TS 10th Class English Essay Writing

These TS 10th Class English Important Questions Essay Writing will help the students to improve their time and approach.

TS 10th Class English Essay Writing

Question 1.
Write a descriptive essay on any unusual or humorous incident you may have witnessed or experienced.
Answer:
Have you ever heard of or seen a dog walking on water? Most of or rather all of you would say a firm ‘No’. You may even doubt if there could be a more foolish question on this earth than the one above. You have every right to doubt and you are right in doubting too ! But the world is so full of surprising and unusual incidents and creatures that we can’t believe their existence unless we see them !

I am lucky and also proud to be a witness to one of such unbelievable and exciting incidents. I have a friend whose uncle from the USA gifted him on his last birthday a very strange looking young dog. My friend Rohit named his prized possession ‘Walkie’. Rohit loves to spend every second of his free time with Walkie. Even Walkie likes to spend more with Rohit than with any other member of the family. Walkie accompanies Rohit to every place except, of course, school.

On one hot summer day we all thought of going to the river bank to cool ourselves by swimming in the river. As usual, Walkie joined us along with Rohit. As Rohit walked into the water in his swim clothes, Walkie too stepped into the river. And then came the stunning discovery that made us dumb-struck ! Walkie was walking on the surface of the water as if it was land ! For a few moments, none of us could believe our eyes ! To be doubly sure of truth of what we saw, we made Walkie go this way, that, way in – and, on – the river. And as if unaware of its unusual ability, Walkie jumped, hopped, leapt and ran all around the river- on the surface – to our commands.

That evening every one of our friends was telling Walkie’s story to every person we came across. And every one of us got the same response – “Don’t be a fool and Don’t try to make us a fool !“

The news spread like a wild fire ! The following day the whole village was on the bank of the river. And Walkie was the focus of every one’s attention. And to thrill every spectator, Walkie crossed the river – walking on the surface – twice or thrice ‘ Walkie became the hero of our village and Rohit enjoyed his pet’s popularity to his heart’s content.

TS 10th Class English Essay Writing

Question 2.
Write an essay on the following topic. Write an essay on a festival celebrated in your area. Write not less than 120 words about the festival. Discuss in your essay

  1. Why the festival is celebrated,
  2. The manner in which it is celebrated at home arid the society,
  3. The back-ground of the festival with respect to the season.

Answer:
The Ugadi or Yuga-Adi is the festival celebrated to mark the Telugu new year day. In India some follow the Solar Calendar and the others the Lunar Calendar. For those who follow the Solar Calendar the Ugadi (New Year) day falls in the mouth of April every year. For those who follow Lunar Calendar it varies from year to year and falls on some day in the months of March or April.

Ugadi is a festival of joy. The season is pleasant. The trees grow new leaves. New flowers are seen everywhere. The birds of spring sing melodiously. Mangoes are in plenty and are half-way to become ripe. It is believed by the Hindus that if one is happy on the Ugadi day, he will be happy throughout the year. So everyone wants to spend the Ugadi day as happily as possible.

The day starts with cleaning and decorating the house. Mango leaves and flowers are used to decorate doorways. Ugadi Pachchadi” is first eaten by all. It is a special preparation with tender margosa leaves and neem flowers, jaggery, and tamarind. It tastes sweet, hot as well as sour. It is believed that life is a : mixture of all, like the Ugadi Pachchadi. People gather in selected places to listen to ‘Panchanga Sravanam the Pandit reading the forecasts of rain, harvests, cost of grain, pulses etc.

In the afternoon after a tasty lunch with delicious dishes, people go to friends to greet one another. Special greeting cards are also printed and posted to friends and relations living far away. A good beginning said to be half done. A new year day happily spent means a happy year to follow. So goes the belief.

TS 10th Class English Essay Writing

Question 3.
You know that ‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan” is a mission that was launched by our Prime Minister on 2nd of October, 2014. The Abhiyan was started on the birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi.

Gandhiji always dreamt to make India a clean India. Recently our Prime Minister urged some of the celebrities also to participate in the Abhiyan.

Now, prepare an essay on “The need and importance of Swachh Bharat Abhiyan” (Clean India Campaign), highlighting the role and responsibility of every Indian.
You must use the following ideas:
Need and importance ………………
Keeping our house clean and healthy
Need to kep our surroundings clean
Wastage management strategies
Minimising pollution (March 2018)
Answer:
SWACHH BHARAT ABHIYAN – ITS NEED AND IMPORTANCE

We know that cleanliness is next only to godliness’. If we and our surroundings are clean, there will be no danger of our falling sick. Isn’t it right when they say ‘a sound mind in a sound body ?

To begin with, everyone should feel the importance of keeping our country clean and hygienic. We ought to remember that Gandhiji always dreamt to make India a clean country. You may be aware that ‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan’, i.e. Clean India campaign is a mission that was launched by Narendra Modi, cur Prime Minister on 2nd of October, 2014 is refreshing to note that the Prime Minister urged sorne of the celebrities to participate in the campaign to bring awareness among the masses.

We should feel that it is our primary responsibility to keep our surroundings clean. We have together dust, paper or plastic waste and dump in the bins meant for it and see that the waste is carried away by the municipal workers concerned. Drains have to be cleaned daily and take care not to spit or urinate anywhere we like, but at proper places meant for the purpose.

Toilets have to be washed neatly. Not only that, but we should take care not to pollute air, water and the like. We should not forget that our health depends on the air we breathe, the water we drink, the food we eat and the environment we live in and roam about! So it is highly necessary to keep clean all of them. Then only Swachh Bharat is achieved. Let’s be worthy enough to make our country pollution – free.

TS 10th Class English Essay Writing

Question 4.
Write an essay in the following topic.
What do you mean by childhood ? What is its importance ? What role does the childhood play in the life of a man ? Why childhood need to be happy for a person?
Answer:
The best part of the life is the childhood, and one need to have a better childhood to have a greater future,-as it forms the perfect platform. The sweetest the childhood, the perfect the future is. Most of the present day childhoods are sad figures-overloaded with books and studies and frustrated with a lot of loneliness and stress.

The frustration that they face during the childhood does lead them to amore deteriorated future. The importance of Sports and Games for children must be implemented on the lines so that they should have both physical and mental fitness, but it is not happening on the expected lines. The movement to introduce Sports and Games as a subject is also expected to add to the pressure of the children.

The society and the parents have the responsibility to understand the importance of providing the children with a memorable and remarkable childhood, as they once had. The excuses that they do have won’t be sufficient enough to support the lame excuses that they could raise.

The present day world is full of challenges and the responsibility of the elder generation is to prepare the children to face them with confidence and achieve the best that they could do. Instead, what we do is making them timid and with least confidence. The world outside and the experience that they could give them could only add to the confidence building aspects. ‘It is high time that the social scientists insist the parents and the authorities to take strict regulations regarding this.

TS 10th Class English Essay Writing

Question 5.
Write an essay on the following topic.
What do you mean by the problem of drunken driving ? Why is it considered a problem ? What are the dangers in that ? What should we do so as to solve this problem ?
Answer:
Drunken Driving is a serious issue as far as the traffic department is concerned, and a major reason for the number of accidents that take a lot many lives round the year.

One of the reasons for drunken driving is being neglectful; But such concern to police is that it is an offence committed by a broad spectrum of the population, including those who are otherwise generally law abiding. Drunken drivers come from all parts of the population spectrum, but are more likely to be male, between 25 and 44 years of age, unemployed or working class, and unmarried. Drunken drivers are more likely to, be heavy drinkers or to have drinking, problems. Drinking drivers under 21 years of age are about twice as likely as older drivers to be involved in fatal vehicle crashes.

Considering the high traffic volume during this period, it is clear that there are a lot of impaired drivers, especially compared to the limited law enforcement resources that are available to Investigate suspected incidents of drunk driving.

Although the general public and the police are perhaps most concerned about wholly innocent persons who are killed in alcohol-related crashes, it is in fact the drunk driver or his passenger who is most likely to be killed. In recent years, significant reductions have been achieved in the number of young drivers killed in alcohol-related crashes, due largely to higher legal drinking ages, greater licensing restrictions on young drivers, and stricter enforcement of juvenile drunk driving laws.

Drunken driving is very much the result of a cultural norm that emphasizes drinking alcohol as a form of entertainment and driving as both transportation and entertainment. Cultural drinking habits also shape drunk driving patterns. For example, drunk driving will be more concentrated on weekend nights in countries where such nights are considered prime time for heavy drinking. The extent of drunk driving also depends, obviously, ‘on’ the availability of vehicles, so it is less likely in societies and communities where vehicles are prohibitively expensive.

TS 10th Class English Essay Writing

Question 6.
Write an essay on the following topic.
What do you mean by sound pollution ? What are the reasons for that ? What are the problems of sound pollution ? Why there should be an urgent check on that ?
Answer:
Sound is an integral part of our daily life, as almost all the machines and devices that we use in our daily life produce a lot of sound. But, as it is well said, anything beyond a limit is a problem, and so is the case with sound as well. There is a limit for sound also, that is suitable for the health aspects of human beings. Most often, when all the sound that we have around us is put together, it is much above the prescribed limits. One of the serious problems of the age is pollution. Among the various types of pollutions, sound pollution is seriously catching up as the most dangerous among them.

The sources of sound are many- Vehicles, industries, Loud speakers, Music, Instruments, People and all make a large amount of noise. Now a days, the modes of entertainments are also huge polluters. The people need to realise the fact that in a way or other each and every one is contributing to the greater danger of sound pollution.

High noise levels can contribute to cardiovascular effects in humans, a rise in blood pressure, and an increase in stress and vasoconstriction, and an increased incidence of coronary artery disease along with deafness. In animals, noise can increase the risk of death by altering predator or prey detection and avoidance, interfere with reproduction and navigation, and contribute to permanent hearing loss. If we don’t check it. we can’t live in peace. So we must check it.

TS 10th Class English Essay Writing

Question 7.
Write an essay on the following topic.
“Many students decide to further their study abroad. What are the benefits and drawbacks of studying abroad ? To what extent do you agree or disagree with this statement ?”
Answer:
Nowadays, along the rapid development of economy, some students think that study abroad brings many benefits while others are of the opinion that they should finish university education in their motherland. It is quite natural that people from different backgrounds may have different attitudes towards it.

Students who advocate that study abroad has a lot of disadvantage, have their sound reasons. First of all, living far away from home, students will suffer from loneliness and homesickness. Secondly, many students do not want to return to their country after graduation because most of them want to seek a more comfortable life and brighter future overseas. This may result in a serious brain drain and our country will inevitably incur a huge loss of talents.

To this issue, some other students hold a different attitude, arguing that students should go abroad to study. To begin with it can broaden the student’s horizons. For instance, they get a chance to experience a totally different culture. The knowledge of social customs acquired in the other countries helps them to become more open-minded. Next, there are academic advantages. Students can learn advanced science and technology. Moreover, when they finish their study abroad, they will have more choices for their future career. All the above merits contribute to their self-betterment and self-realization.

It is quite understandable that people from different backgrounds put different interpretations on the same issue. For my part, I stand on the latter opinion that while overseas study has its drawbacks, the advantages are more obvious. It can broaden one’s vision. Students have easy access to the first-rate facilities and the latest development in science and technology. In addition, when they finish their study, they may have more job opportunities. Therefore, as long as it is financially feasible, an overseas education may do a person better than harm.

TS 10th Class English Essay Writing

Question 8.
You have come across the following on the class bulletin board. (June 2016)

Child Labour – a Blot on our Society
Some children are facing many problems. They take up all kinds of jobs – working in hotels, factories, shops and industries. They work more and are paid a very low wage. Child labour should be eliminated from the society. Every child should be in the social.

Now, write an essay on ‘Child Labour – a Blot on our society’. You may state the reasons and suggest possible solutions.
Answer:
Child Labour – A Blot on our Society :

Child labour is that in which children are forced to work and take part in an economic activity. It refers to the employment of children in any work that deprives children of their childhood. The birth of child is one of the most amazing creations of God. The sight of children working is not new to us. We all witness children working at various places. They are facing many problems. They take up all kinds of jobs-working in hotels, factories, shops and industries.

Children are being exploited as labourers both by organized and unorganized sectors of industry. Child labour exists in several forms across the country. We see so many children who are deprived of their childhood and do not get the opportunity to enjoy life as chIldren should do. There is no social security for children belonging to the poor and weaker sections of the society. The poor parents can’t afford to send their children to school. They are forced to work.

They do not play or go to school. They are striving hard to earn their living by working in roadside stalls, shops, markets, railway platforms, restaurants and in households. They work more and are paid a very low wage. Child labour interferes with the proper growth and development of the children in all aspects like mental, physical, social and intellectuall growth. The things such as over population, poverty, illiteracy, debt trap are some of the common causes of child labour.

Child labour should be eliminated from the society. Every child should be in the school. Parents should take all the responsibility of the family by their own and let their kids to live their childhood with lots of love and care. The persons whoever encourage child labour should be punished severely. The child labour laws need to be strictly enforced by the government. The public need to be made aware of the severe consequences of child labour. The government should ensure that every child gets the opportunity to go to school.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 8th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy

These TS 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 8th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy will help the students to improve their time and approach.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 8th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy

1 Mark Questions

Question 1.
Write any two aspects of Rampur village’s economy which you like.
Answer:

  1. In Rampur no land is left ¡die.
  2. Non-agricultural sector also developed.
  3. Due to development of transport sector, other sectors of economy also developed.

Question 2.
What is multiple cropping?
Answer:
To grow more than one crop on a piece of land during the same year is called multiple cropping.

Question 3.
What are the main non-farm production activities taking place in your region?
Answer:

  1. Transportation
  2. Dairy farming
  3. Brick making
  4. Carpentry
  5. Basket making
  6. Poultry
  7. Shopkeeping
  8. Fishing, etc.

Question 4.
Who are called labour force?
Answer:
Labour force: People, in the age group of 15 – 59 are labour force.
(or)
People who are employed are called labour force.

Question 5.
Create a slogan on the importance of agriculture.
Answer:

  • Without agriculture – There is no future.
  • No farmer – No food.

Question 6.
How do the small farmers procure the capital needed for farming?
Answer:
The small farmers procure the capital needed for farming by borrowing money from

  • Large farmers,
  • Moneylenders,
  • The traders who supply various inputs for cultivation.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 8th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy

Question 7.
What is the difference between Physical Capital and Working Capital?
Answer:
The differences between Physical Capital and Working Capital:

Physical Capital Working Capital
The capital used for the purchase of machinery for the production of goods for many years. The capital used for bung raw materials and other payments to complete the production.

Question 8.
Which is the main production activity ¡n villages across India?
Answer:
Farming‘s the main production activity in villages across India.

Question 9.
Name any two non-farming activities in Rampur village.
Answer:
Small-scale manufacturing, dairy farming, transport services, etc.

Question 10.
Who owns the majority of land n Rampur village?
Answer:
80 upper caste families own the majority of land in Rampur village.

Question 11.
What educational facilities are available in Rampur village?
Answer:
Rampur has two primary schools and one high school.

Question 12.
What health facilities are available in Rampur village?
Answer:
Rampur has a primary health centre run by the government and one private dispensary where the sick are treated.

Question 13.
What Is the maIn aim of production?
Answer:
The main aim of production is to produce goods and services required by the people.

Question 14.
What is marketable surplus?
Answer:
The difference between the quantity of output that a fanner produces during a year and the quantity that he keeps with himself for his own and family’s consumption is called marketable surplus.

Question 15.
Who are small farmers?
Answer:
Farmers who own less than 2 hectares of land are known as small farmers.

Question 16.
Who are the medium farmers?
Answer:
Farmers who own more than 2 hectares and less than 10 hectares of land are called medium farmers.

Question 17.
Who are large farmers?
Answer:
The farmers who own more than 10 hectares of land are known as large farmers.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 8th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy

Question 18.
What is the basic constraint In raising farm production?
Answer:
Land area under cultivation is the basic constraint si raising farm production because it is fixed and scarce.

Question 19.
What is the minimum wage rate for a farm labourer?
Answer:
The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by government ¡s Rs, 60/- per day.

Question 20.
Which is the most abundant factor of production?
Answer:
Labour Is the most abundant factor of production.

Question 21.
What do medium and large farmers do with their earnings from surplus farm produce?
Answer:
A part of the earning from surplus farm produce is saved and kept for buying capital for the next season. Mother part may be utilised for lending to small farmers who require loan.

Question 22.
How did the spread of electricity help the people of Rampur?
Answer:

  • Electricity helped farmers in running tube walls in the fields.
  • It is also used for carrying out various small-scale businesses in the village.

Question 23.
What are the sources of Irrigation?
Answer:

  1. Canals
  2. Tubewells
  3. Tanks and
  4. Rains.

Question 24.
What is fixed capital?
Answer:
Tools, machines and buildings are caned ‘fixed capital because these can be used in production for several years.

Question 25.
What is working capital?
Answer:
Raw materials arid money form part of working capital. The capital which s used for production is known as working capital.

Question 26.
Classify the capital investment on various Items In production.
Answer:
There are two types of capital investments in production.

  1. Physical or fixed capital
  2. Working capital

Question 27.
Name the items/factors that are needed for production.
Answer:
There are four factors of production. They are:

  1. land
  2. labour
  3. capital and
  4. organisation.

Question 28.
What is the main factor of production in the agricultural sector?
Answer:
The main factor of production in the agriculture sector is land.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 8th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy

2 Marks Questions

Question 1.
Write a letter to the Tasildar (MRO), explaênin9 the problems faced by the farmers because of famine.
Answer:

Siricilla
Date xxxxxxxxx.

To,
The TasPdar,
Mandai Revenue office, Sincilia.

Sub: Problems faced by farmers due to famine- request for write-off old loans.

Respected Sir,
I am from Ramnagar, Sincilla. I would like bring to your notice the following one and for favourable help. The rains are very less In the previous year. So. crops left much loss. The farmers get into debt. They can’t repay the loans. They need money for purchasing seeds, fertilizers, and pesticides and to cultivate the land. It will be highly difficult to get a loan again from a bank.

Hence, I request you to place it in front of the government, write – off the old loans and give them the new loans. I hope you provide immediate help to the farmers without loss to them to grow the crop this year.

Thanking you sir,

Yours truly,
xxxxxxxxxx.

Address on the envelope:
To
The Tasildar,
Mandai Revenue office.
Siricilla Mandai, Siriodla
Karimnagar (Dist)

Question 2.
Mention the factors of production.
Answer:
Factors of production are

  1. Land
  2. Labour
  3. Capital
  4. Knowledge and enterprise

Question 3.
Today, why is there a need of expansion of non-farm activities In rural areas?
Answer:
Nowadays farming is not providing regular employment to rural people and they are not getting sufficient income also. That’s why expansion of non-farm Activities in rural areas Is needed. Nowadays people with some amount of capital can set up non-farm activities.

It requires very little land, Banks provides loans to sell employment purpose. People can get market facilities to sell their goods. Neighbouring towns and cities provide more demand to the village goods. Ex: Milk, jaggery, broomsticks etc.

Question 4.
Explain any one factor of production.
Answer:
Land: An area of ground, especially when used for a particular purpose such as farming or building; A necessary factor for production.
Labour: Workers especially people who do practical work with their hands.
Working Capital: The requirement of raw materials and money which are used up n the production cycle.
Fixed capital: Physical Capital Toots, machines and buildings, which are not used up or consumed immediately in the production process
Knowledge: It is essential to use all the above in a meaningful way to produce some goods or services.

Question 5.
How do the farmers get their capital for agriculture?
Answer:
For capital, farmers face many troubles. They get their capital by borrowing from large farmers and village money lenders. They take loans from traders who supply various inputs for cultivation. They get from banks also but very less and rare.

Question 6.
Modern farming methods require more Inputs which are manufactured In Industry. Do you agree?
Answer:
Yes, modern farming methods like the use of fertilizers, pesticides, high-yielding variety of seeds, power-driven tubewells of Irrigation, latest tools and implements like tractors. harvesters threshers, etc. require more Inputs which are manufactured In industry.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 8th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy

Question 7.
Is it Important to increase the area under irrigation? Why?
Answer:

  1. It is very important to increase the area under irrigation because it s not wise to depend on monsoon rains which were uncertain and erratic.
  2. To increase production we have to bring more area under irrigation.
  3. It helps us to improve the farming pattern or adopt modem fariTwig methods li those areas.

Question 8.
Give the characteristics of Rural Industries.
Answer:

  1. Rural industries are small-scale manufacturing units.
  2. They involve very simple production methods.
  3. The output is very small.
  4. The work is usually carried out by the members of the family.
  5. The work is carried out at home and not in workshops.
  6. The profits earned are also less.

Question 9.
Explain Multiple Cropping’ in your own words.
Answer:
Growing more than one crop on a piece of land during the year is known as multiple cropping. It is the most common and traditional practice to increase production on a given piece of land. All farmers In Rampur grow at least two main crops.

Question 10.
Which changes have taken place In the way of farming practices In India?
Answer:

  1. Traditional seeds have been replaced by HYVS.
  2. Natural manures were replaced by chemical fertilizers.
  3. Use of pesticides.
  4. Use of farm machinery.
  5. Use of tube wells for irrigation, instead of Persian wheels.

Question 11.
Excessive use of chemical Fertiliser and pesticides declines the Fertility of land.’ Give your opinion on this.
Answer:

  1. Experience shows fertility of land‘s declining due to overuse, and excessive use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
  2. The situation of water Is equally alarming.
  3. Underground water tables have fallen rapidly across the country.
  4. Pesticides sprayed act on only 10% on pest remaining act on environment.
  5. The use of natural resources also has not always been judicious while Increasing production.

Question 12.
Labour in an essential item for production. Read the statement and Interpret It.
Answer:

  1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
  2. Each worker is providing the necessary labour for production.
  3. Skilled or semiskilled or unskilled labour in are providing labour for production.
  4. Thus labour is an essential item In production.

Question 13.
The expenditure on tools, machines and buildings is called physical capital. Explain why.
Answer:

  1. The expenditure on tools, machines and buildings is called physical capital.
  2. They are not used up or consumed immediately in the process of production.
  3. They help to produce goods over many years.
  4. They require some repel and maintenance so that they remain useful and can be used year after year.
  5. That is why they are called fixed or physical capital.

Question 14.
Ground-level waters are rigorously declining nationwide. Suggest some alternatives.
Answer:

  1. Underground water levels are deteriorating at a faster rate throughout India.
  2. To conserve water schemes like watersheds, and soaking pits. check-dams, afforestation, bund construction, etc. should be taken up.
  3. Digging borewells should be allowed only for drinking water but not irrigation.
  4. Farmers should look for alternate crops which use lesser water.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 8th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy

Question 15.
Name some dairy activities in your area.
Answer:

  1. Many families in my region are engaged in milk production.
  2. Various types of grass, maize, bajra. etc. is used to feed the cattle.
  3. Two tradesmen established milk collection and storing points.
  4. Family labour and especially women take care of the rearing of animals.

Question 16.
Explain the business tactics of a small businessman In your area.
Answer:

  1. One Mr, Venkateswara Rao organised cloth business in my region.
  2. In the beginning, he used to wander every household to sell clothes and collects money weekly.
  3. By conducting his business reliably and supplying quality items he became popular.
  4. Later he set up his own business firm and till date it is running well,

Question 17.
What are the aims and objectives that are directed by the landless rural workers or labourers?
Answer:
The aim and objectives that are directed by the landless rural workers or labourers:

  1. Some more days of work.
  2. Still better wages.
  3. Better education to their children in the local govt. school.
  4. No social discrimination.
  5. Chances of leadership activities, etc.

4 Marks Questions

Question 1.
Read the given paragraph and interpret it.
Labour being the most abundant factor of production, It would be ¡deal ¡f the new ways of farming used much more labour. Unfortunately, such a thing has not happened. The use of labour on farms is limited. The labour, looking for opportunities is thus migrating to neighbouring villages, towns and cities. Some labour has entered the non-farm sector in the village.
Answer:

  1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
  2. Each worker is providing necessary labour for production.
  3. Skilled or semiskilled or unskilled labour – all are providing labour for production.
  4. Thuslabour is essential item in production.

Conclusion: If government provides loans to landless labour for agricultural purposes, motor pump sets, engines, etc. more labour we will find in the agricultural sector.

Question 2.
Observe the following table and analyse It.
Data refers to the land cultivated by farmers

Type of farmers Size of plots % of farmers % of cultivated area
small farmers Less than 2 hectares 87% 48%
Medium and Large Farmers More than 2 hectares 13% 52%

Answer:

  1. The given data refers to the Land cultivated by farmers
  2. As per the data, 87% of the total farmers, i.e. small farmers are cultivating only 48% of the total land.
  3. The remaining 13% of the farmers are medium and large farmers. They are cultivating the remaining 52% of the land.
  4. This indicates that there is no equal distribution of land among farmers.
  5. I opine that the distribution of cultivated land Is unequal in India.

Question 3.
Mention the factors of production and explain any two of them.
Answer:

  1. The aim of production is to produce the goods and services that we want.
  2. There are four requirements for production of goods and services.

They are:

  1. Land
  2. Labour
  3. Capital
    (a) Physical or fixed capital
    (b) Working capital
  4. Knowledge and enterprise

1. Land: The first requirement is land, and other natural resources such as water, forests minerals. It is a free gift of nature and it is neither created nor destroyed.

2. Labour: It is a factor which helps in production. There are three types of labour – skilled, semi-skilled and unskilled. Some production activities require highly educated workers to perform the necessary task. Other activities require manual work. Each worker provides the labour necessary for production.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 8th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy

Question 4.
Describe the wor1i of a farmer with 1 hectare of land.
Answer:
A farmer who works n a farm of 1-hectare land has to face so many problems. A small farmer knows that he cannot meet his both ends and means just by working on such a small piece of land. So after working on his own field he has to work as a labourer in the fields of some big farmers for a petty amount of Rs. 35.40 per day.

Even to start cultivating his own land he has neither means nor money for buying seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, etc. Being a very small farmer he does not have any equipment or working capital.

To arrange all these things the farmer has to take a loan either from a village farmer or a trader or a moneylender at a hefty Interest rate. Even after putting so much labour, there is always a chance for him to be trapped in a debt cycle which will be always a big cause of tension for him.

Question 5.
Discuss some ideas that would prevent overuse of water by
a) Farmers
b) Industrialists
c) Households
Answer:
a) Farmers :

  1. By providing free power to farmers.
  2. Through appropriate incentives and penalties.

b) Industnalists :

  1. Cheap water that can be rapidly pumped from underground aquifers.
  2. Industrial wastes should not be drained into canals and rivers.

c) Households :

  1. Turning off the taps property.
  2. Control over use of pesticides and chemicals.
  3. Having more plants in gardens in houses.

