) “తామంతా కుటుంబ స్త్రీలం కామా?”, అని శ్యామల గారన్నారు.
D) “మీరు, మేము అంతా కుటుంబ స్త్రీలంకామా”, అని శ్యామల గారన్నారు.
జవాబు:
A) “మేమంతా కుటుంబ స్త్రీలం కామా?” అని శ్యామల గారన్నారు.

23. మా కంటె సీరియస్ గా ఆలోచించి, ప్రశ్నించి, సలహాలిచ్చారు. ఇది ఏ వాక్యమో గుర్తించండి) (S.A.I – 2018-19)
A) సంయుక్త వాక్యం
B) సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం
C) సామర్థ్యార్థక వాక్యం
D) ప్రార్థనార్థక వాక్యం
జవాబు:
B) సంక్లిష్ట వాక్యం

24. కాలధర్మం చెందుట : పుట్టిన జీవికి కాలధర్మం చెందుట తప్పదు. (June 17, Mar 18)

25. గుండెలు బరువెక్కడం : “మిక్కిలి బాధపడటం” అనే సందర్భంలో ఈ జాతీయాన్ని వాడుతారు. (March 17, 18, S.A.I – 2018-19)

26. కనువిప్పు : గురువులు చెప్పిన మాటలతో అజ్ఞానము తొలగి నాకు కనువిప్పు కలిగింది. (March 2017 S.A. I – 2018-19)

These AP 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social 18th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Impact of Colonialism in India

9th Class Social 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What was the call given by Komaram Bheem to Adivasies? (SA-III : 2016-17)
Answer:
Adivasis were inspired by the message Jal, Jangal, Jameen of Komaram Bheem.

9th Class Social 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Mention any two reasons for deforestation during the British rule. (SA-II : 2018-19)
Answer:
The following reasons were responsible for deforestation during British rule.

1. Large cities like Kolkata and Mumbai were coming up.
2. The government was laying thousands of kms of railway lines across the country.
3. Huge ships were also being built and mines were being opened.
4. Wood is need for railway sleepers.

9th Class Social 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Once they began work on the machines there was no question of stopping. There was no fixed break even for meals. Taking out 15 – 20 minutes from their work, and asking a fellow labourers to look after their work, the labourers would eat their food. There was no separate place to eat either.
The whole day would pass in the heat, humidity, noise, dust and suffocation of the mill. Only when the sunset and it became impossible to see in the dark, the machines would stop and work would end.
Q. Comment on the working conditions of workers in factories in early industralisation. (SA-III : 2016-17)
Answer:

• The working conditions were terrible.
• People worked 14 to 16 hrs a day.
• Majority were unskilled workers, only receive very low wages.
• Factories were not the best places to work.
• Machines spit out smoke and in some factories, workers come out covered in black soot by the end of the day.
• Children were paid less.
• The workers were given only a break for lunch and dinner.
• Many children had physical deformities because of the lack of exercise and sunlight.

9th Class Social 18th Lesson Impact of Colonialism in India Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Read the following information and answer the questions given below.

The government implemented the first Factory Act in 1881 and made the following rules especially for the welfare of working children: Children below the age of 7 cannot be employed in factories. Children between 7 and 12 years of age cannot be made to work more than 9 hours a day and they must be given a one-hour break each day. They must also be given 4 days leave each month. In 1891, laws were made in the interest of women labourers to ensure that: Women labourers cannot be made to work more than 11 hours a day. Women labourers must be given an hour and half break each day. Children’s working hours were reduced from 9 to 7 hours/day and factory employers were forbidden to employ children below 9 years of age. The largest number of labourers in industries was that of men. In wasn’t until 1911 that laws for their welfare were made. According to the Factory Act of 1911: Adult male labourers could not be made to work for more than 12 hours every day. After every six hours of work there would be a break for half an hour.

a) When was the first factory act passed and what did it specify?
Answer:

• The first factory act was passed in 1881.
• It specified that children below 7 years cannot be employed in factories and the children cannot work more than 9 hours.

b) When were the interests of women ensured?
Answer:
In 1891, laws were made in the interest of women labourers.
The women labours working hours were limited to 11 hours.

c) Who were the largest number of labourers in industries?
Answer:
The men were the largest number of labourers in the industries.

d) How many factory acts were passed ? And when were they passed?
Answer:
Three acts were passed :

1. In 1881
2. In 1891 and
3. In 1911.

Question 2.
Read the following passage and answer the questions given below.
’ During strikes labourers formed their own organisations with the help of some educated people. These were labour unions, formed to conduct the strikes and negotiate settlements with the mill owners. Slowly, the trade unions became active not just during the strikes but all around the year, promoting the workers’ welfare and rights. Such unions began to be established from the early 1920’s. People influenced by socialist thought were prominent among them. One such union formed was Girni Kamgar Union with the help of which workers in Mumbai went on a very effective strike in 1928. In Ahmedabad, under the influence of Gandhiji, a powerful union known as the Mazdoor Mahajan was formed.
a) Why were the labour unions formed?
Answer:
Labour unions were formed to conduct the strikes and negotiate settlements with the mill owners.

b) Who helped the labourers to form unions?
Answer:
Educated people helped them.

Question 3.
Observe the following table and answer the questions given below.

Year	Event
1879	8000 kilometers of railway lines
1864	A forest department was set up.
1856	The Santhal adivasis revolt
1880	The Koya adivasis revolt.
1910	The Maria and Muria adivasis revolt
1940	The Gond and Kolam adivasis revolt
1914-18	1st World War
1919	Strike of all the mills of Mumbai

a) What was the importance of 1919?
Answer:
All the mills of Mumbai were kept closed for 12 days due to the strike of workers.

b) When did the adivasis of the Maria and Muria revolt?
Answer:
The Maria and Muria adivasis revolted against the forest department in 1910.

c) When did the Santhais revolt?
Answer:
The Santhais revolted in 1856.

d) Who revolted in 1940?
Answer:
The Gond and Kolam revolted in 1940.

e) When did the 1st World War occur?
Answer:
Between 1914-18, the 1st World War occurred.

Question 4.
Find out where each of these adivasi struggles took place, and mark their locations on a map of India.
Answer:
Adivasi struggles took place in the following locations.

1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Chattisgarh
3. A.P
4. Odisha
5. Jarkhand
6. Uttarakhand

These AP 9th Class Social Studies Important Questions 6th Lesson Agriculture in India will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Social 6th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Agriculture in India

9th Class Social 6th Lesson Agriculture in India 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Expand MSP. (SA-II : 2016-17)
Answer:
Minimum Support Price

Question 2.
Draw sketch map of India and identify paddy cultivating state. (SA-II : 2016-17)
Asnwer:

Question 3.
Why is a MSP needed? (SA-II : 2017-18)
Answer:
The government sets the MSP so as to cover the cost of cultivation and allow a little bit of profit to the farmer.

Question 4.

Study the map and answer the following question. (SA-I : 2018-19)
What is major crop in the shaded areas of the map?
Answer:
Paddy.

Question 5.
Name any two cropping seasons in India? (SA-I : 2018-19)
Answer:
Kharif, Rabi, Zaid are the three cropping seasons.

9th Class Social 6th Lesson Agriculture in India 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
At present we are using under ground water heavily and they reached an endangered stage, indicate measures to restore the ground water. (SA-III : 2015-16)
Answer:
The following steps are the measures to restore ground water.

• Vegetation like trees and grasses and bonds are used to enhance ground water.
• We follow watershed development projects.
• Rainwater harvesting should be practiced.
• Reduce the wastage of water.

Question 2.
Observe the Bar graphs and write your observations. (SA-II : 2016-17)

Answer:

• Above Bar graph tells us how many cultivators and how many agricultural labourers are there in India.
• Years are passing away gradually percentage of cultivators is decreasing and the persons, who are agricultural labourers are increasing

Question 3.
Show the below information on a bar graph and based on this, write your observation. (SA-III : 2016-17)

Year	Production of food grains in million tones
1980-81	130
1990-91	176
2000-01	197
2010-11	242

Answer:

The above graph explains production of food grains is gradually increased from 1980-81 to 2010-11. The main reason is we are following green revolution methods in our agricultural iands.

Question 4.
Today food materials constitute only about three percent of Indian Imports. Explain the role of Green Revolution that lies behind this achievement. (SA-III : 2016-17)
Answer:
The production of food grains has increased five times over last five decades from 51 to 242 million tonnes.

The green revolution helped farmers to produce higher level of foodgrains and non- foodgrains on the same plot of land they had. There was no major increase in the land used for cultivation.

In 1960s a farmer was able to produce on an average only 287 kilograms of foodgrains be it paddy or wheat on one acre of cultivable land. Today the same farmer is able to produce nearly 800 kilograms of foodgrains per acre of cultivable land.

Importance of Green Revolution :

1. Using of highyielding varieties of seeds.
2. Using of pesticides and insecticides.
3. Providing better water management resources.

Question 5.
Write the names of cropping seasons in India and write the tenure of season. (SA-II : 2017-18)
There are three cropping seasons.

Crop	Tenure
1. Kharif	Mid June to October
2. Rabi	November to March
3. Zaid	April, May, Mid June

9th Class Social 6th Lesson Agriculture in India 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
“The green revolution has resulted in a loss of soil fertility and ever increasing costs to farmers”. Do you agree with this statement? Explain. (SA-I : 2018-19)
(OR)
“The green revolution has actually resulted in a loss of soil fertility and ever increasing cost to the farmers’ (SA-II : 2018-19)
Do you agree with the above statement? Provides reasons to support your answer.
Answer:
Yes, I agree with the above statement by following reasons.

1. In Green Revolution, the farmers are encouraged to pump ground water to water intensive crops in low rainfall areas.
2. This unsustainable pumping has reduced water storage in ground.
3. Consequently, many wells and tube wells have run dry.
4. More over the use of chemical fertilizers has also affected the long term fertility of the soil. Due to this cost of production is increasing to farmers.
5. Hence we can say that Green Revolution has short-term gains and long term losses.
6. Production of food grains (in million tonnes)

Question 2.

Observe the above graph and answer the following questions.
1. What does the graph given above denotes? (SA-III : 2015-16)
Answer:
The above graph explains the production of foodgrains from 1950-51 to 2010-11 years.

2. When compared to 1970-71, how many million tonnes of food grains are produced more in 2010-11? (SA-III : 2015-16)
Answer:
Compare with 1970-71 to 2010-11 the food grain production is increased from 108 million tonnes to 242 million tonnes, it means ⇔ 134 million tonnes production is more.

3. In which decade was the production of food grains more? (SA-III : 2015-16)
Answer:
From 1981 to 1990 in the middle of the years means, in this decade the production of food grains is more.

4. What are the reasons for the increase in production of food grains? (SA-III : 2015-16)
Answer:
The main reason is use of Green Revolution methods.

5. What is the overall trend of food grain production depicted in the graph? (SA-I : 2019-20)
Answer:
Food grain production is increasing.

6. What could be the possible reason for this trend? (SA-I : 2019-20)
Answer:
Because of Green Revolution.

Question 3.
“Conserving rainfall that the area receives is the first step. There are several ways that people can stop rainwater from quickly running off so that it can soak into the ground, and recharge the groundwater”.
Q : Comment on watershed development programms being implemented in dry land area. (SA-II : 2016-17)
Answer:
Unlike the cultivation of HYVs in irrigated lands, dryland farming possess different challenges.

1. Conserving rainfall that the area receives is the first step.
2. There are several ways that people can stop rain water from quickly running off, so that it can soak into the ground, and recharge the ground water.

This is done through Watershed Development Programmes which include afforestation, bunding, building check dams and tanks.

Not send any chemical waste into underground.

Try to reduce the wastage of daily use water.

Create awareness among the all people about the importance of underground water and its recharge.

Question 4.
Food security of a nation depends on agricultural sector. Explain about agricultural sector in India. (SA-III : 2016-17)
Answer:
The food security of a nation depends on agriculture and this sector ensures food security to the nation.

Importance of agriculture :

• A variety of raw materials required for industries are cultivated on farms.
• Agriculture is a major source of livelihood for millions – giving employment to a large section of people.
• More than half the proportion of workers in India is working in agriculture and its related activities.
• 70% of working women are engaged in agriculture.
• Due to green revolution, India became self sufficient in food grains.
• Due to rise in food grains production, it was no longer necessary to import food grains from other countries.

Question 5.
Study the graph and answer the questions given below. (SA-II : 2018-19)

1. What is the difference between agriculture labourers and cultivators?
2. In 1971, what was the percentage of cultivators?
3. Suggest other alternative job opportunities for landless agriculture labourers,
4. In which year the highest percentage of cultivators was recorded?
Answer:
1. Cultivator means:
Cultivators are those who have, some land and also use land belongs to other for cultivation.

Agricultural labourers :
Agriculture labourers are those who are landless labourers who work on other lands.

2. 62%

3. Other alternative works.

1. rearing of animals
2. selling of vegetables
3. work in brick kiln.

4. 1961

Question 6.
What suggestions do you recommend to solve the problems associated with current Indian agriculture sector? (SA-I : 2018-19)
Answer:
Suggestions :
1. Better irrigation facilities :
Indian agriculture is mainly dependent on monsoon. So permanent means of irrigation should be developed.
Ex: Tube wells & Canals.

2. Supply of Quality seeds :

1. Quality seeds should be sold through co-operative societies or village panchayats.
2. Marginal farmers should be given seeds on loan.

3. Green Manure :
Farmers should be educated for firing green manure. Oil cakes may be used as fertilizers.

4. Credit Facilitied :

1. Farmers should be advanced loans at reasonable rates of interest.
2. Regional Rural Banks should be opened.

5. Agricultural Marketing:
Agricultural marketing should be improved so that the farmer gets proper price for their produce ware housing facilities should be improved. Means of transport should be strengthened.

6. Time to time weather reports telecast by govt through media.

Question 7.
Observe the table and answer the questions given below. (SA-I : 2018-19)
Number of farmers and land they possess in India (2010 – 2011)

1. Who are considered as large farmers as per the above table?
2. Which type of farmers are high in number?
3. How many total acres of land do the farmers cultivate in India?
4. How much of land on an average does each marginal farmer cultivate?
Answer:

1. The farmers who have more than 25 acres of land and they cultivated that land are called as large farmers.
2. Number of marginal farmers are more.
3. 3932 lakhs acres of land cultivated by Indian farmers.
4. 0.95 acres of land is cultivated by marginal farmers.

Question 8.
Write some methods through which the problem of falling ground water levels can be salved. (SA-I : 2019-20)
Answer:
The problem of falling ground water levels can be solved through these methods.

1. Construction of check dams.
2. By Maintaining small percolation tanks in fields.
3. Soaking pits.
4. By providing bunds and catch drains.
5. Plantation of trees in open fields.
6. Encouragement to grow forests.
7. Should ban felling trees.
8. Recycle and reuse of ground water.

9th Class Social 6th Lesson Agriculture in India Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Name one staple crop of India and the regions where it is produced.
Answer:
Rice:

1. Rice is the staple food crop of a majority of the people in India.
2. India is the second largest producer of rice in the world.
3. Rice is grown in the plains of north and north-eastern India, coastal areas and the deltaic regions.
4. Canal irrigation and tubewells have made it possible to grow rice in areas of less rainfall such as Punjab, Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh and parts of Rajasthan.

Question 2.
How many cropping seasons are there? What are they?
Answer:
India has three cropping seasons. They are –

1. Rabi
2. Kharif
3. Zaid

Question 3.
Name some important crops of India, states which produce them and reasons both and natural and other factors contributed to their growth.
Answer:

Question 4.
What is the fertility of the soil?
Answer:

• The soil is said to be fertile if it has the right amounts of mineral particles as well as organic components.
• Then only the soil can provide the roots of plants with right amounts of water, minerals and air.

Question 5.
How is organic farming different from traditional farming?
Answer:

• We use organic material in organic farming whereas we use natural manure in traditional farming.
• We use HYV seeds and key elements of new agricultural technologies in organic farming.
• Organic farming gives high productivity in short duration whereas in traditional farming we experience less productivity and long duration of crop.

Question 6.
Why is agriculture important to Indian economy?
Answer:

• The food security of a nation depends on agriculture.
• A variety of raw materials required for industries are cultivated on farms.
• Agriculture is a major source of livelihood for millions of people in our country.
• More than half the proportion of workers in India is working in agriculture and its related activities.
• Nearly 70% of the working women are engaged in agriculture.

Hence agriculture is important to Indian economy.

Question 7.
How many kinds of people are engaged in agriculture? Name them.
Answer:
Two kinds of people are engaged in farming. They are :

1. Agricultural labourers
2. Cultivators.

Question 8.
Distinguish between cultivators and agricultural labourers.
Answer:

Cultivators	Agricultural labourers
1. Cultivators are those who have some land and also use land belongs to others for cultivation.	1. Agriculture labourers are those who are landless labourers who work on others’ lands.
2. Cultivators are self employed.	2. Whereas agricultural labourers have to depended on working on others’ fields for livelihood.

Question 9.
How many varieties of crops are grown in India? What are they?
Answer:
A variety of crops are cultivated by farmers in India. They are broadly categorised into two :

1. Food crops
2. Non-food crops.

Question 10.
Give examples of food grains and non-food grains.
Answer:

• Food grains include cereals such as rice, wheat, jowar, bajra, maize, ragi, barley, and small millets and pulses-gram, red gram, and other pulses.
• Non-food grains include oilseeds such as groundnut, sesame, rapeseed and mustard, linseed, castor seed, and sunflower, etc.

Question 11.
What is Green Revolution? What are the effects of Green Revolution?
Answer:

• The policy introduced by Government with regard to the agricultural sector is known as Green Revolutin.
• It refers to the specific plant improvement notably to the development of high yielding varieties for the increase of crop production.

Effects of Green Revolution:

1. The spread of HYVs to large parts of the country has led to a significant increase in crop production in the country.
2. So, it was no longer necessary to import food grains from other countries.
3. The procurement of food grains by FCI could be used in case of shortage and can avoid drought or famine like situations and also used to supply food grains to inaccessible areas.
4. In 1960, a farmer was able to produce on an average of 287 kgs of foodgrains, today the same farmer is able to produce nearly 800 kgs of food grains per acre.
5. The Green Revolution has brought in several environmental imbalances.

Question 12.
Name some of the states of India where “slash and burning” farming is practised.
Answer:
Punjab, Haryana, Odisha, Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, and some parts of Rajasthan.

Question 13.
What is the fertility of the soil?
Answer:

1. The soil is said to be fertile if it has the right amounts of mineral particles as well as organic components.
2. Then only the soil can provide the roots of plants with right amounts of water, minerals, and air.

Question 14.
How many kinds of people are engaged in agriculture? Name them.
Answer:
Two kinds of people are engaged in farming. They are :

1. Agricultural labourers
2. Cultivators.

Question 15.
What is Green Revolution?
Answer:
The policy introduced by Government with regard to the agricultural sector is known as Green Revolution.

Question 16.
Compare and contrast simple subsistence farming and intensive subsistence farming.
Answer:

Simple subsistence farming	Intensive Substitence farming
1. Agriculture is practiced in small patches of land.	1. Practised in the areas of high population density.
2. Primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks are used.	2. No primitive tools are used but mechanised tools.
3. Family or community labour is the source of labour.	3. It is labour intensive farming.
4. Natural fertility of the soil, monsoon etc. are important.	4. High doses of biochemical inputs are used.
5. It is a ‘slash and burn1 agriculture.	5. Irrigation is used to obtain higher production.

Question 17.
What do you know about Zaid cropping season?
Answer:

• In between the Rabi and Kharif seasons there is a short season.
• It includes summer months and is known as Zaid season.
• Crops grown during this season are like watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops.

Question 18.
Read the following and answer the questions given below.

Why does Government buys and stores some grain? A lot of grain comes into the market at harvest time. One problem farmers faced was the low price of grain during this time. This means farmers were not able to sell grain at a high enough price to be able to repay their loans and continue using the new farming methods. They need to be protected from traders who might try to purchase the grains at low prices. Therefore, the government decided to set a Minimum Support Price (MSP). A Mini¬mum Support Price is a price at which the farmers can sell their grain, if they want, to the government. The government sets the MSP so as to cover the cost of cultivation and allow a little bit of profit to the farmer. Because of the MSP, farmers are not forced to sell their grains at cheaper prices to the traders. The Food Corporation of India (FCI) was formed by the government to purchase food grains from the farmers and store them. It keeps stockpiles and supplies grain to ration shops and other government schemes (e.g. for midday meals in schools).