Question 6.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
The land is the most crucial factor necessary for farm production. Land area under cultivation, however, is practically fled. In Rarrur, since 1921., there has been no expansion in land area under cultivation. By then, the nearby forests had been cleared and some of the wastelands in the village were converted to cultivable land. There is no future scope to increase agriculture production by bringing new land under cultivation.
Answer:
The given paragraph says that land is essential for agriculture. The cultivable Land is not expanding. In some areas, a few forest lands are cleared and the waste Land is being converted to agricultural land. There is no other way of expansion of land.

My opinion Is that the issue discussed in this paragraph is correct The basic factor of production is land, The population is increasing day by day. The food grain production is not increasing or expanding in proportion to the population. It is the time for searching new ways of increasing production of food grains. Green revolution is also to be encouraged.

Rampur village s a model for us. The villagers depend on other activities also for their earnings. By involving in transportation, shopkeeping and so on Is better for livelihood but it doss not help in increasing food grains.

In conclusion, I would like to say that there is much land without irrigation. Due to some other reasons Irke power cut, lack of capital, non-availability of groundwater the farmers are not able to Involve in farm activities. The government should concentrate on these issues and try to solve them so as to increase the cultivable land and increase the food grains.

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
Most small farmers have to borrow money to arrange for the wo capital. The borrow from large farmers or the village moneylenders or the traders who supply various inputs for cultivation. The rate of interest on such loans is very high. They are put to a eat distress to repay the loan.
Answer:
According to the given paragraph, small farmers in villages take loans from the money lenders. They don’t have sufficient capital for farming activities As they are charged high rate of interest, they are put to distress. This is the real situation of the small farmers.

I do agree with this. My comments on this paragraph are as follows. Generally, large farmers have sufficient capital for next crop. Small farmers depend on others for loans. Some small farmers depend on the owners of land where they work. Most of the small farmers work on others’ land becu& of their small farms.

The money lenders and traders charge high rate of interest and so the debts release. Sometimes crop failures lead to bankrupts and they commit suicide. Banks don’t give loans to small farmers as they don’t have collateral.

Government should concentrate on providing loan facility to the small farmers without collateral. Farmers’ cooperative societies are to be encouraged. Minimum facilities and needs are to be identified and fulfilled.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 8th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy

Question 8.
Read the following paragraph and Interpret.
There Is often a loss in farm activities, especially when crops are damaged because of floods, pests, etc. The other risk is sudden fall in the price of agricultural produce. In such a situation, farmers find it difficult to recover the working capital they had spent.
Answer:
According to the paragraph given itas clearly understood that when there is a natural hazard like floods or pests the farmer’s life will be in risk. In those conditions, they hardly survive. Many of (tie farmers commit suicide because of this situation.

Farmers normally desire to grow more food grains, They hope the yield must be more. They spend much on agriculture. They depend on moneylenders for loans. Sometimes they take loans from banks also. They have to pay all these loans when the yield comes.

Due to the pests, floods or drought they don’t have money to pay the loans or for their survive. Many a time, they commit suicides that we have been observing m the newspaper and watching on television news.

The farmer is the backbone of economy in India. When they face this type of situation the government should give them a helping hand. They should be saved from losing their lives. Agriculture should not be neglected because of these reasons, New schemes should be launched for the sake of tanners who lose because of these natural hazards. Otherwise, agriculture is discouraged. By this time, already its share in GDP is decreasing. It is not expected to the country which stands in second rank in population.

Question 9.
The distribution of farmers in India and the amount of land they cultivate are in the following table.

Type of Farmers Size of Plots Percentage of Farmers Percentage of Cultivated Area
Small farmers Less than 2 ha. 87% 48%
Medium and Large Farmers More than 2 ha. 13% 52%

Read the above table and answer the following questions.
1. How many types of farmers are there? Name them.
Answer:
There are 2 types of farmers.
They are

  1. small
  2. medium and large.

2. Which type of farmers are ¡n high percentage?
Answer:
Small farmers (87%) are high in percentage.

3. What is the difference between the percentage of cultivated area?
Answer:
Theie 4% difference in percentage of the cultivated area.

4. What is the cause and reason for the high concentration of cultivated area In the hands of medium and large batteries?
Answer:
The landholdings of large and medium farmers are high.

Question 10.
Based on the pie chart and the particulars given below, answer the questions.
TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 8th Lesson Rampur A Village Economy 1
A) Which kind of houses are more In Rampur Village?
Answer:
Huts and thatched houses are more in Rampur village.

B) In which category does 60% of Rampur village belong?
Answer:
60% of Pampur village belong to the poor class.

C) State approximately, the number of middle-class people In Rampur village.
Answer:
25% people of Rampur belong to middle class.

D) Which category of people live in the terraced houses built with cement and bricks?
Answer:
Rich people live in the terraced houses built with cement and bricks.

Question 11.
Read the table given below and answer the following questions.
img
a) What are the works done only by male workers?
Answer:
Ploughing.

b) What are the works done only by female workers?
Answer:
Transplanting, Picking cotton.

c) In which works, the wages are different for male and female?
Answer:
Sowing, Weeding, Harvesting. Winnowing, Threshing.

d) What are the reasons for paying less wages to female workers than male workers?
Answer:
The concept existing in the society is that the women do less work then men.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 8th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy

Question 12.
Locate the following in the given map of India.

1. Capital of Maharashtra
Answer:
Mumbai

2. The birthplace of river Godavari.
Answer:
Thyambak

3. The birthplace of river Krishna.
Answer:
Mahabaleshwar

4. Santal tribal people are in this state.
Answer:
Odisha

5. Utter Pradesh

6. Kerala

7. Punjab

8. Jammu & Kashmir

9. Assam

10. Tripura
TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 8th Lesson Rampur A Village Economy 3

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration

These TS 10th Class Social Studies Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration will help the students to improve their time and approach.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration

1 Mark Questions

Question 1.
Write any one reason for international migration.
Answer:
Education and Employment are the main reasons for international migration.
Observe the graph below and answer the questions 2, 3.
TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration 1

Question 2.
Which social background people are migrating more?
Answer:
OBC are migrating more.

Question 3.
What is the reason for short-term migration?
Answer:
The reason for short term migration ¡n rural areas is distress caused there.

Question 4.
What do we have in a settlement?
Answer:
In a settlement, we have different kinds of activities – educational, warehouse, commercial, etc.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration

Question 5.
Why were the early humans called hunter-gatherers?
Answer:
Early humans hunted and gathered their food. That is why they were called hunter-gatherers.

Question 6.
The hunter-gatherers were nomads. Why?
Answer:
The hunter-gatherers were kept moving from place to place. This was in search of food gathering food from plants and trees and hunting animals for meat, hide, and other uses.

Question 7.
What kinds of places attracted settlements?
Answer:
Some basic concepts are to be understood for this. Those are

  1. site
  2. situation and
  3. the history of the place.

Question 8.
What does site refer to?
Answer:
Site refers to the characteristics of the place – its topography, altitude, water characteristics (does it have lakes, rivers, underground water, etc.), types of soils, security, shelter from natural forces and so on.

Question 9.
Name any two cities whIch were developed by the colonial powers.
Answer:
Mumbai and Chennai.

Question 10.
What is called Urbanisation?
Answer:
People have been increasingly taking up non-agriculture work and living in cities and towns. This is called Urbanisation.

Question 11.
Name the their cities which accommodate more than 10 million people each.
Answer:
Mumbai, Delhi and Kolkata.

Question 12.
What are the problems in urbanisation?
Answer:
Though there has been an increase in urbanisation, the necessity of providing basic infrastructure that can support this growth is missing. e.g.: roads, drainage, electricity. waler and public facilities.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration

Question 13.
What are aerotropolis?
Answer:
A new kind of settlement is occurring in many countries, including India. These settlements around large airports are called Aerotropolis.

Question 14.
What are the facilities in an aerotropolis?
Answer:
Hotels, shopping, entertainment, food, business conferencing, etc.

Question 15.
What are the comforts of people in aerotropolis?
Answer:
People can tty in, conduct their business with their counterparts right there, and fly out- with all the contort of a city, without the traffic and other problems.

Question 16.
Name some farm of aerotropolises which are emerging in India.
Answer:

  1. Bengaluru International Airport.
  2. Indira Gandhi International Airport – Delhi
  3. Rajiv Gandhi International Airport – Hyderabad

Question 17.
What are Megacities?
Answer:
The cities having more than 10 million persons are Megacities.

Question 18.
What are Towns?
Answer:
All the urban areas having populations between 5000 to 1 Iakh are called Towns.

Question 19.
What are Hamlets?
Answer:
A group of houses within the revenue village are called Hamlets.

Question 20.
How does migration arise?
Answer:
Migration arises out of various social, economic or political reasons.

Question 21.
How can we identify a person as a migrant?
Answer:
For identifying a person as a migrant, two criteria are used by the centres: birthplace last usual place of residence.

Question 22.
What is the most common reason for female migration?
Answer:
Marriage is the most common reason for female migration.

Question 23.
What is the most common reason for male migration?
Answer:
Employment or seeking employment is the most common reason for male migration.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration

Question 24.
Give some other reasons for migration.
Answer:
Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities for studies, loss in business, family, friends, etc. are also some other reasons for migration.

Question 25.
Where do the urban migrants have to work?
Answer:
Most urban migrants have to work in the unorganised sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw puliera, construction labour, etc.

Question 26.
Why do migrants continue to live as daily workers?
Answer:
The migrants from rural to urban are not able to find jobs in the organised sector and therefore theres no job security and decent income that they were aspiring for, They continue to live as daily workers.

Question 27.
Why is the number of seasonal migrants underestimated in India?
Answer:
The number of seasonal migrants is underestimated in India due to limitations in the definition of the term migrant used n national surveys.

Question 28.
Who are the rural seasonal migrants?
Answer:
The rural seasonal migrants are mainly agricultural labourers or marginal farmers in their place of origin and mostly belong to low-income households. Dalits and Adivasis.

Question 29.
Where do rural seasonal migrants work?
Answer:
The rural seasonal migrants work in agriculture and plantations, brick kilns queens, construction sites and fish processing.

Question 30.
Who have a long history of migrating?
Answer:
Maie from Saora tribals have a long history of migrating to work in Assam plantation, Munda and Santhal men migrate to work in mining sites in Odisha.

Question 31.
Which depend on migrant workers?
Answer:
Construction sites ¡n most urban areas depend on migrant workers.

Question 32.
‘It Is also common to see migrants ‘ What is it?
Answer:
It is also common to see migrants selling plastic goods, vegetables, and engage in their petty businesses and casual labour.

Question 33.
What is the economic condition of the seasonal migrants?
Answer:
Seasonal migrants are not only poor but have little or no land at their native place.

Question 34.
What did the N.C.R.L find?
Answer:
The National Commission of Rural Labour in its reports in 1990s found that uneven development and regional disparity triggered and accelerated seasonal migration.

Question 35.
How do the migrant labourers spend?
Answer:
Migrant labourers spend more on food as they cannot get food grains from fair-price shops at their workplaces.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration

Question 36.
Why do they suffer from health problems?
Answer:
As they live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions, they suffer from health problems and are prone to diseases.

Question 37.
Name some health problems from which they suffer.
Answer:
Bodyache, sunstroke, skin irritation and lung diseases.

Question 38.
Why are migrants not able to access various health and family care programmes?
Answer:
Migrants are not able to access various health and family care programmes as they do not belong to the organised sector.

Question 39.
Do the migrant workers have maternity leave?
Answer:
No, they do not have maternity leave.

Question 40.
Which leaves a deep impact on migrants?
Answer:
Exposure to different environment, stress associated with it, food available and social atmosphere leave a deep impact on migrants.

Question 41.
What does migration allow?
Answer:
Migration allows households to meet debt and other obligations without having to sell assets. It is also common to find migrant families buying house, land, agricultural machinery and consumer durables.

Question 42.
How many kinds of migrations are there? What are they?
Answer:
There are two kinds of migrations. They are :

  1. InternaI migrations
  2. International migrations.

Question 43.
How do some migrants migrate regularly?
Answer:
Some migrants might take up robs in the destination, acquire skills required in the destination area, become aware of how to get regular jobs and migrate regularly or permanently.

Question 44.
Where do the skilled Indians migrate?
Answer:
The skilled Indians migrate to the U.S.A.. the U.K., Canada, Germany, Norway, Japan
and Malaysia.

Question 45.
What is the; second type of international migration?
Answer:
The second type of international migration is unskilled and semi-skilled workers migrating to oil-exporting countries of the West Asia on temporary contracts.

Question 46.
What is the Emigration Act, 1983?
Answer:
The Emigration Act, 1983 is the Indian law governing migration and employment of
Indians abroad.

Question 47.
What do you suggest to overcome the problems of foreign migrants?
Answer:
The foreign migrants should take many necessary steps. They should opt proper inter mediaries for selecting jobs. Agreements should be written properly with legal aid.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration

2 Marks Questions

Question 1.
Delhi is the second biggest city In the country. Explain the reasons for It.
Answer:

  1. The city of Delhi can claim to have been central to many empires that ruled India.
  2. When India gained independence, the city remained Its capital.
  3. Over the decades, the city has attracted people from all parts of India as they migrated in search of livelihood, jobs, etc.
  4. As the capital of the country, with the Parliament and Central Government offices, there are people from all parts living In the city.
  5. Surrounding areas of Delhi are developed.
  6. Establishment of industries in surrounding areas of Delhi.

Question 2.
What are the reasons for migration?
Answer:

  1. Migrations can happen due to many reasons.
  2. Females reported management as the most common reason.
  3. Mates migrate on employment or seeking employment opportunities.
  4. Dissatisfaction with employment opportunities In the native place is one reason.
  5. SetIer opportunity for studies, loss in business, family feuds are some other reasons for migration.

Question 3.
Create a pamphlet on “Prevention of Migration”.
Answer:

Prevention Of Migration

Reasons: When families migrate, they live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions, they suffer from health problems and are prone to diseases. Migratory pressures on communities of origin can be related to social and economic distress. They can be linked to environmental degradation as we as natural man-made hazards and they can be due to persecution on conflict and violence. By supporting disaster preparedness and building resilience at a community level.

Conclusion: We should prevent migration to reduce the above problems. National societies are contributing elevating pressures that can induce people to migrate against their will and desire.

Question 4.
Analyse the problems of Urbanisation.
Answer:
Urbanization: The migration of people from rural areas to urban areas is called urbanisation.

Causes of urbanisation:

  1. Natural growth
  2. Inclusion of rural areas and
  3. Migrations

Challenges of urbanisation:

  1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problem and thus slums are developed in these places.
  2. The decrease in rural population effects the agricultural protection due to shortage of workers In rural areas.
  3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollutions are increased.
  4. Traffic problems will arise.
  5. Proper drainage facilities are not expanded.
  6. Using of plastic covers is increased.
  7. The unerrçloyment increases in urban areas.
  8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration

Question 5.
How does the gender bias effect when the women work outside of the home now a days?
Answer:
Before the rise of large-scale industrialization, home and workplace were one and the same. But now the disparity between men and women in the workplaces is a common Issue.

Workers acknowledge gender dlscrimination is possible in modem organizations, but at the same time maintain their workplaces to be gender neutral. Women are facing a high degree of gender bias when it comes to their careers. There is a general perception that women are less capable than men Ni matters of business and decision-making.

it Is often a strenuous struggle for a woman not just to her mettle but also to make a deserving way to the top. Career goals of women are considered less Important compared to male counterparts. The disparity is also seen in the wages and salaries also. Thus the relationship is negative.

Question 6.
Write a brief note on Seasonal migration.
Answer:
Brief note on Seasonal Migration:
A large section of rural workers migrates for a short period in some specific seasons.
This duration may be less than six months.
Agricultural labourers, marginal farmers and adivasis are mainly seasonal migrants.
Examples for seasonal migration are sugar cane cutters, labourers Ni brick kiins.

Question 7.
What happened as population increased?
Answer:
As population increased, there was more specialization weavers, potters, metal workers and other professions emerged. The number and variety of goods produced Increased and so did the trade in them. Rulers began to encourage craftspersons to settle in urban areas. Urban settlements, i.e., towns where people did not work in agriculture expanded.

Question 8.
What do you know about Visakhapatnam?
Answer:
Visakhapatnam has a long history. It was ruled by different dynasties during pre-colonial Irnos. During the 19th century, the British and French fought a naval battle over this city. Coastal places were of immense significance for colonial powers because they could build poils there. These ports would enable the export of raw retenaIs to the coloniznig country.

Question 9.
What happened In early settlement periods? Give an example.
Answer:
In early settlement periods, places which had favourable water supply and good protection from invasions were preferred. For example. Chhatrapati Sivaji built a foil in Pratapgad. Maharashtra, This site was chosen because of its altitude from where all the surrounding areas could be seen. This provided military security.

Question 10.
Why did most of the population increase In cities and towns take place?
Answer:
Most of the population increase in cities and towns took place as a consequence of natural growth within the urban areas. Some of the growth in urban settlements took place by expansion, with the inclusion of rural areas surrounding older cities and towns. Only One-fifth of the growth is due to rural-to-urban migration.

Question 11.
Why has the population of Visakhapatnam grown significantly over the centuries?
Answer:
Over the decades, Visakhapatnarn’s population has grown significantly. This growth is a result of the importance of Visakhapatnam as a port city. This population increase also indicates growth in economic and social opportunities.

Question 12.
Why did the settlements become more and more complex?
Answer:
As settlements became more and more diversified in their characteristics, they also became more and more complex. Gradually, a network of places in a hierarchy has been formed.

Question 13.
How does urban India contribute to Indians’ economic development?
Answer:
Service sector activities such as finance, insurance, real estate and business-related service activities such as transport, storage and communication contribute more than industrial activities. There Is no major growth of Industrial output over the last few decades.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration

Question 14.
Give some examples of emerging aerotropolises. (International)
Answer:

  1. Suvarnabhumi International Airport (Bangkok. Thailand)
  2. Dubai International ANport (Dubai, UAE)
  3.  Cairo International Airport (Cairo. Egypt)
  4. London Heathrow Airport (London, UK)

Question 15.
Write down some problems of urbanization.
Answer:

  1. The growing urban population has to be housed.
  2. It needs water supply, sewage and other waste disposals, transportation and many other things.
  3. Vehicle use increases.

Question 16.
‘Though there has been an morcase in urbanzation, the necessity of providing ultrastructure that can support this growth is missing’. What is your opinion on the conditions of urban poor people?
Answer:
Due to urbanisation, the people of surrounding villages are reaching the towns and cities. Many of them aro working in unorganised sector. As they are economically backward, they are settling in slum areas.

Usually, they are occupying government unorganised (poram bok) areas for their residences. Govt also building colonies toi them.
Ex: Vambey Colony
But the slum areas in which they are Moving are lack of water, sanitation and toilet facilities. Mostly they are living in ill-healthy conditions.

Question 17.
Why are Embassies set up?
Answer:
Embassies set up by the Indian Government in different countries are expected to follow the legal procedures and protect the welfare of the international migrants as given In the
Emigration Act.

Question 18.
Which depends upon the needs of rural family members?
Answer:
Remittances – money sent by migrants from their destinations – are an important means of supplementing, or generating additional incomes for the rural family. The amount of remittances and the pressure to remain In the urban areas depends upon the needs of rural family members.

Question 19.
Why do migrants retain the economic ties In rural areas?
Answer:
Migrants retain the economic ties in rural areas because they want to safeguard their rights over land and homestead. Families left in rural areas are important for most urban migrants. In fact, it is the family which decides whether their family monther should migrate or not.

Question 20.
Why do people migrate from rural areas?
Answer:
People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities, Inadequate income available in rural employment. They also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family mentors and may be better, services.

Question 21.
Why do many families have residences at both the ends?
Answer:
Many families have residences both at their origin- (native place) and at the destination. They shift between the two depending on work and seasons. Migration does not necessarily involve the movement of all members of the family, and often the wife remains in the rural area.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration

Question 22.
Why do migrants also pass on the urban opportunities to the rural areas?
Answer:
Migrants also pass on ttie urban opportunities to the rural areas so that potential migrants can engage in rural-based ob search. In most cases, migration is the survival strategy for many families.

Question 23.
Do you think migrants are troublemakers? Justify your answer.
Answer:

  1. Yes. I think migrants are troublemakers,
  2. The migrants may not be provided proper facilities by the government.
  3. The migrants may question for proper facilities in the long course.
  4. If the migrants begin to fight for their identity, then the trouble will start.

Ex: Tamil people in Sri Lanka.
(OR)

  1. No. I think migrants are not trouble makers.
  2. Generally, migrants go for their livelihood.
  3. Therefore no scope to tight for domination.
  4. Migrants won’t trouble anybody because they won’t fight for identity and domination.

Ex: Sugarcane cutters in Maharashtra.

Question 24.
Graph: Social Background of short-term migrants in India. 2007-08.
TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration 2
Read the above Pie diagram and answer the following questions.
1. How much per cent of STs migrated in 2007-08?
Answer:
STs constitute 23% of the migrated .n 2007 – 08.

2. Which is the maximum migrated class in 2007-08? What is Its percentage?
Answer:
The maximum migration is from the class of OBCs and it is 40%.

3. In which class we notice minimum migrants?
Answer:
The minimum migrants are there from others which is 18%.

4 Marks Questions

Question 1.
Mention the challenges of Urbanization and suggest remedies.
Answer:
Urbanisation: The migration of people from rural areas to urban areas is called urbanisation.

Causes of urbanisation:

  1. Natural growth.
  2. Inclusion of rural areas and
  3. Migrations

Challenges of urbanisation:

  1. The rapid inflows of rural population to urban places give rise to housing problems and thus slums are developed in these places.
  2. The decrease in rural population effects the agricultural production dueto shortage of workers in rural areas.
  3. Due to use of more vehicles, air, water, sound pollution are increased.
  4. Traffic problem will use.
  5. Proper drainage facikties are not expanded.
  6. Using of plastic covers are increased,
  7. The unemployment increases in urban areas.
  8. Due to this, various criminal activities, corruption, etc. increase affecting the law and order system.

Remedies:

  1. Controlling of migrations from villages to towns and cities.
  2. RecyclIng of waste materials.
  3. Providing more employment opportunities in villages.
  4. Eradicating the use of plastic.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration

Question 2.
Write your reflections on the vulnerable conditions of Indian migrants to West Asia.
Answer:
Vulnerable conditions of Indian migrants to West Asia:

  1. At times, migrant workers are not paid their salaries, and recruitment agents cheat prospective workers or collect more than the prescribed fees for their role in getting work for workers abroad.
  2. Employers also terminate the job contract before its expiry, and change the employment contract to the disadvantage of migrant workers.
  3. Pay less than the agreed salary and freeze fringe benefits and other perks.
  4. They often force workers to do overtime without making additional payments and deny permission to keep one’s own passport
  5. Indian migrant workers seldom lodge any complaint against their foreign employers for the fear of losing their jobs.

Question 3.
Give solutions to address the urbanization problems.
Answer:

  1. Proper- maintenance of sewage water.
  2. Proper supply of drinking water.
  3. Providing infrastructural facilities in rural areas.
  4. Giving importance to AicuIture.
  5. Establishing industries in rural areas to generate employment.
  6. Widening of urban roads.
  7. Strict implementation of rules to reduce pollution.
  8. Coordination among different wings or departments.

Question 4.
Write down the advantages and disadvantages of the people when they migrate.
Answer:
Advantages:

  1. Urban migrants have plenty of opportunities for education and acquire new skills and take new jobs effectively.
  2. Thus they earn more incomes.
  3. Remittances are an important means of supplementing or generating additional income for the rural families.
  4. Migration allows households to meet debt and other obligations without having lo sell assets.
  5. Migrant families buy houses, land, gold, agricultural machinery and consumer durables
  6. Majority of migrants either remit or bring back savings.
  7. Thus their purchasing power Increases.

Disadvantages:

  1. Migrant labourers spend more on food as they cannot get food grains frown fair-price shops.
  2. They live in harsh circumstances and in unhygienic conditions.
  3. They suffer from health problems and are prone to diseases,
  4. They do not have creche facilities.
  5. Grown children are not able to continue their studies at the parents’ new workplaces.
  6. Exposure to different environments, stress associated with it, food availability and social atmosphere leave a deep impact on migrants.

Question 5.
Read the given paragraph and interpret.
Labour being the most abundant factor of production, it would be ideal if the new ways of fanning used mud, more labour. Unfortunately, such a thing has not happened The use of labour on farms Is limited. The labour, looking for opportunities its thus migrating to neighbouring villages, towns and cities. Some labour has entered the non-farm sector in the village.
Answer:

  1. Labour means people who do the work either highly trained and educated or who can do manual work.
  2. Each worker is providing the necessary labour for production.
  3. Skilled or seniskiled or unslolled Labour . all are providing labour for production.
  4. Thus labour is an essential item in production.

Conclusion: II government provide loans to landless labour for Agriculture purpose, motor purposes, engines, etc. more labour we will find In the agricultural sector.

Question 6.
What kind of places are attracted as settlements? Explain.
Answer:
Some places attract more people. There are many reasons for it. Some of them are:

  1. Good transport facilitIes: These facilities reduce the journey time. Hence a place which has good transport facilities attract the people more.
  2. Good living conditions: One cannot change his own environment. The place which has good sanitation. Public transport system. Pollution-free environment naturally attracts more people.
  3. Education, bob opportunities: Having good education gives a chance to take a good profession. The places which have good educational institutions and companies attract more people.

Other reasons: Availability of good health services, having basic needs like electricity, peaceful lifestyle are some of the other factors contributing to attracting people.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration

Question 7.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
As population increased There was more specialization-weavers, potters workers and other prolesskwis emerged. The number and variety o goods produced increased and so did the trade in Them. Rulers began to encourage craftspersons to settle in urban areas. Urban settlements i.e. towns, where people did not practice agriculture expanded.
Answer:
At the beginning the rulers encouraged the craftspersons to settle in urban area. Gradually the facilities increased in urban areas. People who did not have land migrated to towns and cities to improve their living conditions. When industries were established, they left Their occupations and joined in industries for better lite.

Slowly town areas are increasing. The population is also increasing and the number of people who depend on agriculture are also slowly decreasing. The share of agriculture in GDP is also reducing. But In urban areas the people are facing so many problems.

Question 8.
Observe the given pie chart and answer the question that follows:
The social background of shod-term migrants In India, 2007 – 08
TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration 3
Write a paragraph analyzing It.
Answer:
This pie chart is about the social background of short-term migrants in India. 2007-08. It gives category-wise information of SC, ST, OBC and Others. On the overall observation, it is deafly understood that major number is from OBCa and others are less in percentage.

Normally in population, the number of people from other backward classes is more. It is also observed in rural areas. People belonging to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have very less land and Nl some cases they have no lands. Recently the trend is changing. Due to some welfare schemes, they are also leading better life,

The percentage of others is also nearly equal to the scheduled castes. Their migration purpose may be
different. Many of these migrants work In unorganized sectors like, construction work, brick industries, selling plastic goods and vegetables or in casual work.

The government should take care of these migrants and think why these people are migrating from their places. Impossible rural prosperity is to be focused. Public facilities are to be provided at the rural areas and so this migration can be stopped or decreased.

Question 9.
How were the settlements begun and explain, why do they change?
Answer:
Settlements: For about 1.8 lakh years. early humans lived In bands as hunter-gatherers. They didn’t practice agriculture. However, owing to changes in ways of obtaining food some bands took to the deliberate method of production of food agriculture.

The basic concepts of settlements are site, situation and history of the place. With regard to site of a place, its topography, altitude, lakes, rivers, type of soil, security, shelter and so on will be observed. Places do not exist In isolation. Elevated places are useful to see the surroundings if anybody is approaching can be identified easily. The historical background is also an important one for people to decide to reside there.

For the sake of livelihoods and migration, settlements change. Delhi was the capital for many dynasties for many years. People do not want to stay at their places in rural areas. The people suffer a lot at rural areas because of distress in agriculture. The farmers also want to send their children to cities and towns for the sake of education and employment.

Sometimes the rural people migrate to urban areas for livelihoods, jobs, or to settle in any constructive work Many people in cities and towns choose self-employed we can Because of these reasons settlements have been changing.

Question 10.
Observe the information given In the table and analyse.
Table: Migrations in India [Census 1991-2001]
TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration 4
Answer:
Table Analysis:
According to 1991 & 2001 census,

  1. Total population in 1991 was 838.5 millions excluding J & K. At the same time En 2001 it was 1028.6 millions including J&K. There was a vanation of 21.5% growth in the population.
  2. Total migrated people in 1991 were 229.8 millions and they were En 2001,307.1 million. There was 32.9% variation from 1991 to 2001 .
  3. Migrants from within the districts in 1991 were 136.2 millions and in 2001 were 181.7 millions. The variation is 32.6%.
  4. Migrants from other districts of state in 1991 were only 59.1 millions and in 2001 were 76.8 millions. The variation is 29.5%.
  5. In 1991 migrants from other states in India were 272 millions and 2001 they were 42.3 million. The variation is 54.5%,
  6. Migrants from other countries were 6.9 millions in 1991. This number reduced to 6.1 millions in 2001. Hence, the variation is (-) 11.6%.

From the above information, it is evident that total migrations increased from 1991 to 2001. Migrants within the district and migrants from other districts of state increased. Because of employment, facilities and education also increased Some areas are not developed, that’s why people are migrating from one place to other places.

Conclusion: Finally from the above information we understand that migrants from other countries to India decreased. So we understand that foreigners are not preferring to migrate India because of lack of resources and employment arid low paid salaries.

Question 11.
Read the paragraph and write your opinion.
Most of the population increase in cities and towns took place as a consequence of natural growth within the urban areas. The population of these urban areas increased over time. Some of the growth in urban settlements took place by expansion, with the inclusion of rural areas surrounding older cities and towns. Only one-fifth of the growth is due to rural-to-urban migration.
Answer:
According to the paragraph given, the natural growth within the urban areas is more as the expansion is going on around the cities and towns. When a city or town expands the surrounding villages will be submerged in the city or town, The migration from rural areas is very less.

My opinion Is that it is not common m all the cities and towns. In some cities and towns, it may be correct but m many arees the migrants are more in number. They are coming from rural areas to urban areas. They have different reasons lake livelihood, employment, children’s education, medical services for their chronic patients, dejection in agriculture and others. When all these people came to cities and towns there will be many problems.

Government should take care of these problems and find solutions. Right to life is given by the constitution but it is not affordable to all. Agriculture is to be given priority and so villagers or farmers may stay there. It w be useful to increase the agro products also.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration

Question 12.
Read the following paragraph and write your comments.
How does urban India contribute to India’s economic development? Service sector activities such as finance, insurance, real estate and business-related service activities such as transport, storage and communication contribute more than Widustrial activities. There is no major growth of Industrial output over the last few decades.
Answer:
According to the paragraph, It Is clearly understood that service activities play a crucial and vital role in economic development. The growth of industrial output is very less. It means service sector contributes more than that of the remaining sectors.

My comments on this paragraph are that we should think of this situation in India Normally in an economy, there are three sectors viz, agriculture, industrial and service sectors. Many people depend upon agriculture in the past in our country but recently the scene in India is changing. the people are shifting from agriculture to other sectors, The narrator in agriculture Is gradually decreasing. All the activities mentioned in the given paragraph are increasing their services and contributing a lot in the economic development. In conclusion, I would like to say that the government should encourage agriculture and industries also.

Many of the people working in service sector are in unorganized sector. They should be taken care of. If agriculture and industries are neglected, there will be new problems like shortage of good grains and other commodities.

Question 13.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion.
One of the impacts of Increased urbanization is the use of materials that either do not degrade or take a long time to do so. This produces waste that has lo be disposed off. Where do we put such waste? As urban areas expand, the waste Is increasingly pushed to rural areas where they are either just dumped or taken to waste treatment plants.
Answer:
As per the paragraph given here, the effect of urbanization is in many ways. Collection and dumping of wastage and garbage has become a major issue. The expansion of urban areas is increasing day by day. The dumpng of waste leads to pollution in rural areas.

My opinion on this paragraph Is that there are many reasons for migration and it leads to increasing in urbanization. Many migrants live in temporary settlements and they don’t have shelters. These are not legal places where they live. So they don’t come under regular dwellers of the city or town. Drinking water, milk, vegetables and other commodities shortage will be there.

The major problem is disposal of waste. As It is irregular, they officials concerned don’t concentrate on the increasing waste.

I suggest the officials that they arrange sufficient mechanisms to collect the waste and pollution tree programmes are to be taken up. Dunlng in outskirts of towns and cities Is not the solution but it creates new problems. The collection is to be properly managed not to pollute the surroundings.

Question 14.
Feel that you are living In urban area. Write a letter to the Municipal Commissioner complaining about the urbanization problems arising due to migration and request to take necessary steps.
Answer:

Anandnagar colony.
Hyderabad.
4th August 2019,

To
The Commissioner,
Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation,
Hyderabad.

Respected sir,
I am Keshava Rao, the resident (H.No ……………………………………. ) of Mehdatnam. I would like to bring a few lines to your notice about the urbanization problems in out locality for yow kind consideration and necessary action.

In our locality, the migrant number is increasing. They are coming to the city because of their needs and problems but it leads to new problems here. Water supply, sewage and other waste disposals, transportation and pollution problems are arising. There are plastic covers on the roads everywhere. Many animals on the roads oat those covers and die.

As the garbage is increasing and it Is not properly cleaned, unbearable stench is spread. There may be a scope for different diseases. I request you to increase the number of workers and take necessary action to make
city dean so as to maintain good health in our locality.

Yours faithfully,
……………………………..
…………………………….

Address on the envelope:
To
The Commissioner,
GHMC, Near Tank Bund,
Hyderabad-500 001.

Question 15.
What happened to the migrant workers at times?
Answer:
At times, migrant workers are not paid their salaries, recruitment agents cheat prospective workers can collect more than the prescribed fees for their role in getting work for workers abroad. Employers also terminate the job contract before its expiry. change the employment contract to the disadvantage of migrant workers, pay less than the agreed salary arid freeze fringe benefits and other perks.

They often force workers to do overtime without making additional payments and deny permission to keep one’s own passports. Indian migrant workers seldom lodge any complaint against their foreign employers for the fear of losing their jobs.

Question 16.
Read the following paragraph and write your opinion on it.
People migrate from rural areas mainly due to insufficient employment opportunities and the inadequate income available In rural employment. People also migrate with the expectation of higher incomes and more opportunities for family members and may be better serviced. Ramaish was able to find work in the organized sector. However, most urban migrants have to work as labourers and find employment in the unorganized
sector. They could be working as hawkers, painters, repair persons, rickshaw pullers, construction labour, etc.
Answer:
According to the paragraph, the people migrate to urban areas as there is no sufficient work in rural areas. They expect high income from urban areas but they settle in unorganized sector. They also have no job security and they face many problems.

My opinion is that nowadays every individual wants high income for their families. The people are ready to go anywhere for that. Some of them are going even abroad for that leaving their families also. In this context of the paragraph rural people are migrating to urban areas.

They hope that they lead a good life but many of them face many problems. They are forcibly settling in unorganized sector. Some of then, don’t find even daily wages. In unorganized sector they aro facing various troubles. They have no proper shelter, no food, no schooling for their children.

In conclusion, I suggest the government to take care of these labourers of unorganized sector and launch new schemes for these migrants. In cities and towns they should be identified and recognized and provided with ration cards to get commodities from fair price shops.

TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration

Question 17.
Read the flowing paragraph and write your opinion on it.
A large section of rural workers migrate for a short duration and particularly due to distress caused In rural areas. They are mainly agricultural labourers or marginal farmers in their place of origin and mostly belong to low income households, Dalits and adivasls.
Answer:
As per the paragraph given, It is understood that most of the labourers migrating from rural areas to urban areas are from marginalised families. Their income is low and they are SCs and STs. They como to cities and towns in distress.

My opinion is that most of the dal.ts and Adivasis have no agricultural lands, They are agricultural labourers working in others fields. When they tried no work in some peculiar seasons they migrate to urban areas. Especially the adlvas4s are still leading their lives based on the forest produce. Deforestation is going on. The forest cover is decreasing.

So the Adivasis lose their opportunities of their collection. Many of other caste people of low income are also suffering the same. Irrespective of caste the poor are migrating. They are facing many problems in urban areas.

I suggest the government to take up new initiatives for the sake of these low-income groups. MNREGA programmes should be launched In the needy areas. The duties, Adivasis and other low-income groups of other castes also should be given priority and welfare schemes.

Question 18.
TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration 5
Prepare a paragraph on the above pie chart.
Answer:
This pie chart is about the social background of short-term migrants in India. 2007- 08. It gives category-wise information of SC. ST, OBC and Others. On the overall observation, it is clearly understood that major number is from OBCs and others are less in percentage.

Normally in population, the number of people from other backward classes is more. It is also observed in rural areas. People belong to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have very less land and in some cases, they have no lands. Recently The trend is changing.

Due to some welfare schemes, they are also leading better life. The percentage of others Is also nearly equal to the scheduled castes. Their migration purpose may be different. Many of these migrants work in unorganized sector like. construction work. brick industries, selling plastic goods and vegetables or in casual work.

The government should take care of these migrants arid think why these people are migrating from their places It is possible rural prosperity is to be focused. Public facilities are to be provided at the rural areas and so this migration can be stopped or decreased.

Question 19.
Locate the following in the given map of India.
1. The only river which is flowing through the Rajasthan State.
Answer:
Luni

2. The state which has Malabar coast.
Answer:
Kerala

3. The state which has Utkal coast.
Answer:
Odisha

4. The capital of India
Answer:
Delhi

5. Godavari Delta.

6. Kaveri Delta.

7. Mahanadl Delta.

8. The Drainage area of the River Ganga.

9. Bhimbedka
Answer:
MP (Near. Bhopal)

10. Rajiv Gandhi International Ariport.
Answer:
Hyderabad
TS 10th Class Social Important Questions 7th Lesson Settlements – Migration 6

TS 10th Class English Writing Bio-Graphical Sketch

These TS 10th Class English Important Questions Writing Bio-Graphical Sketch will help the students to improve their time and approach.

TS 10th Class English Writing Bio-Graphical Sketch

Section – C : Creative Writing (Discourses)

BIO-GRAPHICAL SKETCH

Question 1.
Given below are the details of the famous singer, S.P. Balasubrahmanyam.
Full name : Sripathi panditaradhyula Balasubrahmanyam
Date of Birth : 4th June 1946
Place of Birth : Konetammapeta, Nellore District
State : Andhra Pradesh
Educational qualifications : Engineering course (A.M.I.E)
Entry into film field : 1966
First Film : Sri Sri Sri Maryada Ramanna
Entry into Bollywood : 1980
Total number of songs sung : About 40,000
Other credits : Noted dubbing artist
Actor : Acted in a number of Telugu films
TV programmes : Leading many TV programmes
Awards : 1) National Film Award for best male playback singer
2) National Award ffrom government of Andhra paradesh – 25 times
3) State Award from Tamil Nadu
4) State Award from Karnataka
5) Padma Shri Award
6) Padma Bhushan
Based on the above information, write a biographical sketch of S.P. Balasubrahmanyam.
Answer:
S.P. Balasubrahmanyam is an Indian film playback singer, actor, music director, voice actor and film producer. He is mostly referred to as S.P.B. or Balu. His full name is Sripathi Panditaradhyula Balasubrahmanyam. He was born on 4th June, 1946 in Korietammapeta, Nellore District He has two brothers and five sisters, inducting singer, S.P. Sailaja. He developed an interest towards music at an early age. He joined JNTU College of Engineering, Anantapur but discontinued due to Ill health. Later, he joined as an associate member of the Institution of Engineers, Chennai.

Balasubrahmanyam made his debut as a playback singer in 1966 with Sri Sri Sri Maryada Ramanna. He made his entry into Bollywood in 1980. He has the rare distinction of rendering most number of songs on a single day by any singer. He recorded duets with P.Susheela, S.Janakl, Vani )ayararn and L.R.Eswari. He came to international prominence with Shankarabharanam, which is considered to be one of the best films ever to emerge from Telugu film industry. He sang about 40,000 songs in various languages.

Balasubrahmanyam accidentally became a dubbing artist with Kamal Hassan’s film ‘Manmadha Leela. He has also provided voice-over for the artists Rajanikanth, Salman Khan, Bhagyaraj, Mohan, Anil Kapoor, Girish Karnad, Gemini Ganeshan and others. He also anchored many TV programmes which are all hits. Balasubrahmariyam has won the Guinness world record for recording the highest number of songs. He won the National Film Award for best male playback singer six times. He won the Nandi Awards in Telugu cinema 25 times from the Government of Andhra Pradesh. He was also awarded state awards from both Tamil Nadu and Karnataka states. He is a recipient of civilian awards such as Padma Shri and Padma Bhushan from the Government of India.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 33 Bio-Graphical Sketch

Question 2.
Write a short biographical sketch/profile of C.V. Raman using the information given below.
Name : Dr. CV. Raman, a great Indian scientist
Born : 7 November 1888, Tiruchirappalli
Parents : Father – school teacher, Mother a learned woman
Education : MA Physics, age 18 – first class
Carrer : Joined Department of Finance, Govt of India Professor of Physics at the University College of Science.
Achievements : The Raman Effect (February 28,1928 – an important discovery in the field of light); very important contributions in the field of electrical conductivity of metals.
Honours : Elected Fellow of the Royal Society of London (1924); Nobel Prize in Physics (1930); Bharat Ratna (1954)
Death : 21 November 1970
Answer:
Dr. C.V. Raman was one of the greatest Indian scientists. He was born on 7 November 1888 at Tiruchirappalli, in South India. His father was a teacher and his mother was a very learned woman. He completed his MA in Physics at the young age of eighteen and began his career by joining the Department of Finance in the Government of India. Later, he took up the position of professor of Physics at the University College of Science. He achieved great heights in the field of science. He is known for his theory called the Raman Effect in the field of light and he also made very important contributions in the field of electrical conductivity of metals. He discovered the Raman Effect on28th February 1928. (February 28 is being observed,as the NationalScience Day of India.)

Dr. C.V. Raman received some of the most prestigious awards in the world. He was elected a Fellow of the Royal Society of London in 1924, He later won the Nobel Prize in Physics In 1930. He was also given the honour of Bharat Ratna’ in 1970. Dr. Raman died on 21 November 1970.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 33 Bio-Graphical Sketch

Question 3.
Read the following information about Rabindranath Tagore.
Full Name : Rabindranath Tagore
Occupation : Writer, song composer, painter, playwright, essayist
Born : 7th May, 1861
Birth Place : Calcutta, India
Nationality : Indian
Notable works : Gitanjali, Gora, Jana Gana Mana
Spouse : Mrinalini Devi
Awards : Nobel Prize in literature in 1931
Died : 7th August, 1941
Now, write a biographical sketch of Rabindranath Tagore by using the given information in three or four paragraphs.
The following are the details of a social activist. Write her biographical sketch in not less than 120 words.
Answer:
Rabindranath Tagore was a renowned poet of India. He was born on 7th May, 1861 in Calcutta, India. He was a writer, song composer, painter, playwright and essayist. Besides these he was a philosopher and is popularly known as Gurudev. He was married to Mrinalini Devi.

He wrote many stories, novels, poems and dramas. His major works included Gitanjall and Gora. Our national anthem Jana Gana Maria was written by him.

His writings greatly influenced Bengali culture during the late 19th and early 20th century. In 1913, he won the Nobel Prize in literature. He was the first Asian to win this prize. He passed away on 7th August in 1941.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 33 Bio-Graphical Sketch

Question 4.
The following are the details of a social activist. Write her biographical sketch in not less than 120 words.

Malala Yousafzai

Born : 12 July 1997 Mingora, North-West Frontier Province, Pakistan
Residence : Birmingham, England
Nationality : Pakistani
Ethnicity : Pashtun
Occupation : Blogger and activist for rights to education for women
Known for : Female education activism
Religion : Islam
Parents : Toorpekai Yousafzai (mother)
Ziauddin Yousafzai (father)
Awards : Nobel Peace Prize, Sakharov Prize, Simon de Bolivar Prize, Honorary Canadian Citizenship, National Youth Peace Prize
Answer:
Malala Yousafzai, a world famous female education activist, was born, on 12 July 1997, Mingora, NorthWest Frontier Province, in Pakistan. Her parents were Ziauddin Yousafzai (father) and Toorpekai Yousafzal (Mother). She is a Pakistani by birth and her ethnicity is Pashtun. Now she is living in Birmingham, in England. Though her religion is Islam, which won’t promote female education, she is known for her female education activism.

Her occupation is serving as a blogger and activist for rights to education and for women though the Taliban issued a death threat against her, and shot her while she was going to school. But she did not stop of her education. Instead she continued to speak out on the importance of woman education. She has been awarded with Nobel Peace Prize at the age of 17 years. She has been also awarded with Sakharov prize, Simon de Bolivar prize and National Youth Peace Prize. She has got the Honorary Canadian Citizenship.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 33 Bio-Graphical Sketch

Question 5.
Write a short biographical sketch of Kushwant Singh basing on the following hints.
Name : Kushwant Singh
Birth : 2 February 1915 at Hadali in British India (Now in Pakistan)
Occupation : English Writer – post Colonial.
Features : clear-cut secularism, humour and a deep passion for poetry
Spcialities : Rajya Sabha Member (1980 – 1986) Padma Bhushan Awardee (1974). Returned in protest for the siege of Golden Temple. Padma Vibhushan in 2007.
Death : 20th, March, 2014.
Answer:
Kushwant Singh is a senior and prominent Indian novelist cum journalist. He was born on 2nd, February, 1915 at Hadali in British India that is now a part of Punjab in Pakistan.

Being a significant post-colonial writer in the English language, Kushwant Slngh s known for his clear-cut secularism, humour and a deep passion for poetry.

Singh was a Rajya Sabha member of the Indian parliament from 1980 to 1986. He was honoured with the Padma Bhushan Award in the year 1974 for service to his country, but he returned the award in protest against the siege of the Golden Temple by the Indian Army in 1984. Undeterred, the Indian government- awarded Singh an even more prestigious honour, the Padma Vibhushan in the year 2007. He died on 20 March 2014.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 33 Bio-Graphical Sketch

Question 6.
Given below is the biographical information about Sudha Chandran. Based on this information write a biographical sketch.

TS 10th Class English Writing Bio-Graphical Sketch 1
Sudha Chandran

Born : 21st September 1964
Place : India
Occupation : Dancer, actress
Years active : 1984 – present
Spouse : Ravi Dang
Parents : Chandran
Answer:
It is inspiring to see people doing amazing things, but it has been more astonishing and marvelous to look at people with disability doing things, which may seem unimaginable to the normal people. There are many such extraordinary personality, who have performed tasks which has become legendary.

Sudha Chandran is a well known Bharatanatyam dancer from Chennal, South India. She was born there on 21st September 1964. Her father was Chandran. She has been married to Ravi Dang.Hc was also awarded with the world famous Oscar Award on 2009. She completed her masters In Mumbai and while travelling from Mumbai to Chennai, she met with an accident. The wound on her right leg got affected by gangrene, which resulted in the amputation. But despite her injury Sudha went on to become one of the most highly acclaimed dancers.

She is recognised in many countries and has been honoured with numerous awards and still receives Invitations to perform all over the world. In 1984 Telugu film Mayuri, in which she has played the role herself, was inspired by her life history. She came to be known as Mayuri girl after that. The great Indian Television academy awarded best actress in a negative role played in the Tumban Disha in 2005.

With the help of a prosthetic ‘Jaipur foot’ she has become one of the most highly acclaimed dancer of the Indian sub continent. She received invitations from all over the world for performances. She was honoured with various awards. She performed as far away from home as Europe, Canada and the Middle East. Now she become an inspiration to many.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 33 Bio-Graphical Sketch

Question 7.
With the help of the given clues, complete the bio-sketch of A.R. Rehman in not more than 80-100 words.

TS 10th Class English Writing Bio-Graphical Sketch 2
A.R. Rehman

Born : As Dileep Kumar-January 6, 1966, Chennai, Tamil Nadu, changed name to A.R.Rehman.
Fame : Music director and singer
Family : Lost father at an early age; mother’s great influence.
Trained under : Master Dhanraj, Ilayaraja
Education : Graduate in western classical music from Trinity College of Music
Began Music : 1992-set up recording
career : studio; film career began.
Awards : Fourteen Filmfare Awards, four National Film Awards, two Grammy Awards, two Academy Awards, Padma Bhushan in 2010. Contribution to music immense; national icon
Answer:
A.R.Rehman was born in Chennai as A.S. Dileep Kumar to R.K. Shekhar a notable music composer and conductor for Tamil and Malayalam films. Since the age of 11., Rehman learnt to play musical instruments under the training of M.S.Viswanathan, Dhanraj, Ramesh Naidu and Raj-Koti. He also worked as band player and named his band as ‘Roots’.

Rehman lost his father at a very young age of 4 and mother was his only companion. So his mother’s influence was more on him. To make both ends meet the family used to rent musical instruments. His actual music career started in 1992 composing for documentaries, jingles and Indian Television channels.

Rehman did graduation in western classical music from Trinity College, London of Music. In 1989, he changed to Islam religion and named himself as A.R.Rehman, Allah Rakha Rehman. He achieved more than 26 awards and became famous as music director and singer. He received fourteen Film fare Awards, four National Film Awards, two Grammy Awards, two Academy Awards and Padma Bhushan in 2010. His contribution to the field of music was immense and noteworthy. He can be called the National Icon’ of film industry and music world.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 33 Bio-Graphical Sketch

Question 8.
Go through the following personal details of politician. Then attempt a biographical sketch of him.

TS 10th Class English Writing Bio-Graphical Sketch 3
K.V.RANGA REDDY
Deputry Chief minister, Andhra Pradesh

Personal details:
Born : 12th December 1890, Pedda Managalaram, Hyderabad
Died : 24 July 1970
Political party : Congress
Spouse : Tungabadramma
Residence : Pedda Managalaram, Hyderabad, India
Religion : Hindu
Answer:
Konda Venkta Ranga Reddy, popularly known as K.V. Ranga Reddy was born on 12th December 1890 in, Padda Managalaram Deputy Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh. He is a freedom fighter who fought the Telangana Rebellion against the Jagirdars.

The Ranga Reddy District in Telangana is named after him, for fighting the Razakars, who were against Hyderabad state to be integrated into independent India.

He was a Minister of Revenue in 1959 in Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy’s government. He became Deputy Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh in 1969. He particpated in the Telangana Movement and is known for his forthright speech at Siddiambar Bazar which ended with his words Ghulam Ki Zindagi Se Mauth Acchi. K.V.Ranga Reddy also founded the educational institute. A.V. College. He was also a member of Indra Seva Sadan Society, established by Sangam Laxmibai in 1952 for achieving their objective of assisting women and girls. A girls college of the trust was named in his honour as, K.V. Ranga Reddy Degree College for Women. He also started K.V.Ranga Reddy Women’s hostel.

K.V.Ranga Reddy was married to Tungabhadramma. They had 11 children- 7 Boys and 4 Girls. Chenna Reddy former Chief Minister of Andhra Pradesh was born to KV. Ranga Reddy’s sister Buchamma in a village, Pedda Managalaram near Hyderabad. His brother’s (Konda Narayan Reddy) daughter was married to Chenna Reddy.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Choose the Correct Word Question Number 23 to 28

These TS 10th Class English Important Questions Grammar Choose the Correct Word Question Number 23 to 28 will help the students to improve their time and approach.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Choose the Correct Word Question Number 23 to 28

(1) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

However the poorest rural folk are (23) (is/ are) landless labourers, who (24) (who/whom) get neither farm loans nor waivers. Half of the small and marginal farmers get no loans from (25) (in/from) banks and depend entirely on money – lenders Besides (26) (Beside/Besides) rural India is full of the family holdings rather than individual holdings. The family holdings will typically be much larger than (27) (than/with) two hectares even for (28) (for/ as) dirt-poor farmers.

(2) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Mankind has seen (23) (have seen/ has seen) rapid transformation in the last 150 years because (24) (because/ as) of the mass manufacturing techniques resorted in western nations and later (25) (later / latter) taken to new levels of efficiency by Japan. Mass production and production for the masses became the basis (26) (basis/bases) of new business strategies. Largescale consumption by all with (27) (with/ to) the social benefit of removing (28) (remove/removing) poverty became the dominant economic strategy.

(3) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Rich countries usually help (23) (help/helps) poorer ones like African countries through (24) (through/with) donations and aid. Their attempts are not always successful (25) (success/successful) as loans are not used for the projects for which (26) (which/that) they are sanctioned. China, however has found a different way to help (27) (to help/helping) Africa by trading with (28) (with/by) the countries.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Choose the Correct Word Question Number 23 to 28

(4) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Though (23) (Though/ As) the US prides itself on being a leader in the world community, a recent report says (24) (say/says) that it lags far behind than (25) (than/ to) other countries in (26) (in/ on) meeting the needs of its youngest and most vulnerable citizens The (27) (The/A) US has a higher infant mortality rate, a higher proportion of low birth weight babies, a smaller proportion of babies immunised (28) (immuned/ immunised) against childhood diseases.

(5) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

It is said that the character of a city is reflected (23) (responded/reflected) in the manner its traffic moves. If that is the case (24) (example/case), Delhi could top the charts. Recent statistics released (25) (released/release) by the traffic police reveal that mindless driving (26) (drive/driving) with disregard for traffic rules has now become a norm. So what is the reason (27) (result/reason) behind the increasing number of accidents (28) (events / accidents)?