1. What problem do farmers face during harvest season?
Answer:
The farmers face the problem of the low price of grain during harvest season.

2. How can the farmers be protected from the low prices of grains?
Answer:
The government protects the farmers by setting a Minimum Support Price (MSP).

3. What is Minimum Support Price?
Answer:
The MSP is a price at which the farmers can sell their grain, if they want, to the government.

4. How does the MSP protect the farmer?
Answer:
The government sets the MSP so as to cover the cost of cultivation and allow a little bit of profit to the farmer.

5. What is the organization that purchases food grains from the farmers?
Answer:
The Food Corporation India purchases food grains from the farmers.

Question 19.
Observe the following information and answer the questions given below.

Cropping seasons	Period	Crops grown
Kharif	They are grown with the onset of monsoons, harvested in September to October.	Paddy, maize, jower, bajra, red gram, green gram, black gram, cotton, jute, groundnut, etc.
Rabi	They are sown in winter from October – December and harvested in summer.	Wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard.
Zaid	In between Rabi and Kharif there is a short period during summer months known as the zaid season.	Watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops.

1. How many cropping seasons are there?
Answer:
There are three cropping seasons.

2. Name different cropping seasons.
Answer:
Kharif, Rabi and Zaid are different cropping seasons.

3. When do we have Rabi season?
Answer:
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December and harvested in summer.

4. Name the crops that are grown in Kharif season.
Answer:
Paddy, maize, jower, bajra, red gram, cotton, jute, groundnut etc., are grown in Kharif season.

5. Name the crops that are grown in Zaid season.
Answer:
Watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables are grown in Zaid season.

Question 20.
Complete the data in the table:
Number of farmers and land they possess in India (2010-2011)

A) Percentage of different category of farmers :
1. How much percentage of Marginal farmers are there.
Answer:
67 %

2. How much percentage of small farmers are there?
Answwr:
18 %

3. How much percentage of large farmers are there?
Answer:
0.7 %

B) How much land they operate with?
1) Marginal farmers hold _________ of land.
2) Small farmers hold _________ of land.
3) Semi-medium farmers hold _________ of land.
4) Medium farmers hold _________ of land.
5) Large farmers hold _________ of land.
Answer:

1. 22%
2. 22%
3. 24%
4. 21%
5. 11%

C) Average amount of land operated by farmers :
1) Average amount of land possessed by marginal farmers is _________ acres.
2) Small farmers hold _________ acres of land.
3) Average amount of land possessed by large farmers is _________ acres.
4) Average land holding in India is _________ acres.
Answer:

1. 0.94
2. 3.51
3. 42.9
4. 13.65

Question 21.
What are the long run uses of chemical fertilizers and pesticides?
Answer:

• The chemical fertilizers are basically made from petro chemicals and therefore derived from petroleum.
• These fertilizers remain in the soil and also mix with water.
• This results in the contamination of soil and water.
• As a result many micro organisms like earthworms are destroyed. This in turn affects the long term fertility of the soil.

Question 22.
In which areas were the new methods of agriculture first tried?
Answer:
The new methods were initially implemented in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh, and in some districts of Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Tamilnadu.

Question 23.
How were farmers able to raise higher amount of food grains on the same plot of land over the years?
Answer:
The use of High Yielding Varieties of seeds, chemical fertilizers, machinery, etc. made the farmers to raise higher amount of food grains on the same plot of land over the years.

Question 24.
Why did the Indian government not allow farmers to export foodgrains during the Green Revolution?
Answer:
There would be a shortage of food grains if the government allows farmers to export food grains. So the government did not allow farmers to export food grains.

Question 25.
How did the partition of the country in 1947 affect the jute industry?
Answer:
We have lost the major jute growing areas during partition. Hence the jute industry was badly affected.

Question 26.
In your opinion what would be the minimum amount of land required to do viable farming?
Answer:
The minimum amount of land required to do viable farming maybe 2 acres for viable farming.

Question 27.
Why do only a small section of farmers have a powerful voice?
Answer:
Percentage of large and medium farmers is 5% but they hold 32% of total cultivable land. Their average landholding is also high. Hence they have a powerful voice.

Question 28.
Assess the role of monsoons in Indian agriculture nowadays?
Answer:

• Indian agriculture has always been dependent on monsoons.
• Arrival and impact of monsoon decides the fate of agriculture.
• It is both uncertain and irregular.
• The large scale irrigation serves only one third of crop area.
• The remaining has to suffer the vagaries of the monsoon.
• Thus one can term Indian agriculture as ‘a gamble with monsoons.’

Question 29.
How can you say that now India is practising subsistence farming?
Answer:

• India is a densely populated country.
• Farmers here are force to use small land holdings.
• Most farmers produce enough for their own consumption.
• They try to obtain maximum yield from available lands.
• They are artificial irrigation and manure etc.
• This type of farming is known as intensive subsistence farming.
• Thus we can say India is practising subsistence farming.

Question 30.
Do you feel that the farmers who cultivate are happy? If not, what are the reasons? What are the factors that affect agriculture?
Answer:
I feel that the farmers who cultivate are not happy.
Reasons:

1. They are not able to earn according to their labour.
2. They lost their confidence.
3. Nature is also not co-operating with them.

Factors that affect agriculture :

1. Low fertile soils
2. Improper usage of pesticides
3. Small land holdings
4. Unpredictable monsoons
5. Outdated agricultural methods
6. Improper market facilities, etc.

Question 31.
Locate the following on India Map.
Paddy, wheat and maize growing areas.

Answer:
Paddy – West Bengal, Odisha, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and coastal areas.
Wheat – Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh
Maize – Karnataka, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra and Bihar.

Question 32.
Locate the following on India map.
Pulses, sugarcane, cotton growing areas.

Answer:
Pulses – Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
Cotton – Gujarat, Maharashtra.
Sugarcane – Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Tamilnadu.

Question 32.
Locate the following rivers on the outline map of India.
1) Narmada
2) Tapati
3) Godavari
4) Krishna
5) Cauvery
6) Mahanadi
7) Indus
8) Ganga
Answer:

Question 33.
State your opinion on the new agricultural technologies such as Green Revolution.
Answer:

• Yes, we agree that government has taken initiative in increasing the production of different crops.
• But introduction of HYVs has created some economical imbalances.
• They need plenty of water which may reduce the water levels and at one stage we would face scarcity of water.

Question 34.
State your opinion on free power supply to farmers and the problems that are faced by marginal farmers due to free power supply.
Answer:

• Free power supply to a section of farmers has encouraged them to pump groundwater.
• Consequently, many wells and tubewells have run dry.
• This has pushed the marginal and small farmers out of cultivation.

Question 35.
How did the partition of the country in 1947 affect the Jute industry?
Answer:
We have lost the major jute growing areas during partition. Hence the jute industry was badly affected.

Question 36.
What measures would you suggest to protect agriculture from intense commercial farming?
Answer:

• To protect agriculture from intense commercial farming, we should shun the use of High Yielding Varieties of Seeds.
• Then we can limit the usage of water.
• Then we can limit the usage of chemical fertilisers and pesticides.
• We can save the produce for seeds.
• We can adopt organic farming, which requires very low input costs.
• Organic farm produce also serves health better.

Question 37.
What measures would you suggest for the cultivation of cotton crop?
Answer:

• Cotton grows well in drier parts of the black cotton soil of the Deccan Plateau.
• It requires high temperature, light rainfall or irrigation.
• It needs 210 frost free days and bright sunshine for its growth.
• It requires 6 to 8 months to mature.

These AP 10th Class Physical Science Chapter Wise Important Questions 12th Lesson Electromagnetism will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Physics 12th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Electromagnetism

10th Class Physics 12th Lesson Electromagnetism 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw the diagram showing the magnetic field lines of bar mannet. (TS June 2016)
Answer:

Question 2.
Correct the diagram according to Lenz law and draw it again. (TS March 2017)
Answer:

Question 3.
What is the use of slip – ring in AC motor? (TS June 2018)
Answer:
Uses of slip rings :
Slip rings are used to change the direction of current in the coil continuously.

Question 4.
Draw the direction of magnetic lines force, assuming that the current is flowing into the page. (AP SCERT: 2019-20 )
Answer:

Question 5.
What happens when a current carrying coil is placed in a uniform magnetic field? (TS June2019)
Answer:
The rectangular coil comes into rotation in clock – wise direction because of equal and opposite pair of forces acting on the two sides of the coil.

1. If the direction of the current in the coil unchanged it rotates half clock – wise and comes to half and rotates in anticlock – wise direction.
2. If the direction of the current in the coil changed after the first half rotation, the coil continuously rotates in a same direction.

Question 6.
Write the name of the device that converts mechanical energy into electrical energy. (AP June 2019)
Answer:
Generator.

Question 7.
Name some sources of direct current.
Answer:
Dry cell, lead-acid battery.

Question 8.
Which sources produce alternating current?
Answer:
A.C generator, thermal power station, hydroelectric stations.

Question 9.
What is the role of split ring in an electric motor?
Answer:
The split rings are used to change the direction of current flowing through the coil.

Question 10.
Write one method of inducing current in the coil.
ANswer:
By pushing or pulling a bar magnet into or away from the coil we can induce current. Name two safety measures commonly used in electric circuit, i) Fuse ii) Earthing

Question 11.
On what factors does the magnetic induction at the centre of the coil depend?
Answer:
It depends on current, number of turns and radius of the coil.

Question 12.
Which is more dangerous AC or DC?
Answer:
AC is more dangerous.

Question 13.
State two serious hazards of electricity.
Answer:

• If a person touches the live wire, he gets severe shock which may prove fatal.
• Short-circuiting can cause a spark which may lead to fire in a building.

Question 14.
Why is earthing of electrical appliances recommended?
Answer:
To protect the user from any accidental electrical shock caused due to leakage of current.

Question 15.
Why is a spark produced at the place of short circuit? Why is the spark in white colour?
The resistance of circuit decreases, and a sudden flow of large current heats up the live wire and vapourises the metal. This causes spark. The metal of wire becomes very hot and naturally emits white light.

Question 16.
What is electromagnetic induction?
Answer:
Mechanical energy can be converted into electrical energy by moving a magnet inside a coil.

Question 17.
What is Maxwell’s right hand screw rule?
Answer:
The direction of current is the direction in which the tip of the screw advances and direction of ration of the screw gives the direction of magnetic lines of force.

Question 18.
What type of energy transformation takes place in electric generator?
Answer:
Electrical energy from mechanical energy.

Question 19.
Where are the electromagnets used?
Answer:
In electric generators and televisions.

Question 20.
What is electromagnet?
Answer:
When current carrying conductor is wound over a magnetic material like soft iron it gets magnetized.

Question 21.
What are the different types of power stations?
Answer:
Electrical energy is produced in different power stations from mechanical energy of water, meat energy, and nuclear energy.

Question 22.
If the current in the coil is in anti-clockwise, then what would be the face of the coil?
Answer:
It behayes as north pole.

Question 23.
If the current in the ceil is in clockwise, then what would be the face of the coil?
Answer:
It behaves as south pole.

Question 24.
What is the frequency of the A.C. supplied in your house?
Answer:
It is approximately 50 Hz.

Question 25.
What type of current is generated in electric power station?
Answer:
Alternating current.

Question 26.
What is the shape of magnetic lines due to straight current carrying conductor?
Answer:
They are concentric circles.

Question 27.
What is a transformer?
Answer:
It is a device which increases or decreases the voltage.

Question 28.
State two ways by which speed or rotation of electric motor can be increased.
Answer:

1. By increasing strength of the current.
2. By increasing number of turns in the coil.

Question 29.
What happens if an iron piece is dropped between two poles of strong magnet?
Answer:
Eddy current is produced in it. These eddy currents oppose the motion of the piece of iron. So it falls as it is moving through a viscous liquid.

Question 30.
If a copper rod carries a direct current, then where will be the magnetic field in the conductor?
Answer:
It will be both inside and outside the rod.

Question 31.
In what form is the energy in a current carrying coil stored?
Answer:
It is stored in the form of magnetic field.

Question 32.
What is solenoid?
Answer:
A solenoid is a long wire wound in a close packed helix.

Question 33.
What is the pattern of field lines inside a solenoid around when current carrying solenoid?
Answer:
Parallel to each other.

Question 34.
List any two properties of magnetic field lines.
Answer:

• Inside the magnet they start from south pole and end at north pole whereas outside the magnet they start at north pole and end at south pole.
• Two magnetic lines of force never intersect each other.

Question 35.
Why does the picture appear distorted when the bar magnet is brought close to the screen of a television?
Answer:
Picture on a television screen is due to motion of the electrons reaching the screen. These electrons are affected by magnetic field of bar magnet.

Question 36.
What is meant by electromagnetic induction?
Answer:
Whenever there is continuous change of magnetic flux linked with a closed coil, current generated in the coil is called electromagnetic induction.

Question 37.
State the Lenz’s principle.
Answer:
The induced current will appear in such a direction that it opposes the changes in the flux in the coil.

Question 38.
What is induced emf?
Answer:
Change in magnetic flux produces emf in the circuit called induced emf.

Question 39.
What do you mean by magnetic effect of current?
Answer:
Current carrying conductor produces a magnetic field around it. This is called magnetic effect of current.

Question 40.
What is the direction of magnetic field at the centre of the coil carrying current in (i) clockwise, (ii) anti-clockwise direction?
Answer:
i) Along the axis of coil inwards.
ii) Along the axis of coil outwards.

Question 41.
Why does a current carrying freely suspended solenoid rest along a particular direction?
Answer:
A current carrying solenoid behaves like a bar magnet.

Question 42.
What effect will there be on a magnetic compass when it is brought near a current carrying solenoid?
Answer:
The needle of the compass will rest in the direction of magnetic field due to solenoid at that point.

Question 43.
How is magnetic field due to solenoid carrying current affected, if a soft iron bar is introduced inside the solenoid?
Answer:
The magnetic field increases when iron bar is introduced inside the solenoid.

Question 44.
What happens to magnetic field if we reverse the current direction?
Answer:
The magnetic field also gets reversed.

Question 45.
How do magnetic field lines inside a current carrying solenoid appear?
Answer:
They form along the axis and parallel to each other.

Question 46.
In which of the following cases does the electromagnetic induction occur?
i) A current is started in a wire held near a loop of wire.
ii) The current is stopped in a wire held near a loop of wire.
iii) A magnet is moved through a loop of wire.
iv) A loop of wire is held near a magnet.
Answer:
In first three cases there is a change in magnetic flux. So electromagnetic induction occurs in first three cases.

Question 47.
Why must an induced current flow in such a direction so as to oppose the change producing it?
Answer:
So that the mechanical energy spent in producing the change, is transformed into the electrical energy in form of induced current.

Question 48.
What is the maximum force acting on the current (i) carrying conductor of length (l) in the presence of magnetic field (B)?
Answer:
F = Bil

Question 49.
A charged particle q is moving with a speed v perpendicular to the magnetic field of induction B?
Find the equation of time period of the particle.
Answer:
\(\mathrm{T}=\frac{2 \pi \mathrm{m}}{\mathrm{Bq}}\)

Question 50.
Name two safety measures commonly used in electric circuit.
Answer:
a) Fuse
b) Earthing

Question 51.
On what factors the magnetic induction at the centre of coil depends?
Answer:
a) Number of turns
b) Radius of the coil.

Question 52.
Write the formula for magnetic flux passing through an Area A with an angle θ.
Answer:
Flux ΦV= BA cos θ

Question 53.
Write the Lenz’s law.
Answer:
The induced current will appear in such a direction that it opposes the changes in the flux in the coil.

Question 54.
What is the difference between AC and DC generator?
Answer:
In AC generator, ends of coil are connected to two slip rings.
In DC generator ends of coil are connected to two half split rings.

Question 55.
What are the uses of electromagnet?
Answer:
It is used in electric bells, electric motors, telephone diaphragms, etc.

Question 56.
What is the principle of Electric motor?
Answer:
When a rectangular coil is placed in magnetic field and current is passed through it, two equal and opposite forces act on the coil which rotates it continuously.

Question 57.
What factors are influence the speed of rotation of the motor?
Answer:

1. Strength of current
2. Number of turns
3. Area of the coil
4. Strength of magnetic field

Question 58.
Which two physical quantities are interrelated in Oerstead experiment?
Answer:
Electricity and magnetism are interrelated.

Question 59.
Which property of proton can change while it moves freely in a magnetic field?
Answer:
When a proton (the charge) moves in a magnetic field, then magnetic force is acting on proton. So its momentum changes.

Question 60.
Which type of conductors are producing magnetic field?
Answer:

1. Long straight current carrying conductor.
2. Circular loop.
3. Solenoid.

Question 61.
How much force acting on a neutron particle is moving with velocity V in a mag¬netic field with induction B?
Answer:
Zero, because neutron is charge less particle.

Question 62.
What are the instruments used in A.C Generator?
Answer:
Rectangular coil, brushes, slip rings, and magnetic poles.

Question 63.
What are the ways to produce the induced current in a coil?
Answer:
When a magnet is moved towards or away from coil or there is a relative motion between coil and magnet a current is induced in the coil.

Question 64.
At the time of short circuit, what happens to the current?
Answer:
At the time of short circuit, the current in the circuit increases heavily becomes the resistance of the conductor becomes almost zero.

Question 65.
A wire with green insulation is usually the line wire of an electric supply. Is it true?
Answer:
It is false, the wire with green insulation is the earth wire, not the line wire.

Question 66.
Two circular coils A and B are placed close to each other. If the current in the coil A is changed, will some current be induced in the coil B? Give reason.
Answer:
Yes. current will be induced in coil ‘B’, because flux linked the coil ‘B’ changes with respect to time.

Question 67.
Name two safety measures commonly used in electric circuits and appliances.
Answer:
Electric fuse and Miniature Circuit Breaker (MCB).

Question 68.
An attemating current has frequency of 50Hz. How many times does it change its direction in one second?
Answer:
Frequency of AC = 50 Hz ⇒ 50 cycles in one sec. So it reverses its direction 100 times in one second.

Question 69.
Under what orientation, the induced current produced in moving conductor in a magnetic field can be maximum?
Answer:
The current induced in a conductor is maximum when direction of motion of conductor is at right angle to the magnetic field.

Question 70.
How could you make the coil rotate continuously in motor?
Answer:
The direction of current through the coil is reversed every half rotation, the coil will rotate continuously and the same direction.

Question 71.
What is the formula for induced cmf when change the magnetic flux?
Answer:
Induced EMF = \(-\frac{\Delta \phi}{\Delta t}\)

Question 72.
The magnetic flux is varying with time. Which cases E.M.F is induced?

Answer:
In OA and BC cases, E.M.F is induced.

Question 73.
In above problem, how much EMF is induced in BC curve?
Answer:

Question 74.
What is the equation of motional E.M.F?
Answer:
Motional E.M.F = Blv;
where B = magnetic induction,
l = length of rod,
v = velocity of rod.

Question 75.
When a magnet and a coil are moving same direction with same speed. Then induced E.M.F in coil is zero. Why?
Answer:
E.M.F = \(\frac{-\Delta \phi}{\Delta \mathrm{t}}\), but both moving same direction, so change in flux linked with coil is zero i.e., ∆Φ = 0

Question 76.
What is shape of conductor is drawn when current is passing through conductor?
Answer:

Question 77.
Draw the symbols of North and South pole when depends on current.
Answer:

Question 78.
The magnetic field in a given region is uniform. Draw a diagram to represent it.
Answer:

Question 79.
Draw the diagram of AC and DC current varying with time.
Answer:

Question 80.
Where are electric motors used?
Answer:
Electric fans, water-pumps, coolers.

Question 81.
Mention two uses of solenoid.
Answer:
It is used in electric bells, fans, and motors.

Question 82.
Mention applications of electromagnetic induction.
Answer:
It is used in devices which convert mechanical energy into electrical energy.

Question 83.
What are the advantages of an electromagnet over permanent magnet?
Answer:

1. An electromagnet can produce a strong magnetic field.
2. The strength of electromagnet can be changed.
3. The polarity of electromagnet can be changed.