(6) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Everywhere Governments realise the importance of trees, it is difficult (23) (different / difficult) for it to pursuade (24) (pursuade /pursuaded) the villagers to see this. The villager wants (25) (wants/want) wood to cook his food with, and he can earn money by (26) (by/at) selling wood. He is usually too careless to plant and look after (27) (look into / look after) new trees. So, unless the Government has a good system of control, or can educate (28) (eradicate/ educate) the people, the forests slowly disappear.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Choose the Correct Word Question Number 23 to 28

(7) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Cooperation is highly valued. The value placed on cooperation is strongly rooted in the past, when (23) (where/when) cooperation was necessary for the survival of family and group. Because of strong feelings of group solidarity, competition within (24) (within/ without) the group is rare. There is security in being (25) (for/being) a member of the group and in not being singled out and placed in (26) (on/in) a position above or below others. Approved behavior includes (27) (include/includes) improving on and competing with one’s own past performance, however. The sense of cooperation is so strong in many tribal communities that (28) (which/that) democracy means consent by consensus, not by majority rule.

(8) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

The Earth’s past climate – including (23) (including/include) temperature and elements in the atmosphere—has recently been studied by analyzing ice samples from (24) (from/ of) Greenland and Antarctica, the two land masses lying at the two far ends of (25) (on/of) the sphere. The air bubbles in the ice (26) have (has/have) shown that, over the past 160,000 years, there has been a close correlation (27) between (among/between) temperature changes and level of natural greenhouse gases carbon dioxide (28) and (and/yet) methane.

(9) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

One recent analysis from Greenland (23) showed (showed/shows) that at the end of the last glacial period – when the great ice sheets began to retreat (24) to (too/to) their present position, temperatures in southern Greenland (25) rose (rises/rose) from 5 to 7 degrees in about 100 years. Air bubbles are not the only method (26) of (of/to) determining characteristics of the Earth’s ancient climate history. Analysis of dust layers from ancient volcanic activity is (27) another (another/other) such method; as is the study of ice cores, which interpret past solar activity (28) that (which/that) may have affected our climate.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Choose the Correct Word Question Number 23 to 28

(10) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Before video cameras (23) were (are/were) widely used, home and business owners had to rely only (24) on (upon/on) written reports and photos as a way to document (25) their (there/their) valuables for insurance purposes. This form of documentation was difficult for some insurance policy holders. They found it was easy to lose lists (26) or (and/or) forget to add new items they purchased, or delete items they no longer had. As a result these insurance inventories were often inaccurate While (27) (When/While) videotaping is not an option for every home or business owner, (28) this (these/this) kind of insurance documentation is helpful for some.

(11) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

French physicist Charles Fabry found (23) (identified/found) ozone gas in the atmosphere in 1913. Ozone is all around us. After a thunderstorm, or around (24) (round/around) electrical equipment, ozone is often detected as a sharp odor. For much of the second half of the nineteenth century and well into the twentieth, ozone was considered a healthy component (25) (component/element) of the environment by naturalists and health-seekers. Naturalists working outdoors often (26) (off/often) considered the higher elevations beneficial because (27) (due/because) of their ozone content. Seaside air was considered to be healthy because of its believed ozone content; but the smell giving rise to this belief is in fact that of (28) (that of/of) halogenated seaweed metabolites

(12) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Two men were (23) (are/were) walking along one summer day. Soon it became too hot (24) (heat/hot) to go any further and seeing (25) (seeing/seen) a large tree nearby they threw themselves on the ground to rest (26) (rest/resting) in (27) (on/in) its shade Gazing (28) (Gazed/ Gazing) up into the branches one man said to the other : “It doesn’t have fruit or nuts.”

TS 10th Class English Grammar Choose the Correct Word Question Number 23 to 28

(13) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Mobile phones are changing (23) (change/are changing) the world we live (24) (live/are living) in Kenya was regarded (25) (regarded/was regarded) as a poor country lacking (26) (lacked/lacking) hospitals, running water, electricity, education and roads. Mobile phone technology has changed (27) (changed / has changed) all this. Today 92 percent of Kenyans access (28) (access/accessed) the Internet using their mobile phones.

(14) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

We should recognise (23) (recognise/be recognised) the indebtedness of the country to its farm families who (24) (who/ which) toil to safeguard national (25) (nation/ national) food security. Loan waiver is the price we have to pay (26) (to pay/paid) for the neglect of rural India over (27) (over/from) the past several decades. There has been (28) (is/has been) a gradual decline in investment in key sectors related to agriculture such as infrastructure.

(15) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

The idea behind staging the World Cup in South Africa was changing (23) (to change/ changing) how the world thought about (24) (about / of) the country. While to the world, South Africa was thought (25) (thought / regard) as a country of (26) (of/with) wars and famines. South Africans prepared for the event by building (27) (build/building) stadia and airports. They opened (28) (opened/have opened) their homes and cities to visitors.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Choose the Correct Word Question Number 23 to 28

(16) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

The largest use of ozone is in the preparation of pharmaceuticals, synthetic lubricants, and many (23) ( much/many) other commercially useful organic compounds, where it is used to (24) (used/used to) sever carbon-carbon bonds. It can also be used for bleaching substances and for killing microorganisms in air and water sources. Many municipal drinking water systems kill bacteria with ozone instead of (25) (in spite of/instead of) the more common chlorine. Ozone does not form organo-chlorine compounds, nor (26) (nor/not) does it remain in the water after treatment. This gas is also highly reactive. For example, rubber insulation (27) (installation/insulation) around a car’s spark plug wires will need to be replaced eventually, due to the small amounts of ozone produced when electricity flows (28) (flows/ flow) from the engine to the plug.

(17) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Many people who have (23) (has/have) come close to death from drowning, cardiac arrest or other causes have described near-death experiences—profound, subjective events that (24) (that/which) sometimes result in dramatic changes in values, beliefs, behavior, and attitudes toward (25) (toward/towards) life and death. These experiences often include a new clarity of thinking, a feeling of well being, a sense of being out of the body, and visions of bright light or mystical encounters. Near-death experiences have been explained (26) (have been explained/were explained) as a response to a perceived threat (27) (treat/ threat) of death (a psychological theory); as a result of biological states that accompany the process of dying (a physiological theory); and as a foretaste of (28) (of/for) an actual state of bliss after death (a transcendental theory).

(18) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

In most cases little (23) (few/little) birds lay little eggs. The kiwi is an astonishing exception to this rule—it is a smallish bird that lays a big egg. The kiwi, a flightless bird found (24) (discovered/found) in New Zealand, weighs about four pounds, and it’s (25) (its/it’s) egg weighs, believe it or not, about one pound. That is one-fourth of the bird’s body weight! If an ostrich lays (26) (laid/lays) an egg that was in the same (27) (same/ some) proportion to the ostrich as the kiwi egg is to the kiwi, an ostrich egg would weigh a whopping seventy-five pounds instead (28) (instead/installed) of the usual three pounds.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Choose the Correct Word Question Number 23 to 28

(19) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Jazz is a (23) (the/a) peculiarly American contribution to Western culture. It was born (24) (bone/born) out of the unique experience of American Blacks. Although its history is not entirely clear, jazz obviously has roots in the rhythm (25) (rhyme / rhythm) patterns and melodic lines of Africa, the tradition of Christian spirituals as sung by slave communities. Jazz has proved to be very (26) (very/vary) difficult to define, since it encompasses such a wide range of music. Attempts have been made (27) (are made/have been made) to define jazz from the perspective of other (28) (another / other) musical traditions, such as European music history or African music.

(20) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

There (23) (There/Their) are two kinds of jewelry that I do. There is (24) (are/is) commercial jewelry—class rings, necklaces, the (25) (a/the) kinds of things most people wear. I sell these items to meet (26) (meet/meat) my expenses for raw materials, supplies, and to make my living (27) (life/living). The other, more creative work I do makes (28) (make/ makes) me feel that I am developing as a craftsperson.

(21) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Some actors and rock stars are paid (23) (paid/are paid) almost 100 times as much per year as school teachers. Not to downgrade the role (24) (role/roll) of entertainment in our lives, but (25) (and/but) these people are not the valuable social resource that educators are. As another example, professional athletes earn vastly more than the nation’s firefighters. Again, there is little doubt that the lower paid group contributes a more vital function to (26) (to/for) communities. Finally, dress designers, who can make unto (27) (unto/up to) $50,000 for a gown, far out-earn police officers, whose very presence makes our cities and towns livable (28) (lively /livable).

TS 10th Class English Grammar Choose the Correct Word Question Number 23 to 28

(22) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Before the invention of automobiles and airplanes travel (23) (travel/journey) was a slow (24) (low/slow) process. The first mode of transportation was (25) (is/was) walking. Sometime later humans began to domesticate (26) (domesticate/domestic) animals for use in transportation. When traveling long distances families would be out of communication until (27) (unless/until) the travelers reached their destination. Sometimes people lost touch with (28) (among/with) each other permanently.

(23) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Cleopatra, the most (23) (much/most) attractive queen of the ancient world, was (24) (were/was) in reality a short, fat and ugly woman, says a forthcoming exhibition at the British Museum. The swathing portrait emerged with the rediscovering (25) (rediscovered/rediscovering) of 11 previously unrecognized images of the queen – all statues carved (26) (carves/carved) in Egyptian style. They depict the alluring (27) (alluring/allure) and ambitious queen of the Nile as an (28) (an, the) ordinary looking woman.

(24) Read the following passage and fill up the4>lanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

There were many (23) (more/many) whales swimming in the ocean a long time ago. Then they were (24) (was/were) hunted and killed by Native American tribes. They hunted the whale for (25) (from/for) food, oil, and other items. Seventy years ago, they (26) (they/there) were told to stop killing them because the number of whales was (27) (was/were) decreasing. Now the Native Americans have been told they might (28) (might/will) start hunting them again.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Choose the Correct Word Question Number 23 to 28

(25) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Scuba diving is the most (23) (much/most) exhilarating experience I have ever had. The first time I went, the dark mirror of the water beckoned me to drop from (24) (from/ form) the side of the boat. I jumped feet (25) (feet/foot) first and entered a brightly colored world populated with (26) (of/with) fish, plants, and objects I had never dreamed of. The experience left me feeling serene and mellow. Being submerged under water, with heavy weights pulling you down, I was surprised to note (27) (note/not) that there was absolutely no gravitational pull (28) (pull/push), despite the heavy weights and gear I was wearing. All I had to keep in mind was that I had to continuously blow air to neutralize the water pressure but I hadn’t had enough.

(26) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

We know controlling expenses is easier said than done (23) (done/doing). However hard you may (24) (might/may) try, there will be some expense that will gobble up the surplus and prevent you from saving. The solution lies (25) (lays/lies) in automating your savings. Ideally, the savings should flow into an investment option that do (26) (do/ does) not allow easy withdrawals. This is one of the reasons (27) (reason/reasons) that make the Provident Fund such an effective tool for long-term savings. Every month, the employee’s (28) (employee’s/employer’s) contribution is deducted from the salary and deposited into his PF account. The money keeps growing till the person retires.

(27) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Some natural (23) (nature/natural) fragrances are easily synthesized; these include (24) (include/includes) vanillin, the aromatic ingredient in vanilla, and benzaldehyde, the aromatic ingredient in (25) (in/of) wild cherries. Other fragrances, however, have dozens, even hundreds of components. Recently has it been possible to separate and identify these ingredients by (26) (by/buy) the use of gas chromatography and spectroscopy. Once the chemical identify (27) (identifies /identify) is known, it is often possible to synthesize them. Nevertheless, some complex substances, such as the aroma of fresh coffee, have still (28) (stale/still) not been duplicated satisfactorily.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Choose the Correct Word Question Number 23 to 28

(28) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Jenny gulped, startled (23) (startled/started). Ten years from now it was a quiet (24) (quiet/ quite) different kind of young lady she intended to be. For a moment (25) (moment/movement) there was a sick little ball of consternation down near her midriff, a clammy fear her mother might be (26) (be/was) right—and then she was furious. She wasn’t gawky and she wasn’t know-nothing. She could do (27) (do/have done) fractions and percentages and draw the map of North America with her eyes shut. Her mother to talk, who only last Sunday when she was writing a letter had to ask how (28) (who/how) to spell ‘necessary’!

(29) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Fired by the idea of turning Gardner’s story into (23) (onto/into) a movie, dayman showed the 20/20 clip to the producers at Escape Artists, who then sent it to Will Smith. “It (24) (It/Its) made people come together and say, ‘Let’s go all out,’ ” says Todd Black of Escape Artists, which produced “The Pursuit of Happyness” (the curious spelling comes (25) (come/comes) from a sign that Gardner saw when he was homeless). Gardner flew out (26) (from /out) to Smith’s home in L.A. for dinner so that the actor could study him, an experience Gardner describes as (27) (as/so) “surreal.” He spent as much time as he could on the set during (28) (while/during) the 59 days of shooting, though some scenes were difficult to watch.

(30) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

Is it useful to compare (23) (comparing/to compare) the works of the greatest artists? It is, indeed, true that there is a relative merit, that a peach is nobler than a black berry (24) (berry/bury). But in each rank of fruits, as in each rank of masters, one is endowed with one virtue, and another with another (25) (other/another); their glory is their dissimilarity, and they who propose in the training of an artist that he should unite the coloring of Tintoretto, the finish of Durer, and the tenderness of Correggio -some greater and masterly works- are no wiser than (26) (from/than) a horticulturist would be who made (27) (made/make) it the object of his labor to produce a fruit which should unite in itself (28) (its self/itself) the lusciousness of the grape, the crispness of the nut, and the fragrance of the pine.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Choose the Correct Word Question Number 23 to 28

(31) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

India is home to a billion people, more than 16 languages and upwards of 36 distinct cuisines. What binds together (23) (together/gather) the culinary diversity of this nation is something small but alluring: its spices. A part of Indian culture for 3,000 years, these spices is (24) (are/is) legendary for their medicinal properties, not to mention (25) (mention/ maintain) their delightful flavours and (26) (and/yet) food-preserving powers. From sweet, fragrant cardamom to the world’s spiciest chilli pepper, from smoky cumin to pungent mustard seeds, bold, aromatic spices add character and a rich bouquet to Indian dishes. While there are numerous spices to choose from (27) (from/form), you can bring a taste of India into your home by focusing on just a few basic ones. Think of spices as musical notes (28) (notes/knots). Get to know a few main players, and your dishes will sing with flavour.

(32) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

All societies have (23) (has/have) legends. Most legends began as stories about (24) (about/above) the heroes of a particular region, occupation, or ethnic group. For example, John Henry was a legendary hero of (25) (from/of) black Americans, and Casey Jones of railroad workers. Overtime (26) (Overtime/Overtime), however, these figures have become national heroes. The legends of the superhuman accomplishments of Paul Bunyan and Pecos Bill are imaginary, while (27) (when/while) the legends about Washington and Lincoln are mostly exaggerations of real qualities those two presidents had (28) (have/had).

(33) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet.

The term “neon light” was originally applied to (23) (for/to) a particular type of vapor lamp using the inert, colorless gas neon. A long (24) (large/long) tube was filled with neon, which then became luminous at low pressure when an electric current was passed through (25) (through/on) it. The lamp then emitted the characteristic reddish- orange light of neon. Today, the term “neon light” is given to lamps of this general type which may be filled with a (26) (no article/a) variety of gases, depending on the color that is desired. Argon, for example, is used to produce blue light. Colors can also be altered by (27) (by/buy) changing the color of the glass tube. The tubes must be quite (28) (quite/quiet) long in all these lamps to produce light efficiently.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Choose the Correct Word Question Number 23 to 28

(34) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet. (March 2018)

One day, a farmer’s donkey fell into a well by accident (23) (accident/accidently). The donkey was frightened (24) (frightening/frightened). He tried with all his might to jump (25) (jump/trot) and come out, but in vain. He started crying (26) (cry/crying) loudly for hours together. Hearing his cry, the people (27) (peoples/people) living nearby came and looked down into the well. The farmer who (28) (which/who) came in search of his donkey, at last found him and brought the donkey out.

(35) Read the following passage and fill up the blanks choosing the correct words from the brackets and write them in your answer booklet. (June 2018)

The solar system has been a complicated wonder for the astronomers. This is a question to which we may never (23) (ever/never) have the exact answer. Man has wonder about the age of the Earth since (24) (since/for) ancient times. There were all kinds of stories that seemed to have answer. But man could not begin to think (25) (think/thought) about the question scientifically (26) (scientific/scientifically) until about 400 years ago. When it was proved that the Earth revolved around (27) (around/surround) the Sun and the Earth was a part of solar system, then scientists knew (28) (knew/new) where to begin.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

These TS 10th Class English Important Questions Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18 will help the students to improve their time and approach.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

Section – B : Vocabulary & Grammar

(1) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

Many years ago in a small Indian village, a farmer had the’misfortune of owing a large sum of money to a village moneylender. (16) The moneylender was old and ugly and he fancied the farmer’s beautiful daughter. So he proposed a bargain. (17) He said he would write off the farmer’s debt if he could marry his daughter. (18) Both the farmer and his daughter were horrified by the proposal. So the cunning moneylender suggested that they let providence decide the matter.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
Rewrite the sentence beginning it with : The moneylender, who _______________
Answer:
The moneylender, who was old and ugly, fancied the farmer’s beautiful daughter.

Question 17.
Rewrite the sentence beginning it with : He said, “I _______________
Answer:
He said, ‘T will write off your debt if I can marry your daughter.”

Question 18.
Rewrite the sentence beginning it with : The proposal _______________
Answer:
The proposal horrified both the farmer and his daughter.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(2) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

(16) He said, “This is dangerous; have you got a hammer?” I ought to have been firm, but I thought that perhaps he really did know something about the business. I went to the tool -shed to see what I could find. (17) I came back and still he was sitting on the ground with the front wheel between his legs. (18) He was playing with it, twiddling it round between his fingers. The remnant of the machine was lying on the gravel path beside him.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
Rewrite the sentence beginning it with : He said that _______________
Answer:
He said that it was dangerous and asked me if I had got a hammer.

Question 17.
Rewrite the sentence beginning it with : When _______________
Answer:
When I came back, he was sitting on the ground with the front wheel between his legs.

Question 18.
Rewrite the sentence beginning it with : Playing _______________
Answer:
Playing with it, he twiddled it round between his fingers.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(3) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

(16) The husband had gone out of the house and the wife immediately got up and dressed as fast as she could. She was very excited and there was a gloat in her eye. She telephoned the police and she telephoned the psychiatrist; she told them to hurry to her house and bring a strait-jacket. (17) The police and the psychiatrist looked at her with great interest. “My husband,” she said, “saw a unicorn this morning.” The police looked at the psychiatrist and the psychiatrist looked at the police. (18) “He told me it ate a lily,” she said.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
Rewrite the sentence beginning it with : As soon as _______________
Answer:
As soon as the husband had gone out of the house, his wile got up and dressed as fast as she could.

Question 17.
Rewrite the sentence beginning it with : She _______________
Answer:
She was looked at by the police and the psychiatrist with great interest.

Question 18.
Rewrite the sentence beginning it with : She said that _______________
Answer:
She said that he had told her the unicorn had eaten a lily.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(4) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

Stories of dolphins saving human lives have been told throughout history. The latest incident happened in January when (16) a dolphin saved the life of an Australian surfer.
“I am in the middle of the sea. I am really exhausted”, said the surfer.
(17) “I have seen a dolphin coming near to me” he said, “And in a moment I have been shoved ashore by the dolphin”.
(18) Indeed dolphins are lovely animals.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
The life of an Australian surfer _______________
Answer:
The life of an Australian surfer was saved by a dolphin.

Question 17.
He said that _______________
Answer:
He said that lie he had seen a dolphin coming near to him.

Question 18.
Dolphins are lovely animals, _______________? (Add question tag)
Answer:
Dolphins are lovely animals, aren’t they?

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(5) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

One day, a fisherman caught a big fish and took it the king’s palace. (16) The king saw the fish. He felt very happy. After his cooks had cooked it and he had eaten it, (17) he said to the fisherman “what do you want for the fish?”
“I want you to beat me twenty times with a whip,” said the fisherman.

The king was surprised, and argued with the fisherman, but in the end he said, ‘I promised to give you whatever you wanted, and I suppose that I must keep my promise’.
After the king had hit him ten times, the fisherman jumped away and said, “that is enough for me. I promised the other ten to your minister.”
The king understood everything. (18) He gave the minister the ten hits with the whip and removed him from the service.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
When the king saw _______________
Answer:
When the king saw the fish, he felt very happy.

Question 17.
He asked _______________
Answer:
He asked the fisherman what he wanted for the fish.

Question 18.
The king not only _______________
Answer:
The king not only gave the minister the ten hits with the whip but also removed him from the service.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(6) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

(16) One Friday night Ben planned to go to a movie with Jane and Bob.

It was the newest action movie and he had wanted to see it for several weeks. Friday afternoon Ben went to the store. He picked out a candy bar and realized he didn’t have any even a single penny with him. (17) He stuck the candy bar in his pocket, turned to leave the store and was stopped by the store manager. (18) “Let’s go and call your parents, young man,” said the manager.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
Ben planned to go to the movie _______________
Answer:
Ben planned to go the movie followed by Jane and Bob.

Question 17.
The candy bar _______________
Answer:
The Candy bar was stuck In his pocket.

Question 18.
The manager suggested _______________
Answer:
The manager suggested to go to call his parents.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(7) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

Mrs. Green just finished college. She applied for a job at the school in town to be a first grade teacher. She had wanted to be a teacher since she was a little girl. (16) She had heard that the school was looking for someone who had experience as a teacher. So when she got a call from the Principal to come in for an interview, (17) she was happy and excited! On the day of the interview, Mrs. Green went to the school (18) and saw four other people there.

They were also at the school for interviews. All of them were older than she was and looked very confident. Mrs. Green’s heart sunk.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
She heard _______________
Answer:
She heard “The school is looking for someone who has experiene”.

Question 17.
She was not only _______________
Answer:
She was not only happy but also excited.

Question 18.
Four other people _______________
Answer:
Four other people were seen by her there.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(8) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

One day, a crow was very thirsty. For many days, there had been no rain. His throat was very dry. He felt weak. (16) He was too weak to fly. If the crow did not find water soon, he would die of thirst. He walked on searching for water.

Suddenly, the crow came upon a pitcher on the ground. The pitcher had water in it!
(17) The crow put his beak in the pitcher but the water was too low for him to reach.
He tried again and again and finally, he stopped. He stopped struggling and stepped back to look closely and think calmly. (18) The crow noticed many pebbles on the ground.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
He was so _______________
Answer:
He was so weak that he couldn’t fly.

Question 17.
Although the crow put _______________
Answer:
Although the crow put his beak in the pitcher the water was too low for him to reach.

Question 18.
Many rocks _______________
Answer:
Many pebbles were noticed by the crow on the ground.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(9) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

(16) The Valley of Flowers is located in Uttarakhand. It is about 300 kms. north of Rishikesh, near Badrinath. There is a motorable road upto Govindghat and from there the track of this valley starts.

(17) This place was little known to outside world due to its remote location. In 1931, it was discovered accidentally by three British mountaineers. They lost their way while returning from a successful expedition. They came down to this beautiful valley searching for a way out from the mountains in the Himalayan range. Stunned by the variety and colours of the flowers, they named it as the “The Valley of Flowers”. Thereafter, renowned mountaineers, trekkers and botanists started pouring in. (18) Writers and poets have written essays, travelogues and poems on the enchanting beauty of this place.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
The Valley of Flowers, _______________
Answer:
The Valley of Flowers, which is located in Uttarakhand, is about 300 kms. north of Rishikesh, near Badrinath.

Question 17.
Because of _______________
Answer:
Because of its remote location, this place was little known to outside world.

Question 18.
Essays, travelogues and poems _______________
Answer:
Essays, travelogues and poems have been written by writers and,poets on the enchanting beauty of this place.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(10) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

Once a gentle man was travelling in a train. (16) He felt thirsty and got down at a small station in search of water. No sooner had he reached the water tap than the engine whistled and started. (17) He ran back but missed the train.

(18) It was getting darker and he decided to spend the night at the station.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
Since he _______________
Answer:
Since he felt thirsty, he got down at a station in search of water.

Question 17.
Though he _______________
Answer:
Though he ran back, he missed the train,

Question 18.
When it became _______________
Answer:
When it became dark he decided to spend the night at the station.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(11) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

(16) A poet visited Tenali Raman. He hoped to impress him with some poems he had written. Raman asked him to leave the poems with him and promised to read them later.
The man, however, insisted on reading out the poems to him.
As the poet droned on Raman fell asleep.
(17) When he woke up the poet asked: “Sir, shall I read the poems again?”
“Why? I’ve already given you my opinion, haven’t I?”
“No, Sir,” said the man. “You fell asleep.”
“That’s right,” replied Raman. (18) ” I fell asleep. I gave my opinion.”

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
Hoping to impress _______________
Answer:
Hoping to impress Tenali Raman with some poems he had written, a poet visited him.

Question 17.
When he woke up, the poet asked Tenali Raman _______________
Answer:
When he woke up, the poet asked Tenali Raman if he,would read the poems again.

Question 18.
When I fell _______________
Answer:
When I fell asleep, I gave my opinion.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(12) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

(16) This mission is assigned by Command Headquarters.

Wartime conditions are practised as actually as possible. On this day (17) Kukee is too busy to worry about the risks. He calls the Meteorological officer to get the weather report : thick clouds at 550 meters, visibility 5 kilometers, a haze at 400 meters, west wind at 15 kph, and slight air disturbance. Now marker pens, rulers, protractors and compasses are waiting for him on a long wooden table. (18) Kukee takes out a map from the shelf and chalks out the path and speed of the plane.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
Command Headquarters _______________
Answer:
Command headquarters assignst this mission.

Question 17.
Kukee is so busy _______________
Answer:
Kukee is so busy that he can’t worry about the risks.

Question 18.
Kukee not only takes out _______________
Answer:
Kukee not only takes out a map from the shelf but also chalks out the path and speed of the plane.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(13) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

Mr. and Mrs. Sastry were sitting in the verandah and having tea. Suddenly they heard loud music from their children’s room and rushed to their room. Jagat and Ved were dancing to the loud music of a film song. (16) Mrs. Sastry said, “Reduce the volume of the CD player. It’s unbearable.

“What’s wrong with you, mummy ? (17) The music is very sweet. We are listening to our new CD.” like this.

“Boys, it is not music, it is only an unpleasant sound. It is noise, please stop it,” said their father. But the boys continued to dance to rhythm. Their parents left the room disappointed. (18) After a while Mrs. Sastry turned on the electric blender.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
Mrs. Sastry asked them _______________
Answer:
Mrs. Sastry asked them to reduce the volume of the CD player.

Question 17.
Since the music _______________
Answer:
Since the music is very sweet like this we are listening to our new CD, like this.