10th Class Physics 12th Lesson Electromagnetism 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Anand appreciated the law behind the making of ‘generator’. Name the law and state it. (AP June 2017)
Answer:
1) The law behind the making of ‘generator’ is Faraday’s law.

2) Faraday’s Law :
“Whenever there is a continuous change of magnetic flux linked with a closed coil, a current is generated in the coil”.

Question 2.
Explain Oersted experiment to show that Electricity and Magnetism were related phenomena. (AP June 2018)
Answer:

• Place a compass needle underneath a wire and then turn on electric current.
• Immediately the needle of compass shows the deflection. By this we can conclude that electricity and magnetism are related phenomena.

Question 3.
With the help of the given figure, the teacher explained that magnetic field lines are closed lines and not open lines. Write the questions which you will ask to rest whether the given statement is right or wrong. (TS June 2015)

Answer:

• Are there any magnetic field lines inside the magnet?
• If magnetic field lines are there inside the magnet, what is the direction of field lines inside the magnet?
• What is the direction of field lines outside the magnet?

Question 4.
State Right-hand rule with a labelled diagram. (TS March 2015)
Answer:

(OR)

• Right hand rule indicates the direction of magnetic force acting on a moving charge.
• It is used when velocity and field are perpendicular to each other. If the fore finger points towards the direction of velocity of charge or current (I), middle finger points to the direction of field (B), then thumb gives the direction of force (F).

Question 5.
A coil of insulated Copper wire is connected to a Galvanometer. (TS March 2015)
What happens, if a bar magnet is ………….
1) pushed into the coil?
2) withdrawn from inside the coil?
3) held stationary inside the coil?
Answer:

1. If a bar magnet is pushed into the coil, then the needle in Galvanometer gets deflected. Because current is generated in the coil.
2. If a bar magnet is withdrawn from inside the coil, then the needle in Galvanometer gets deflected. Because current is generated in the coil.
3. If a bar magnet is held stationary inside the coil, then the needle in Galvanometer does not get deflected. Because current is not generated in the coil.

Question 6.
Compare the magnetic field lines of force formed around a current carrying solenoid with the magnetic field lines of force of a bar magnet.
Answer:

Magnetic field lines of a bar magnet	Magnetic field lines of a solenoid
2) The direction of the field lines of the outside the magnet is from north to south pole.	2) The direction of the field lines of the outside the solenoid is from north to south pole.
3) The direction of the field lines of the inside of the magnet field looks like south to north pole.	3) The direction of the field lines of the inside of the solenoid is from south to north pole.
4) These lines are closed loops.	4) These lines are also closed loops.
5) We cannot find the field lines inside the bar magnet.	5) We can find the field lines inside the solenoid.
6) These field lines are same as field lines formed by a solenoid.	6) These field lines are also same as field lines formed by a bar magnet.
7) More field lines are found at poles.	7) More field lines are found at poles.

Question 7.
Which energy we get from an electric motor? Write two daily life applications of the electric motor. (TS June 2017)
Answer:

• We get mechanical energy from electric motor.
• In our daily life we use motor in
  i) Mixies
  ii) Grinders
  iii) Water Pumps
  iv) Fans / Coolers, etc.

Question 8.
List out the material required for Oersted experiment and mention the precautions to be taken in the experiment. (TS March 2019)
Answer:
Materials required for Oersted experiment are :

1. Thermocol sheet.
2. Wooden sticks.
3. Copper wire of 24 gauge.
4. Battery.
5. Key.
6. Magnetic compass.

Precautions to be taken are :

1. Copper Wire is made through the slits of the wooden sticks tightly.
2. Arrange/complete the circuit correctly.

Question 9.
What happens when magnetic flux passing through a coil changes continuously? Where does this process is used? (TS June 2019)
Answer:
1) When there is a continuous change of magnetic flux passing through a coil a current is generated in the coil.

2) This process is used in

1. Induction stoves
2. Security checking entrance/exit doors.
3. ATM cards scanners.

Question 10.
Distinguish between AC and DC.
Answer:

AC	DC
1) AC means alternate current.	1) DC means direct current.
2) The current direction changes	2) The current direction does not
always.	change. It is always a single direction.
3) The magnitude of current changes from minimum to maximum.	3) Always it has maximum value.

Question 11.
Distinguish between AC motor and DC motor.
Answer:

AC motor	DC motor
1) It works with alternate current.	1) It works with direct current.
2) It does not require change in current direction.	2) It requires change in current direction which is provided by split rings which act as commutator.

Question 12.
Distinguish between AC generator and DC generator.
Answer:

AC generator	DC generator
1) It generates alternate current.	1) It generates direct current.
2) It has two slip rings.	2) It has two half slip rings.

Question 13.
What is Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction? Write its expression.
(OR)
State the Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. Write the equation of this law.
Answer:
The induced EMF generated in a closed loop is equal to the rate of change of magnetic flux passing through it.
Induced EMF = Change in flux / time
ε = ∆Φ / ∆t

Let Φ₀ be flux linked with single turn. If there are N turns of the coil, the flux linked with the coil is NΦ₀.
∴ ε = NAΦ₀ / ∆t

Question 14.
State the right-hand thumb rule. How does the rule help us?
Answer:
When you curl your right hand fingers in the direction of current thumb gives the direction of magnetic field.

It is useful to find the magnetic field direction as well as current direction.

Question 15.
A flat rectangular coil is rotated between the pole pieces of a horseshoe magnet. In which position of coil with respect to magnetic field, will the emf (i) be maximum, (ii) be zero, (iii) change its direction.
Answer:
i) The emf is maximum when the plane of coil is parallel to the magnetic field.
ii) The emf is zero when the plane of coil is normal to the magnetic field.
iii) The emf will change its direction when the plane of coil passes from the position normal to the magnetic field.

Question 16.
State two factors on which the magnitude of induced emf depend?
Answer:
The magnitude of induced emf depends on the following two factors.

1. The change in the magnetic flux.
2. The time in which the magnetic flux changes i.e., the rate of change of magnetic flux.

More the change in magnetic flux, more is the emf induced. Further if more rapid the magnetic flux changes, more is the emf induced.

Question 17.
How do you increase the magnetic field of solenoid?
Answer:
The magnetic field of solenoid can be increased by the following two ways.

1. by increasing the number of turns of winding in the solenoid.
2. by increasing the current through the solenoid.

Question 18.
State the function of split ring in a DC motor.
Answer:

• The split ring acts as a commutator in a DC motor.
• With the split ring, the direction of current through the coil is reversed after every half rotation of coil.
• Thus the direction of couple rotating the coil remains unchanged and the coil continues to rotate in the same direction.

Question 19.
A DC motor is rotating in a clockwise direction. How can the direction of rotation be reversed?
Answer:
The direction of rotation of motor can be reversed by interchanging the connections at the terminals of the battery joined to the brushes of the motor.

Question 20.
State the effect of inserting a soft iron core within the coil of DC motor.
Answer:

• On inserting a soft iron core within the coil of a DC motor, the speed of rotation of coil increases.
• The reason is that the strength of magnetic field between the pole pieces of magnet increases due to which the deflecting couple on coil increases.

Question 21.
State condition when magnitude of force on a current-carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field is (a) zero, (b) maximum.
Answer:
a) When current in conductor is in direction of magnetic field,
b) When current in conductor is normal to the magnetic field.

Question 22.
A flat coil ABCD Is freely suspended between the pole pieces of a U – shaped permanent magnet with the plane of coil parallel to the magnetic field.
a) What happens when current is passed in the coil?
b) When will the coil come to rest?
c) Name the instrument which makes use of the principle stated above.
Answer:
a) The coil will experience a torque due to which it will rotate.
b) The coil will come to rest when its plane becomes normal to the magnetic field.
c) DC motor.

Question 23.
Why is it more difficult to move a magnet towards a coil which has a large number of turns?
Answer:

1. Emf induced in the coil becomes more when the number of turns in the coil are made large.
2. So it is difficult to move a magnet towards a coil which has a large number of turns.

Question 24.
A coil ABCD mounted on an axle is placed between the poles N and S of permanent magnet as shown in figure.

a) In which direction will the coil begin to rotate when the current is passed through the coil in direction ABCD by connecting a battery at the ends A and D of the coil.
b) Why is commutator necessary for continuous rotation of the coil?
Answer:
a) Anti-clockwise direction.
b) Commutator is needed to change the direction of current in the coil after each half rotation of coil.

Question 25.
Draw the magnetic field lines in uniform magnetic field.
Answer:

Question 26.
Draw a labelled diagram to make an electromagnet from soft iron bar AB. Mark the polarity at its ends. What precaution would you observe?
Answer:

The labelled diagram is shown in figure. The polarity at the end A where the current is clockwise, is south (S), while at the end B where the current is anti-clockwise is north (N).
Precaution :
The source of current must be the DC source.

Question 27.
State the principle of an electric motor. Name some appliances in which the Electric motor is used.
Answer:
Current carrying coil rotates when it is kept in a uniform magnetic field. It is the working principle of electric motor.
Appliances containing electric motor are :

1. Fans,
2. Mixies,
3. Grinders,
4. Machines, etc.

10th Class Physics 12th Lesson Electromagnetism 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
How can you verify with experiment “The magnetic field lines are closed loops”? (AP March 2017)
Answer:

• Place a retort stand on the plank as shown in the figure.
• Pass a copper wire through hole of the plank and rubber knob of the retort stand in such a way that the wire be arranged in a vertical position and not touch the stand.
• Connect the two ends of the wire to a battery via switch. Allow the current flows through wire.
• By sprinkling the iron fillings around the wire, we can observe the magnetic field lines are in circular shape.

Conclusion :
Hence it is proved that “Magnetic field lines are closed loops”.

Question 2.
Name the device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy. Draw its diagram and label the parts. (AP March 2018)
Answer:
1) The device that converts electrical energy into mechanical energy is motor.
2) Diagram of motor

Question 3.
List out the materials required for the Oersted experiment of electromagnetism. Write the procedure of the experiment. What do you understand by this experiment? (TS March 2016)
Answer:
List of material required for Oersted experiment:
A thermocol sheet, two small sticks, insulated copper wires, 9 V battery, switch, magnetic compass.

Procedure :

1. Take a thermocol sheet and fix two thin wooden sticks of height 1 cm which have small slit at the top of their ends.
2. Arrange a copper wire so that it passes through these slits and makes a circuit.
3. The circuit consists of a 9 V batten’, key, and copper wires connected in series.
4. Now keep a magnetic compass below the wire.
5. Now switch on the circuit and observe the compass needle.
6. Change the directions of current and observe the compass needle.

Observation :

1. When current is passed through circuit, we observe deflection of compass needle in one direction.
2. When the direction of current is changed, the compass needle deflects in another direction.
3. This shows that a current carrying conductor possesses magnetic field around it.

Question 4.
Write the experimental procedure and observations of the experiment that is to be performed to observe the magnetic field formed due to solenoid. (TS June 2017)
Answer:

• Fix a white paper on a wooden plank.
• Make two holes to the plank at appropriate distance.
• Make some more holes parallel to these two holes.
• Insert a copper wire through these holes. It looks as a coil.
• Connect the two ends of the coil to a battery and a switch in series.
• When swich is on current flows through the wire.
• Sprinkle some iron filings around the coil and tap the plank.

Observation :
An orderly pattern of iron filing is seen on the paper. These are magnetic field lines. The magnetic field lines set up by solenoid resemble those that of a bar magnet.

Question 5.
Why the current-carrying straight wire which is kept in a uniform magnetic field, perpendicularly to the direction of the field bends aside? Explain this process with a diagram showing the direction of forces acting on the wire. (TS March 2017)
Answer:

Uniform magnetic field (due to horse shoe magnet)

Magnetic field due to current carrying straight wire

Net field formed due to the above two fields

Explanation :
The net field in upper part is strong and in lower part it is weak. Hence a non-uniform field is created around wire. Therefore the wire tries to move to the weaker field region.

Question 6.
List out the apparatus and experimental procedure for the experiment to observe a current-carrying wire experiences a magnetic force when it is kept in uniform magnetic field. (TS June 2018)
Answer:
Required apparatus :
i) Horseshoe magnet,
ii) Conducting wire,
iii) Battery, switch

Experimental procedure :
1) Arrange the circuit :
Take a wooden plank and arrange two wooden sticks with slits and arrange a conductor through the sticks and make a circuits with switch, battery.

2) Put horse shoe magnet:
Arrange the horse shoe magnet on the conductor in such a way that the conductor should be in between the two poles of the magnet.

3) Deflections in conductor :
Allow the current to pass through the circuit. We can find that conductor deflects up wards or down wards.

4)

Question 7.

Answer the following questions by observing above diagram. (TS March 2018)
1. Which device function of working does the above figure gives?
Answer:
Motor

2. What is the angle made by AB and CD with magnetic field?
Answer:
90°

3. What are the directions of magnetic forces on sides AB and CD?
Answer:
By applying right hand rule to get the directions of magnetic force. At ‘AB’, the magnetic force acts inward perpendicular to field of the magnet and on ‘CD’, it acts outwards.

4. What is the net force acting on the rectangular coil?
Answer:
The net force on ‘AB’ is equal and opposite to the force on ‘CD’ due to external magnetic field because they carry equal currents in the opposite direction. Sum of these forces is zero. Similarly, the sum of the forces on sides ‘BC’ and ‘DA’ is also zero.

So, net force on the rectangular coil is zero.

Question 8.
Explain the working process of induction stove. (TS March 2019)
Answer:

• An induction stove works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.
• A metal coil is kept just beneath the cooling surface.
• It carries alternating current (AC) so that AC produce an alternating magnetic field.
• When you keep a metal pan with water on it, the varying magnetic field beneath it crosses the bottom surface of the pan, and EMF is induced in it.
• Induced EMF produces induced current in the metal pan.
• The pan has a finite resistance.
• The flow of induced current produces heat in it.
• That heat is conducted to the water. In this way, induction stove works and water will be heated.

Question 9.
Which device is used to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy? Draw a neat diagram and label the parts of this device. (TS March 2019)
Answer:
1) Dynamo is used to convert mechanical energy into electrical energy. They are also called Generators.

2) AC Generator (or) DC Generator

AC Generator

DC Generator

Question 10.
A coil is hung as shown in the figure. A bar magnet with north pole facing the coil is moved perpendicularly

a) How does the magnetic flux passing through the coil change?
b) State the direction of the flow of the current induced in the coil, keeping the direction of bar magnet in view.
c) Draw the diagrams showing the magnetic field formed due to bar magnet at the surface of the coil and the magnetic field formed due to induced current.
d) Explain the reason for induced current.
Answer:
a) A bar magnet with north pole facing the coil is moved perpendicularly, the magnetic flex increases when passing through the coil.
b) The direction of the flow of the. current induced in the coil, keeping the direction of bar magnet is anti-clockwise due to north pole. KT
c) Φ = 0

Plane of coil is parallel to ‘B’.
d) Electromagnetic induction is the reason for induced current.

Question 11.
Conductor of length T moves perpendicular to its length with the speed V. Length of the conductor is perpendicular to the magnetic field of the conductor. Let us assume that electrons could move freely in the conductor and the charge of an electron is ‘e’.

a) What is the magnetic force acting on electron in the conductor?
b) In which direction does the above force act?
c) What effect does this force have on motion of electrons?
Answer:
a) Magnetic field acting on the electron inside the conductor is = F_m = e (\(\bar{V} \times \bar{B}\)) = BeV
This field acts from P to Q.

b) Consider in the field P and Q are ends of a conductor. ‘Q’ will act as negative end and ‘P’ will act as positive end then flow passes from P to Q means downwards.

c) The force on electrons shows an effect creates a potential difference at the ends of the rods.
∴ BeV = eE ⇒ E = BY

Question 12.
A charged particle q is moving with a speed V perpendicular to the magnetic field induction B. Find the radius of the path and time period of the particle.
Answer:

1. Let us assume that the field is directed into the page.
2. Then the force experienced by the particle F = qvB.
3. We know that this force is always directed perpendicular to velocity.
4. Hence the particle moves along a circular path and the magnetic force on a charged particle acts like a centripetal force.
5. Let r be the radius of the circular path.

Question 13.
Explain different ways to induced current in a coil.
Answer:

• Moving a north pole of a magnet into a coil.
• Withdrawing north pole from a coil.
• Moving a south pole of magnet into a coil.
• Withdrawing a south pole of a magnet from a coil.
• Moving a coil towards a magnet.

Question 14.
What are the similarities between a current-carrying solenoid and a bar magnet?
Answer:
1) The magnetic field lines due to current carrying solenoid are identical to those of bar magnet. Thus a current-carrying solenoid behaves just like a bar magnet with fixed polarities at the ends. The end at which the direction of current is clockwise behaves like a south pole and the end at which current is anti-clockwise behaves like a north pole.

2) A current-carrying solenoid when suspended freely, will set itself in the north south direction exactly in the same manner as a bar magnet does.

3) A current-carrying solenoid also acquires the- attractive property of magnet. If iron filings are brought near the solenoid, it attracts them when current flows through the solenoid.

Question 15.
What are the dissimilarities between a current-carrying solenoid and a bar magnet?
Answer:

• The magnetic field strength due to solenoid can be altered by altering current in it, while the magnetic field strength of a bar magnet cannot be changed.
• The direction of magnetic field due to solenoid can be reversed by reversing the direction of current in it, but the direction of magnetic field of the bar magnet cannot be changed.

Question 16.
Compare electromagnet with a permanent magnet.
Answer:

Electromagnet	Permanent Magnet
1) It is made of soft iron.	1) It is made of steel.
2) It produces the magnetic field so long as current flows in its coils.	2) It produces permanent magnetic field.
3) The magnetic field strength can be changed.	3) The magnetic field strength cannot be changed.
4) The electromagnet can be made as strong as needed.	4) The permanent magnets are not so strong.
5) The polarity of an electromagnet can be reversed.	5) The polarity of permanent magnet cannot be reversed.
6) It can be easily de-magnetised by switching off the current.	6) It cannot be easily de-magnetised.

Question 17.
What are the characteristics of magnetic field lines due to current in a loop (or circular coil)?
Answer:

• The magnetic lines are nearly circular in the vicinity of coil.
• Within the space enclosed by the wire the magnetic field lines are in the same direction.
• Near the centre of loop, the magnetic field lines are nearly parallel and the magnetic field may be assumed to be uniform in a small space near the centre.
• At the centre, the magnetic lines are along the axis of the loop and at right angles to the plane of the loop.
• The magnetic field lines become denser if the strength of current in the loop is increased and there are more number of turns in the loop.

Question 18.
A straight conductor passes vertically through a cardboard having some iron filings sprinkled on it.
a) Show the setting of iron filings when current is passed in the downward direction and then the cardboard is gently tapped. Draw arrows to represent the direction of magnetic field lines.
b) What changes occur if
i) current is increased ?
ii) the single conductor is replaced by several parallel conductors each carrying same current flowing in the same direction?
c) Name the law used by you to find the direction of magnetic field lines.
Answer:

a) The figure shoy/s, the pattern in which iron filings will set themselves. The arrows show the direction of magnetic field lines.
b) i) The arrangement of iron filings remains unchanged, but they become denser and Cardboar get arranged up to a larger distance from the conductor when the strength of current is increased and it is effective up to a larger distance from the conductor.
ii) The magnetic field at a point due to each conductor will be in same direction, so they will be added up. Thus the magnetic field strength is increased and it is effective up to a large distance so the magnetic field lines come closer and iron filings get arranged up to a larger distance.
c) Right hand thumb rule.

Question 19.
In figure A and B represent two straight wires carrying equal currents in a direction normal to the plane of paper inwards.
a) Sketch separately the magnetic field lines produced by each current.
b) Give a reason why the magnetic field at K (mid point of the line joining A and B) will be zero.
c) What will be the effect on the magnetic field at the point K if the current in wire B is reversed?

Answer:
a) Figure shows the sketch of magnetic field A and B.

b) The point K is equidistant from the wires A and B, and the wires A and B carry equal currents. So the magnetic fields at K due to wires A and B are equal in magnitude, but opposite in direction. Due to the wire A, it is downwards in the plane of paper, while due to the wire B, it is upwards in the plane of paper. So the net magnetic field at the point K is zero as the two fields cancel each other.
c) On reversing the direction of current in the wire B, the direction of magnetic field due to current is reversed at the point K, i.e. it becomes downwards in the plane of paper.

Question 20.
The diagram given below shows two coils X and Y. The coil X is connected to a battery S and a key K. The coil Y is connected to a galvanometer G.

When the key K is closed state the polarity.
i) At the end B of the coil X.
ii) At the end C of the coil Y.
iii) At the end C of the coil Y if the coil Y is (a) moved towards the coil X, (b) moved away from the coil X.
Answer:
i) On closing the key K, the current at the end B of the coil X is anti-clockwise, therefore at this end there is a north pole.

ii) While closing the key, polarity at the end C of the coil Y will be north. But there will be no polarity at the end C of the coil Y when the current becomes steady in the coil X

iii) a) With the key K closed, while the coil Y is moved towards the coil X, the polarity at the end C of the coil Y is north.
b) With the key K closed, while the coil Y is moved away from the coil X, the polarity at the end C of the coil Y is south.

Question 21.
How do you increase the speed of rotation of coil in a DC motor?
Answer:
The speed of rotation of coil can be increased by

1. Increasing the strength of current.
2. Increasing the number of turns in coil.
3. Increasing the strength of magnetic field. To increase the strength of magnetic field a soft iron core can be inserted within the coil.

Question 22.
Explain Lenz’s law with an activity.
Answer:
Lenz law :
The induced current will appear in such a direction that it opposes the change in the flux in the coil.

Explanation :

1. We know that when a bar magnet is pushed towards a coil with its north pole facing the coil an induced current is set up in the coil.
2. Let the direction be clockwise then current carrying loop behaves like a magnet with its south pole facing the north pole of bar magnet.
3. In such a case, the bar magnet attracts the coil. Then it gains kinetic energy. This is contradictory to conservation of energy.
4. Hence our assumption is wrong. So correct induced current direction is anti-clockwise.
5. Let us see a case where the bar magnet is pulled away from the coil with the north pole facing the coil. In such case, the coil opposes the motion of bar magnet to balance the conversion of mechanical energy into electric energy.
6. It happens only when the north pole of the magnet faces the south pole of the coil.
7. So, the direction of induced current in the coil must be in anti-clockwise direction.
8. In simple terms, when flux increases through coil, the coil opposes the increase in the flux and when flux decreases through coil, it opposes the decrease in the flux. This is Lenz law.

Question 23.
What are the uses of electromagnet?
Answer:
Electromagnets are mainly used for the following purposes.

1. For lifting and transporting the large masses of scrap, girders, plates, etc. especially to the places where it is not convenient to take the help of human labour.
2. For loading furnaces with iron.
3. For separating the magnetic substances such as iron from other debris.
4. For removing pieces of iron from wounds.
5. In several electrical devices such as electric bell, telegraph, electric thumb, electric motor, relay, microphone, loudspeaker, etc.
6. In scientific research, to study the magnetic properties of a substance in a magnetic field.

Question 24.
Write the differences between AC generator and DC motor.
Answer:

AC Generator	DC Motor
1) A generator is a device which converts the mechanical energy into the electrical energy.	1) A DC motor is a device which converts electrical energy into the mechanical energy.
2) A generator works on the principle of electromagnetic induction.	2) A DC motor works on the principle of force acting on a current carrying conductor placed in a magnetic field.
3) In a generator, the mechanical energy is used in rotating the armature coil in a magnetic field so as to produce electricity.	3) In a DC motor electrical energy is provided by the DC source to flow current in the armature coil placed in a magnetic field due to which coil rotates.
4) A generator makes use of two separate coaxial slip rings.	4) A DC motor makes use of two parts of a slip ring (i.e., split rings) which acts as commutator.

 

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ఈ క్రింది ప్రశ్నలకు నాలుగైదు వాక్యాల్లో సమాధానాలు రాయండి.

ప్రశ్న 1.
“ఇవ్వాటిమీద నాగ్రహముదగునె?” అనే మాటలు ఎవరు ఎవరితో ఏ సందర్భంలో అన్నారు? (March 2017)
జవాబు:
ఈ వాక్యం భిక్ష పాఠంలోనిది. కాశీ మహా నగరంలో వేదవ్యాస మహర్షికి ఎవ్వరూ భిక్ష పెట్టలేదు. దానితో ఆయనకు కోపం వచ్చింది. కాశీని శపించబోయాడు. అంతలో పార్వతీదేవి ప్రాకృత వేషంలో వచ్చింది. భోజనానికి రమ్మంది. వేదవ్యాసునికి బుద్ధులు చెపుతూ కాశీ మహానగరం మీద కోప్పడడం తప్పని చెప్పింది.

ప్రశ్న 2.
భిక్ష పాఠ్యాంశ నేపథ్యం రాయండి.
జవాబు:
వేదవ్యాస మహర్షి తన 10 వేలమంది శిష్యులతో కాశీలో నివసిస్తున్నాడు. ఋషి ధర్మంగా భిక్షాటన చేస్తూ జీవిస్తున్నాడు. శివుడు వ్యాసుని పరీక్షించాలనుకొన్నాడు. అతనికి భిక్ష దొరకకుండా చేయుమని తన భార్య పార్వతీదేవికి చెప్పాడు. ఆమె కాశీ నగర స్త్రీల హృదయాలలో ప్రవేశించి భిక్ష దొరకకుండా చేసింది.

ప్రశ్న 3.
భిక్ష పాఠం ఎవరు రచించారు? ఆయన గురించి రాయండి.
జవాబు:
భిక్ష పాఠం శ్రీనాథ మహాకవి రచించాడు. ఆయన రచించిన కాశీఖండం సప్తమాశ్వాసంలోనిది.

శ్రీనాథుడు 1380-1470 మధ్య జీవించాడు. అనగా 15వ శతాబ్ది కవి. రాజమహేంద్రవరంలో రెడ్డిరాజుల కొలువులో ఆస్థానకవి. మారయ, భీమాంబలు శ్రీనాథుని తల్లిదండ్రులు.

‘కవి సార్వభౌమ’ బిరుదాంకితుడు. పెదకోమటి వేమారెడ్డి కొలువులో విద్యాధికారి. ప్రౌఢ దేవరాయల ఆస్థానంలోని గౌడడిండిమ భట్టును పాండిత్యంలో ఓడించాడు. అతని కంచుఢక్కను పగులకొట్టించాడు.

ప్రశ్న 4.
శ్రీనాథుని రచనా శైలిని, సాహిత్య సేవను వివరించండి.
జవాబు:
శ్రీనాథుడు చిన్నతనం నుండే కావ్యరచన ప్రారంభించాడు. మరుత్తరాట్చరిత్ర, కాశీఖండం, శృంగారనైషధం మొదలైనవి రచించాడు.

చమత్కారానికీ, లోకానుశీలనకు, రసజ్ఞతకు, ఆయన జీవిత విధానానికి అద్దంపట్టే చాటువులు చాలా ఉన్నాయి. ఆయన కవిత్వం ఉద్దండలీల, ఉభయ వాక్రౌఢి, రసాభ్యుచిత బంధం, సూక్తి వైచిత్రి వంటి లక్షణాలతో ఉంటుంది.

సీస పద్య రచనలో ఆయనకు ఆయనే సాటి. వృద్ధాప్యంలో కష్టాలనుభవించాడు.

ప్రశ్న 5.
వ్యాసునికి కోపకారణం తదనంతర పరిణామాలను వివరించండి.
జవాబు:
వ్యాసుడు కాశీనగరంలో శిష్యులతో భిక్ష కోసం తిరిగాడు. ఈశ్వరుని మాయతో వరుసగా రెండు రోజులపాటు ఎవరూ ఆయనకు భిక్ష పెట్టలేదు. దానితో వ్యాసుడు భిక్షాపాత్రను పగులకొట్టి, కాశీవాసులకు మూడు తరాలదాకా ధనం, విద్య, మోక్షం లేకుండుగాక అని శపించబోయాడు.

అప్పుడు పార్వతీదేవి కాశీ నగరాన్ని శపించడం తప్పని, ఉన్న ఊరు కన్నతల్లితో సమానమని వ్యాసుడిని మందలించి, వ్యాసుడిని తన ఇంటికి భోజనానికి రమ్మని పిలిచింది. వ్యాసుడు, తన పదివేల శిష్యులు తినకుండా, తాను తినననే వ్రతం తనకు ఉందన్నాడు. అప్పుడు అందరికీ భోజనం పెడతాననీ శిష్యులతో తన ఇంటికి రమ్మని పార్వతి పిలిచింది.

వ్యాసుడు గంగలో స్నానం చేసి శిష్యులతో పార్వతీదేవి ఇంటికి వచ్చాడు. పార్వతి వారందరికీ భోజనం వడ్డించింది.

ప్రశ్న 6.
‘వ్రతము తప్పి భుజింపంగ వలను గాదు’ – ఈ మాటలు ఎవరు ఎవరితో ఏ సందర్భంగా అన్నారు?
జవాబు:
‘వ్రతము తప్పి భుజింపంగ వలనుగాదు’ అని వ్యాసుడు సామాన్య స్త్రీవలె కనబడిన అన్నపూర్ణాదేవితో అన్నాడు. వ్యాసుడు తనకు రెండు రోజులుగా కాశీలో భిక్ష దొరకలేదని కోపించి కాశీనగరమును శపించబోయాడు. అప్పుడు అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి సామాన్య స్త్రీవలె కనబడి, వ్యాసుని మందలించి, తన ఇంటికి భోజనానికి రమ్మని వ్యాసుడిని పిలిచింది.

అప్పుడు వ్యాసుడు తనకు పదివేల మంది శిష్యులు ఉన్నారనీ, వారందరితో కలిసి భుజించే వ్రతం తనకు ఉందనీ, ఆ వ్రతాన్ని విడిచి పెట్టి తాను ఒక్కడూ ‘భోజనానికి రాననీ చెప్పిన సందర్భంలో ఈ మాటను అన్నపూర్ణాదేవితో ఆయన చెప్పాడు.

ప్రశ్న 7.
కాశీ పట్టణంలో స్త్రీలు అతిథులను ఎలా ఆదరించేవారు?
జవాబు:
కాశీనగరంలోని స్త్రీలు అన్నపూర్ణాదేవికి ప్రియమైన స్నేహితురాండ్రు. వారు వాకిట్లో ఆవుపేడతో చక్కగా అలికి, నాలుగు అంచులూ కలిసేలా దానిపై ముగ్గు పెడతారు. ఆ ముగ్గు మధ్యలో నచ్చిన అతిథిని నిలిపి, వారికి అర్హపాద్యాలు ఇస్తారు. వారికి పూలతో, గంధముతో పూజ చేస్తారు.

తరువాత బంగారు గరిటెతో అన్నముపై ఆవునేయిని అభిఘరిస్తారు. తరువాత భక్తి విశ్వాసాలు కనబరుస్తూ, పండ్లతో, పరమాన్నముతో, పలురకాల పిండివంటలతో, గాజులు గలగల ధ్వని చేస్తుండగా, యతీశ్వరులకు వారు మాధుకర భిక్ష పెడతారు.

ప్రశ్న 8.
కోపం తగదని అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి వ్యాసునికి ఏయే ఉదాహరణల పూర్వకంగా తెలిపింది?
జవాబు:
వ్యాసుడికి కోపం తగదని అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి ఈ కింది విధంగా చెప్పి, ఆయనను మందలించింది.

“ఓ మహర్షీ! నీవు ఇప్పుడు గొంతుదాకా తినడానికి భిక్షాన్నము దొరకలేదని చిందులు వేస్తున్నావు. ఇది మంచిపని కాదు. నీవు నిజంగా శాంత స్వభావం కలవాడవు కాదు. ఎందుకంటే, ఎంతో మంది మునులు పిడికెడు వరిగింజలతో కాలం వెళ్ళదీస్తున్నారు. మరికొందరు శాకాహారంతో, దుంపలతో సరిపెట్టుకుంటున్నారు. కొందరు వరిమళ్ళలో రాలిన ధాన్యం కంకులు ఏరుకొని దానితో బతుకుతున్నారు. మరికొందరు మునులు రోళ్ళ దగ్గర జారిపడిన బియ్యం ఏరుకొని బతుకుతున్నారు. వారంతా నీ కంటె తెలివితక్కువవారు కాదు కదా ! ఆలోచించు.

అదీగాక ఉన్నఊరు, కన్నతల్లి వంటిది. కాశీ నగరం శివునికి భార్య. “నీవంటివాడు అటువంటి కాశీ నగరాన్ని భిక్ష దొరకలేదని కోపించడం తగదు.” ఈ ఉదాహరణలతో అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి వ్యాసుడిని మందలించింది.

10th Class Telugu 11th Lesson భిక్ష 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

ఈ క్రింది ప్రశ్నలకు 10 లేక 12 వాక్యాల్లో జవాబులు రాయండి.

ప్రశ్న 1.
“భిక్ష” పాఠ్యభాగ కథను మీ మాటల్లో వివరించండి. (June 2018)
జవాబు:

1. వ్యాసమహర్షి శిష్యులతో మండుటెండలో కాశీనగర బ్రాహ్మణ వీధులందు భిక్ష కోసం తిరుగసాగాడు.
2. ఒక ఇల్లాలు వండుతున్నామని చెప్పగా మరో గృహిణి మళ్ళీ రమ్మని చెబుతుంది. ఇంకొక ఆవిడ వ్రతం అని చెబితే, వేరొక ఇల్లాలు అసలు తలుపులే తెరువదు.
3. కాశీ నగర గృహిణులు అన్నపూర్ణాదేవికి ప్రియమైన చెలులు. అతిథిని పరమేశ్వర స్వరూపంగా భావించి సకల మర్యాదలతో భిక్ష సమర్పిస్తారు. అలాంటి స్త్రీలున్న కాశీలో ఒక్కరు కూడా భిక్ష సమర్పించకపోవడంతో వ్యాసుడు ఆశ్చర్యపోయాడు.
4. మరుసటి రోజు కూడా విశ్వనాథుని మాయ వలన భిక్ష లభించకపోవడంతో వ్యాసుడు కోపావేశాలకు లోనై కాశీనగర జనులను శపించబోయాడు.
5. అప్పుడు పార్వతీదేవి సామాన్య స్త్రీ వేషంలో బ్రాహ్మణ మందిరపు వాకిట నిల్చి, వ్యాసుడిని ఇటు రమ్మని పిల్చి “ఓ మునివరా ! ‘ఉన్న ఊరు కన్నతల్లితో సమానం’ అని నీవెరుగవా ? ఈ కాశీనగరిపై ఇంత కోపం తగునా ?” అని సున్నితంగా మందలించింది.
6. “మా ఇంటికి భోజనానికి రా !” అని పార్వతీదేవి పిలువగా, శిష్యులను వదలి పెట్టి భుజించరాదన్న తన నియమాన్ని వ్యాసుడు వెల్లడించాడు. ఆమె తాను విశ్వనాథుని దయవలన ఎంతమంది అతిథులకైనా భోజనం పెట్టగలనని తెల్సింది. వ్యాసుడు తన శిష్యులతో పాటు, గంగానదిలో స్నాన, ఆచమనాలు ముగించి, భోజనానికి వచ్చాడు.

ప్రశ్న 2.
“కోపం మంచి చెడులను గ్రహించే జ్ఞానాన్ని నశింపచేస్తుంది” – భిక్ష పాఠ్యభాగం ఆధారంగా నిరూపించండి. March 2018
జవాబు:

1. బ్రహ్మజ్ఞానియైన వేదవ్యాసుడు తన పదివేలమంది శిష్యులతో కాశీలో కొంతకాలం నివసించాడు. ఆ సమయంలో శిష్యులతో కలిసి భిక్షాటనం చేసి జీవించేవాడు. ఒక రోజున కాశీ విశ్వనాథుడికి వ్యాసుణ్ణి పరీక్షించాలన్న సంకల్పం కలిగింది.
2. పరమేశ్వర సంకల్పం వలన పట్టపగలు మండుటెండలో భిక్షాటనం చేస్తున్న వ్యాసునికి భిక్ష లభించలేదు. “నేను ఈ రోజు ఏ పాపిష్టి వాడి ముఖం చేశానో” అని వ్యాసుడు చింతించాడు. ఆ రోజుకు ఉపవాసం ఉండి మరునాడు భిక్ష కోసం తిరుగసాగాడు. కానీ విశ్వనాథుని మాయ వలన ఏ ఇల్లాలూ భిక్ష పెట్టలేదు.
3. కోపంతో ఆలోచనాశక్తిని కోల్పోయిన వ్యాసుడు భిక్షపాత్రను నట్టనడివీథిలో విసిరికొట్టి ముక్కలు చేశాడు. ఈ కాశీ నగరంలో నివసించే వారికి మూడు తరాలదాక ధనము, విద్య, మోక్షము లభించకుండుగాక !” అని శపించబోయాడు.
4. మహర్షులు మనోనిగ్రహం కలిగి ఉండాలి. కోపాన్ని జయించాలి. సంయమనాన్ని (ఓర్పును) వహించాలి. కానీ వ్యాసుడు అలా చేయలేకపోయాడు. వేదాలను విభజించినవాడు, అష్టాదశ పురాణాలను రచించిన వాడైన వ్యాసుడు తన గొప్పతనానికి తగినట్లు ప్రవర్తించక, మితిమీరిన కోపావేశాలకు లోనయ్యాడు. పార్వతీ పరమేశ్వరుల ఆగ్రహానికి గురియైనాడు.
5. కోపాన్ని అదుపులో ఉంచుకోకపోతే ఎంతటివారికైనా తిప్పలు తప్పవనే విషయం వ్యాసుని ప్రవర్తన ద్వారా
   నిరూపితమైంది. “కోపం ఆలోచనాశక్తిని నశింపజేస్తుంది” అనటానికి వ్యాసుని వృత్తాంతమే నిదర్శనమని చెప్పవచ్చు.

ప్రశ్న 3.
క్రింది పాత్రల స్వభావాలను రాయండి.
జవాబు:
1. వ్యాసమహర్షి :
వేద విభజన చేశాడు. 18 పురాణాలు రచించాడు. 10 వేల మంది శిష్యులకు విద్య నేర్పేవాడు. ఋషి ధర్మంగా భిక్షాటన చేసినవాడు. రెండు రోజులు భిక్ష దొరకలేదు. తన శిష్యుల ఆకలి చూడలేక కాశీని శపించబోయాడు. అంటే కాశీని కూడా శపించగల మహా తపస్సంపన్నుడు. అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి స్వయంగా పిలిచి భిక్షను పెట్టింది. అంటే అన్నపూర్ణాదేవిని కూడా ప్రత్యక్షం చేసుకోగల పుణ్యాత్ముడు. ఆ జగన్మాత చేతి వంటను రుచి చూసిన మహాభాగ్యశాలి. కాని తన కోపం కారణంగా ఆ వైభవాలను కోల్పోయాడు. అల్పసంతోషి. తక్షణ కోపం కలవాడు.

2. కాశీలోని సామాన్య స్త్రీలు :
చక్కగా అలికి ముగ్గులు పెట్టి, ఇల్లు కలకలలాడుతూ ఉంచే స్వభావం కలవారు. అతిథులను సాక్షాత్తు దైవంగా భావించి పూజిస్తారు. బంగారు కంచంలో పిండి వంటలతో అన్నం పెడతారు. భిక్షుకులకు లేదు అనే మాట వారినోట రాదు. వారి హృదయాలలో నిరంతరం అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి కొలువై ఉంటుంది. కాశీలోని స్త్రీలు అన్నపూర్ణాదేవికి చెలికత్తెలు. అంతటి పుణ్యస్త్రీలు ఎక్కడా కనిపించరు. వారికి వారేసాటి.

3. అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి (పార్వతీదేవి) :
కేవలం భిక్ష దొరకనంత మాత్రాన ఇంత బాధపడిపోతావా? ఇది మంచిదా? అని బిడ్డను తల్లి మందలించినట్లు వ్యాసుని మందలించింది. పిడికెడు బియ్యం వండుకొని తినే వారున్నారు. కేవలం కాయలు తినే వారున్నారు. ఇంకా రకరకాల వారున్నారు కదా! వారంతా నీకంటే తెలివితక్కువ వారా! అని ప్రశ్నించింది.