Question 18.
The electric blender _______________
Answer:
The electric blender was turned on by Mrs. Sastry, after a while.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(14) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

(16) Tenali Raman prayed fervently to Goddess Kali. And one day the Goddess sporting a thousand faces appeared before him. Raman was awed and was about to prostrate himself when a silly thought entered his head. He looked at the Goddess again and burst out laughing.

(17) “Why are you laughing?” asked the Goddess.

“Mother,” replied Raman. “I have only one nose yet when I have a cold I suffer so much. I was wondering what would happen in case you caught a cold.” The Goddess, pleased with his audacity and sense of humour, held out two crucibles of nectar to him.

“One is the nectar of wealth, the other is the nectar of wisdom,” explained the Goddess.
“Dip your finger in the crucible of your choice.”
Raman immediately dipped his fingers in both crucibles.
(18) The Goddess hastily blessed him and disappeared.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
Goddess Kali _______________
Answer:
Goddess Kali waslervent[y prayed by Tenaii Raman.

Question 17.
The Goddess _______________
Answer:
The Goddess asked why he was laughing.

Question 18.
The Goddess hastily not only _______________
Answer:
The Goddess hastily not only blessed him but also disappeared.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(15) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

(16) : Who are you ?” I roared.
“This is your Manisha.”
I screamed. I was in the balcony and (17) the entire town must have heard me. Dancing around and jumping up and down, I shouted out of joy.
Before thirty five years we had said good-bye, she had found me. She was in Sweden. (18) She sorted through piles of papers and old suitcases. She had opened an ancient box marked “letters”. My letter of 1975 was in it.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
I roared who _______________
Answer:
I roared who she was.

Question 17.
I must _______________
Answer:
I must have been heard by the entire town.

Question 18.
Sorting through _______________
Answer:
Sorting through piLes of papers and old suitcases, She had opened an ancient box marked letters”.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(16) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

(16) One day the Wind said to the Sun, “I’m as strong as you.” The Sun laughed and said, “What a silly person you are ! (17) I’m far stronger than you. They decided to put it to a test. “There goes a man with a jacket, along the mountain road,” said the Wind. “Can you make him take off his jacket ?” “Why don’t you try first ?” said the Sun.
The Wind puffed out his cheeks and blew. The man put his head down and walked on. Then the Wind blew harder but the man only held his jacket tighter, against his body. The Wind gave up and asked the Sun to try.
The Sun just smiled and it became as warm as a summer day. The man was not comfortable and (18) he opened the buttons of his jacket.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
One day the Wind told the Sun _______________
Answer:
One day the Wind told the Sun that he was as strong as the Sun.

Question 17.
You are _______________
Answer:
You are not so strong as I am

Question 18.
The buttons _______________
Answer:
The buttons of his jackets. were opened by him.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(17) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

When Raman was a boy, his neighbour once took him to the house of a rich and powerful landlord.
(16) : He’s a prodigy” the neighbour told the landlord. “I’ve never seen a more intelligent boy. He has an answer for everything!”
(17) The landlord was a proud and haughty man who thought himself the only intelligent person in the country. He was not at all pleased to hear his visitor praise Raman.
“He doesn’t look very intelligent,” he said, glancing at Raman. “In any case the more intelligent a boy is, the duller he becomes as a man!”
Is that true?” asked Raman, with an air of innocence. “Then, sir, (18) as a boy you must have been even more intelligent than I am!”

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
The neighbour told _______________
Answer:
The neighbour told the landlord thaLRaman was a prodigy.

Question 17.
The landlord was not only _______________
Answer:
The landlord was not only a proud man but also a haughty man.

Question 18.
I am not _______________
Answer:
I am not so intelligent as you must have been as a boy.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(18) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

(16) Cheetah is the fastest animal on the earth. Its top speed can be around 100 km per hour. But it can maintain this speed only for a very short distance. Sometimes it can take a leap as long as 25 meters. (17) It creeps silently behind the prey and then leaps up to catch it. It doesn’t preserve its prey.

This sometimes causes death of cubs and young Cheetah. It is a solitary creature. It does not live in a group or a herd. Its family separates as soon as the cubs are mature. Medium sized bucks are its main food. (18) It also catches hares and large birds.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
No other animal _______________
Answer:
No other animal is so fast as cheetah.

Question 17.
After _______________
Answer:
After creeping siIentlbehind.the prey, it leaps up to catch it.

Question 18.
Hares and large birds _______________
Answer:
Hares and large birds are also caught by it.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(19) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

A boy was sitting at his table near the window. (16) He was doing his homework. His mother asked, “Did you take your breakfast ?” The boy said, “No”. Mother called him and served his breakfast. He was about to start his breakfast. Then a beggar came to the door, (17) he said, “Please give me something to eat.”

The boy looked at the beggar. He looked really very poor and hungry. (18) He gave his breakfast to the beggar. The beggar was very happy.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
His homework _______________
Answer:
His homework was being done by him.

Question 17.
He requested _______________
Answer:
He requested the boy to give him. something to eat.

Question 18.
Since he gave _______________
Answer:
Since he gave his breakfast to the beggar, the beggar was very happy.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(20) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

Two men stood before Maryada Raman, the law-giver. One was a farmer and the other was a village elder.

The farmer said he had given the other man a diamond for safe-keeping but he was now refusing to give it back.
“Well, is that true?” Maryada Raman asked the old man.

The man paused a while, deep in thought. Then, (16) he handed his walking stick to his accuser. After another pause, he raised his eyes up to the heavens and said, “As God is my witness, I swear, I have given the diamond back to this man.”

He then was at the point of taking back his stick, but Maryada Raman said, “Stop! The stick shall be awarded to the farmer.”

(17) Take it away,” he said to the farmer, “and break it when you are safely home.” The man was a little disappointed to’be awarded a stick in place of his diamond! But he followed Raman’s instructions. (18) When he reached home he broke the stick and out tumbled the diamond!

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
His walking stick _______________
Answer:
His walking stick was handed to his accuser by him.

Question 17.
He asked the farmer _______________
Answer:
He asked the farmer to take it away and break it when he was safely home.

Question 18.
After reaching home _______________
Answer:
After reaching home he broke the stickand out tumbled the diamond.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(21) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

One day the Giant came back. He had been with his friend. He had been away for many years. (16) He saw the children playing in the garden when he returned to his castle.

“What are you all doing here ?” he shouted angrily. The children ran away. (17) “This is my own garden, and I will allow nobody to come here,” He was so selfish that he built a high wall all around the garden to stop children from entering it. (18) He also put a notice on the gate.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
No sooner _______________
Answer:
No sooner did he return to his castle, than he saw the children playing in the gardeft.

Question 17.
The Giant said that _______________
Answer:
The Giant said that it was his own garden, and he would allow nobody to come there.

Question 18.
A notice _______________
Answer:
A notice was also put by him on the gate.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(22) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

Once there was a king. Though, he ate and drank with kingly zest and snored peacefully at night, he believed that he got sick. (16) Many doctors come, but they couldn’t cure him. The king was not satisfied. He sent for more doctors. But no one could cure his disease. Then came an old sage and told the king that he would be well if, slept in the shirt of a happy man just for a night. The king sent his courtiers and soldiers in every direction to find the shirt.

They searched every corner of the capital but couldn’t find anyone who was happy. Then (17) they reached into a village. There they found a beggar who was whistling, singing and laughing with great joy. He didn’t have any worries. They asked for his shirt for a night and offered him one thousand rupees. But (18) the beggar said, “Sorry, I don’t have a shirt.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
Inspite of the fact many doctors _______________
Answer:
Inspite of the fact that many doctors came, they couldn’t cure him.

Question 17.
They reached into a village where _______________
Answer:
They reached into a village where they found a beggar who was whistling, singing and laughing with great joy.

Question 18.
The beggar said that _______________
Answer:
The beggar said that he was sorry for he didn’t have a shift.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(23) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

The Emperor of China had sent some peaches to the king of Tondmandalam with a note stating that the fruit gave long life to anyone who ate them. As the fruits were being shown to the ruler, Raman, giving in to temptation, picked up one of the luscious peaches and bit into it. The king was enraged. (16) “You’ve bitten into a fruit meant for me!” he thundered. “For this you must die!”

As Raman was being taken away by the royal guards he sighed dramatically and exclaimed, ‘What a deceitful man the Emperor of China is! He says the fruit gives long life. I took just one bite and I’m about to die. Oh! what a fate awaits the one who eats an entire fruit!”
(17) The king was greatly amused by Raman’s wit. (18) He pardoned him. He gave him a dozen of the peaches he had risked his life for.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
He thundered that _______________
Answer:
He thundered that he (Raman) had, bitten into a fruit meant for him.

Question 17.
Raman’s wit _______________
Answer:
Raman’s wit greatly amused the king

Question 18.
He not only _______________
Answer:
He not only pardoned him but also gave him a dozen of the peaches he had risked his life for.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(24) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

Once there was a fisherman. He was very old. He could not go to sea. So he began fishing in the river. One afternoon while he was trying to keep awake and bemoaning his fate, a large bird with a silvery feathers alighted on a rock. It was Kaha, a heavenly bird. (16) It said to him, “Have you no one to care for you, grandpa ?” “Not a soul,” replied the old man. “From now on (17) I will bring you a big fish every evening. You can sell it and live in comfort.” True to her word the bird began to drop a large fish at his door step every evening. (18) The big fish were in great demand. He soon earned a lot of money.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
Begin the sentence with ‘It asked him ………..” and complete the sentence. _______________
Answer:
It asked him if he had not anyone to care for him.

Question 17.
Begin the sentence with “A big fish” and rewrite the sentence. _______________
Answer:
A the big fish will be brought to you every evening by me.

Question 18.
Combine both the sentences using ‘as’. _______________
Answer:
As the big fish were in great demand he soon earned a lot of money.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(25) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

One day when Haria was wondering about what to cook for the lunch, he heard a hen clucking outside his hut. “That hen would make a great feast for me,” thought Haria. With a little effort he succeeded in catching the hen. (16) He was about to kill the hen. Then it squeaked . (17) “Please don’t kill me. I will help you.” “How can you help me ?” Haria asked the hen. (18) “Spare my life. I will lay a golden egg for you every day,” said the hen.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
Combine both the sentences using ‘when’. _______________
Answer:
When he was about to kill the hen it squeaked.

Question 17.
Begin the sentence with ‘The hen requested’ _______________
Answer:
The hen requested him not to kill t and said that it would help him.

Question 18.
Combine both the sentences using ‘if’. _______________
Answer:
If you spare my life, I will lay a golden egg for you every day.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(26) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

(16) A pundit was visiting a remote town. He was pious. The people of the town vexed him every day with invitations for lunch. (17) “I will only eat in a house where no one had ever told a lie/’ said the pundit A very rich man stepped up and said, “Come to my house oh, Master. (18) No one in my house has ever told a lie.” The pundit accepted the invitation.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
Combine both the sentences using ‘who’. _______________
Answer:
A pundit who was pious was visiting a remote town.

Question 17.
Begin the sentence with “The pundit said that ” and rewrite the sentence. _______________
Answer:
The pundit said that he would eat only in a house where no one had ever told a lie.

Question 18.
Begin the sentence with ‘A lie’ and rewrite it. _______________
Answer:
A lie has never been told in my house by anyone.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(27) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

(16) Birbal was Akbar’s minister. He was visiting Iran on the invitation of the king of Iran. (17) There a noble man said to him, “How will you compare the king of Persia to your own king ?” Then Birbal said, (18) “Your king is a full moon. Our king is a quarter moon.”

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
Combine both the sentences using ‘who’. _______________
Answer:
Birbal, who was Akbar’s minister, was visiting Iran on the invitation of the king of Iran.

Question 17.
Begin the sentence wit, A noble man told him _______________ ” and complete the sentence.
Answer:
A noble asked him how he would compare the king of Persia to his own king.

Question 18.
Combine the sentences using ‘whereas’. _______________
Answer:
Your king is a full moon whereas our king is a quarter moon.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(28) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered.

A woodpecker, a close friend of sparrow, heard the sparrow’s crying and asked her, (16) “Why are you crying for my friend ?” The sparrow said, (17) “The elephant has killed my offspring. (18) I think you are a true friend. Suggest a way to kill him.”

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
Change the sentence into Indirect speech. _______________
Answer:
The woodpecker called the sparrow his friend and asked the sparrow why it was crying.

Question 17.
Begin the sentence with “My off spring _______________
Answer:
My offspring has been killed by the elephant.

Question 18.
Replace ‘I think’ with ‘If’ and rewrite the sentence. _______________
Answer:
If you are a true friend, suggest a way to kill him.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(29) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered (March 2018)

A mother bird made the nest in a wheat field. (16) She laid three eggs and patiently waited for them to hatch. Within a few days, the young birds came out of the eggs. They were completely dependent on their mother for food, shelter and protection.” (17) The mother bird told her young ones, “Every morning, I will go out to bring food for all of us.(18)

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
The nest was _______________
Answer:
The nest was made by a mother bird in a wheat field.

Question 17.
They were completely dependent, _______________ (Add Question tag)
Answer:
weren’t they ?

Question 18.
The mother bird told her young ones that _______________
Answer:
The mother bird told her young ones that every morning she would go out to bring food for all of them.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Rewrite as Directed Question Number 16 to 18

(30) Read the following passage focusing on the parts that are underlined and numbered. (June 2018)

One day Kakasaheb found Gandhiji anxiously searching for something on his desk. (16) “What are you looking for?” Kakasaheb asked. (17) “I’ve lost my pencil,” Gandhiji answerd. (18) “It was a very small pencil”.

Now complete the following sentences and write them in your answer booklet.

Question 16.
Kakasaheb asked what _______________
Answer:
Kakasheb asked what he was looking for.

Question 17.
My pencil _______________
Answer:
My pencil has been lost (by me)

Question 18.
It was a small pencil, _______________ ? (Add a question tag)
Answer:
It was a small pencil, wasn’t It ?

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

Telangana SCERT 10th Class Biology Study Material Telangana 10th Lesson Natural Resources Textbook Questions and Answers.

TS 10th Class Biology 10th Lesson Questions and Answers Telangana – Natural Resources

Question 1.
The BP statistical Review of World Energy in June measured total global oil at 188.8 million tonnes, from proved oil resources at the end of 2010. This is only enough for oil to last for the next 46.2 years. What measures should be taken to conserve oil? What will happen if we do not conserve it.
Answer:
Fossil fuels were produced from the remains of ancient plants and animals. They include coal, petroleum (oil) and natural gas. Apart from its use in vehicles, many of the products we use today are made from petroleum. We need to conserve fossil fuels so we don’t run out of them.

  • Everyone can help conserve fossil fuels by using them carefully.
  • Turn of lights and electronics when you are not using them.
  • Purchase energy – efficient appliances. Prefer ‘ISI’ mark utensils / appliances.
  • Walk, ride a bicycle and use public transportation whenever possible.
  • It is better to prefer public transport system like bus or train instead of travel in personal vehicles
  • Going together by using one vehicle of work place.

It is estimated that the available supply of fossil fuels their supply gets exhausted in another 42- years. in such a case, all the industries and transport vehicles, which use fuels cannot be run once the fuel supply is exhausted. Hence, indiscriminate use of these fuels should be avoided.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

Question 2.
Here is a news strip, read it carefully and answer the following questions Villagers oppose sand mining project Santhabommali (Srikakularn): People of more than 20 villages in two mandals of Srikakulam have raised a banner of revolt against the proposed beach sand mining project by a private company and threatened to intensify their agitation if the government does not cancel the project. The sand mining is being taken up to extract rich minerals from the
area. The villages are located around the forest belt were mining was initiated.
i. Do you think the villagers are doing a right thing to agitate? Why?
ii. What resources are the villagers trying to save by their agitation?
iii. Will the villagers be benefitted by the rich minerals extracted from sand?
iv. Why does the private company want to carry out mining in the beach area?
v. What is the role of the government in this aspect?
vi. How will mining in that piece of land affect people of the area?
Answer:
Village oppose sand mining project Santhabomn all (Srikakulam): People of more than 20 villages in two mandals of Srikakulam have raised a banner of revolt against the proposed beach sand mining project by a private company and threatened to intensify their agitation if the government does not cancel the project. The sand mining is being taken up to extract rich minerals from the area. The villages are located around the forest belt were mining was initiated.

i. Do you think the villagers are doing a right thing to agitate ? Why?
Answer:
Yes, the villagers are doing a right thing to agitate. Because beach sand mining leads to certain problems such as:

  • Destruction of natural beaches and the ecosýstemS.
  • Habitat loss for globally important species such as turtles, shore birds, etc.
  • Destruction of nearshore marine ecosystems.
  • Increased shoreline erosion rates.
  • Reduced protection from storms, tsunamis and wave events.
  • Economic losses through tourist abandonment
  • Loss of coastal aesthetics and
  • Increased saline water intrusion.

The threats posed by sand mining are made even more critical given the prospect of a significant rise in global sea level over the coming decades.

ii. What resources are the villagers trying to save by their agitation?
Answer:
By agitating the villagers can save valuable mineral called Titanium / Zirconium found exclusively in costal belt spread from Nellore to Srikakulam district covering a distance of about 972 Km.

iii. Will the villagers be benefitted by the rich minerals extracted from sand?
Answer:
No, the villagers will not be benefited by the rich minerals extracted from sand.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

iv. Why does the private company want to carry out mining in the beach area?
Answer:
Private company wants to carry out mining in the beach area for their benefits, they want to earn money.

v. What is the role of the government in this aspect?
Answer:
The government has to take action against the private people if they start mining, which harm people or if government give permission and control the process where it should not effect the people.

vi. How will mining in that piece of land affect people of the area?
Answer:
Mining causes air pollution which leads to the diseases of respiratory system like lung cancer, Asthma, etc

Question 3.
What is sustainable development? How is it useful in natural resource management?
Answer:
When we use the environment in ways that ensure we have resources for the future, it is called sustainable development. Development and conservation can co-exist in harmony. The earth’s natural resources include air, water, soil, minerals, fuels, plants and animals. AH the things we need to survive such as food, water, air and shelter.

Conservation is the practice of caring for these resources to all living things can benefit from them now and in the future. The development meet the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generation to meet their own needs.

Question 4.
Write a detailed note on management of a natural resource.
Answer:
The interest in conservation is not a sentimental one but the discovery of a truth well known to our ancient stages. The Indian tradition teaches us that all forms of life-human, animal and plant – are so closely inter-linked, that disturbance in one gives riseto imbalance in another (By Srimathi Indira Gandhi, while launching the world conservation strategy in India on 6th March 1980.)

Small steps could become great efforts at conservation. Protection of the environment:

  • Soil, water, air, animals, birds, plants and trees are not anybody’s property.
  • That is the collective property bestowed on us by nature. We use the natural resources to produce many things. Some of them are our own, while others are public property.
  • Village – tanks, ponds, vegetable markets, bus stands, railway stations, temples, schools and colleges are public property and are used by aH.
  • Everyone should join hands to protect them. It’s not a single individual’s jobs.
  • Only when we collectively take up the tasks like growing trees besides roads, providing drainage or keeping the surroundings of the public tap in our colony clean we can be successfully.
  • This is a collective responsibility. – Protection of the natural resources is possible only if all of us join hands together.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

Question 5.
Suggest some ways of reusing a resource in your locality?
Answer:

  • If a fine soft coarse of blanket is to cover open springs to save wear of springs on sheets and mattress.
  • Bottle cap as dent patcher in a wooden table. Put a metal bottle cap over the dent with the fluted edge facing upward towards the table, press the centre of the capightly with the tip of a hot iron.
  • Buttons : If you have only two attractive buttons make them into a pair of earrings. If you have 4 attractive buttons make them into a pair of cufflinks, chain stitch
  • Candle stubs: For corking bottles when you lost the cork soften a candle stub that it fits the neck of the bottle.
    A candle stub also make excellent fire starters. Candle stub can be saved and melted together and make into new candles.
  • The used bangles which are thrown a side can be used as a pen stand by sticking them one on the other.
  • Paper, a product of many trees can be put reuse after proper use. If it is done properly, definitely their practice would save many plants from extinctions. Thus reduce the effect of CO2 on the earth.

Question 6.
Why should we conserve forests and wild life?
Answer:
Wildlife and forests should be conserve for the following reasons.

  • Wildlife and forests are the measures of Biodiversity of a particular legion. By conserving the wildlife and forests, we are ensuring that all diverse species in an area survive, breed and flourish.
  • Conservation of forests and wildlife is vital for the ecological stability of particular area.
  • Forests are the habilitate for the wildlife and they are an important constitute of the various food chains and food webs. Forests are needed for smooth functioning of Biochemical cycles.
  • Forests are necessary for the formation of human and for maintaining soil fertility.
  • Forest pure air protect the earth from green house effect by removing carbon dioxide and converting it into oxygen. Thus forests protecting us from harmfully effects of global warming.
  • Many fruits, medicines, dyes, sandle wood and bamboo is obtained from forest by local people.
  • Forest provide employment large number of people and also help in generating revenue.

Question 7.
Suggest some approaches towards the conservation of forests.
Answer:
Basic steps to save forests :

  • Trees: It’s a concept originally devised from elementary school audience but serves well as set of principles for saving rain forests and on a broader scale, ecosystems around the world.
  • Teach, others about the importance of the environment and how they can help to save forests.
  • Restore: Restore damaged ecosystems by planting trees, where forests have been cut down.
  • Encourage: People to live in away that doesn’t hurt the environment.
  • Establish parks : To protect forests and wild life parks should be established.
  • Support : Companies that operate in ways that minimize damage to the environment.

Question 8.
Natural resources are decreased more rapidly. Guess what will be the consequences?
Answer:
The problem arising the exploitation of natural resources are the following.

  • Natural resources like soil, water, air, forest, animals, minerals are declining at a rapid pace due to indiscriminate use.
  • Deforestation leads to desertiflcation. downfall of rain, soil erosion, extinction of species.
  • Air, water, soil pollutions leads ozone depletion Greenhouse effect.
  • Soil also very precious natural resources if farmer want good yeild, they need healthy soil. If the activities of human continues with no time total soil become barren.
  • Water is also very valuable resource only 3% water on earth available for our utility. If water pollution goes on like this. Availability of portable water very little for us.
  • If human activities are not proper there lot scope for natural calamities like earthquakes, tsunami, floods will occurs. This lead perish of human race on the earth.

Question 9.
Prepare a questionnaire to conduct an interview at a petrol filling station personnel about consumption of fossil fuels?
Answer:
Questionnaire:

  • What is the storage capacity of petrol filling station?
  • How much petrol is consuming per day?
  • From where the petrol is importing?
  • Is the consumption of petrol increasing or decreasing?
  • What are the chemicals present in it?
  • How can a person save petrol?
  • What is the alteriïate source for petrol if it is exhausted?
  • What is the rate of importing petrol?

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

Question 10.
Prepare model for rain water harvesting/energy saving/soil management, reflecting your innovative thoughts.
Answer:
TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources 1

Procedure to prepare a model for rain water harvesting:

  • Make a model of a house with roof little slanting towards one side.
  • Connect a tube/pipe to the down end such that the rain water that falls on roof can be collected.
  • Connect the other end of this tube to a barrel like structure which can be used as storage tank.
  • From the tank arrange a tube towards the garden along with a valve that can be closed and opened.
  • Arrange one more tube with valve into a recharge pit or percolation pit arranged at one corner.
  • Arrange a tap to the tank that can be opened to collect the water for cleaning floor, vehicles, etc.
  • During rain, water from roof can be collected into tank and we can utilize it later for gardening or cleaning purposes.
  • When water is in excess it can be used to recharge underground water.

Question 11.
List out names of villages farmers and procedure followed for restoration of any natural resource in your area.
Answer:

Village Name Farmer’s Name Procedure followed to restoration of natural resources
Chilkoor Ch. Ramaiah Constructed recharge pits to restore underground water.
Siddipet Seethaiah Constructed check dams to restore underground water.
Mangollu T. Ranganadh Recharged the well by building dykes in thenalla.
Miryalaguda R. Sundararn Motivated the villagers to construct percolation pits.
Uppal D. Raja Reddy Removed silt from the tank.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

Question 12.
You might have heard the Natural Gas drillings near Kakinada by ONGC(Oil and Natural Gas Corporation). Collect information and prepare a note on the status of Gas production at the basin.
Answer:

  • Presently ONGC producing gas at the rate of 3.05 MMM3/day to 4.0 MMM3/day.
  • ONGC, GSPC, Reliance industries are companies exploring oil and natural gas in this region.
  • GAIL is marketing and distributing the natural gas through gas collection stations.
  • ONGC has established mini oil refinery at Tatipaka.
  • ONGC is associated with GAIL in planning the additional facilities and technical inputs needed for the future enhanced gas supplies.
  • Total allocation of natural gas from KG. area is 8.5 MMM3/day.
  • ONGC has already projected a production potential of 6.5 MMM3/day of gas availability of which entire quantity has been allocated to the industrial consumers of that area.
  • 16 Industries are actively using Natural gas investing Rs. 5500 crores are working well for power generation, steel re-rolling, producing fertilizers etc., and some power projects are almost invested Rs. 4000 crores and waiting for supply of Natural gas.

Question 13.
Does your village or nearest city has a recycling unit of waste materials? Write in detail the steps involved in it.
Answer:
Near to our village there is a center that recycles the paper waste. Here the waste paper is recycled in the following way.

  • Waste paper is collected from various sources.
  • This paper is taken to the recycling plant where it is separated into types and grades.
  • The separated paper is then washed with soapy water to remove inks, plastic film, staples and glue.
  • The paper is put into a large holder where It is mixed with water to create slurry.
  • By adding different materials to the slurry different paper products can be created, such as cardboard, newsprints or office paper.
  • The slurry is spread using large rollers into large thin sheets.
  • The paper is left to dry.
  • Then it is rolled up, ready to be cut and sent back to the shops.

Plastic Recycling process:

Stage – 1: Plastic needs to collected by the recycling company. Once plastic arise, recycling plant he first stage is to sort the plastic into specific types because plastic recycling is more complex than of other metals like glass or paper. Due to many different types of plastic, more importantly mixed plastic cannot be used in manufacturing without delivering poor quality products. Heñce why plastic recycling companies need to be through when it comes to sorting the waste plastic into the definite forms.

Stage – 2: Once the waste plastic is identified and separated, the cleaning process will begin, this usually starts with washing to remove paper labels, adhesives and other impurities to be completely removed as this lowers the quality of the recyclic plastic.

Stage – 3: The shredding stage is when the plastic is taken and loaded on to conveyor belts or directly into huge hoppers that funnel the clean scrap towards rotating metal teeth that rip the plastic into small pellets which are bagged up and ready for testing.

Stage – 4 : Identify and classify the plastic: Once the shredded plastic has been hagged it is then chemically tested and labelled as to its exact specification, this grade plastic can be used as is by adding to a mix of vergin plastic in a manufacturing run, alternatively the grade plastic can be further recycled.

Stage – 5 : Exturding: This is the final stage in recycling plastic. This involves cleaning and melting, shredded plastic and extruding the form of pellets which then go on to manufacture the next lot of plastic products.