ఒక బిడ్డకు తల్లి చెప్పే నీతులు, మందలింపులు, పోలికలు, ప్రశ్నలు సంధిస్తూ పార్వతీదేవి ఒక పెద్ద ముత్తైదువగా కనిపిస్తుంది. పరిపూర్ణ మాతృత్వం మూర్తీభవించినట్లుగా అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి స్వభావం కనిపిస్తుంది.

ప్రశ్న 4.
అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి ప్రత్యక్షమవడానికి కారణాలు వివరించండి.
జవాబు:
వేదవ్యాసుడు ఒకనాడు కాశీనగరంలో తన పదివేల మంది శిష్యులతో భిక్ష కోసం బ్రాహ్మణ వీధులలో ఇంటింటికీ తిరిగాడు. ఎవరూ వారికి భిక్ష పెట్టలేదు. సామాన్యంగా కాశీనగరంలోని బ్రాహ్మణ స్త్రీలు, రోజూ అతిథులకు ఆదరంగా మాధుకర భిక్ష పెడుతూ ఉంటారు. కానీ ఆనాడు వ్యాసుడికి ఎవరూ భిక్ష పెట్టలేదు. ఒకామె ‘అన్నం వండుతున్నాము’ అంది. మరొక స్త్రీ ‘మళ్ళీ రండి’ అంది. ఒకామె తమ ఇంట్లో దేవకార్యం అని చెప్పింది.

ఆ రోజుకు ఎలాగో ఉపవాసం ఉందామనీ, మరునాడు తప్పక భిక్ష దొరుకుతుందని వ్యాసుడు నిశ్చయించాడు. మరుసటి రోజున వ్యాసుడు శిష్యులతో భిక్షాటనకు వెళ్ళాడు. ఈశ్వరుడి మాయవల్ల ఆ రోజు కూడా ఆయనకు కాశీ నగరంలో ఎవరూ భిక్ష పెట్టలేదు.

దానితో వ్యాసుడు కోపంతో తన భిక్షాపాత్రను పగులకొట్టి, కాశీవాసులకు మూడు తరాల వరకూ ధనము, మోక్షము, విద్య లేకుండుగాక అని శపించడానికి సిద్ధమయ్యాడు.

అప్పుడు అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి, ఒక బ్రాహ్మణ భవనం వాకిటిలో సామాన్య స్త్రీవలె ప్రత్యక్షమయ్యింది. వ్యాసుడు కాశీ నగరాన్ని శపించకుండా అడ్డుపడి, ఆయనను మందలించడానికే అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి అలా ప్రత్యక్షమయ్యింది.

ప్రశ్న 5.
‘కోపం అన్ని అనర్ధాలకు కారణం అని ఎలా చెప్పగలవు?
(లేదా)
కోపం మనిషి విచక్షణను కోల్పోయేలా చేస్తుంది అనే విషయాన్ని భక్ష పొఠం ఆధారంగా వివరించండి.
జవాబు:
“కోపం వస్తే నేను మనిషిని కాను” అని అంటూ ఉంటారు. అది నిజమే. కోపం వస్తే తనను తాను మరచి, మనిషి రాక్షసుడు అవుతాడు. ఆ కోపంతో తాను ఏమి చేస్తున్నాడో, తెలిసికోలేడు. కోపంలోనే అన్నదమ్ములనూ, అక్క చెల్లెండ్రనూ, చివరకు కట్టుకొన్న భార్యనూ, కన్నపిల్లల్నీ కూడా చంపుతూ ఉంటారు. కాబట్టి కోపం మంచిది కాదు.

ఈ కథలో వ్యాసుడి అంతటి బ్రహ్మజ్ఞాని రెండు రోజులు భిక్ష దొరకలేదని కాశీ నగరాన్నే శపించబోయాడు. భర్తృహరి నీతి శతకంలో “క్షమ కవచంబు క్రోధమది శత్రువు” అంటాడు. అంటే ఓర్పు కవచం లాంటిది.
కోపం శత్రువు లాంటిది అని అర్థం. శత్రువులాంటి కోపాన్ని విడిచి పెట్టాలి.

దుర్యోధనుడికి పాండవుల పైన, భీముడి మీద కోపం. అందుకే వారితో తగవు పెట్టుకొని యుద్ధంలో తాను మరణించాడు. దేవతలపై కోపంతోనే, రాక్షసులు అందరూ మరణించారు. “కోపమునను ఘనత కొంచెమైపోవును” అని వేమన కవి చెప్పాడు.

కాబట్టి మనిషి కోపాన్ని అణచుకోవాలి. కోపము మనిషికి శత్రువు వంటిది. “తన కోపమే తన శత్రువు” అంటాడు సుమతీ శతక కర్త. కాబట్టి కోపం విడిచి పెట్టాలి.

ప్రశ్న 6.
‘ఆవేశం ఆలోచనలను నశింపచేస్తుంది’ – మీ పాఠం ఆధారంగా సమర్థించండి.
జవాబు:
కోపం వస్తే, ఆవేశం వస్తుంది. ఆవేశంలో ఏది మంచిదో, ఏది చెడ్డదో గ్రహించే వివేచన శక్తి మనిషికి నశిస్తుంది. దానితో అతడు తప్పుడు పనులకు సిద్ధం అవుతాడు. ఆవేశంతో కట్టుకున్న భార్యను, కన్న పిల్లల్నీ కూడా చంపడానికి సిద్ధం అవుతాడు.

కోపం యొక్క ఆవేశంలో అష్టాదశ పురాణాలు రచించిన వ్యాసమహర్షి అంతటివాడు, కన్నతల్లి వంటి కాశీ నగరాన్నే శపించబోయాడు. వ్యాసమహర్షి పదివేలమంది శిష్యులకు గురువు. నిత్యం కాశీ నగరంలో శిష్యులతో భిక్షకు వెళ్ళి ఆ భిక్షాన్నం తిని జీవించేవాడు. వ్యాసుడిని పరీక్షించాలని శివుడు భావించాడు. అన్నపూర్ణాదేవితో చెప్పి ఎవరూ వ్యాసునికి భిక్ష పెట్టకుండా చేశాడు.

ఒక రోజున వ్యాసుడికి, శిష్యులకూ ఎవరూ భిక్ష పెట్టలేదు. ఆ రోజు కాకపోయినా, మరునాడు తప్పక భిక్ష దొరకుతుందని వారు అనుకున్నారు. మరునాడు కూడా వ్యాసునికి ఎవరూ భిక్ష పెట్టలేదు.

దానితో వ్యాసుడు కోపంవల్ల వచ్చిన ఆవేశంతో, ఉద్రేకంతో తాను నివసిస్తున్న కాశీ నగరాన్నే శపించబోయాడు. ఉన్న ఊరు కన్నతల్లితో సమానం అంటారు. భిక్ష దొరకలేదనే ఆవేశంతో, వ్యాసుడు కాశీ నగరవాసులకు మూడు తరాల దాక విద్య, ధనము, మోక్షము లేకుండా పోవుగాక అని శపించబోయాడు.

దీనినిబట్టి ఆవేశం, ఆలోచనలను నశింపజేస్తుంది అని మనకు తెలుస్తోంది.

ప్రశ్న 7.
అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి పాత్ర స్వభావం వివరించండి.
జవాబు:
పార్వతీ స్వరూపం :
అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి కాశీ విశ్వేశ్వరుని ఇల్లాలు. పరమశివుని భార్య పార్వతీదేవినే, కాశీ నగరంలో అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి అని అంటారు. అన్నపూర్ణా విశ్వేశ్వరులు ఒకసారి కాశీ నగరంలో శిష్యులతో నివసిస్తున్న వ్యాసమహర్షిని పరీక్షిద్దాం అనుకున్నారు.

ఆదిశక్తి :
కాశీ నగరంలో అన్నం కావలసిన వారందరికీ అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి భిక్ష పెడుతుంది. కాశీ నగరంలోని బ్రాహ్మణ స్త్రీలు అందరూ అన్నపూర్ణాదేవికి స్నేహితురాండ్రు. అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి వేదపురాణ శాస్త్ర మార్గాన్ని చక్కగా పాటించే ముత్తయిదువ. ఆమె కాశీనగర బంగారుపీఠాన్ని అధిష్ఠించిన ఆదిశక్తి.

ఆతిధ్యము :
వ్యాసుడు కాశీ నగరాన్ని శపించకుండా అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి అడ్డుపడింది. ఒక బ్రాహ్మణ గృహద్వారం దగ్గర సామాన్య స్త్రీ వలె ఆమె ప్రత్యక్షమై, వ్యాసుడిని మందలించింది. తన ఇంటికి వ్యాసుడినీ, శిష్యులనూ భోజనానికి పిలిచి, వారికి కడుపునిండా భోజనం పెట్టింది.

మాట చాతుర్యం :
అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి మాటలలో మంచి నేర్పు ఉంది. “గొంతు దాకా తిండిలేదని గంతులు వేస్తున్నావు. మహర్షులు పిడికెడు నివ్వరి గింజలతో, కాయగూరలతో తృప్తి పడుతున్నారు కదా” అని వ్యాసుడిని చక్కగా మందలించింది. ఉన్న ఊరు కన్నతల్లి వంటిదని, కాశీ నగరం శివుడికి ఇల్లాలని, వ్యాసుడికి గుర్తు చేసింది. వ్యాసుడు అంతటివాడు కాశీని శపించడం తగదని హితవు చెప్పింది.

దీనినిబట్టి అన్నపూర్ణాదేవి మహాసాధ్వి అని, మంచి మాట చాతుర్యం కలదని, అతిథులకు అన్నం పెట్టే ఉత్తమ ఇల్లాలు అని తెలుస్తుంది.

10th Class Telugu 11th Lesson భిక్ష Important Questions and Answers

ప్రశ్న 1.
యాచన మంచిదికాదు అని చెబుతూ కరపత్రం తయారు చేయండి.
జవాబు:
యాచన మానండి – మాన్నించండి
ఆత్మాభిమానానికి గొడ్డలిపెట్టు యాచన. మర్యాదకు సమాధి యాచన. దరిద్రానికి పునాది యాచన.

అందుకే యాచన మానండి. కష్టపడండి. కాసులను ఆర్జించండి. దరిద్రాన్ని తరిమికొట్టండి. మీకెదురైన యాచకులకు ఆత్మసైర్యాన్ని కల్గించండి. జీవన మార్గాన్ని నిర్దేశించండి. ఉపాధి మార్గాలు చూపించండి. వృద్ధులైతే వృద్ధాశ్రమాల్లో చేర్చండి. అనాథలైతే అనాథాశ్రమాలలో చేర్పించండి. వారూ మన సోదరులే. వారిని ఉద్దరించడం, వారిలో ఆత్మాభిమానం కల్గించడం మన సామాజిక బాధ్యత.

ఇట్లు,
యాచనా వ్యతిరేక సంఘం.

ప్రశ్న 2.
కోపంవల్ల కలిగే అనర్థాలను వివరిస్తూ వ్యాసం రాయండి.
జవాబు:
‘కోపం – అనర్థాలు’

కోపము చెడ్డ లక్షణం. మనకు వ్యతిరేకంగా మాట్లాడితే, పనిచేస్తే, మనకు కోపం వస్తుంది. అనుకున్న పని జరుగకపోతే, కోపం వస్తుంది. కోపం వల్ల మోహం వస్తుంది. మోహం వల్ల బుద్ది నశిస్తుంది. బుద్ధి నశిస్తే మనిషి నశిస్తాడు అని గీత చెపుతోంది.

కోపంవల్ల చాలా అనర్థాలు సంభవిస్తాయి. మనిషి విచక్షణ శక్తిని కోల్పోతాడు. మనిషి కోపంలో తాను ఏమి చేస్తున్నాడో తెలిసికోలేడు. కోపంలో మనిషి తల్లిదండ్రులనూ, భార్యాబిడ్డలనూ, గురువులనూ సహితం, చంపడానికి సిద్ధం అవుతాడు. కోపంతో పగబట్టి మనిషి శత్రువులను చంపడానికి ప్రయత్నిస్తాడు.

కోపం మంచిదికాదని, మనకు పురాణాలు కూడా చెపుతున్నాయి. విశ్వామిత్రుడు, దుర్వాసుడు వంటి మహర్షులు, కోపంతో విచక్షణ పోగొట్టుకొని, ఎన్నో చిక్కులు పడ్డారు. విశ్వామిత్రుడు వశిష్ఠుడి చేతిలో భంగపడ్డాడు.

దుర్యోధనుడు పాండవులపై కోపంతో యుద్ధానికి దిగి, సర్వనాశనం అయ్యాడు. దుర్వాస మహర్షి అంబరీషుడిపై కోపపడి తానే కష్టాలపాలయ్యాడు. వ్యాసుడి వంటి బ్రహ్మజ్ఞాని కోపంతో కాశీని శపించబోయాడు.

కోపం మంచిది కాదని, మనకు నీతిశతకాలు చెపుతున్నాయి. భర్తృహరి “క్రోధమది శత్రువు” అని చెప్పాడు! “కోపమునను ఘనత కొంచెమైపోవును” అని వేమన చెప్పాడు. “తన కోపమె తన శత్రువు” అని సుమతీశతకం చెప్పింది.

అందువల్ల మనము కోపాన్ని విడిచి, శాంతముగా బ్రతకాలి. ‘శాంతమే భూషణము’ అని మనం గ్రహించాలి.

ప్రశ్న 3.
కోపంవల్ల గౌరవం తగ్గుతుందనే విషయాన్ని వివరిస్తూ ఒక కరపత్రం రాయండి.
జవాబు:
కోపం – గౌరవహీనం మిత్రులారా!

ఒక్కసారి ఆలోచించండి. మనం ప్రతి చిన్న విషయానికీ కోపం తెచ్చుకుంటూ ఉంటాము. కోపం అన్ని అనర్ధాలకూ మూలకారణం. కోపంవల్ల విచక్షణా జ్ఞానం నశిస్తుంది. ముఖ్యంగా చీటికీ మాటికీ కోపపడే వ్యక్తులకు, సంఘంలో గౌరవం తగ్గుతుంది. కోపం ఉన్న వ్యక్తి, ఇతరుల మనస్సులను జయించలేడు. నవ్వుతూ మాట్లాడే వ్యక్తి, ప్రపంచాన్నే జయిస్తాడు.

క్రోధం వల్ల మోహం, మోహంవల్ల బుద్ధి నాశనం కల్గుతాయని భగవద్గీత చెప్పింది. పురాణాలలో చెప్పబడే మునులలో విశ్వామిత్రుడు, దుర్వాసుడు సులభకోపులు. కోపంవల్ల వారు ఎన్నో చిక్కులు పడ్డారని, ఇతరులను అకారణంగా వారు హింసించారని పురాణాలు చెపుతున్నాయి. కోపం మనిషికి గౌరవ హీనతను తెస్తుంది. కోపం మనిషి వివేకాన్ని పాతర వేస్తుంది.

అందుకే మనం కోపాన్ని దూరంగా పెడదాం. తన కోపం తన శత్రువు అని సుమతీశతకం చెప్పినమాట గుర్తు పెట్టుకుందాము. కోపంవల్ల ఆయుర్దాయం తగ్గుతుంది. గుండె బలం తగ్గుతుంది. పిల్లలకు కోపంతో చెప్పిన దానికంటె, నవ్వుతో చెప్పినధి సులభంగా ఎక్కుతుంది. కార్యసాధనకు కోపం మహాశత్రువు అని గుర్తించండి. కోపానికి తిలోదకాలు ఇవ్వండి. నవ్వుకు, ఆనందానికి స్వాగతం పలకండి. పదికాలాలపాటు ఆరోగ్యంగా బ్రతకండి. కోపాన్ని విడిచిపెడతాం అని మనం ప్రతిజ్ఞ చేద్దాం. పదండి. కదలండి.
ఇట్లు,
ఆరోగ్య మిత్ర సంఘం,
గుంటూరు యువత.

10th Class Telugu 11th Lesson భిక్ష 1 Mark Bits

1. గురుశిష్యులు మండుటెండలో భిక్ష కోసం తిరిగారు – గీత గీసిన పదానికి విడదీసిన రూపాన్ని గుర్తించండి. (June 2017)
A) మండుట + ఎండ
B) మండు + టెండ
C) మండు + ఎండ
D) మండుట + అండ
జవాబు:
C) మండు + ఎండ

2. పార్వతి కాశీనగరమును శపించబోయిన వ్యాసుని మందలించింది – గీత గీసిన పదంలోని సమాసమేది ? (June 2017)
A) ఉపమాన ఉత్తరపద కర్మధారయం
B) సంభావనా పూర్వపద కర్మధారయం
C) అవధారణా పూర్వపద కర్మధారయం
D) విశేషణ పూర్వపద కర్మధారయం
జవాబు:
B) సంభావనా పూర్వపద కర్మధారయం

3. మునివర ! నీవు శిష్యగణముంగొని చయ్యన రమ్మువిశ్వనా – ఇది ఏ పద్యపాదమో గుర్తించండి. (June 2017)
A) మత్తేభం
B) ఉత్పలమాల
C) శార్దూలం
D) చంపకమాల
జవాబు:
D) చంపకమాల

4. మేఘుడంబుధికి పోయి జలంబులు తెచ్చి ఇస్తాడు. లోకోపకర్తలకిది సహజగుణము – ఇందులోని అలంకారాన్ని గుర్తించండి. (June 2017)
A) అర్థాంతరన్యాసం
B) రూపకం
C) స్వభావోక్తి
D) అంత్యానుప్రాసం
జవాబు:
A) అర్థాంతరన్యాసం

5. విజ్ఞానం కోసం విహారయాత్రలు చేయాలి – (గీత గీసిన పదమునకు వికృతిని గుర్తించండి.) (March 2017)
A) యంత్రము
B) ప్రయత్నం
C) జతనం
D) జాతర
జవాబు:
D) జాతర

6. సామాన్యాన్ని విశేషంతో గానీ, విశేషాన్ని సామాన్యంతో గాని సమర్థించి చెప్పే అలంకారం గుర్తించండి. (June 2018)
A) శ్లేష
B) ఉత్ప్రేక్ష
C) రూపకము
D) అర్థాంతరన్యాసము
జవాబు:
D) అర్థాంతరన్యాసము

7. ‘స్వభావం చేతనే ఐశ్వర్యం గలవాడు” అను వ్యుత్పత్యర్ధము గల్గిన పదమును గుర్తించుము. (March 2018)
A) భాగ్యశాలి
B) సంపన్నుడు
C) ధనికుడు
D) ఈశ్వరుడు
జవాబు:
D) ఈశ్వరుడు

8. భవాని ఒక పెద్ద ముత్తైదువ రూపంలో వచ్చి వ్యాసుణ్ణి మందలించింది – గీత గీసిన పదానికి సరైన వ్యుత్పత్యర్థాన్ని గుర్తించుము. (March 2018)
A) ఇంద్రుని భార్య
B) భవుని భార్య
C) విష్ణువు భార్య
D) సూర్యుని భార్య
జవాబు:
B) భవుని భార్య

9. పద్యములోని మొదటి అక్షరమును ఏమంటామో గుర్తించండి?
A) ప్రాస
B) యతి
C) పాదం
D) పదం
జవాబు:
B) యతి

10. మాయింటికిం గుడువ రమ్ము ! (ఆధునిక వచన వాక్యాన్ని గుర్తించండి.) (June 2017)
A) మాయింటికి భోజనానికి రావద్దు
B) మాయింటిలో అన్నం వండేందుకు రా
C) మాయింటికి భోజనానికి రా !
D) మాయింటికి భోజనానికి రాబోకుమా
జవాబు:
C) మాయింటికి భోజనానికి రా !