Reasons to recyclic plastic: Millions of tons of a waste plastic end up in land fill, when the vast majority of it can be recycled, it’s all too easy to throw away rubbish without a second thought, but we need to take care of our planet and not just reducing the amount of rubbish we bury but also given that plastic is derived from oil, a natural product with ever depleting resource it makes sense to recycling as much as possible.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

Question 14.
Collect any graph that shows oil (petroleum) consumption in India.
i. Does the production meet consumption in India?
ii. During which period of time shows highest increase in consumption rate?
iii. What change have you observed in the production from past ten years, for example 2006-2016?
iv. Suggest some ways to bring down consumption of petroleum.
Answer:
TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources 2

i. No, the production does not meet consumption of India.
ii. During 2008 to 2016 the consumption rate is highest.
iii. Running rate of vehicles is increasing enormously due to increase in population but the production is not increasing as per the consumption.
iv. Everyone can help conserve fossil fuels by using them carefully.

  • Turn off lights and other electronics, when we are not using them.
  • Purchase energy-efficient appliances.
  • Walk, ride a bicycle and use public transport whenever possible.
  • It is better to prefer public transport system like bus or train instead of travelled in personal vehicles.
  • Minimise fuel wasted in idling.
  • Practice eco-friendly methods.
  • Don’t use car when you are travelling alone.

Question 15.
Proper utilisation of natural resources is the way to show gratitude to our nation. Can you support this statement? Give your argument.

Question 16.
Crop selection and cultivation should be based on availability of water. Prepare a slogan to bring awareness among farmers about this?

TS 10th Class Biology 10th Lesson Natural Resources Intext Questions

1 Mark Question and Answers :

Question 1.
If water resource becomes scarce, will it affect the nature of soil in an area?
Answer:
Yes, it will also affect the nature of the soil in an area.

Question 2.
As wells dry up, how are people In the area dependent on the well affected?
Answer:
Open wells have dried up, water tables have gone down.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

Question 3.
Why do you think water became scarce mainly in Vaddicherla?
Answer:
Water is pumped out of wells and bore wells using electricity leads to water scarcity.

Question 4.
What could have saved water in Vaddicherla?
Answer:
Following the Micro – Irrigation and developing the ground water succees could have saved water in VaddicherlAnswer:

Question 5.
A well irrigates more area in Kharlf season as compared to Rabi, how Is it possible?
Answer:
A well irrigates more area in Kharif season as compared to Rabi because Kharif occurs in rainy season and Rabi in winter season. So well irrigation is more in Kharif season.

Question 6.
How should a farmer utilize such a condition?
Answer:
Farmer wants to irrigate more land in Kharif season to grow more crop to get more yield.

Question 7.
How can wells be recharged?
Answer:

  • Wells can be recharged by constructing the soak pits.
  • Soak pits trap rain water optimally and helps in recharging the dried up wells.

2 Mark Question and Answers :

Question 1.
How would recharging dried up wells help farmers of Vaddicherla?
Answer:

  • Recharging dried up wells helps to increase the availability of water.
  • Cost involved in irrigation will decrease.
  • Production will increase.
  • As a result, the farmers of Vaddicherla will get into net income.

Question 2.
What does the case tell us about a water resource and its effect on farmers?
Answer:

  • This case tell us that the water resource is very crucial for farmers.
  • If they don’t utilise these resources in a proper way. they may not get this in sucientquantit
  • This condition leads to less productivity and more investment.
  • So the farmer will gét the losses or less benefited.
  • So this resource should be properly used and conserved.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

Question 3.
Why were farmers at Wanaparthy at a better state than those at Vaddicherla?
Answer:
Farmers at Wanaparthy are at better state than those at Vaddicherla because

  • They conserve the water by converting a existing tank into percolation tank. As a result, water situation is much better than Vaddicherla.
  • Dug wells were converted into bore wells to reduce loss of water by surface evaporation.
  • By selecting dry land crops using Jess water expenditure on irrigation was reduced.

Question 4.
How did farmers of Vaddicherla and Wanaparthy recharge their ground water resources?
Answer:

  • The farmers of Vaddicherla and Wanaparthy recharged their ground water resources by constructing soak pits.
  • Soak pits stores rain water optimally.
  • It helps in recharging dried up bore wells.

Question 5.
What ways of restoration of a resource does the Kothapaily case tell us about?
Answer:
The Kothapally case tells us about the following ways of restoration of a resource:

  • Construction of water storage structures.
  • Percolation pits.
  • Contour field bunding.
  • Recharge of wells by building dykes or barriers in the nalla.
  • Plantation in waste lands.
  • Adapting micro-irrigation techniques.

Question 6.
What are some common means of restoration and conservation of water resource that we came across in the cases studied so far?
Answer:
The common means of restoration and conservation of water resource that we come across in the cases studied are:

  • Percolation pits
  • Micro-irrigation techniques
  • Soak pits.

Question 7.
How do you think we will meet our requirements in future?
Answer:
We have to meet our requirements in future by

  • Desalinating the sea water.
  • Restoring of ground water by recharging with rain water.
  • Getting co-operation from the neighbouring states.
  • Conserving water now for future.

Question 8.
We would have to depend upon other states or perhaps other countries for water. Do you agree ? Why/Why not?
Answer:
Yes, I agree with this statement. Because.

  • If water not observed today, a situation may arise where we have to depend upon other states or perhaps other countries as well.
  • But mostly condition of all the states òr countries may be more or less similar at a point of time.
  • So mutual co-operation regarding water may be needed.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

Question 9.
Could the amount of water used for irrigation in our state be reduced ? How?
Answer:

  • The amount of water used for irrigation in our state can be reduced.
  • For this, micro-irrigation techniques such 35 drip irrigation, sprinkler irrigation should be adapted.
  • Seed based irrigation should be done.
  • Crops that require less water should be grown.

Question 10.
Does cropping pattern have any role to play in reduction of water utilisation?
Answer:

  • Cropping pattern also had a key role to play in reduction of water utilisation.
  • Using alternative crops. one using more water and second one using less water can conserve water some extent.
  • Dry Land crops should be grown when there is no proper availability of water.
  • Usage of less water harvesting system like drip irrigation and sprinklers.
  • Cultivation of commercial crops.

Question 11.
Do you think one needs laws for distribution of water and its use ? Why/Why not?
Answer:

  • Yes, laws are need for distribution of water and its use.
  • Otherwise all the people may not have self discipline to conserve water.
  • As water is a key resource for life, competition may arise between people or states or countries.
  • Laws help to control this kind of dispute and use it judiciously.

Question 12.
How much percent of area do you think is irrigated by other sources of water?
Answer:

  • Inspite of some major rivers like Godavari and Krishna, the major source of irrigation is ground water.
  • In our state 43% of area under irrigation is through ground water.
  • 37%, 15% and 5% of area under irrigation are getting water through canals, tanks and other sources respectively.

Question 13.
Why do the rivers fail to benefit the state to an extent they should have?
Answer:
Rivers fail to benefit the state to an extent they should have. Because

  • There are no sufficient structures (dams) to store river water.
  • Over usage of water by the other states.
  • Geographically our rivers are flowing through the rocky and hill areas in most of the places in our state where it is difficult to make canals.
  • Government should plan for proper utilization of river water after scientific study with the help of expert engineers.

Question 14.
Since ground water resources are getting depleted at a fast pace. What are the alternatives?
Answer:
Since ground water resources are getting depleted at a fast pace, the alternatives are:

  • Tanks should be constructed to harvest rain water.
  • Projects should be constructed across the rivers.
  • Water stored in projects or dams should be channelised to the agricultural lands through canals.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

Question 15.
How should states and countries work to provide enough for all?
Answer:
States and countries can work to provide enough water for all by,

  • Making some strict laws for distribution of water and its use.
  • Every state or country should obey and follow these laws very strictly.
  • There should be some autonomous body to look after the agreements and disputes between the states or countries.
  • There should be co-operation for water between the states or countries to provide enough water for all.

Question 16.
What would you do to motivate others to manage an important resource in your locality?
Answer:
To motivate others manage an important resource in my locality I will do the following activities:

  • I will explain the importance of resource and need for its proper management.
  • I will conduct the seminars on this issue.
  • With the help of my friends and teachers i will conduct some competitions like debet, essay writing, etc., on this issue.
  • I will plan some cultural activities such as songs, skits that explain the importance of managing the resource and exhibit them in the school and the village to motivate the village.

Question 17.
Observe a lawn in your area (if you have one) and see how It is maintained. Find out from the gardener the different types of plants that he removes from time to time. Do you think a farmer does the same thing on his farm?
Answer:
The gardener removes all the species of plants that grow in the lawn from time to time. Farmer does the same thing on his farm. Hut the variation is all the plants are removed from lawn just for pleasant look whereas farmer remove only weed plants that compete with the crop plants for space, nutrients, water and sunlight. This is to incase the productivity of crop plants.

Question 18.
What do fossil fuels provide us?
Answer:

  • Fossil fuels provide us energy.
  • This energy can be used for various purposes such as running vehicles, machinery in industries, etc.
  • They are also useful in the production of electricity.

Question 16.
What would you do to motivate others to manage an important resource in your locality?
Answer:
To motivate others manage an important resource in my locality I will do the following activities:

  • I will explain the importance of resource and need for its proper management.
  • I will conduct the seminars on this issue.
  • With the help of my friends and teachers i will conduct some competitions like debit, essay writing, etc., on this issue.
  • I will plan some cultural activities such as songs, skits that explain the importance of managing the resource and exhibit them in the school and the village to motivate the village.

Question 17.
Observe a lawn in your area (if you have one) and see how it is maintained. Find out from the gardener the different types of plants that he removes from time to time. Do you think a farmer does the same thing on his farm?
Answer:
The gardener removes all the species of plants that grow in the lawn from time to time. Farmer does the same thing on his farm. Hut the variation is all the plants are removed from lawn just for pleasant look whereas farmer remove only weed plants that compete with the crop plants for space, nutrients, water and sunlight. This is to in case the productivity of crop plants.

Question 18.
What do fossil fuels provide us?
Answer:

  • Fossil fuels provide us energy.
  • This energy can be used for various purposes such as running vehicles, machinery in industries, etc.
  • They are also useful in the production of electricity.

Question 19.
Why do we need to conserve the fossil fuels?
Answer:

  • Fossil fuels are non-renewable resources.
  • If once they are used up, they never replanish again or take several thousands of years to replanish.
  • They become integral part of our life, that we cannot live without these.
  • So, we need to conserve fossil fuels so that we don’t run out of them.

Question 20.
What other things could you reuse to save our resources?
Answer:
Things that can be reuse to save our resources are

  • Water
  • Paper
  • Metals like iron, steel, etc.
  • Plastic

Question 21.
Why should one sort wastes carefully before discarding them from home?
Answer:

  • If the wastes are sorted carefully before discarding them from home, there are certain advantages.
  • We can plan and recycle the waste.
  • Biodegradable waste can be used to prepare manure.
  • Paper, metals or any other materials that can be reuse or recycle can be utilised.
  • Non-biodegradable materials such as plastic which cannot be recycled can be discarded.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

Question 22.
Often we keep a plastic bagin our dust bins to discard waste, is Ita good practice?
Answer:

  • Some people keep a plastic bag in dustbins to discard waste. This is for their convenience in discarding.
  • But it is not at all a good practice.
  • Plastic is nonbiodegradable, takes several years to mix with the soil.
  • When plastic bags are discarded along with the waste. They never mix with soil, and causes soil pollution.
  • When vegetable waste is discarded in plastic bag, if any animal feed on it, they enter into their stomach and cause problem.
  • If they are discarded into drainages, they block the flow of sewage water, stagnation of drainage waste creates unhygenic conditions, helps mosquito growth and causes diseases.
  • If this waste reaches soil, pollution of soil occurs which deplets soil health.

Question 23.
Discuss about various programmes to implement ‘recover’ to prevent environmental threat.
Answer:
To regrow the trees in other areas which are cut during construction. Recycling of waste materials decreases the scope of the land and air pollution. Treat the polluted water resources to decrease the water pollution.
Ex : Ganga water treatment policy. To decrease the particulate matter in air by using the air filters. To use public transports and reduce personal cars usage to recover the air pollution.

4 Mark Question and Answers :

Question 1.
Data at the beginning of the study
Answer:

Village Total Area in acres (approximately) Area Under Irrigation Number of Wells
Wanaparthy 4000 1000 155
Vaddicherla 3000 450 175

a. What is the total irrigated area (in acres), in Wanaparthy ?
Answer:
The total irrigated area in Wanaparthy is 4000 acres.

b. If one needs to irrigate all the land in Wanaparthy, how many wells would be required ?
Answer:
Number of wells required to irrigate all the land in Wanaparthy are 620.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

c. Will the area under irrigation change due to increase in population Why / Why not ?
Answer:
No, the area under irrigation change due to increase in population.

Question 2.
Data after five years

Village Area under irrigation
(in acres)
Number of wells
Wanaparthy 860 95
Vaddicherla 315 56

a. If the number of wells were 95 how many have dried up?
Answer:
60 wells were dried up. (155 – 95 = 60°)

b. How does ‘decline in number of wells’ affect area under cultivation?
Answer:
Decline in number of wells represents fall of ground water levels due to less rainfall.

c. How would crops be affected due to decline in the number of wells ?
Answer:
The crops do not grow well and the yield is less due to decline in the number of wells.

d. Which village do you think is more affected ?
Answer:
Vaddicherla is more affected.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

e. Should people in these villages continue to grow paddy ?
Answer:
No. the people in these villages should not continue to grow paddy.

Question 3.
Annual expenditure on well irrigation for small and large farmers
Answer:

Village Land holding of Farmer Depth of bore well (In feet) Total cost of well irrigation per acre per year in rupees
Wanaparthy Large 130 – 200 25000 – 70000
Small 110-180 25000 – 65000
Vaddicherla Large 90-300 22000 – 50000
Small 60 – 200 20000 – 45000

a. If a well can irrigate 2.5 percent of Irrigated land in rainy season, how many wells would irrIgate 860 acres of land?
Answer:
A well irrigation land 2.5 percent.
Land = 860 acres.
Required wells = \(\frac{860}{2.5}\) x 100 = 34,400

b. Which factor has a greater effect on expenditure, number of wells or dep a well?
Answer:
Depth of a well has greater effect on expenditure.

c. What is the total expenditure on a small irrigated land owned by a farmer in Vaddicherla? How do you think a farmer meets this expenditure?
Answer:
The total expenditure on a whole cultivable land owned by a small farmer in Vaddicherla is a round 20,000 – 45,000 rupees per acre per year. The small farmer meets this expenditure through agricultural loans from banks.

d. What could help the farmer reduce expenditure? (Hint: think of crops that require less water)
Answer:
Cultivating the crops which require less amount of water.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

e. Do you think increasing the depth of bore well is a good solution for Increasing total land area under irrigation? Why/Why not?
Answer:
Increasing the depth of bore well is not a good solution for increasing total land area under irrigation. This is because with increasing depth, expenditure also will increase so net profit will decrease. Moreover, ground water level decreases much more and has to dig more depth.

Question 4.
Income on crops

Village Land holding of Farmer Net income per acre in Rupees Total income per acre year in rupees
Paddy Kharif Paddy Rabi Cotton Gingelly
Wanaparthy Large 8200 8700 4900 3300 25100
Small 7046 8490 10889 3110 29535
Vaddicherla Large 10698 5970 4000 3595 24263
Small 9128 7380 3031 2650 22189

a. Which crop is most profitable for a small farmer in Vaddicherla ?
Answer:
For a small farmer in Vaddicherla, Paddy in Kharif is more profitable.

b. What is the difference between a farmer in Wanaparthy and Vaddicherla with small land holdings ?
Answer:
A small farmer in Wanaparthy is getting more net income on Rabi paddy, Cotton and Gingelly whereas small farmer in Vaddicherla is getting more income on Kharif paddy. In total, small farmers in Wanaparthy are getting more income than farmers in Vaddicherla as they are using water resource properly.

c. Which crop could replace paddy and be profitable for a farmer in Wanaparthy ?
Answer:
If cotton replaces paddy, it will be profitable.

d. Though we know that paddy consumes maximum water, why do you think farmers still like to grow paddy ?
Answer:
Though paddy consumes maximum water, farmers believe that it is profitable and less risky. So they still like to grow paddy.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

e. What is the impact of a depleting resource upon the farmers ?
Answer:
Depleting resource increases the cost of production. So the farmers are becoming poor and poor as cost increases and profit or income decreases.

f. Do you think the income of a farmer with small land holding in Vaddicherla is sufficient to meet his expenditure ?
Answer:
No, the income of a farmer with small hand holding in Vaddicherla is not sufficient enough to meet his expenditure.

g. Do you think farming as an occupation is profitable for farmers in Vaddicherla ?
Answer:
No. Farming as an occupation is not profitable for farmers in Vaddicherla.

h. Would the farmer have to look for other kind of occupations to meet his needs ?
Answer:
No need to look for other kind of occupations to meet their ends, but has to select proper crops that requires less water, proper methods that increase ground water, proper devices to use water discriminately.

Question 5.
How can we use water judiciously?
Answer:
We can use water judiciously by

  • Using only required quantity of water.
  • Minimising the waste.
  • Developing methods to use less water and get more benefits out of it.
  • Reusing once used water.
  • Recycling of the water.
  • Recharging the ground water.
  • Adapting micro irrigation techniques in agriculture.
  • Not polluting the water sources.

Question 6.
What do you think will happen If we do not take care of the sources of water?
Answer:
If we do not take care of the sources of water.

  • The water becomes scarce.
  • There will be no sufficient water for agriculture.
  • Agricultural productivity will decrease.
  • Food scarcity may arise.
  • Demand will increase for Agribased products.
  • Poor people may not get proper nutritious food as the cost is more.
  • Proper drinking water may not available.
  • Fluorine level in ground water will increase, who’s consumption may lead to fluorosis.
  • Disputes may arise between different states and countries for water resources.
  • Sea water introstion occurs and all the ground water will become salty in coastal regions.
  • Fertile lands may become like deserts.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

Question 7.
Why is it important to recharge the ground water sources?
Answer:

  • Recharge of the ground water sources is very important.
  • This is because nearly 43% of irrigating land is getting water from ground.
  • Due to over drilling of bore wells and pulling out of water using electric motors, the ground water level is decreasing day by day.
  • If it goes on without recharging, ground water becomes scarce.
  • It shows impact on agriculture, the productivity wilt decrease.
  • Fluorine level in ground water will increase.
  • Saline water may intrude into the interior places of land and water becomes unfit for both drinking and agriculture.
  • Farmers have to drill the bore wells to more depths which increase the losses for them.

Question 8.
How did the villagers in Kothapally resort to sustainable management?
Answer:

  • The villagers in Kothapally resort to sustainable management with the help of ICRJSAT.
  • ICRISAT educated villagers by large and provided technical support for cost efficient water storage and soil conservation structures.
  • The measures were community as well as individual farmer-based.
  • Fourteen water storage structures with the storage capacity of 300 to 2000 m3, 60 mini percolation pits, field bunding on 38 hectares were completed.
  • Twenty-eight dry open wells, near Nalla were recharged by building dykes in the NaNa and retaining the run off rain water in it.
  • A user group was formed for each water storage structure and the water collected was exclusively used for recharging the ground water to the dried well.
  • Broad bed furrow land form and contour planting was implemented to conserve soil and water.
  • Gliricidia plants are planted on the field bunds to strengthen the land, make the soil nitrogen rich.
  • Farmers were encouraged to use water resources jointly and irrigate land using micro-irrigation techniques.
  • Saplings of useful species were planted along the roads, field bunds and Nallas.

Question 9.
Why do you think forests are important?
Answer:
Forests are important because,

  • They are rich habitat for plants and animals.
  • They serve as a lung for the world.
  • They purify air, decrease carbon dioxide, global warming and green house effect.
  • Thus provide various valuable things such as wood, medicines, etc.
  • They are providing raw materials for several industries.
  • They maintain ecological balance in nature.
  • They preserve the soil fertility.
  • They cause rains.

Question 10.
Collect information about solar, wind, tidal and water power and prepare a scrap book Collect Information about conventional energy sources from internet and prepare a note on it.
Answer:
Solar energy: To use solar energy is to generate electricity from sunlight. For this purpose special chemical substances which are sensitive to light have been developed. When light falls on these substances, small chemical current is generated. This material is coated on a metal plate and this is used for producing large amounts of electricity. This current can be stored and used when needed. Watches, calculators, street lamps have been invented which use the current produced by light falling on light sensitive material.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

Wind energy : Wind mills are in use for centuries especially for pumping water from wells. In wind mills, wind rotates the blades of wind will and is used to move the pistons and lift the water from the well. In earlier days, the fan blades of wind mill were made of wood or thin metal sheets which were heavy and inefficient. In recent years, wind mills are made of tough, strong, light weight plastic material and wind energy is being used to pump water and to run turbines for the production of electricity.

Tidal energy: Large amounts of energy (kinetic energy) is stored In the waves especilally in seas. Special devices have been made to rotate as the water passes through them by the wave action. This is used to run turbines or generate electricity.

Water power: Dams are constructed across the rivers. Water from the reservoir falls from a height on the turbines.This water falls is used to drive turbines to generate electricity. These are called hydro electric projects.

Question 10.
Collect information about solar, wind, tidal and water power and prepare a scrap book Collect Information about conventIonal energy sources from internet and prepare a note on it.
Answer:
Solar energy: To use solar energy is to generate electricity from sunlight. For this purpose special chemical substances which are sensitive to light have been developed. When light falls on these substances, small chemical current is generated. This material is coated on a metal plate and this is used for producing large amounts of electricity.

This current can be stored and used when needed. Watches, calculators, street lamps have been invented which use the current produced by light falling on light sensitive material.

Wind energy : Wind mills are in use for centuries especially for pumping water from wells. In wind mills, wind rotates the blades of wind will and is used to move the pistons and lift the water from the well. In earlier days, the fan blades of wind mill were made of wood or thin metal sheets which were heavy and inefficient. In recent years, wind mills are made of tough, strong, light weight plastic material and wind energy is being used to pump water and to run turbines for the production of electricity.

Tidal energy: Large amounts of energy (kinetic energy) Is stored In the waves especilally in seas. Special devices have been made to rotate as the water passes through them by the wave action. This is used to run turbines or generate electricity.

Water power: Dams are constructed across the rivers. Water from the reservoir falls from a height on the turbines.This water falls is used to drive turbines to generate electricity. These are called hydro electric projects.

Question 11.
Ask your teacher about nuclear energy and Its impacts on ecosystem.
Answer:
Nuclear energy is produced by splitting the nucleus of an atom of elements like uranium or plutonium. Another process for the production of nuclear energy is called fusion. In this process two nuclei of the same elements are fused with one another. In this process much more energy is produced than by fission reaction. This energy is produced as heat.

This is used to produce steam which runs generators to produce electricity. There are some problems associated with genergation of nuclear energy. Several precautions have to be taken to prevent leakage of radioactive toxic materials from nuclear reactors. The uranium required for nuclear reactor is processed at nuclear fuel complex in Hyderabad.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

Question 12.
Do you think it is necessary to have a lot of lighting for decoration during celebrations?
Answer:

  • No, it is not necessary to have a lot of lighting to decorate an occasion of celebration.
  • Decorating with more lights consumes more electricity.
  • Excess use of electricity leads to energy crisis.
  • Most of the electricity is produced from fossil fuels like coal or diesel (generator).
  • So it leads to depletion of our natural resources.
  • Excess production of electricity from coal increases global warming.
  • Thus it leads to changes in the environment and pollution also.
  • So electricity should be used discriminately.

Question 13.
Collect information about technology used for transplantation of trees and discuss in your classroom.
Answer:
The tree transplantation technology involves the following procedures.

  • Initial preparation by examining roots and tree health.
  • Soil sampling and site selection.
  • Root purning and initiating fresh root growth.
  • Tree packing, feeding and monitoring for adaptation.
  • Tree transplantation by lifting with crane.
  • Mechanical support and purning.
  • Post translational treatment.

Question 14.
Suggest some ways in which you and your friends would like to manage a resource.
Answer:

  • Me and my friends can manage the biodiversity in our school.
  • First we will make a map of our school.
  • By studying we can identify various plants, insects and small animals like squirrels, etc. growing in our school.
  • We will mark the details in the map and note down the details in a notebook.
  • By dividing ourselves into various groups we will take care of flora and fauna.
  • We will water the plants regularly.
  • We will provide proper protection to both flora and fauna.
  • Thus we can manage a resource.

Question 15.
Are we also an important resources of nature? How?
Answer:

  • Natural resource are resources that we get from nature.
  • We are also a part of this nature.
  • Fauna is also a natural resource, actually we come under this category.
  • The human beings are the most intelligent animals on the earth.
  • We are capable of bringing changes in nature and utilize the other resources of nature effectively using our intelligence.
  • Like the other resources, we are also useful to the nature in one or other way.
  • Knowledge and intelligence are the key factors for the resourcefulness of a person.
  • Thus we are also an important resource of nature called human resources.

Question 16.
Find out the usage of water in litres per day in your home ? Do you actually require that much water and how much water is enough in accordance with National standards?
Answer:

  • In my house 900 litres of water is being used per day at the average of 225 litres for a person per day (4 members family).
  • Actually this much water is not required.
  • We can conserve atleast 400-500 litres of water at the average of 100 to 125 litres per head.
  • In India, the design of water supply system has been done using certain standards.
  • Currently the standard being used is BIS 1179: 1993, reaffirmed in 1998.
  • According to this, for communities with a population between 20,000 to 1,00,000 – 100 to 150 litres per head per day can be considered.
  • For communities with population over 1,00,000 – 150 to 200 litres per head per day can be considered.
  • On the whole, at an average of 150 litres per head per day is enough in accordance with National standards.

TS 10th Class Biology 10th Lesson Natural Resources Activities

Activity – 1.

Study the different ways in which water Is used, misused and recycled in the area where you stay. Prepare a questionnaire with the help of your friends and teacher and study at least five households in your locality for the same. Also explore and discuss ways to provide water for all. Ways in which water is used:
Answer:

  • Drinking
  • Bathing
  • Washing clothes
  • Cleaning utensils
  • For plants in garden and agriculture, etc.

Ways in which water is misused:

  • Not closing the taps after using.
  • Contaminating the water.
  • Brushing near open taps.
  • Getting bath under shower
  • Playing with water.
  • Washing vehicles with water pipe.

Ways in which water is recycled:

1. Allowing the water used in kitchen for garden.
2. Using the once-used water to wash vehicles.
3. Using the water from bathing for toilet flush.
4. Washing hands in plant pots.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

Questionnaire:

1. For what purposes water is being used in your home?
2. From where this water is being collected?
3. Are you using water only for the needed things?
4. Are you closing taps properly after using?
5. Are you getting shower bath?
6. Are you using more water than required for cleaning, bathing, etc.?
7. Are there any leaks in your water pipelines?
8. Are you recycling the once used water?
9. In what way are you recycling the water?
10. What measures do you suggest to conserve water and make it available for all?

Ways to provide water for all:

1. Wastage of water should be strictly minimised.
2. Washing hands in the plant pots.
3. Rain water should be directed into recharge pits.
4. Care should be taken to prevent leakage of water from pipes and taps.
5. Wash clothes in running water canals if possible.
6. Direct the kitchen water free from soap and detergents to the garden.
7. Use the soap and detergent water for toilet flush or cleaning vehicles.
8. Recycling of water can be done on large scale towns and cities and can be utilised again.
9. Cooperation between the states through which a river passing is very essential for providing water for all.
10. People should be motivated in such a way that each drop of water is life and should conserve it.

Activity – 2.

Find out how many different types of insects are present In and around your house. Do you find the same type of insects in all seasons ? Make a chart of Insect types and not their occurrence for at least a week in each season. Repeat for other seasons. Study for a year and find out when you have highest varieties of them. Study them for subsequent years to see if they have disappeared.
Answer:
Different types of insects present in arid around our houses:

  • Cockroach
  • Housefly
  • Grasshoppers
  • Mosquitos
  • Mites
  • Beetles etc.

Different insects are found in different seasons.
TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources 3
In summer and rainy seasons we can find highest varieties of these. Their population is maintaining almost standardly.

TS 10th Class Biology Study Material 10th Lesson Natural Resources

Activity – 3.

Nowadays people are revolting against mining. Collect any such incident of our state or neighbouring states from school library or newspapers and conduct a seminar on its impact.
Answer:

  • People living in hill top hamlets in seven mandais of Visakhapatnam and East Godavari districts are up in arms against latente mining in Nagulakonda hill range.
  • Latente is a raw material used by cement factories.
  • Huge deposits of latente worth hundreds of crore rupees are found in Nathavaram and Koyyuru mandates in Visakhapatnam and Pratthipadu, Yeleswaram, Sankhavaram, Routulapudi and Kotananduru in East Godavari.
  • AH these mandais are technically corning under scheduled areas.
  • if the mining continues here, it will badly threaten the ecology of that area.
  • The tribal people in that area will lose their livelihood.
  • To reach the mining area road should be laid in the reserve forest area.
  • This leads to depletion of forest resources also.
  • Health of the local people will be badly affected due to the dust spread during mining.
  • Keeping all these in mind the tribal people are opposing the mining in that area.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Right Form of the Word Question Number 29 to 32

These TS 10th Class English Important Questions Grammar Right Form of the Word Question Number 29 to 32 will help the students to improve their time and approach.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Right Form of the Word Question Number 29 to 32

(1) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

In the 1920s, new technology allowed (29) (allow) film-makers to attach to each film a soundtrack of speech, music and sound effects synchronized with the action on the screen. These sound films were initially distinguished (30) (distinguish) by calling them talking pictures, or talkies. The next major step in the development of cinema was the introduction of colour. While the addition of sound of film revolutionized the medium, quickly driving (31) (drive) out silent movies, colour was adopted (32) (adopt) more gradually. The public was relatively indifferent to colour photography as opposed to black-and-white. But as colour processes improved and became as affordable as black- and-white film, more and more movies were filmed in colour after the end of World War II, as the industry in America came to view colour an essential to attracting audiences in its competition with television, which remained a black-and-white medium until the mid-60s. By the end of the 1960s, colour had become the norm for film-makers.

(2) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

One of the major processes that takes (29) (take) place in schools, of course, is that students learn. When they graduate from high school, many can use a computer, write essays with three-part theses, and differentiate equations. In addition to learning specific skills, they learn (30) (learn) to think critically, to weigh evidence and to develop independent judgement. The extent to which this development takes place is related to both school and home environmet. Teachers who are more open to new ideas and less authoritarian produce students who have greater intellectual flexibility and higher achievement test scores. Studies show that teachers are most demanding (31) (demand) when they are of the same social class as their students. The greater the difference between their own social class and that of their pupils, the more rigidly they structure their classrooms and the fewer demands they place (32) (place) on their students.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Right Form of the Word Question Number 29 to 32

(3) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

Naval architects never claim (29) (claim) that a ship is unsinkable, but the sinking of the passenger-and-car ferry Estonia in the Baltic surely should have never have happened. It was well designed and carefully maintained (30) (maintain). It carried the proper number of lifeboats. It had been thoroughly inspected the day of its fatal voyage. Yet hours later, the Estonia rolled and sank in a cold, stormy night. It went (31) (go) down so quickly that most of those on board, caught in their dark, flooding cabins, had no chance to save themselves: Of those who managed to scramble overboard, only 139 survived. The rest died of hypothermia before the rescuers could pluck them from the cold sea. The final death toll amounted to 912 souls. However, there were an unpleasant number of questions about why the Estonia sank and why so many survivors were (32) (be) men in the prime of life, while most of the dead were women, children and the elderly.

(4) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

Vegetarianism promotes a natural (29) (nature) way of life, yet it has not spread as it should have. This may be because it usually (30) (usual) is an inward – looking habit and is best cultivation (31) (cultivate) in the mind. Indeed leading a vegetarian way of life helps (32) (help) the animal kingdom to coexist with man.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Right Form of the Word Question Number 29 to 32

(5) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

In 1881, in America, an enterprising ex-clerk from the Rochester Savings Bank, named (29) (name) George Eastman designed and marketed the first popular camera. He called (30) (call) it the ‘Kodak One’ because ‘K’ was his favourite letter. It was put on sale at five guineas a piece. It was sold (31) (sell) well though, by modern standards it must have been bit frustrating since when you wanted your film developed, you had to pack up the camera and send it back to the factory. There it was reloaded (32) (reload) and was returned to you, together with your pictures.

(6) Read the following passages and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

The industrialization of the developing world is creating (29) (create) unsustainable pollution levels. The solution requires a technological and an intellectual revolution; an alternative route to economic prosperity that preserves resources and limits carbon emission has (30) (have) to be developed before it’s too late. The developing world has learned (31) (learn) a lot about commercial models, infrastructure and technology from Europe and North America. Those patterns worked well economically, but the world’s carbon capacity cannot allow us to continue on this path. Rising pollution in the developing world is ranked (32) (rank) as the sixth most significant global trend this year – and in Asia it’s the third.

(7) Read the following passages and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

Insects are already a staple food in many countries in Africa, Asia and Latin America, with around two billion people on the planet thought to consider insects as acceptable food. Around 2,000 edible insect species have been identified (29) (identify). While insect farming is rare in developed countries, it is growing (30) (grow) in developing nations. Thailand alone has more than 20,000 registered cricket farms, mostly run by smallholders. The European Union is becoming more interested in insects as a potential food source for the growing world population. It is cofinancing the PROTEINSECT research project that is exploring (31) (explore) the use of insect protein in food for people or as animal fodder. The report, written by the EU-funded European Food Safety Authority, analyzes (32) (analyze) the prospect of farming insects industrially to combat malnutrition and reduce environmental stresses, such as land degradation and water pollution, caused by large-scale meat and fish farming.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Right Form of the Word Question Number 29 to 32

(8) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

Harvesting seaweed ‘forests’ and feeding them into large underwater digesters could one day meet the world’s energy needs, with nine percent of the ocean floor being (29) (is) enough to replace fossil fuels entirely, according to an ambitious idea. Even a more immediate and realistic use of seaweed — a major untapped resource would increase (30) (increase) the self-sufficiency and sustainability of small island states, but limited investment is preventing (31) (prevent) the roll-out of relevant technologies, marine biofuel experts have said. Using wild or farmed seaweed to fuel anaerobic digesters could provide local communities with abundant energy through biogas as well as producing fertilizer, according to Antoine N’Yeurt, a researcher at the Pacific Centre for Environment and Sustainable Development at the University of the South Pacific, Fiji. “These applications will reduce (32) (reduce) the dependency of small island countries on imports and build much more sustainable societies,” he told SciDev.Net on the sidelines of the 2014 Ocean Sciences Meeting in Hawaii, United States, last month (23-28 February)

(9) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

The Centre has expressed (29) (express) fears that the frequency band proposed to be used by Google could interfere with cellular transmissions. “The proposed frequency band to be used in Google’s Loon Project is being used (30) (use) for cellular operations and it will lead to interference with cellular transmissions,” Telecom Minister Ravi Shankar Prasad had said. “We have had (31) (have) many meetings with the government on this and are working through the process,” Chennai-born Google CEO Sundar Pichai said, adding that it is looking to work with telecom operators in the 700-900 Mhz spectrum band. “When a natural disaster hits, people often get no network coverage, as it happened in Chennai as well. Project Loon is focused (32) (focus) on providing connectivity in rural areas, and we can use software to position these balloons to areas where there’s no coverage or network capacity is less,” Mr. Pichai said.

(10) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

Indian Mythology is (29) (Be) one of the richest elements of Indian Culture, which enriches it further and makes it a unique one in the world. Books like, the tales of Panchatantra and Jataka tales, the Bhagvad Gita, the epics Ramayana and Mahabharata Tells (30) (tell) tales of human enduring power and how good overcomes evil power. The legendary collection of Panchatantra was (31) (be) originally composed in 2nd century BC. by Vishnu Sharma along with other scholars. The reason behind such a composition was (32) (be) to teach the moral values and management skills to the young sons of the King. It is great book of preaching where not humans but animals and plants are the main characters of the story. These animals and plants can talk and move around in the world of Panchatantra and covers with humans.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Right Form of the Word Question Number 29 to 32

(11) Read the following passages and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

Do we need religion ? A small amount of people renounce religion all together. Many people believe religion is essential to life and others believe it is an outdated hindrance to society. Those of us who believe that religion is a hindrance are (29) (be) fewer in number. Atheists and agnostics are a minority in almost every country across the globe. These people believe (30) (believe) religion is completely unnecessary and it’s no longer needed to fill the void that science filled. Religion once had (31) (have) a role in explaining where the world came from and how human beings came to be. Science has replaced (32) (replace) this idea of a creator with evolution and the Big Bang. Many people who frown upon religion feel as though it has caused more harm and trouble than it’s worth.

(12) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

Cities across the world have been pushing (29) (push) themselves hard to be the next London or New York. The reasons are not hard to seek: over several decades now economists have been celebrating (30) (celebrate) cities not just as a magic pill to get the world rid of poverty but as a turbo-charged engine that can transport people to a land of eternal prosperity. In fact, a UN Habitat report calls cities “the highest pinnacles of human creation”. The same report also says that by 2050, two-thirds of the global population will be living (31) (live) in urban areas; the World Bank estimates that the developing world will account for over 90 per cent of urban growth. Now the question is: do the developing countries really understand the rules of the game they are so keen on playing? Building skyscrapers or grand mansions to make the city look like New York or London is (32) (be) not progress or development. Following basic requirements of town planning is more important.

(13) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

The Siachen Conflict, sometimes referred to as the Siachen War, is (29) (be) a military conflict between India and Pakistan over the disputed Siachen Glacier region in Kashmir. The conflict began in 1984 with India’s successful Operation Meghdoot during which it gained control of the Siachen Glacier (unoccupied and undemarcated area). India has established (30) (establish) control over all of the 70 kilometres (43 mi) long Siachen Glacier and all of its tributary glaciers. The Siachen glacier is the highest battleground on earth, where India and Pakistan have been fighting (31) (fight) intermittently since April 13, 1984. Both countries maintain permanent military presence in the region at a height of over 6,000 metres (20,000 ft). More than 2000 people have died (32) (die) in this inhospitable terrain, mostly due to weather extremes and the natural hazards of mountain warfare.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Right Form of the Word Question Number 29 to 32

(14) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

After completion of the bridge, metre-gauge lines were laid (29) (lay) from Mandapam up to Pamban station. From here the railway line bifurcated, one line towards Rameshwaram about 6.25 miles (10.06 km) up and another branch line of 15 miles (24 km) terminating at Dhanushkodi. The section was opened (30) (open) to traffic in 1914. The railway bridge historically carried metre gauge trains, but Indian Railways upgraded the bridge to carry broad gauge trains as part of Project Unigauge, work that was completed (31) (complete) on 12 August 2007. Until recently, the two leaves of the bridge were opened (32) (open) manually using levers by workers. Around 10 ships — cargo carriers, coast guard ships, fishing vessels and oil tankers — pass through the bridge every month. More work was carried out on the bridge in 2009 to strengthen it to enable it to carry goods trains.

(15) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

It was (29) (be) Emperor Asoka who laid the foundations of a religious centre at Sanchi fascinated probably by the location of the hill or because of his Queen, Devi, who was the daughter of a merchant of Vidisha. He erected (30) (erect) the Great Stupa (Stupa 1) here after redistribution of mortal remains of Lord Buddha for erecting several stupas all over the country in order to spread Buddhism. This stupa was originally a low structure of brick, half the diameter of the present edifice hemispherical in shape with raised terraces at the base. It was encloesed (31) (enclose) by a wooden railing and a stone umbrella at the top. This Great Stupa served as a nucleus to the large Buddhist establishment during the later period. During Sunga times, several edifices were raised (32) (raise) at Sanchi and its surrounding hills. The Asokan Stupa was enlarged and faced with stones and decorated with balustrades, staircases and a harmika on the top.

(16) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

A teenager is (29) (be) basically a student and the period of his teens is the most formative period. Naturally if a taste for good books can be created (30) (create) in him it shall contribute substantially to his career. In fact, this truth is apt to be taken up as a research subject. If we trace back the early life of those that have made a mark in life, we shall see that they have spent (31) (spend) this period of their life most fruitfully. They may have been poor or may have been away from the seats of culture, yet they must have obtained (32) (obtain) access to the sources of knowledge during this period.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Right Form of the Word Question Number 29 to 32

(17) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

Kathputli is a string puppet theatre, native to Rajasthan, India, and is the most popular form of Indian puppetry. Tribes of Rajasthan have been performing (29) (perform) this art from the ancient times and it has become (30) (become) an eternal part of Rajasthani culture and tradition. No village fair, no religious festival and no social gathering in Rajasthan can be complete without the Kathputlis. It is believed (31) (believe) that somewhere 1500 years ago, tribal Rajasthani Bhat community started the use of Kathputli as string marionette art and it is in their love for tradition that art of Kathputli survived the test of time. Tradition of Kathputli is based on folk tales and stories. Scholars believe that folk tales convey the lifestyle of ancient Rajasthani tribal people and Kathputli art might have originated (32) (originate) from present day Nagaur and surrounding areas.

(18) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

The first time I met (29) (meet) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam—or Kalam, as I always knew him—was in a foreign country: the U.S. I had gone (30) (go) there in December, 1962, and he followed in March, 1963. We were part of a seven-member team dispatched by Vikram Sarabhai, the father of India’s space program, to train with NASA and learn the art of assembling and launching small rockets for collecting scientific data. I had spent (31) (spend) a few months training at NASA’s Goddard Space Flight Centre in Greenbelt, Maryland, when Kalam arrived from India. Soon, we were working (32) (work) side by side at NASA’s launch facility in Wallops Island, Virginia.

(19) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

Sports, over the last hundred years has affected (29) (affect) modern popular culture and has often reflected changing social attitudes and standards. Sports has seen (30) (see) advances in techniques and achievements in records and levels that reflect the commitment by sportsman, sportswomen and training to be the best. Along with an increase in influence over popular culture has come (31) (come) an increase in political influence. This can include athletes using their fame to run for office, office-seekers using athletes to boost their candidacy, boycotts to boost causes – most famously the anti-apartheid movement in South Africa and most recently the immigration law passed in Arizona – and using sports as a way to reach certain demographics. There is, however, a downside to the use of sports in politics. This ranges from terrorists using the sports to gain exposure for their cause – most famously at the Munich Olympics – to countries using sports as a way of trying to demonstrate that their specific ideology is (32) (be) better than another, notably in Soviet Russia.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Right Form of the Word Question Number 29 to 32

(20) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

Google began in January 1996 as a research project by Larry Page and Sergey Brin when they were (29) (be) both PhD students at Stanford University in Stanford, California. While conventional search engines ranked results by counting how many times the search terms appeared on the page, the two theorized about a better system that analyzed the relationships between websites. They called this new technology PageRank; it determioned (30) (determine) a website’s relevance by the number of pages, and the importance of those pages, that linked back to the original site. Page and Brin originally nicknamed their new search engine “BackRub”, because the system checked backlinks to estimate the importance of a site. Eventually, they changed the name to Google, originating from a misspelling of the word “googol”, the number one followed by one hundred zeros, which was picked (31) (pick) to signify that the search engine was intended (32) (intend) to provide large quantities of information. Originally, Google ran under Stanford University’s website, with the domains google stanford.edu and z.stanford.edu

(21) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

In ancient times, India had (29) (have) the Gurukula system of education in which anyone who wished to study went to a teacher’s (Guru) house and requested to be taught. If accepted as a student by the Guru, he would then stay at the Guru’s place and help in all activities at home. This not only created a strong tie between the teacher and the student, but also taught the student everything about running a house. The Guru taught (30) (teach) everything the child wanted to learn, from Sanskrit to the holy scriptures and from Mathematics to Metaphysics. The student stayed as long as he wished or until the Guru felt that he had taught (31) (teach) everything he could teach. All learning was closely linked to nature and to life, and not confined to memorizing some information. The modern school system was brought to India, including the English language, originally by Lord Thomas Babington Macaulay in the 1830s. The curriculum was confined (32) (confine) to “modern” subjects such as science and mathematics, and subjects like metaphysics and philosophy were considered unnecessary.

(22) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

There was a time when politics was associated with only the middle-aged and senior citizens. The presence of youth in politics was not welcomed (29) (not welcome), with the exception of a few. However, in a country with the world’s largest youth population, it is no doubt that their voice matters. In the past few years, there has been (30) (be) a huge rise in the involvement of students in politics. Time and again, we have seen how they have stood together to raise their voice against social injustices and have made (31) (make) a huge impact on policies affecting them, such as safety of women, reservation, academic freedom, etc. On the other hand, we have witnessed (32) (witness) incidents of rioting where students take the law into their own hands and disrupt daily affairs over a clash of political ideologies. It is therefore important to analyse the role of student unions. For these future leaders, student unions are the first step to understanding how a democracy works.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Right Form of the Word Question Number 29 to 32

(23) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

Cricket bats, historically, have been made (29) (make) from willow wood, from a variety of White Willow to be precise. This willow is very robust, thus preventing the bat from splintering when striking the cricket ball with a high bat speed. The one drawback of bats made in the 1800s was the fact that bats back then were (30) (be) extremely heavy. The weight of those bats on an average was an enormous 5 pounds. The solution to the issue was found (31) (find) in 1890 when C.C. Bussey, an English bat manufacturer, experimented by making a bat with the sapwood of the willow tree. He found that the bats made from the sapwood of the tree were much lighter than earlier. Thereafter, the practice of using the heartwood of the tree was shelved (32) (shelf) once and for all.

(24) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

Venomous Proteas fast bowler Dale Steyn has cautioned (29) (caution) his social media followers after a close run-in with a deadly snake in South Africa’s Kruger National Park. Travelling by car with a friend in the National Park, located 400km north-east of Johannesburg, Steyn pulled over to help what he thought (30) (think) was an injured brown house snake. But the 32-year-old got more than he bargained for when he discovered it was in fact a deadly Black Mamba snake he was dealing (31) (deal) with. Steyn posted a video of the encounter on Instagram and urged his followers to avoid getting in a similar situation to the one he found himself in. “So this poor guy was hit (32) (hit) by a car, we stopped to move him out the road thinking it was a brown house snake,” Steyn wrote on his Instragram account.

(25) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

Industrial revolution followed by the advances in information technology during the last century has changed (29) (change) people’s lifestyle, radically. Although this development has helped the human race, mismanagement has led to new problems of contamination and pollution. The technical prowess acquired during the last century has posed (30) (pose) a new challenge in the management of wastes. These days computer has become most common and widely used gadget in all kinds of activities ranging from schools, residences, offices to manufacturing industries. Disposal of e-wastes is (31) (be) a particular problem faced in many regions across the globe. Computer wastes that are landfilled produces contaminated leachates which eventually pollute the groundwater. Acids and sludge obtained from melting computer chips, if disposed on the ground causes acidification of soil. For example, Guiyu, Hong Kong a thriving area of illegal e-waste recycling is facing (32) (face) acute water shortages due to the contamination of water resources.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Right Form of the Word Question Number 29 to 32

(26) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

Indians have produced (29) (produce) many significant and successful insights, inventions and thoughts known to humanity. Vedic philosophy, the Upanishads, Ayurveda, Yoga, the epics Ramayana and Mahabharata, Sanskrit, Tamil, zero, the number system, algebra, arithmetic, astronomy, astrology, temple architecture, metallurgy and chess are just a few examples of India’s prodigious contribution. More than a thousand years before Copernicus, 23-year-old Aryabhata wrote (30) (write) in his famous Aryabhatia that the Earth rotates round its axis. Chanakya’s Arthashastra was the oldest and most comprehensive treatise on the economy and statecraft. The genius Ramanujan reinvented European mathematics working on his own. Despite a tradition of excellence and innovation Indian innovation and invention has fallen (31) (fall) behind many countries of the world. The growth of the Indian IT industry and India’s achievements in space and atomic energy suggest that the tide is turning (32) (turn).

(27) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

A work-at-home scheme is a get-rich-quick scam in which a victim is lured by an offer to be employed (29) (employ) at home, very often doing some simple task in a minimal amount of time with a large amount of income that far exceeds the market rate for the type of work. The true purpose of such an offer is for the perpetrator to extort money from the victim, either by charging a fee to join the scheme, or requiring the victim to invest in products whose resale value is misrepresented. For example, The victim sees (30) (see) a flyer advertising a job stuffing envelopes, with “up to 1,000 envelopes a week that you can stuff with postage and address already affixed!”, offering a payment of Rs. 15-25 per envelope. To apply for the job, the victim is required (31) (require) to send a self-addressed stamped envelope for information and a small processing fee. In return, the victim is sent a template for the flyer they had originally seen; the envelopes they stuff are from other people who answer the flyer, and the payment is (32) (be) the processing fee.

(28) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

“Some of the most terrifying moments of my life have been (29) (be) in the midst of conflict: with American marines in Fallujah in 2004 and with armed bands in Sierra Leone in 1993. I stood next to mounds of dead Iranian soldiers, teenagers actually, during the Iran-Iraq War in 1984. The horror of war is a reality I have experienced (30) (experience) firsthand. And yet an analyst must never give in to his or her emotions. He or she must view history with a heart of ice to find patterns that others miss”. This is what Stanford classics professor Ian Morris does in his new book, “War! What Is It Good For?” Conflict and the Progress of Civilization from Primates to Robots. Morris, both an archaeologist and a historian, surveys (31) (survey) thousands of years of history and comes away with the seemingly startling thesis that human progress has been helped, rather than hindered, by war. A theme that runs through Morris’ book is that while some idealists worship primitive societies and the noble savages who populate them, primitive societies rather than idyllic retreats have been filled (32) (fill) more often, with the terrifying human monsters associated with William Golding’s 1954 novel, Lord of the Flies.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Right Form of the Word Question Number 29 to 32

(29) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

Ever since the construction of The TajMahal, the building has been (29) (be) the source of an admiration transcending culture and geography, and so personal and emotional responses have eclipsed (30) (eclipse) scholastic appraisals of the monument. A longstanding myth holds that Shah Jahan planned a mausoleum to be built in black marble as a Black Taj Mahal across the Yamuna. It was suggested (31) (suggest) that Shah Jahan was overthrown by his son Aurangzeb before it could be built. Ruins of blackened marble across the river in Moonlight Garden, Mahtab Bagh, seemed to support this legend. However, excavations carried out (32) (carry out) in the 1990s found that they were discolored white stones that had turned black.

(30) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

In 1981 Murty wanted to start Infosys. He had (29) (has) a vision and zero capital initially I was very apprehensive about Murty getting into business. We did not have any business background … Moreover we were living (30) (live) a comfortable life in Bombay with a regular pay check and I didn’t want to rock the boat. But Murty was passionate about creating good quality software. I decided to support him. Typical of Murty, he just had a dream and no money. So I gave him Rs 10,000 which I had saved (31) (save) for a rainy day, without his knowledge and told him, This is all I have. Take it. I give you three years sabbatical leave. I will take care (32) (take care) of the financial needs of our house. You go and chase your dreams without any worry. But you have only three years! (An Excerpt from Sudha Murthy’s Autobiography)

(31) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

A remarkable transformation (29) (transform) has been brought in the arid region of Alwar district, Rajasthan, Western India, over the last 15 years. Several hundred seriously (30) (serious) drought hit villages have now become self-sufficient in water for irrigation (31) (irrigate) and drinking, and many have initiated impressive (32) (impress) forest conservation measures.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Right Form of the Word Question Number 29 to 32

(32) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

Subhash Chandra Bose, affectionately (29) (affection) called Netaji, was born on January 23, 1897 in Cuttack, Orissa. He was one of the most prominent leaders (30) (lead) of the Indian freedom (31) (free) struggle. Deeply moved by the jallianwala Bagh massacre, he gave up a promising (32) (promise) career in the Civil Services to join Freedom Movement.

(33) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket.

With the advent of plastic, a new and powerful enemy of environment (29) (environs) has been born. For convenience – crazy humans (30) (human), plastic is a great boon, but for the environment it is a menace. Tonnes of plastic waste litter the streets, choke drains causing pollution (31) (pollute). Waste plastic in rubbish dumps and land fill sites is causing death (32) (die) of many animals.

(34) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket. (March 2018)

Personality is the combination (29) (combine) of physical, emotional, spiritual and psychological aspects in a person. If you wish (30) (wishing) to enhance your personality, start by respecting yourself and believing in your ability to win respect from others. In your interaction (31) (interact) with others, be polite and gentle, doing good to them and for them as far as possible. Speak only when it is required (32) (require) and is of utmost necessity.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Right Form of the Word Question Number 29 to 32

(35) Read the following passage and fill in the blanks with the appropriate form of the word given in bracket. (June 2018)

My visit to a slum area after the rainy (29) (rain) reason was a sad affair. The pits were still full of rain water. There was mud all around. The polluted water had caused (30) (cause), various diseases. There was no home without a sick person. Small children (31) (child) suffered from stomach troubles. The government should immediately (32) (immediate) rush to the help of the sufferers in the slum areas.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

These TS 10th Class English Important Questions Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10 will help the students to improve their time and approach.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(1) Read the following poem.