11. ఏ పాపాత్ముని ముఖంబు నీక్షించితినో – ఈ వాక్యానికి ఆధునిక వచనాన్ని గుర్తించండి. (March 2017)
A) ఏ పాపాత్ముని చూసానో నేను
B) ఏ పాపాత్ముని ముఖాన్ని చూసానో
C) ఏ పాపాత్ముని ముఖాన్ని చూడలేదు
D) ఏ పాపాత్ముని చూడలేదు నేను
జవాబు:
B) ఏ పాపాత్ముని ముఖాన్ని చూసానో

12. బౌద్ధ భిక్షువులచే వేలాది దీపాలు వెలిగించబడ్డాయి – దీనికి కర్తరి వాక్యం గుర్తించండి. (March 2018)
A) బౌద్ధ భిక్షువులు వేలాది దీపాలను వెలిగించారు.
B) బౌద్ధ భిక్షువులు వేలాది దీపాలను వెలిగించలేదు.
C) వేలాది దీపాలు బౌద్ధ భిక్షువులచే వెలిగించారు.
D) బౌద్ధ భిక్షువులు వేలాది దీపాలను వెలిగిస్తారు.
జవాబు:
A) బౌద్ధ భిక్షువులు వేలాది దీపాలను వెలిగించారు.

13. హరిహర బ్రహ్మలను పురిటి బిడ్డలను చేసిన పురంద్రీ లలామ అనసూయ – గీత గీసిన పదానికి సరైన వ్యుత్పత్యర్థాన్ని రాయండి. (March 2019)
జవాబు:
గృహమును ధరించునది

14. ఆకంఠంబుగ నిష్ణు మాధుకర భిక్షాన్నంబు భక్షింపఁగా – ఇది ఏ పద్యపాదము?
జవాబు:
శార్దూలము

15. అర్థాంతరన్యాసాలంకారానికి ఉదాహరణ
జవాబు:
హనుమంతుడు సముద్రమును లంఘించెను. మహాత్ములకు సాధ్యం కానిది లేదుగదా !

చదవండి – తెలుసుకోండి

మాట్లాడటమూ ఒక కళ

మనసులోని భావాన్ని ఎదుటివారికి తెలియజేసే మాధ్యమం మాట. మాటకున్న శక్తి గొప్పది. అది అవతలివారిని మెప్పించగలదు, నొప్పించగలదు, ఆపదల నుండి తప్పించగలదు. మాట్లాడటం ఒక కళ. శబ్దశక్తి తెలిసిన వానికే ఈ కళ కరతలామలకమవుతుంది.

ఒకాయన మెట్లు దిగుతున్నాడు. అదే సమయంలో మరొకాయన మెట్లు ఎక్కుతున్నాడు. దారి ఇరుకుగా ఉంది. ఇద్దరూ మధ్యలో ఎదురుపడ్డారు. కింద నుండి వస్తున్న అతనికి కోపమెక్కువ పై నుండి దిగుతున్న వానితో ‘నేను మూర్ఖులకు దారివ్వను’ అన్నాడు. వెంటనే ఎదుటివాడు ఏమాత్రం తడుముకోకుండా ‘పరవాలేదు నేనిస్తాను’ అన్నాడు. ఇప్పుడు ఎవడు మూర్ఖుడయ్యాడు?

ఒకావిడ ఇంకొకావిడతో పేచీ పెట్టుకున్నది. కోపంతో రెచ్చిపోయి ‘ఛీ కుళ్కా’ అనేసింది. అవతలావిడ ‘ఏమత్కా?” అన్నది. ఈ ముక్కతో మొదటావిడ తిక్క కుదిరింది.

తాంబూలం వేసుకోడానికి వెళ్ళాడో పెద్దమనిషి. తమలపాకులు కట్టేవానితో ‘ఏయ్, ఆకులో సున్నం తక్కువవేయి, దవడ పగులుతుంది’ అంటూ పక్కనేవున్న అరటిపండ్ల గెలకు చేయి ఆనించి నిలబడ్డాడు. అవకాశం కోసం ఎదురుచూస్తున్న తమలపాకులవాడు ‘ఏమయ్యోయ్, చెయ్యితియ్యి, పండ్లు రాలుతాయి’ అన్నాడు. మాటకు మాట, దెబ్బకు దెబ్బ.

సాహిత్యాభిలాషియైన ఒకడు కవిని కలిశాడు. ఎంతోకాలం నుండి తన మనసులో దాచుకున్న ఆశను బయటపెట్టాడు. ‘అయ్యా, నాకు ఏదైనా నాటికను రాసివ్వండి’ అనడిగాడు. దానికి బదులిస్తూ ఆ కవి ‘ఓ! దానికేముంది ఏనాటికైనా రాస్తాను’ అని అభయమిచ్చాడు.

ఒక పెండ్లి వేడుకలో కొందరు కూర్చుని మాట్లాడుకుంటున్నారు. ఒక పెద్దాయన ‘మీవయసెంతండి’ అనడిగారు. దానితా పెద్దమనిషి ‘ఏడేళ్ళు’ అన్నాడు. అందరూ ముక్కున వేలేసుకున్నారు. ఎంత పెద్దమనిషైతే మాత్రం ఇంతగా పరిహాసమాడుతారా అని నిలదీశారు. అతడన్నాడు. ‘నేను నిజమే చెప్పాను నాకు ఏడేళ్ళు (7 x 7 = 49) అన్నాడు. అసలు విషయం తెలుసుకుని అందరూ గొల్లున నవ్వేశారు.

బజారులో వెళుతున్న ఒకతనికి మిత్రుడు తారసపడ్డాడు. చాలాకాలమైంది వాళ్ళు కలుసుకొని. మిత్రుడు చెప్పులు లేకుండా ఉండడం చూసి విషయమేమిటని ప్రశ్నించాడు. దానికి బదులిస్తూ ‘చెప్పుకొనుటకే మున్నద’ని పెదవి విరిచాడా మిత్రుడు.

తను తీయబోయే సినిమా విషయంలో నిర్మాత ఒక కవి దగ్గరకు వెళ్లాడు. ‘నా సినిమాత పాట రాస్తారా?” అని అభ్యర్థించాడు. దానికి కవి రాస్తారా’ అన్నాడు. ఎంత కవియైతే మాత్రం ఇంత అహంతారంగా తనను ‘రా’ అంటాడా అనుకున్నాడు నిర్మాత. అతని ఆంతర్యం గ్రహించిన కవి అయ్యా, నన్ను తప్పుగా అనుకుంటున్నట్లున్నారు నేనన్నది ‘రాస్తా, రా’ అని. హమ్మయ్య అనుకున్నాడు.

ఇలా మాటలలో విరుపులు మెరుపులను సృష్టిస్తాయి. వ్యంగ్యం గిలిగింతలు పెడుతుంది.

These AP 10th Class Physical Science Chapter Wise Important Questions 14th Lesson Carbon and its Compounds will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 10th Class Chemistry 14th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Carbon and its Compounds

10th Class Chemistry 14th Lesson Carbon and its Compounds 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define Isomerism. (AP March 2016)
Answer:
The phenomenon of possessing same molecular formula but different properties by the compounds is known as “Isomerism”.

Question 2.
Give the names of the functional groups. (AP March 2018)
a) – COOR
b) – OH
Answer:
a) Ester
b) Alcohol

Question 3.
How do you explain the role of Oxygen in combustion process? (TS March 2015)
Answer:
Oxygen helps the combustion (or) No combustion will take place without oxygen.
Ex : C + O₂ → CO₂

Question 4.

Predict and write the products. (TS March 2016)
Answer:

Question 5.
Write two uses of nano tubes. (TS June 2017)
Answer:

1. Nano tubes are used as molecule wires.
2. In intigrated circuits nano tubes are used to connect the components together.
3. Nano tubes are used to incert Bio-molecules into the single cell.

Question 6.
Write two uses of Ethanol in day to day life. (TS March 2018)
Answer:
Ethanol is used in
i) Preparation of Alchoholic drinks
ii) Preparing tincture iodine
iii) Preparing cough syrup and tonics

Question 7.
Write the atomic structure of the following carbon compound. 3, 7-dibromo-4, -6 dichloro – oct-5-ene-l, 2-diol. (TS March 2019)
Answer:

Question 8.
Thanish added acetic acid along with concentrated sulphuric acid to ethanol what would be his observation during the experiment? (AP SCERT: 2019-20)
Answer:

1. He may observe that the resulting mixture is a sweet odoured substance.
2. The substance is ethyl acetate, an ester.

Question 9.
Why do the various micelles present in water do not come together to form a precipitate? Guess the reason. (TS June 2019)
Answer:
The various micelles present in water do not come together to form a precipitate as each micelle repels the other because of the ion-ion repulsion.

Question 10.
Mention any two uses of graphite in day to day life. (TS June 2019)
Answer:
Uses of graphite in day to day life :

1. Pencil lead.
2. Lubricant.

Question 11.
What is “Allotropy”?
Answer:
The property of an element to exist in two or more different forms due to the difference in their atomic arrangement is called “Allotropy” and the different forms are called allotropes.

Question 12.
‘Diamond is a bad conductor of heat.’ Why?
Answer:
Diamond is a bad conductor of heat due to lack of free electrons.

Question 13.
What is ‘cleavage’?
Answer:
Cleavage is a property of splitting of crystals of some minerals in certain directions to produce a flat, even surface.

Question 14.
“Diamond is the hardest natural substance but is brittle.” Why?
Answer:
Diamond is the hardest natural substance but is brittle and can be broken due to the property of cleavage.

Question 15.
Explain about high refractive index of diamond.
Answer:
Diamond has a high refractive index, due to which most of the light that enters the diamond gets reflected back internally. This internally reflected light is responsible for the brilliance of a diamond.

Question 16.
What is catenation?
Answer:
Catenation is the phenomenon in which atoms of same element join together to form long chains.

Question 17.
What is an alkyl group?
Answer:
If one hydrogen is removed from an alkane, it is called alkyl group.
Ex : CH₄ → methane
CH₃ → methyl group

Question 18.
What is polymerization?
Answer:
The reaction in which a large number of identical and simple molecules join together to form a large molecule is called ‘polymerization’.

Question 19.
What do you understand by a ‘Functional group’?
Answer:
A group of atoms in carbon compounds showing characteristic properties is called a functional group.

Question 20.
Name some functional groups.
ANswer:
Alcohol – OH, Aldehyde – CHO, Ketone – > C = O, Carboxylic acid (- GOOH), ester (-COOR), and amine – NH₂ are some important functional groups.

Question 21.
What is pyrolysis?
Answer:
Decomposition of a compound on heating in the absence of air is called pyrolysis.

Question 22.
What is hydrocarbon?
Answer:
Compounds containing only carbon and hydrogen are called ‘hydrocarbons’.
Ex : Alkanes (Saturated hydrocarbons),
Alkenes and Alkynes (Unsaturated hydrocarbons).

Question 23.
What is ‘Saturated hydrocarbon’? (Or) What is an alkane?
Answer:
The valency of carbon is 4, of all the valencies of carbon, are satisfied, the resultant hydrocarbons are referred to as ‘saturated hydrocarbons’ or alkanes. Their general formula is C_nH_2n+2.

Question 24.
What are ‘Unsaturated hydrocarbons’?
Answer:
The hydrocarbons containing one or more double bonds or triple bonds between two carbon atoms are called ‘unsaturated hydrocarbons’.
Ex : C₂H₆ and C₃H₆, etc.

Question 25.
What are alkenes?
Answer:
Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons having at least one (C = C) double bond in their structures, Alkenes are also called olefins. Their general formula is C_nH_2n.
Ex : Ethylene (C₂H4) and propene (C₃H₆), etc.

Question 26.
What are alkynes?
Answer:
Alkynes are unsaturated hydrocarbons having at least one (\(C \equiv C\)) triple bond in their structures. Their general formula is C_nH_2n-2.
Ex: Acetylene (\(\mathrm{HC} \equiv \mathrm{HC}\))

Question 27.
Mention the natural sources of carbon compounds.
Answer:
Plants, wood, natural gas, coal, petroleum, etc. are the natural sources of carbon compounds.

Question 28.
Explain about methanol (or) methyl alcohol.
Answer:
Methanol is the simplest alcohol, It is the first member of the homologous series of alcohol. It is also known as wood alcohol, as it was initially obtained by the destructive distillation of wood.

Question 29.
What is organic chemistry?
Answer:
The chemistry of carbon compounds (excluding the carbonates, bicarbonates, carbides, cyanides, carbon dioxide, and carbon monoxide) is called organic chemistry. The large number of organic compounds necessitated their study in separate branch of chemistry, known as organic chemistry,

Question 30.
What is halogenation?
Answer:
Alkanes react with halogens in the presence of sunlight. For example, when a mixture of methane and chlorine is exposed to sunlight, a hydrogen atom of methane is replaced by a chlorine atom,

Question 31.
How many rings are there in buckminsterfullerene?
Answer:
In buckminsterfullerene, there are 32 rings, of them 12 are pentagonal rings and 20 are hexagonal rings.

Question 32.
Give example for homologous series.
Answer:
CH₄ and C₂H₆ → These differ by a – CH₂ unit.
and C₂H₆ and C₃H₈ → These differ by a – CH₂ unit.

Question 33.
What is hybridisation?
Answer:
The intermixing of orbitals to form equivalent new orbitals is called hybridisation.

Question 34.
What are nanotubes?
Answer:
Nanotubes are allotropic form of carbon.

Question 35.
What are homologous series?
Answer:
The ierles of carbon compound in which successive compounds differ by -CH₂ unit is called homologous series.

Question 36.
Write the molecular formula of the fourth member of the homologous series of alcohols.
Answer:
CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – OH

Question 37.
What is a catalyst?
Answer:
The substance which does not take part in chemical reaction but changes the rate of reaction.

Question 38.
Why are oils liquids at room temperature?
Answer:
Oils are unsaturated compounds so they are in liquid state.

Question 39.
Why are fats solids at room temperature?
Answer:
They are saturated compounds so they are in solid state.

Question 40.
Do you know the police detect whether suspected drivers have consumed alcohol or not? Explain.
Answer:
Orange Cr₂O₇^2- changes bluish green Cr³⁺ during the process of the oxidation of alcohol. The length of die tube that turned into green is the measure of die quantity of alcohol that had been drunk.

Question 41.
What is pka?
Answer:
The negative value of logarithm of dissociation constant of an acid.

Question 42.
What is Saponification?
Answer:
Alkaline hydrolysis of triesters of higher fatty acids producing soaps is called saponification.

Question 43.
What is a soap?
Answer:
Sodium or potassium salt of fatty acid.

Question 44.
What is micelle?
Answer:
A spherical aggregate of soap molecules in water is called micelle.

Question 45.
What change will you observe if you test soap with litmus papers?
Answer:
Red litmus turns into blue.

Question 46.
Write the valency of carbon in CH₃ – CH₃, CH₂ = CH₂ and \(\mathrm{HC} \equiv \mathrm{CH}\)?
Answer:
The valency of carbon in CH₃ – CH₃ is 4.
The valency of carbon in CH₂ = CH₂ is 3.
The valency of carbon in \(\mathrm{HC} \equiv \mathrm{C}\) – H is 2.

Question 47.
Out of butter and groundnut oil which is unsaturated in nature?
Answer:
Groundnut oil is unsaturated in nature.

Question 48.
What are hydrophobic and hydrophilic parts in soap?
Answer:

Question 49.
Name the carboxylic acid used as preservative.
Answer:
Acetic acid is used as preservative.

Question 50.
Why does graphite act as a good conductor of electricity?
Answer:
Graphite is a good conductor of electricity because of delocalized x electron system.

Question 51.
Among objects made of glass and diamond, which one shines more? Why?
Answer:
Diamond shines more because of low conical angle of 24,4° and also high refractive

Question 52.
Write IUPAC names of the following compounds.

Answer:
a) 2, 2, 3, 3 – tetra methyl butane
b) 3-chloro butan-l-oic acid.

Question 53.
What is the difference between combustion and oxidation reaction?
Answer:
Combustion is an oxidation reaction where a compound is burnt in the presence of oxygen, whereas oxidation is addition of oxygen which does not require any burning.

Question 54.
Write the order of priority of functional groups for naming carbon compounds.
Answer:

Question 55.
What is glycerol?
Answer:
The trihydroxy alcohol is called glycerol.

Question 56.
What do you mean by CMC?
Answer:
CMC means Critical Micelle Concentration.

Question 57.
Name the simplest chloride of saturated hydrocarbon.
Answer:
Chloro methane or methyl chloride.

Question 58.
Write the IUPAC name of next homolog of CH₃CH₂CHO.
Answer:
The next homolog of CH₃CH₂CHO is CH₃CH₂CH₂CHO (its IUPAC name is butanol). Since homologs differ by – CH₂.

Question 59.
How do physical properties like boiling point and melting point vary as the number of carbon atoms increases in a homologous series?
Answer:
There is regular gradation in physical properties of homologous series. So the physical properties like boiling point and melting point vary.

Question 60.
What is meant by Hybridisation?
Answer:
Mixing two atomic orbitals with the same energy levels to give a degenerated new type of orbitals.

Question 61.
Write any two uses of Graphite.
Answer:
i) Conductor
ii) Lubricant

Question 62.
Write any two examples to Amorphous form of carbon.
Answer:
i) Coke
ii) coal
iii) charcoal.

Question 63.
Write any two examples to crystalline forms of carbon.
Answer:
i) Diamond
ii) graphite

Question 64.
What are the applications of Buckminster fullerene?
Answer:
i) Antioxidants
ii) Anti aging and damage agent in cosmetic sector.

Question 65.
What is meant by catenation?
Answer:
Binding of an element to itself through covalent bonds to form chain or ring molecules.

Question 66.
Write any one use of nanotubes.
Answer:
i) Used as molecular wires.
ii) Used in integrated circuits.

Question 67.
On which reason, graphite is used as lubricant and as the lead in pencils?
Answer:
Graphite has free electrons.

Question 68.
How many isotopes are there for C₄H₁₀, what are they?
Answer:
i) n – Butane
ii) Iso – Butane

Question 69.
CH₃ – CH = CH – CH₃, how many sigma bonds are present in the above compound?
Answer:
11

Question 70.
Write the IUPAC name of Ethyle alcohol.
Answer:
Ethanol.

Question 71.
Classify the following into alkanes, alkenes and alkynes.
C₁₂ H₂₂, C₁₀ H₂₂, C₁₁ H₂₂
Answer:
i) C₁₀ H₂₂ – Alkanes
ii) C₁₁ H₂₂ -Alkenes
iii) C₁₂ H₂₂-Alkynes

Question 72.
Hi ……… I am carboxylic acid. I am used in the making vinegar, who am I?
Answer:
Acetic acid.

Question 73.
What does IUPAC represent?
Answer:
International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry.

Question 74.
Write any one example for esterification reaction.
Answer:
CH₃COOH + C₂H₅OH → CH₃COOC₂H₅ + H₂O

Question 75.
A compound with molecules formula C₂H₆O is used in cough syrup. Identify the compound.
Answer:
Ethyl Alcohol.

Question 76.
Which substance is added for the denaturation of ethyl alcohol?
Answer:
Pyridine.

Question 77.
What is the abbreviation of CMC?
Answer:
Critical Micelle Concentration.

Question 78.
Write the names of polar end and non-polar end in a soap.
Answer:
Polar end – COO^– Na⁺, Non-polar end – R.

Question 79.
Write the IUPAC name of the alcohol which one carbon atom.
Answer:
Methanol.

Question 80.
Write the chemical equation which indicates the preparation of ethanol industrially?
Answer:

Question 81.
What is the formula of chloroform? Write its one use.
Answer:
CHCl₃, Anesthetic.

Question 82.
Which type of hydrocarbons are participate in addition reaction?
Answer:
Unsaturate Hydrocarbons.

Question 83.
What are the oxidising agents used in oxidisation of C₂H₅?
Answer:
K₂Cr₂O₇, KMn0₄.

Question 84.
What is meant by catalyst?
Answer:
To change die rate of reaction without itself undergoing any permanent chemical change.

Question 85.
What are the main constituents of LPG?
Answer:
Butane, Methane.

Question 86.
What is the difference between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons?
Answer:
Saturated house single bonds, unsaturated have multiple bonds.

Question 87.
Describe a test for carboxylic acid.
Answer:
React with metals liberate hydrogen gas.

Question 88.
What is meant by denatured alcohol?
Answer:
Unfit for human consumption by adding one or more chemicals.

Question 89.
Complete the following equation.
CH₄ + 2O₂ →
Answer:
CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 1H₂O

Question 90.

i) In the above substance, what is the hybridisation of 3^rd carbon?
Answer:
sp²

ii) What is the hybridisation of 4^th carbon?
Answer:
sp³

Question 91.
What is the main misuse of Ethanol?
Answer:
Drinking.

Question 92.
What is gasohol?
Answer:
10% Ethyl alcohol with gasoline.

Question 93.
Write any two uses of Ethyle alcohol.
Answer:
i) Good solvent
ii) Additive to automotive gasoline.

Question 94.
Write two IUPAC name

Answer:
3 – Chloro 1 – Butane

Question 95.
Name the following functional groups.
i) – COOR
ii) R – COOH
Answer:
i) – COOR (Ester)
ii) R – COOH (Carboxylic acid)

Question 96.
Name the crystalline allotrope of carbon which conducts electricity.
Answer:
Graphite.

Question 97.
Ravi gets confused while understanding the between R – COOH and R – OH functional groups, ask him one question to classify it.
Answer:
i) What is carboxylic acid?
ii) What is Alcohol?

Question 98.
Formic acid (HCOOH)
Farmaldehyde (HCHO)
Methanol (CH₃OH), then answer the following questions.
i) Which is present in ants?
Answer:
HCOOH (Formic acid).

ii) Which is used to preservation of dead bodies?
Answer:
HCHO (Farmaldehyde).

Question 99.
Write the symbolic representation showing the functional groups.
i) amine
ii) amide
Answer:
i) R – NH₂
ii) R – CONH₂

Question 100.
How many sigma and pi-bonds present in Acetylene?
Answer:
\(\mathrm{HC} \equiv \mathrm{CH}\) ; σ bonds – 3 ; π bonds – 2

Question 101.
Which of the following will give substitution reactions?
CH₄, C₃H₆, C₃H₄, C₅H₁₂, C₄H₈
Answer:
CH₄, C₅ H₁₂

Question 102.
Which of the following will give addition reactions?
CH₄, C₃H₆, C₃H₄, C₅H₁₂, C₄H₁₀
Answer:
C₃H₆, C₃H₄

Question 103.
What is a homologous series?
Answer:
Same functional group, difference between successive members is a simple structural unit – CH₂.

Question 104.
Name the hydrocarbon which is used in the artificial ripening of fruits?
Answer:
C₂H₄

Question 105.
Define fermentation process.
Answer:
Chemical break down of a substance by bacteria, yeast or other microorganisms.

Question 106.
Define functional group.
Answer:
They are specific substituents within molecules that are responsible for die characteristic chemical reactions.

Question 107.
Which hydrocarbons participate in sp² hybridisation?
Answer:
C₂H₄

Question 108.
Name the following compounds,
i) CH₃ – CH₂ – Br
Answer:
1 – Bromo Ethane

ii)

Answer:
Ethanol

iii)

Answer:
2 – Butanone

iv)

Answer:
2, 3 – dichloro Butane

Question 109.
Which constituents are present in tincture Iodine?
Answer:
i) Iodine
ii) Alcohol.

Question 110.
Write the uses of esters in daily life.
Answer:
i) Solvents
ii) Plasticizers

Question 111.
Name the gas evolved when acetic acid reacts with sodium hydrogen carbonate.
Answer:
The gas liberated is carbon dioxide.

Question 112.
Name the organic acid present in vinegar. Write its chemical formula.
Answer:
The acid present in vinegar is acetic acid. Its formula is CH₃COOH.

Question 113.
Why is graphite a good conductors’of electricity?
Answer:
Graphite has free electrons.

Question 114.
Why does carbon form compounds mainly by covalent bonding?
Answer:
Tbtravalency.

Question 115.
Why are alkanes called as paraffins?
Answer:
Low reactivity.

Question 116.
Draw two possible structures with formula C3HgO and what they are called?
Answer:

Question 117.
Draw structure of 3 – methyl pentan-3-ol.
Answer:

Question 118.
Draw the shape of soap molecule.
Answer:

Question 119.
Draw the shape of Micelle.
Answer:

Question 120.
Draw the shape of methane.
Answer:

Question 121.
Draw the structure of pentanoic acid.
Answer:

Question 122.
How do you appreciate the role of diamond in space probes?
Answer:
Since it has the ability to filter out harmful radiations, it is used in making protective windows for space probes.

Question 123.
How do you appreciate the role of acetic acid as a preservative?
Answer:

• Dilute acetic acid is used as a food preservative in the preparation of pickles and sauces,
• As vinegar, it is also used as an appetiser for dressing food dishes.

Question 124.
How do you appreciate the role of diamond in surgery?
Answer:
A sharp edged diamond is used as a tool to remove cataract in eye surgery.

10th Class Chemistry 14th Lesson Carbon and its Compounds 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Draw the simple figure of a soap molecule. (AP March 2016)
Answer:
Structure of soap molecule :

Question 2.
Draw the structure of the methane molecule. Write its bond angle. (TS June 2015)
Answer:
The bend angle in methane is 109°2 8′.

Question 3.
a) Why are vegetable oils healthy as compared to vegetable ghee? (TS March 2015)
b) Write the IUPAC name of

Answer:
a) Because vegetable oils contain unsaturated fatty acids or vegetable oils are easily digestible.
b) 3 – Mono chloro butene (or) 3 Chloro butene

Question 4.
What are alkenes? Write the general formula of alkenes. Give an example for alkenes. (TS June 2017)
Answer:

• Unsaturated hydrocarbons those are having carbon * carbon double bond are known as alkenes.
• The general formula of Alkenes is CHH2h.
• Example : Ethelene (C2H4).

Question 5.

Based on the diagram, answer the following.
1) Write the name of the compound.
2) Write the name of functional group in the structure. (AP March 2019)
Answer:

1. The compound is 2, 3-di ethyl-cycle hexan-1-ol.
2. Alcohol (OH) is the functional group in the structure.

Question 6.
Identify the functional groups in the following compounds and write IUPAC names.

Answer:

The IUPAC name of the compound Is 2 – Chloro-Butan 1-ol.

The IUPAC name of the compound is 3 – Methyl-2-Butan-one.

Question 7.
Draw the structure of butanoic acid C₃H₇COOH.
Answer:
Formula of butanoic acid is C₄H₅O₂.

Question 8.
What is ‘Isomerism’?
Answer:
Compounds having same molecular formula but different structures are called isomers, and the phenomenon is called isomerism.
Ex: C₄H₁₀ exists an n-hutane and iso-butane.

Question 9.
How do you detect leakage in the cylinder?
Answer:

• To detect any leakage of gas from die cylinder, a strong-smelling substance like ethyl mercaptan (C₂H₅ SH) is added to die gas.
• Then the leakage can be easily detected by the foul smell of die ethyl mercaptan.

Question 10.
How is LPG gas useful for environment?
Answer:

• Because of its heat producing capacity (calorific value), it is considered to be a good fuel.
• It bums without producing smoke. Hence, it does not cause any pollution.
• It is a dean fuel and can be conveniently handled.

Question 11.
How is ethanol useful in pharmaceutical industry?
Answer:

• Solutions in ethanol are often prepared in pharmaceutical industry, these solutions are known as tinctures.
• For example, a solution of Iodine and potassium iodide in ethanol is called tincture of iodine.
• It is also used as an important raw material for the synthesis of many organic compounds, for example, ethanol, ethanoic acid, ethanoie anhydride, esters, chloroform, etc.

Question 12.
How are synthetic detergents harmful for environment?
Answer:

• Some synthetic detergents resist biodegradation, i.e. they are not decomposed by micro-organisms such as bacteria.
• Hence, they cause water pollution in lakes and rivers.
• They tend to persist for a long time, making the water unfit for aquatic life.

Question 13.
Explain about allotropic forms of carbon.
Answer:

Question 14.
Diamond is considered to be the purest form of carbon. How can we prove it?
Answer:
When diamond is heated in oxygen alone, it bums at about 800° C and forms carbon dioxide leaving no residue. This proves that diamond to be the purest form of carbon.

Question 15.
Why does carbon not form C⁴⁺? Why?
Answer:

• Electronic configuration of carbon is 1s²2s²2p².
• If carbon loses four electrons from the outer shell, it will form C⁴⁺ ions.
• This requires huge amount of energy which is not available normally.
• Therefore C⁴⁺ formation is not possible.

Question 16.
Why does carbon form compounds mainly by covalent bonding?
Answer:
Carbon is unable to form C⁴⁺ ion as well as C^4- ion. So carbon has to satisfy its tetra- valency by sharing electrons with other atoms. So it mainly forms covalent bonding.

Question 17.
Define Allotropy. What are the allotropic forms of carbon?
Answer:
The property of an element to exist in two or more physical forms having more or less similar chemical properties but different physical properties is called allotropy. The allotropic forms of carbon are graphite, diamond, etc.

Question 18.
Identify the unsaturated compounds of the following.
a) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂
b) CH₃ – CH = CH₃
c)

Answer:
a) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ saturated compound.
b) CH₃ – CH = CH₃ unsaturated compound.
c)

Question 19.
Define Isomers. Write structural formula of isomers of butane.
Answer:
Compounds having same molecular formula but different properties are called isomers.
Isomers of butane :
1) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃
Butane

Question 20.
What happens when a small piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol?
Answer:
When a small piece of sodium is dropped into ethanol it releases hydrogen gas and forms sodium ethoxide.
2C₂H₅OH + 2 Na → 2C₂H₅ONa + H₂

Question 21.
What type of reaction takes place between ethane and chlorine?
Answer:
Substitution reaction takes place between ethane and chlorine in die presence erf sunlight
CH₄ + Cl₂ → CH₃Cl + HCl
CH₃Cl +Cl₂ → CH₂Cl₂ + HCl
CH₂Cl₂ + Cl₂ → CHCl₃ + HCl
CHCl₃ + Cl₂ → CCl₄ + HCl

Question 22.
What are the two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of carbon compounds we see around us?
Answer:

1. Catenation
2. Isomerism.

Question 23.
How could you name the following compounds?
a) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – Br
b) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂
Answer:
a) Bromo propane
b) Hexyne

Question 24.
Give examples for primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
Answer:
Primary amine – CH₃NH₂
Secondary amine – CH₃ – NH – CH₃

Question 25.
Write the following conversions.
1) Ethanol to Ethene
2) Ethene to Ethanol
3) Methane to carbon tetra chloride.
Answer:
1) Ethanol reacts with cone. H₂SO₄ at about 170°C to give ethene.

2) Ethanol is prepared from ethene by the addition of water vapour in the presence of catalyst P₂O₅.

3) Methane reacts with chlorine in the presence of sunlight. Hydrogen atoms of CH₄ are replaced by chlorine at

Question 26.
Name the following compounds and which one is saturated among them.
a) CH₃ – \(\mathrm{C} \equiv \mathrm{H}\) – CH₃
b) CH₃ – CH = CH – CH₃
c) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₃
Answer:
a) 2-Butyne
b) 2 – Butene
c) Butane

Butane does not show any double or triple bonds. Its valency is completely satisfied with formation of single bond. So it is a saturated compound.

Question 27.
How do you identify the given organic compound contains carboxylic acid functional group?
Answer:

• On adding carbonates and bicarbonates the compound containing carboxylic acid group evolves carbon dioxide gas.
• When warmed with alcohol and cone. H₂SO₄ a pleasant fruity smell is produced due to formation of ester.

Question 28.
Explain briefly about the structure of “Diamond”.
Answer:

• In a diamond, each carbon atom is surrounded by four other carbon atoms.
• In these carbon atoms, each carbon atom undergoes in its excited state sp3 hybridisation.
• These are placed at the four corners of a regular tetrahedron.
• This results in a 3-dimensional network of carbon atoms.
• So diamond is in three dimensional structure.

Question 29.
Explain briefly about the structure of “Graphite”.
Answer:

• In graphite, each ‘C’ is surrounded by three other ‘C’ atoms.
• The ‘C’ atoms are arranged in layers.
• In the layer structure, the carbon atoms are in trigonal planar environment.
• Each layer consists of a 2-dimensional hexagonal network.

Question 30.
Diamond is an extremely bad conductor of electricity.” Why?
Answer:
1) In diamond, each carbon atom is covalently bonded with four other carbon atoms.
2) So, the four outermost electrons of a carbon atom are engaged or trapped in the covalent bonds, having no free electrons making it a bad conductor of electricity.

Question 31.
Why is diamond hard but graphite is smooth and slippery?
Answer:
Diamond has sp³ hybridisation with tetrahedral environment. As C – C bonds are very strong any attempt to distort the diamond structure requires large amount of energy. Hence diamond is one of the hardest material.

Whereas graphite has sp² hybridisation with layer structure with trigonal planar environment. The layers tend to slide on one another. So graphite is smooth and slippery.

Question 32.
An organic compound X with a molecular formula C₂H₆O undergoes oxidation within presence of alkaline KMnO₄ to form a compound Y. X on heating in presence of con. H₂SO₄ at 443 K gives Z. Which on reaction with Br₂ and decolorizes it? Identify X, Y, and Z and write the reactions involved.
Answer:
X is ethanol.

Question 33.
Complete the following reactions.

Answer:

Question 34.

What are A and B?
Answer:
1) Alkynes undergo addition reaction in the presence of nickel catalyst and hydrogen to form Alkene.

Question 35.
Draw the structure for the following compounds.
a) Propanoic acid
b) Chlorobutane
c) Hexanone
d) Pentanal
Answer:
a) CH₃CH₂COOH
b) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂Cl
c) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂COCH₃
d) CH₃CH₂CH₂CH₂CHO

Question 36.
Give IUPAC names of the following compounds. If more than one compound is possible, name all of them.
i) A chloride derived from butane.
ii) A ketone derived from pentane.
Answer:
i) The following chlorides are possible for butane.

ii) The following ketones are possible for pentane.

Question 37.
a) What are the various possible structural formulae of a compound having molecular formula C₃H₆?
b) Give IUPAC names of the above possible compounds and represent them in structure.
c) What is the difference between those
Answer:

b) The IUPAC names of compounds are propene and cycle propane.
c) The main difference Is that the first compound Is alkene-an unsaturated compound and second is cyclo alkane-a saturated compound.

Question 38.
Draw isomeric forms of C₆H₁₄.
Answer:
Isomers of hexane :

Question 39.
How do you appreciate the role of carbon in everyday life?
Answer:

• Major components of our daily food have carbohydrates, proteins, fats, etc. which are all made up of carbon compounds.
• The fibres of cloth are made up of cellulose and other types of materials, which are all carbon compounds.
• Cement and steel form the core of any of the modern buildings. Carbon bestows steel with hardness, while limestone (CaCO₃) a major constituent of cement also contains carbon.

Question 40.
How do you appreciate the role of oxygen in combustion process?
Answer:

• When the oxygen supply is insufficient, the fuels burn incompletely producing mainly a yellow flame.
• When the oxygen supply is sufficient, the fuels burn completely producing a blue flame.

Question 41.
How do you appreciate the role of Ethanol as a fuel?
Answer:

• A material which is burnt to obtain heat is called a fuel. Since ethanol burns with a clear flame giving a lot of heat, it is used as a fuel.
• Some countries add ethanol to petrol to be used as a fuel in cars. Thus ethanol is used as an additive in petrol.
• Ethanol alone can also be used as a fuel for cars.

Question 42.
What are the uses of fullerenes?
Answer:
Fullerenes are under study for potential medical use such as specific antibiotics to target resistant bacteria and even target cancer cells such as melanoma.

Question 43.
Write the HJPAC names of the following compounds.
i) CH₃ – CH₀ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂OH
ii) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH = CH- CH₂ – \(\mathrm{C} \equiv \mathrm{CH}\)
iii) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CHO
iv) CH₃ – CH₂ – CH₂ – CH₂ – COOH
Answer:

1. nananol
2. 4- ene – 1 heptyne
3. pentanal
4. pentanoic acid

Question 44.
What are the uses of alcohol?
Answer:

• Alcohols are goods solvent for resin and gums.
• Ethanol is used in the thermometers because of its low freezing point.
• One of the products of ethyl alcohol is chloroform, which is used as an aesthetic.
• 10% ethanol in gasoline is a good motor fuel.
• It is used in medicines such as tincture iodine, cough syrups and many tonics.

Question 45.
What are the uses of acetic acid?
Answer:

• 5 to 8% solution of acetic acid in water is called vinegar and is used widely as a preservative in pickles.
• Used as a laboratory reagent.
• Used in the production of perfumes, dyes, esters, etc.
• Used in medicine.

10th Class Chemistry 14th Lesson Carbon and its Compounds 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write IUPAC names for the following carbon compounds.

Answer:
A) 2 – methyle pentane – 3 – ol
B) 3 – chloro, 4 – Methyle hexanoic acid
C) 2 Bromo – Bute – 2 – ene
D) 2, 5 Dimethyle hexane

Question 2.
(AP June 2017)
Observe the given carbon compound and answer the following questions.
a) Give numbering to the carbons in the given compound according to IUPAC rules.
b) Name the functional group present in the given compound.
c) Name the word root for the given carbon compound.
d) Write the IUPAC name of the given compound.
Answer:
a)

b) The given compound contains functional group – OH. It is an alcohol.
c) Word root: The number of carbon atoms present in the molecules is called word root. Here the word root is (C₅) – pent.
d) IUPAC name of the given compound is pent 4 – ene 2 – ol.

Question 3.
Alkanes are considered as Paraffins. So, they undergo substitution reactions but not addition reactions. Explain with suitable example. (AP March 2017)
Answer:

Question 4.

Observe the structure and answer the following.
a) Write the name of principal functional group present in the compound.
b) Identify the parental chain in the compound.
c) What are the substituents in the above compound?
d) Name the above compound as per IUPAC nomenclature. (AP June 2018)
Answer:
a) Ketone
b)

c) Methyl group ; Hydroxy group
d) 7 – hydroxy – S – methyl heptan – 2 – one

Question 5.
In the table given below, fill the information in the empty boxes and give answers to the following questions. (TS June 2015)
a Write the general formula of alkanes from the table.

b) How many a bonds are there in C₃H₆?
c) What sequential order did you notice in the molecular formulae?
d) There exist single bonds between carbon atoms of alkanes. Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons.
Answer:

a) The general formula of Alkanes is C_nH_2n+2
b) The number of o bonds in C₂H₆ are 7.
c) Two successive alkanes are differed by – CH₂ group.
d) Except Methane all other alkanes have single bonds between carbon atmos because it is a saturated hydro carbon.

Question 6.
Why do we call alkanes as paraffins? Explain the substitution reactions of alkanes. (TS June 2016)
Answer:
a) 1. Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with least reactivity.
2. Therefore they are called paraffins.
3. Parum = little and affins = affinity.

b) 1. A reaction in which one atom or a group of atoms in a given compound is replaced by other atom or group of atoms is called a substitution reaction.
2. Alkanes have single bonds and undergo substitution reactions.

3. For example :
Methane (CH₄) reacts with chlorine in the presence of sunlight.

Question 7.
Write the types of Allotropes of Carbon. Give any three examples of each. (TS March 2016)
Answer:
The allotropes of carbon are classified into two types. They are
i) Amorphous forms,
ii) Crystalline forms.
Examples :
Amorphous forms :
Coal, coke, wood charcoal, animal charcoal, lamp black, gas carbon, petroleum coke, sugar charcoal, etc.

Crystalline forms :
Diamond, graphite, and buckminsterfullerene.

Question 8.
Write any 4 characteristic features of homologous series of Organic compounds. (TS March 2016)
Answer:
Homologous series :
The series of carbon compounds in which two successive compounds differ by – CH2 unit is called homologous series.

Characteristic features of homologous series :

1. They have one general formula.
   Ex : Alkane (C₄H_{2n + 2}), Alkene (C₄H_2n), Alkyne (C₄H_2n-2)
2. Successive compounds in their series possess a difference of (- CH₂) unit.
3. They possess similar chemical properties due to the same functional group.
4. They show a regular gradation in their physical properties.

Question 9.
List out the materials required to conduct the experiment to understand the esterification reaction. Explain the procedure of the experiment. How can you identify that an ester is formed in this reaction?(TS March 2017)
Answer:
Required Material :
Test tube, beaker, tripod* burner, water, wire guage, ethanol (absolute alcohol), glacial acetic acid, concentrated sulphuric acid.

Procedure :

1. Take 1 ml of ethanol and 1 ml of glacial acetic acid along with a few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid in the test tube.
2. Warm it in a water bath or in a beaker containing water for atleast five (5) minutes.
3. Pour the warm contents into a beaker containing 20-50 ml of water and observe the odour of the resulting mixture.
   If we smell sweet odour from the beaker, we can confirm that ester is formed.

Question 10.
Explain the Isomerism and Catenation properties of carbon. (TS March 2018)
Answer:
Catenation properties of carbon :
i) Carbon has ability to form longest chains with its own atoms. This special property of carbon is called catenation.
ii) Due to catenation property of carbon it can form largest chain containing millions of carbon atoms, branches and cyclic compounds.

Isomerism of carbon :
The phenomenon of possessing some molecular formula but different properties by the compounds is known as isomerism.

Molecular formula of above two molecules is C₄ H₁₀ but they have different structure. These two are isomers.

By there two special properties of carbon it can make number of compounds.

Question 11.

Observe the above table and answer the following questions. (TS March 2019)
1) Write the general formula of Alkanes.
2) Mention the names of unsaturated hydrocarbons.
3) Write the homologous series of Alkynes.
4) Write the formula of Hexyne.
Answer:
1) General formula for Alkanes : C_nH_2n+2.
2) Unsaturated Hydrocarbons in the list are :
Propene C₃H₆, Butene C₄H₆, Pentyne C₅H₈, Hexyne C₆H₁₀.

3) Homologous series of Alkynes is C₂H₂ (Ethyne), C₃H₄ (Propyne), C₄H6 (Butyne), C₅H₈ (Pentyne), C₆H₁₀ (Hexyne).

4) Formula of Hexyne is C₆H₁₀.

Question 12.
Complete the following table based on functional groups of organic compounds, their structural formulas and respective suffixes. (AP SCERT: 2019-20)

Answer:

Question 13.
Explain the occurrence of carbon.
Answer:
Carbon occurs in nature in free state as well as in combined state.

Question 14.
What is sp hybridisation? Explain.
Answer:

• Each carbon is only joining to two other atoms rather than four or three.
• Here the carbon atoms hybridise their outer orbitals before forming bonds, this time they only hybridise two of the orbitals.
• They use the ‘s’ orbital (2s) and one of the 2p orbitals, but leave the other 2p orbitals unchanged.
• The new hybrid orbitals formed are called sp-hybrid orbitals, because they are made by an s-orbital and a p-orbital reorganizing themselves.

Question 15.
Write the characteristics of homologous series of organic compounds.
Answer:
Characteristics of homologous series :

1. They have one general formula.
   e.g.: Alkanes (C_nH_2n+2)
2. Successive compounds in the series possess a difference of – CH₂ unit.
3. They possess similar chemical properties due to same functional group.
   e.g.: C – OH
4. They show a regular gradation in their physical properties.

Question 16.
What is sp³ hybridisation with diagram? Explain.
Answer:
The excited carbon atom allows its one s-orbital (2s) and three p-orbitals (2p_x, 2p_y, 2p_z) to intermix and reshuffle into four identical orbitals known as sp³ orbitals. Thus, carbon atom undergoes sp³ hybridization. The four electrons enter the new four identical hybrid orbitals known as sp³ hybrid orbitals, one each as per Hu nd’s rule.

1) Since carbon has four unpaired electrons, it is capable of forming bonds with four other atoms.

2) When carbon reacts with hydrogen, four hydrogen atoms allow their ‘s’ orbitals containing one electron each to overlap with four sp³ orbitals of carbon atom which are oriented at an angle of 109°. 28’.

3) Four orbitals of an atom in the outer shell orient along the four corners of a tetrahedron to have minimum repulsion between their electrons. ‘The nucleus of the atom is at the centre of the tetrahedron.

4) This leads to form four sp³ – s sigma bonds between carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms, All these bonds are of equal energy,

Question 17.
What is sp² hybridisation? Explain.
Answer:
Consider ethene molecule

• In the formation of CH₂ – CH₂ each carbon atom in its excited state undergoes sp² hybridisation by intermixing one s-orbital (2s) and two p-orbitals (say 2p_x and 2p_y) and reshuffling to form three sp² orbitals.
• Mow each carbon atom is left with one ‘p’ orbital (say 2p_z) unhybridised,
• The three sp² orbitals having one electron each get separated around the nucleus of carbon atoms at an angle of 120°.
• When carbon is ready to form bonds one sp² orbital of one carbon atom overlaps the sp² orbital of the other carbon atom to form sp² – sp² sigma (σ) bond,
• The remaining two sp² orbitals of each carbon atom get overlapped by ‘s’ orbitals of two hydrogen atoms containing unpaired electrons.
• The unhybridised p_z orbitals on the two carbon atoms overlap laterally as shown in figure to form a π (pi) bond.
• Hence, there exist a sigma (σ) bond and a pi π (pi) bond between two carbon atoms in ethene molecule. Hence, the molecule ethene (C₂H₄) is

Question 18.
The list of some organic compounds is given below.
Ethanol, ethane, methanol, methane, ethyne and ethene.
From the above list name the compound …………..
a) formed by the dehydration of ethanol by cone. H₂SO₄.
b) which forms methanoic acid on oxidation?
c) which forms chloroform on halogination in the presence of light?
d) which are unsaturated compounds?
e) which have compounds containing alcohol group?
Answer:
a) Dehydration ethanol in the presence of Cone. H₂SO₄ forms ethene,
b) Methanol on oxidation turns to methanoic acid,
c) Methane in the presence of light forms chloroform,
d) Unsaturated compounds are ethene and ethyne.
e) The compounds containing alcohol group are methanol, ethanol,

Question 19.
Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds.

Answer:

1. 1 – propyne
2. 3 – pentanel (or) pentamSml
3. 2 – methyl propane
4. 1, 2 dichloro ethane

Question 20.
Give one example of each of the following.
i) Saturated hydrocarbon
ii) Cyclic compounds
iii) Unsaturated hydrocarbon
iv) Functional group
v) Homologous series
Answer:
i) Saturated hydrocarbons are Alkanes, So the examples are methane (CH₄), Ethane, (C₂H₆).
ii) Cyclic compounds are cycle alkanes, eg : Cyclo propane (C₃H₆), Cycle butane (C₄H₆).
iii) Unsaturated hydrocarbons are Aikynes, eg : Ethene (C₂H₄), Propene
iv) The examples for functional groups are ‘ 1. Aldehyde – CHO, 2. Alcohol = OH
v) A series of carbon compounds that differ by – CH₂ with similar chemical properties is called homologous series.
eg: 1, Alkane, 2, Alkene

Question 21.
Write the differences between saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.
Answer:

Saturated hydrocarbons	Unsaturated hydrocarbons
1) All the four valencies of each carbon atom are satisfied by forming single covalent bonds with carbon and hydrogen atoms,	1) The valencies of at least two carbon atoms are not fully satisfied by the hydrogen atoms.
2) Carbon atoms are joined only by single bonds.	2) Carbon atoms are joined by at least one double bond or by a triple bond.
3) They are less reactive due to non­availability of electrons in the single covalent bond therefore they undergo substitution reactions,	3) They are more reactive because of the presence of electrons in the double or triple bond and therefore undergo addition reactions.

Question 22.
Answer the following.
a) What are the first three members of carboxylic acid series?
b) Name the compounds which can be oxidised directly or in stages to produce ethanoic acid.
c) Write one equation each when acetic acid reacts with a metal, a base, and a carbonate.
d) Name the organic compound formed when acetic acid and ethanol react together.
Answer:
a) The first three members of carboxylic acids are :
i) Methanoic acid – HCOOH
ii) Ethanoic acid – CH₃COOH
iii) Propanoic acid – CH₃CH₂COOH

b) Ethanol in stages oxidises to acetic acid whereas ethanol directly oxidises to ethanoic acid.

c) i) 2 CH₃COOH + 2 Na → 2CH₃COONa + H₂
ii) CH₃COOH + NaOH → CH₃COONa + H₂O
iii) CH₃COOH + Na₂CO₃ → CH₃COONa + H₂O + CO₂

d) When ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid it forms an ester namely ethyl acetate.

Question 23.
What are the rules to be followed to name a carbon compound?
Answer:
Rules to be followed
i) Longest carbon chain is selected,
ii) Chain is numbered in such a way that the branched chain or substituent gets the smallest number,
iii) If the functional group is present, it is given the. lowest number,
iv) Substituents are named in the alphabetical order,
v) The position of substituents are prefixed with hyphen,
vi) Multiple substituents are written with numerical prefixes such as di or tri,

Question 24.
Write suffixes and prefixes for some important characteristic functional group in a tabular form.
Answer:

Question 25.
Correct the following statements.
1) Alkenes undergo substitution reactions.
2) Alkanes are polar in nature.
3) When sodium piece is added to ethanol oxygen gas liberates.
4) On complete combustion of carbon compound it gives carbon monoxide and water.
Answer:

1. Alkenes are unsaturated hydrocarbons. So they undergo addition reactions.
2. Alkanes are covalent compounds. So they are non-polar in nature.
3. When sodium piece is added to ethanol it releases hydrogen gas.
4. On complete combustion of carbon compound it forms carbon dioxide and water.

Question 26.
Copy and complete the following table which relates to three homologous series of hydrocarbons.

Answer:

Question 27.
Draw the structures of isomers of butane.
Answer:
Isomers of butane are n-butane, iso butane and cyclo butane :
Structures :

Question 28.
Draw the structures of the following.
a) Ethanoic acid
b) Propanal
c) Propene
d) Chloro propene
Answer:
Structures:

Question 29.
Draw the structures of the following compounds
a) 2 – bromo pentane
b) 2 – methyl propane
c) butanal
d) 1 – hexyne
Answer:

Question 30.
Write the molecular formula of the first four compounds of the homologous series of aldehydes.
Answer:
Homologous series of aldehydes ate Formaldehyde, Acetaldehyde, Propionaldehyde and Butanaldehyde.

Question 31.
How many isomers can be drawn for pentane with molecular formula C-H(2? What are they? Draw their structures and mention theii common names.
Answer:
Isomers of pentane are three. These are
1) Pentane
2) Iso pentane
3) Neo pentane.
Structures :

Question 32.
Draw the Allotropes of Carbon. Diamond
Answer:

Question 33.
Draw the Graphite.
Answer:

Question 34.
Draw the Buckminsterfullerene (₆₀C).
Answer:

Question 35.
Draw the Nanotubes. A.
Answer:

Question 36.
Draw the structures of Methane :
Answer:
Methane :

Question 37.
Draw the structures of Ethyne :
Answer:

Question 38.
Draw structures of the Ethane and electron dot structure of Chlorine.
Answer:
Ethane:

Chlorine:

Question 39.
Draw the electron dot structures of Ethanoic acid arid Ethyne (Acetylene).
Answer:
Ethanoic acid (Acetic acid) :

Structure of Ethyne (Acetylene) :

Question 40.
Draw the electronic dot structure of ethane molecule.
Answer:

Question 41.
Write the structures of the following compounds.
a) prop-l-ene
b) 2, 3-dimethyl butane
c) 3-hexene
d) 2-methyl prop-l-ene
Answer:

These AP 9th Class Physical Science Important Questions 10th Lesson Work and Energy will help students prepare well for the exams.

AP State Syllabus 9th Class Physical Science 10th Lesson Important Questions and Answers Work and Energy

9th Class Physical Science 10th Lesson Work and Energy 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What type of energies are possessed by the objects shown in below figures.
Answer:

i) Potential energy

ii) Kinetic energy

9th Class Physical Science 10th Lesson Work and Energy 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
According to the scientific concept of the work, two conditions need to be satisfied in order to say that work has been done.
i. A force should act on the object.
ii. The object must be displaced or there must be change in position of the object. Now complete the table given below.

Situation been done or not	Whether work has	Reason to say that work has been done or not
A boy lifts his bag from the ground
A girl is trying to push a huge rock

Answer:

Situation been done or not	Whether work has	Reason to say that work has been done or not
A boy lifts his bag from the ground	done	1) Force acted on the bag. 2) Bag moved from the ground.
A girl is trying to push a huge rock	not done	1) Force acted on the huge rock. 2) Rock not moved.

9th Class Physical Science 10th Lesson Work and Energy 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Write the differences between potential energy and kinetic energy.
(OR)
Compare and differentiate between political energy and kinetic energy.
Answer:

Kinetic energy	Potential energy
1) K.E is the kind of energy present in a body due to the property of its motion.	1) P.E is the type of energy present in a body due to the property of its state.
2) It can be easily transferred from one body to another.	2) It is not transferable.
3) K.E = ½ mv2	3) PE = mgh
4) Flowing water is example of K.E.	4) Water present at the top of hill is an example of P.E.

9th Class Physical Science 10th Lesson Work and Energy Important Questions and Answers

9th Class Physical Science 10th Lesson Work and Energy 1 Mark Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
What is meant by one joule work?
Answer:
1 joule work is the amount of work done on an object when a force of 1 Newton displaces it by 1 m along the line of action of the force.

Question 2.
What happens to the speed of a ball while it moves up with an initial velocity?
Answer:
As the ball moves up, the gravitational force acts against to the direction of motion of the object. Hence its velocity slowly decreases.

Question 3.
When a ball is moving up with an initial velocity, what will be its speed at its maximum height?
Answer:
The speed of a ball moving up is zero at its maximum height.

Question 4.
What happens to the speed of the ball during its downward motion?
Answer:
The speed of the ball during its downwards motion will increase gradually.

Question 5.
Define energy.
Answer:
Energy is defined as the capacity to do a work.

Question 6.
Why does a person get tired standing at a place for long time?
Answer:
Though the person standing is not doing any work externally a lot of work is being done inside the body.

The muscles of the body become stretched when he stands for long time and heart has to pump more blood to muscles. This leads to loss of energy inside the body and hence he gets tired.

Question 7.
What is kinetic energy?
Answer:
The energy possessed by an object due to its motion is called kinetic energy.

Question 8.
Write a formula to measure kinetic energy.
Answer:
KE = \(\frac{1}{2}\)mv²

Question 9.
Define potential energy.
Answer:
The energy possessed by an object because of its position or shape is called its potential energy.

Question 10.
Write a formula to calculate potential energy.
Answer:
Potential energy PE = mgh.

Question 11.
What is conservation of energy?
Answer:
The law of conservation of energy states that the energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It can only be changed from one form to another.

Question 12.
A battery lights a bulb. Describe the energy changes involved in the process?
Answer:
Chemical energy is converted into heat energy then light energy.

Question 13.
A mass of 10 kg at a point A on the table is moved to a point B. If the line joining A & B is horizontal, what is the work done on the object by gravitational force? Explain your answer.
Answer:
The work done on the object by gravitational force is zero, since the angle between force and motion of object is zero.

Question 14.
A person holds a bundle of hay over his head of 30 minutes and get tired. Has he done some work or not? Justify your answer.
Answer:
There is no displacement. So no work is done on the object. (W = F x s = F x 0 = 0)

Question 15.
Expand OTE.
Answer:
OTE means – Ocean Thermal Energy.

Question 16.
Expand OTEC.
Answer:
OTEC means – Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion.

Question 17.
What is ‘Biomass’?
Answer:
The material contained in the bodies of plants and animals is Called ‘Biomass’.

Question 18.
What is Nuclear reaction?
Answer:
The physical reaction which involves changes in nucleus of an atom is called “Nuclear reaction”.

Question 19.
What is Nuclear Energy?
Answer:
The energy released during a nuclear reaction is called nuclear energy.

9th Class Physical Science 10th Lesson Work and Energy 2 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Define power and mention its units.
Answer:
Power is defined as the rate of doing work or rate of transfer of energy.

The unit of power is ‘Watt’ and denoted by the symbol ‘W’.

Question 2.
What is the meaning of one joule?
Answer:
One joule is the amount of work done on an object when a force of 1 Newton displaces it by 1 m along the line of action of the force.
If F = 1N, s = 1 m then the work done
W = F × s = 1 N × 1 m = 1 N-m = 1 Joule

Question 3.
What is the meaning of one watt?
Answer:
1 watt is the power of an object, which does work at the rate of one joule per second.
If W = 1J, t = 1 sec then,

Question 4.
Explain work through a diagram.
Answer:

1. Suppose a constant force (F) acts on an object and is moved through a distance (s) along the direction of the force, as shown in figure.
2. Then the work done W = F × s

Question 5.
Certain force acting on a 20 kg mass changes it velocity from 5 ms-1 to 2 ms-1. Calculate the work done by the force?
Answer:
Mass (m) = 20 kg
Initial velocity (u) = 5 m/s
Final velocity (v) = 2 m/s

Change in kinetic energy stored as work done is – 210 J

Question 6.
The potential energy of a freely falling object decreases progressively. Does the violate the law of conservation of energy? Why?
Answer:
No, it is not violating law of conservation of energy because when freely falling object moves towards ground its speed increases due to gravitational force so potential energy is converted into kinetic energy.

Question 7.
Calculate the work required to be done to stop a car of 1500 kg moving at a velocity of 60 km/hr.
Answer:

∴ The work done to stop the moving car = 208333 J

Question 8.
An object of mass m is moving with a constant velocity v. tlow much work should be done on the object in order to bring the object to rest?
Answer:
Mass of the object = m, Velocity of the object = v, Kinetic energy = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv².
The work done to bring the object to rest is stored in the from of kinetic energy.
∴ Work done = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²

Question 9.
In each of the following a force, F is acting on an object of mass, m. The direction of displacement is from west to east shown by the long arrow. Observe the diagrams carefully and state whether the work done by the force is negative, positive or zero.

Answer:
i) In the first case force is acting perpendicular to the displacement of the object. So the work done by the force is zero.
ii) In the second case force is acting in the direction of displacement. So work done
by the force is positive.
iii) In the third case force and displacement opposite to each oth£r. So the work done is negative. –

Question 10.
What is Nuclear fission?
Answer:
1) The process in which heavy nucleus of a radioactive atom splits up into smaller nuclei when bambared with low energy neutrons is called nuclear fission.
2) Ex : ²³⁵U₉₂ + ¹n₀ → ¹³⁹Ba₅₆ + ⁹⁴Kr₃₆ + ³¹n₀ + Energy

Question 11.
What is nuclear fusion?
Answer:
1) The process which two nuclei of light elements combine to form a heavy nucleus is called nuclear fusion.
2) Ex : 2H₁ + 2H₁ → 3He₂ + ¹n₀ + Energy.

Question 12.
What is Ocean Thermal Energy?
Answer:

1. Heat from the sun is absorbed by the water on the surface of ocean, but at deeper levels of ocean, the temperature is very less.
2. So, there is temperature difference between the water “at the surface of ocean” and at “deep levels”.
3. This difference in temperature is called Ocean Thermal Energy.

9th Class Physical Science 10th Lesson Work and Energy 4 Marks Important Questions and Answers

Question 1.
Explain negative value of work done.
Answer:

1. Suppose a ball is moving on a plain ground, will get stopped after sometime due to frictional force acting on it in opposite direction.
   
2. If the force acting on an object and displacement are in opposite directions then the work done by the force is taken as negative.
   W = – F × s
3. If the work done has negative value, the body on which the work has been done loses energy.

Question 2.
Look at the activities listed below. Reason out whether or not, work is done in the light of your understanding of the term work.
1. Suma is swimming in a pond.
2. A donkey is carrying a load on its back.
3. A wind-mill lifting water from a well.
4. A green plant is carrying out photosynthesis.
5. An engine is pulling a train.
6. Food grains are getting dried in the sun.
7. A sail boat is moving due to wind energy.
Answer:

1. Work is done because force is applied and the person is moved.
2. No work is done the object is not moved in the direction of force.
3. Work is done against gravitational force thrift water.
4. No work is done
5. Work is done since the engine is pulling the train.
6. No work is done.
7. Work isjdone because sail boat is moving in the direction of wind energy.

Question 3.
An object of mass 4 kg is raised to height of 5 m above the ground. What is its potential energy? If the object is allowed to fall, find its kinetic energy when it is half way down.
Answer:
m = 4 kg, h = 5 m, g = 10 m/s².
Potential energy = mgh = 4 × 10 × 5 = 200 J.
If object is allowed to fall, then we have to take half of distance.
u = 0, h = 2.5 m, a = + g = 10 m/s²
v² — u² = 2gh ⇒ v² = 2 × 10 × 2.5 ⇒ v² = 50

∴ At half of distance the kinetic energy = 100 J.