In the dark that falls before the dawn,
When the dew has settled on the thorn,
When the stars have been obscured by clouds,
A silence covers all things in shrouds.
No wind sighs in the mulberry tree,
No firefly glimmers wild and free,
A shadow has wrapped the night in gloom,
It’s silent as a deserted tomb.
All of a sudden a lapwing’s cry
Cuts the black silence as it flies by,
Again and again it slashes the dark
That haunts the empty, desolate park,
Anguish, sorrow pours from its throat,
It wings in the night, note after note;
I open my window so the light
Will flood the dark of this wretched, night.
Why does it cry so miserably ?
Why is it so solitary ?
All I know is that loss and ache
Are left behind in the lapwing’s wake.
– Meera Uberoi

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The poet opens the window because
(A) he can see the lapwing
(B) he can get some air
(C) he can get some light
(D) he can hear the lapwing
Answer:
(C) he can get some light

Question 7.
When darkness falls there is
(A) a shroud covering all things
(B) the crying of the lapwing to be heard
(C) complete silence everywhere
(D) gloom and destination
Answer:
(C) complete silence everywhere

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
When does the lapwing come out ?
Answer:
At night

Question 9.
Why do you think the lapwing cries so miserably ?
Answer:
Loss and ache are left behind in the lapwing’s wake. It cries miserably as it loses something! someone dear to it. It also suffers some pain.

Question 10.
What is ‘it’ referred to in the expression, ‘It’s silent as a deserted tomb’ ?
Answer:
It is referred to the silent night.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(2) Read the following poem.

“For oh,” say the children, “we are weary
And we cannot run or leap;
If we cared for any meadows, it were merely
To drop down in them and sleep.
Our knees tremble sorely in the stooping,
We fall upon our faces, trying to go;
And underneath our heavy eyelids drooping
The reddest flower would look as pale as snow.
For, all day, we drag our burden tiring
Through the coal – dark, underground;
Or, all day we drive the wheels or iron
In the factories, round and round.”
– Elizabeth Barrett Browning

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
What do you mean by the phrase ‘reddest flower’ in the expression ‘The red¬dest flower would look as pale as snow’ ?
(A) a flower which is red
(B) a rose flower
(C) the childhood
(D) the red flower in the child’s eye
Answer:
(C) the childhood

Question 7.
The mood of the children in the poem is
(A) joyful
(B) tired
(C) angry
(D) jealous
Answer:
(B) tired

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
“And we cannot run or leap” – Why do you think they cannot run or leap ?
Answer:
I think they are very tired, after working in the mines.

Question 9.
How does the work affect the children ?
Answer:
The children are weary after their day-long hard work. Their knees ache and tremble. They cant jump or run. Their eyelids droop for want of sleep.

Question 10.
What is the central idea of the poem ?
Answer:
The old child labour system should be eradicated. The children should enjoy their childhood.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(3) Read the following poem.

O silent goblet! Red from head to heel,
How did you feel
When you were being twirled
Upon the potter’s wheel
Before the potter gave you to the world ?
‘I felt a conscious impulse in my clay
To break away
From the Great Potter’s hand that
burned so warm,
I felt a vast
Feeling of sorrow to be cast
Into my present form’.
‘Before that fatal hour
That saw me captive on the potter’s wheel
And cast into his crimson goblet-sleep
I used to feel
The fragrant friendship of a little flower
Whose root was in my bosom buried deep.’
The Potter has drawn out the living
breath of me
And given me a form which is the
death of me,
My past unshapely natural stage was best
With just one flower flaming through my breast’.
– Harindranath Chattopadhyaya

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
Who do you think is T in the expression “I felt a conscious impulse in my clay?
(A) the potter
(B) the goblet
(C) the potter’s hand
(D) the potter’s wheel
Answer:
(B) the goblet

Question 7.
The phrase,’fragrant friendship’is used to suggest that
(A) the pleasant relationship between the goblet and the flower.
(B) the unpleasant relationship between the goblet and the flower.
(C) the pleasant relationship between the goblet and the potter.
(D) the unpleasant relationship between the goblet and the potter.
Answer:
(A) the pleasant relationship between the goblet and the flower.

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What was the feeling of the goblet when it was being twirled upon the potter wheel?
Answer:
It felt sorrowful.

Question 9.
Which life does the goblet like, its present life or past life ? Why ?
Answer:
The goblet likes its past life of clay as it has life. It is natural state. It enjoys the fragrant friendship of a flower in its natural state.

Question 10.
When the poet uses the expression, ‘burned so warm’, what are the feelingr of the poet towards the goblet ?
Answer:
The poet has tender feelings towards the goblet. He sympathizes with the goblet’s present form.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(4) Read the following lines (June 2016)

Merry merry sparrow!
Under leaves so green :
A happy blossom
Sees you, swift as arrow,
Seek your cradle narrow
Near my bosom.
Pretty pretty robin !
Under leaves so green :
A happy blossom
Hears you Sobbing, Sobbing,
Pretty, pretty robin,
Near my bosom.
– William Blake

Glossary :
Swift : quick
Pretty : pleasant

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
‘Cradle narrow’ refers to _______
(A) a small room
(B) a huge building
(C) a big garden
(D) a tiny nest.
Answer:
(D) a tiny nest.

Question 7.
‘Pretty robin, Pretty robin,
Near my bosom’ – This is associated with _______
(A) affection
(B) attraction
(C) happiness
(D) responsibility
Answer:
(A) affection

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What is the central idea of the poem ?
Answer:
The poet witnesses the happy sparrow and robin in their natural habitat. On seeing them, he too is pleasant.

Question 9.
Do you think the poet, the sparrow and the robin are happy ? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, I think the poet, the sparrow and the robin are happy. The sparrow and the robin are very pleasant in their green surroundings. When the poet sees them, he too feels the same.

Question 10.
How would you feel when you were in the garden ?
Answer:
When I were in the garden I feel very happy.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(5) Read the following poem.

I lay in sorrow, deep distressed ;
My grief a proud man heard ;
His looks were cold, he gave me gold
But not a kindly word.
My sorrow passed I paid him back
The gold he gave to me ;
Then stood erect and spoke my thanks
And blessed his charity.
I lay in want, in grief and pain;
A poor man passed my way
He bound my head, he gave me bread
He watched me night and day.
How shall I pay him back again,
For all he did to me ?
Oh, gold is great, but greater far
Is heavenly sympathy !
– Charles Mackay

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
What did the proud man do for the poet ?
(A) He gave him some gold
(B) He showed sympathy for him
(C) He spoke kindly to him
(D) He took him home
Answer:
(A) He gave him some gold

Question 7.
Why does the poet say that he ‘stood erect’ ?
(A) Because he was deeply distressed
(B) Because he had got gold from a proud man
(C) Because he had paid back the gold given to him
(D) Because he had in him heavenly sympathy
Answer:
(C) Because he had paid back the gold given to him

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What did the poor man do for the poet ?
Answer:
He watched him night and day.

Question 9.
What, according to the poet, can’t be paid back ?
Answer:
Sympathy cant be paid back.

Question 10.
What does the poet say about sympathy ?
Answer:
He calls sympathy heavenly.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(6) Read the following poem.

The country side must be preserved
(Preferably miles away from me.)
Neat hectares of the stuff reserved
For those in need of flower or tree.
I’ll make do with landscape painting
Film documentaries on TV
And when I need to escape, painting,
Then open-mouthed I’ll head for the sea.
Let others stroll and take their leisure,
In grasses wade up to their knees.
For I derive no earthly pleasure
From the green green rush that makes me sneeze.
– Roger Me Gough

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
What does the poet want to be done with the countryside?
(A) He wants it to be cleaned
(B) He wants it to be preserved
(C) He wants it to be used for film documentaries
(D) He wants it to be changed into pleasure parks
Answer:
(B) He wants it to be preserved

Question 7.
What is the rhyme scheme of each stanza ?
(A) abab
(B) abba
(C) aabc
(D) abbe
Answer:
(A) abab

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What would the poet do when he needs an escape from city life ?
Answer:
He would go to the seaside.

Question 9.
Why does the poet not want to wade in tall grasses ?
Answer:
It makes his feet and legs very muddy.

Question 10.
Why does the poet want the countryside to be away from him ?
Answer:
So that he can sit at home and do landscape painting.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(7) Read the following poem.

I had a dove and the sweet dove died
And I thought it died of grieving;
0, What could it grieve for ? Its feet were tied
With a silken thread of my own hand’s weaving ;
Sweet little red feet ! Why should you die
Why should you leave me, sweet bird ! Why ?
You lived alone on the forest-tree,
Why, pretty thing ! Would you not live with me ?
I kissed you off and gave you white peas ;
Why not live sweetly, as in the green trees ?
– John Keats

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
What do you think about the dove grieved for ?
(A) For a silken thread
(B) For its lost freedom
(C) For white peas
(D) For the poets love
Answer:
(B) For its lost freedom

Question 7.
Where did the dove live before the poet got it ?
(A) In a cage
(B) In a forest
(C) In a zoo
(D) In a cave
Answer:
(B) In a forest

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What did the poet wonder about ?
Answer:
He wondered why the bird had died.

Question 9.
What idea does this poem convey ?
Answer:
That birds love freedom more than food.

Question 10.
What is the opposite of the word ‘grieve’?
Answer:
rejoice.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(8) Read the following lines.

I hear a sudden cry of pain !
There is a rabbit in a snare;
Now, I hear the cry again,
But I cannot tell from where.
But I cannot tell from where,
He is calling out for aid !
Crying on the frightened air,
Making everything afraid !
Making everything afraid,
Wrinkling up his little face,
As he cries again for aid;
And I cannot find the place !
And I cannot find the place
Where his paw is in the snare,
Little one! Oh, Little one!
I am searching everywhere!
– James Stephens

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
‘a snare’ means :
(A) a well
(B) a trap
(C) a hill
(D) a pin
Answer:
(B) a trap

Question 7.
Who is the ‘Little one’ referred to here ?
(A) a snare
(B) rabbit
(C) poet
(D) air
Answer:
(B) rabbit

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
Why is the rabbit crying ?
Answer:
The rabbit is crying as it has been trapped in a snare.

Question 9.
What does the poet hear ? What is his reaction ?
Answer:
The poet hears the cry of pain. The poet looks for the place where the rabbit’s paw in the snare is.

Question 10.
How will you help the rabbit if you find its place ?
Answer:
If I find Its place, I shall definitely try to save the rabbit and give it relief.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(9) Read the following lines.

Who would be a turtle who could help it?
A barely mobile hard roll, a four-oared helmet,
She can ill afford the chances she must take
In rowing toward the grasses that she eats.
Her track is graceless, like dragging
A packing-case places, and almost any slope
Defeats her modest hopes. Even being practical,
She’s often stuck up to the axle on her way
To something edible. With everything optimal,
She skirts the ditch which would convert
Her shell into a serving dish. She lives
Below luck-level, never imagining some lottery
Will change her load of pottery to wings.
Her only levity is patience,
The sport of truly chastened things.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The usage ‘a four oared helmet’ means
(A) The thick shell and the four leg combination of a turtle
(B) The shell of a turtle, which is usually very hard
(C) The feet of a turtle, which resembles the oars.
(D) The special equipments of a turtle.
Answer:
(A) The thick shell and the four leg combination of a turtle

Question 7.
Below luck level means…
(A) There are good chances for the turtle to get caught.
(B) There are enough chances for the turtle to live.
(C) There are no chances for the turtle to find food
(D) There are supplies of food easily available for the turtle.
Answer:
(A) There are good chances for the turtle to get caught.

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
Why do you think the turtle ‘has to ill afford its chances’ to grass?
Answer:
The turtle has to take the chances to find food, as it could not move faster on land.

Question 9.
What is the lottery that the turtle would like to have?
Answer:
The chance to change the heavy weight into lighter wings so that it could escape from the dangers.

Question 10.
How is the movement of the turtle described ?
Answer:
As a pack of box is being dragged on the way.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(10) Read the following lines.

I met a traveller from an antique land
Who said:—Two vast and trunkless legs of stone
Stand in the desert. Near them on the sand,
Half sunk, a shattered visage lies, whose frown
And wrinkled lip and sneer of cold command
Tell that its sculptor well those passions read
Which yet survive, stamped on these lifeless things,
The hand that mocked them and the heart that fed.
And on the pedestal these words appear:
“My name is Ozymandias, king of kings:
Look on my works, ye mighty, and despair!”
Nothing beside remains: round the decay
Of that colossal wreck, boundless and bare,
The lone and level sands stretch far away.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The word’antique’land refers to _______
(A) A forbidden land
(B) A forgotten world
(C) A an ancient land
(D) A living world
Answer:
(C) A an ancient land

Question 7.
The statue that the man had seen there was _______
(A) The one being made there
(B) The one in pieces
(C) The one which was completed
(D) The one being fixed.
Answer:
(B) The one in pieces

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What are the indications about the keen observation the sculptor had done?
Answer:
The frown, the wrinkled lips and the sneer of cold command are the indications that show the sculptor had a great observation.

Question 9.
Whose was the statue there?
Answer:
The statue was of Ozymandias, the mythological king of kings. His name was Ramses II.

Question 10.
What do you mean by the word pedestal ?
Answer:
A base part on which the statue is placed.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(11) Read the following poem.

Aunt Jennifer’s tigers prance across a screen,
Bright topaz denizens of a world of green.
They do not fear the men beneath the tree;
They pace in sleek chivalric certainty.
Aunt Jennifer’s finger fluttering through her wool
Find even the ivory needle hard to pull.
The massive weight of Uncle’s wedding band
Sits heavily upon Aunt Jennifer’s hand.
When Aunt is dead, her terrified hands will lie
Still ringed with ordeals she has mastered by.
The tigers in the panel that she made
Will go on prancing, proud and unafraid.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The tigers of Aunt Jennifer are
(A) Real
(B) Idols
(C) Pictures
(D) Craft work
Answer:
(D) Craft work

Question 7.
The people under the tree are
(A) Hunters
(B) Trainers
(C) Well wishes
(D) Pictures
Answer:
(D) Pictures

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
How are the tigers described ?
Answer:
The tigers are described as fearless and chivalric.

Question 9.
Why is the weight of the wedding ring mentioned in the poem ?
Answer:
To show the male domination over the creative females.

Question 10.
What ordeal did Aunt master ?
Answer:
Aunt had mastered the ordeals of creative skills.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(12) Read the following poem.

I ask my daughter to name the planets.
“Venus….Mars………. and Plunis !”she says.
When I was six or seven my father
woke me in the middle of the night.
We went down to the playground and
lay on our backs on the concrete looking
up for the meteors the TV said would shower.
I don’t remember any meteors.
I remember my back pressed to the planet Earth,
my father’s bulk like gravity next to me,
the occasional rumble from his throat,
the apartment buildings dark-windowed,
the sky close enough to poke with my finger.
Now, knowledge erodes wonder.
The niggling voce reminds me that the sun
does shine on the dark side of the moon.
My daughter’s ignorance is my bliss.
Through her eyes I spy like a voyeur.
I travel in a rocket ship to the planet Plunis.
On Plunis I no longer long for the past.
On Plunis there are actual surprises.
On Plunis I am happy.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The planet on which they lied down was
(A) Mercury
(B) Venus
(C) Earth
(D) Mars
Answer:
(C) Earth

Question 7.
The father wanted to show him
(A) The other planets in the sky
(B) The meteors falling
(C) The stars glowing in the sky
(D) The night sky
Answer:
(B) The meteors falling

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
Why did the poet go to the ground to see meteors ?
Answer:
Because the TV show had said that it will shower meteors.

Question 9.
Why do you think the poet will be happy in Plunis ?
Answer:
In Plunis, the poet will not seek his past, long for surprises. So he will be happy there.

Question 10.
What did the poet ask his daughter ?
Answer:
The poet asked his daughter, the names of the planets.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(13) Read the following lines.

O, wild West Wind, thou breath of Autumn’s being,
Thou, from whose unseen presence the leaves dead
Are driven, like ghosts from an enchanter fleeing,
Yellow, and black, and pale, and hectic red,
Pestilence-stricken multitudes: 0, thou,
Who chariotest to their dark wintry bed

The winged seeds, where they lie cold and low,
Each like a corpse within its grave, until
Thine azure sister of the spring shall blow

Her clarion o’er the dreaming earth, and fill
(Driving sweet buds like flocks to feed in air)
With living hues and odours plain and hill:
Wild Spirit, which art moving everywhere;
Destroyer and preserver; hear, O, hear!

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The word ‘thou’ means
(A) You
(B) Your
(C) Yours
(D) Yourself
Answer:
(A) You

Question 7.
The azure sister of west wind comes before
(A) Autumn
(B) Winter
(C) Summer
(D) Spring
Answer:
(D) Spring

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
How is the west wind described?
Answer:
The unseen presence of West Wind makes the dead leaves driven away from the trees, placing the whole world with the expectation of the season ahead.

Question 9.
How does the sister of West Wind behave?
Answer:
The sister of West Wind emerges before the spring season, and does give the happiness of the expecting spring to all.

Question 10.
What is the mythological connection that is said about ‘west wind’ ?
Answer:
The west wind drives the charriot of winter.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(14) Read the following lines.

Once I am sure there’s nothing going on
I step inside, letting the door thud shut.
Another church: matting, seats, and stone,
And little books; sprawlings of flowers, cut
For Sunday, brownish now; some brass and stuff
Up at the holy end; the small neat organ;
And a tense, musty, unignorable silence,
Brewed God knows how long. Hatless, I take off
My cycle-clips in awkward reverence.

Move forward, run my hand around the font.
From where I stand, the roof looks almost new –
Cleaned, or restored? Someone would know: I don’t.
Mounting the lectern, I peruse a few
Hectoring large-scale verses, and pronounce
‘Here endeth’ much more loudly than I’d meant.
The echoes snigger briefly. Back at the door
I sign the book, donate an Irish sixpence,
Reflect the place was not worth stopping for.

Yet stop I did: in fact I often do,
And always end much at a loss like this,
Wondering what to look for; wondering, too,
When churches will fall completely out of use
What we shall turn them into, if we shall keep
A few cathedrals chronically on show,
Their parchment, plate and pyx in locked cases,
And let the rest rent-free to rain and sheep.
Shall we avoid them as unlucky places?

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The poet was _______
(A) Alone
(B) In a group
(C) With priest
(D) Without friends
Answer:
(A) Alone

Question 7.
‘Here Endeth’Means _______
(A) Here ends the journey into the church
(B) Here Ends the Services in the Church
(C) Here ends the church visit
(D) Here ends the poem.
Answer:
(B) Here Ends the Services in the Church

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What does the poet mean by ‘When churches will fall completely out of use’?
Answer:
It means when the people has lost the faith they have in religion and churches.

Question 9.
What do you think the attitude of the poet towards the church is?
Answer:
The poet believes in the religious practices and has an opinion that the people should have the habit of going to churches.

Question 10.
Why do you think the pact had gone to the church ?
Answer:
The poet was just visiting the church, without any money.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(15) Read the following passage.

A thing of beauty is a joy for ever:
Its loveliness increases; it will never
Pass into nothingness; but still will keep
A bower quiet for us, and a sleep
Full of sweet dreams, and health, and quiet breathing.
Therefore, on every morrow, are we wreathing
A flowery band to bind us to the earth,
Spite of despondence, of the inhuman dearth
Of noble natures, of the gloomy days,
Of all the unhealthy and o’er-darkened ways
Made for our searching: yes, in spite of all,
Some shape of beauty moves away the pall .
From our dark spirits. Such the sun, the moon,
Trees old and young, sprouting a shady boon
For simple sheep; and such are daffodils
With the green world they live in; and clear rills
That for themselves a cooling covert make
‘Gainst the hot season; the mid forest brake,
Rich with a sprinkling of fair musk-rose blooms:
And such too is the grandeur of the dooms
We have imagined for the mighty dead;
All lovely tales that we have heard or read:
An endless fountain of immortal drink,
Pouring unto us from the heaven’s brink.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The word pall in line 12 stands for
(A) Friend
(B) Enemy
(C) Sadness
(D) Happiness
Answer:
(C) Sadness

Question 7.
The musk rose adds to the beauty of _______
(A) Removed darkness
(B) The dark forests
(C) Treeless lands
(D) The Heaven
Answer:
(B) The dark forests

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
Name some things which could remove the sadness of the people?
Answer:
The sun, the moon, Trees old and young, sprouting a shady boon for simple sheep; and daffodils with the green world in; and clear rills etc are some such examples.

Question 9.
How are the beautiful things useful for us?
Answer:
The beautiful things add to our happiness, they remove the sadness and add to the loveliness of the things. They always perform as a shade under which the people could find the consolation.

Question 10.
How can the beautiful things influence other people?
Answer:
By increasing the joy of people and removing their sadness.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(16) Read the following poem.

I cannot remember my mother,
only sometime in the midst of my play
a tune seems to hover over my play-things,
the tune of some song that she used
to hum while rocking my cradle.
I cannot remember my mother,
but when in the early autumn morning
the smell of the shiuli flowers floats in the air,
the scent of the morning service in the temple
comes to me as the scent of my mother.
I cannot remember my mother,
only when from my bedroom window
I send my eyes into the blue of the distant sky,
I feel that the stillness of my mother’s gaze
on my face has spread all over the sky.
– Rabindranath Tagore

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
What do you understand by the expression, “I cannot remember my mother”?
(A) The poet has forgot his mother.
(B) The poet’s mother has run away from home.
(C) The poet’s mother died when he was very young.
(D) The poet’s mother deserted him when he was a little boy.
Answer:
(C) The poet’s mother died when he was very young.

Question 7.
The tone of poem is
(A) agony
(B) sadness
(C) piety
(D) joy
Answer:
(B) sadness

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What does the scent of the morning service in the temple make him remember ?
Answer:
His mother’s going to the temple.

Question 9.
How does the poet feel the presence of his mother ?
Answer:
The poet feels the presence of his mother in the tunes that hovers over him, in the scent of the flowers offered to God and In the blue sky.

Question 10.
Do you love your mother ? Why (not) ?
Answer:
Yes, I love my mother very much because she takes care of me always. I love her for her qualities such as affection, kindness, forgiveness, etc.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(17) Read the following lines.

The pudgy, playful cat said to the rather weary rat,
“I have to keep chasing you so that I don’t get too fat.”
The rather weary rat said he didn’t understand.
“Don’t you chase me for the next meal you’ve planned? ”
The cat laughed and asked, “Why would I want that ?
Without you, who would I chase, you silly, weary rat ? ”
“I’m tired and sure don’t care if you do get fat. ”
Said the more than rather angry weary rat.
At that the rather weary rat decided to ask,
“Can we be friends or is that too tough a task ?”
The pudgy, playful cat frowned and wanted to know,
“Weary rat, just how fat do you want me to grow ?
If I stop chasing you, that won’t be too wise,
Since you’re the only way that I can exercise.’
The rather weary rat started to sob and wail.
All this running had made him quite weak and frail.
Then he had an idea that might stop the cat from getting fat.
So he simply asked the pudgy, “Why don’t you chase you
Then you can chase it in every place you want to be.”
The pudgy, playful cat had never, ever thought of that.
Now for sure he knew he would never become fat.
He smiled and said, “My chasing you must end Because, rather weary rat, you are now my best friend !

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
Why did the cat chase the rat ?
(A) he wanted to become strong
(B) so that he wouldn’t get fat
(C) he likes the rat
(D) he wants to eat the rat
Answer:
(A) he wanted to become strong

Question 7.
What was the mood of the rat ?
(A) anxious
(B) weary and angry
(C) enjoying
(D) sorrowful
Answer:
(B) weary and angry

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What, according to the rat, was a tough task for the cat ?
Answer:
To be friendly with the rat,

Question 9.
What was the daily activity of the cat ?
Answer:
Every day the cat chases the rat.

Question 10.
What is the destiny of the cat ?
Answer:
The destiny of the cat was to catch the rat.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(18) Read the following lines.

Be thankful that you don’t already have everything you desire.
If you did, what would therebe to look forward to ?
Be thankful when you don’t know something
for it gives you the opportunity to learn.
Be thankful for the difficult times.
During those times you grow.
Be thankful for your limitations,
because they give you opportunities for improvement.
Be thankful for each new challenge,
because it will build your strength and character.
Be thankful for your mistakes.
They will teach you valuable lessons.
Be thankful when you’re tired and weary,
because it means you’ve made a difference.
It’s easy to be thankful for the good things.
A life of rich fulfillment comes to those
who are also thankful for the setbacks,
Gratitude can turn a negative into positive.
Find a way to be thankful for your troubles,
and they can become your blessings.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
According to the poet we need new challenges because
(A) they give us opportunities for improvement.
(B) they strengthen our character.
(C) they help us grow.
(D) they give us opportunity to learn
Answer:
(B) they strengthen our character.

Question 7.
According to the poet, we look forward in life when
(A) we have nothing.
(B) we have everything.
(C) we have expectations.
(D) we have no desires.
Answer:
(C) we have expectations.

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What is the message of this poem ?
Answer:
This poem asks us to be optimistic.

Question 9.
What, according to the poet, gives us opportunity to learn ?
Answer:
According to the poet, ‘not knowing something’ gives us opportunity to learn new things. If one is ignorant, it gives one a chance to learn.

Question 10.
According to you, whose life will be better ? The life of a person who has everything or that of a person who doesn’t have anything ?
Answer:
In my view, the life of a person who doesn’t have anything is better.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(19) Read the following lines.

Behold her, single in the field,
Yon solitary Highland Lass!
Reaping and singing by herself;
Stop here, or gently pass!
Alone she cuts and binds the grain,
And sings a melancholy strain;
0 listen! for the Vale profound
Is overflowing with the sound.

No Nightingale did ever chaunt
More welcome notes to weary bands
Of travellers in some shady haunt,
Among Arabian sands:
A voice so thrilling ne’er was heard
In spring-time from the Cuckoo-bird,
Breaking the silence of the seas
Among the farthest Hebrides.
Will no one tell me what she sings?—
Perhaps the plaintive numbers flow
For old, unhappy, far-off things,
And battles long ago:
Or is it some more humble lay,
Familiar matter of to-day?
Some natural sorrow, loss, or pain,
That has been, and may be again?

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The word lass means _______
(A) Baby
(B) Boy
(C) Man
(D) Girl
Answer:
(D) Girl

Question 7.
While she is singing,
(A) There are a lot of people in the farm
(B) There are lot many people on the road
(C) There is nobody else in the farm
(D) There won’t be anybody on the road
Answer:
(C) There is nobody else in the farm

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What does the poet ask the travellers to do?
Answer:
The poet asks the travellers to stop for a while and listen to what the girl is singing from the field.

Question 9.
What does the poet doubt as the topic on which the girl was singing?
Answer:
The poet doubts that the girl is singing about some old battles, or some old and unhappy things in life, or that could be even about the natural loss or the pain caused by that.

Question 10.
How is the maiden’s song described by the poet ?
Answer:
The maiden is singing a meloncholy song.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(20) Read the following poem.

I wandered lonely as a cloud
That floats on high o’er vales and hills,
When all at once I saw a crowd,
A host, of golden daffodils;
Beside the lake, beneath the trees,
Fluttering and dancing in the breeze.

Continuous as the stars that shine
And twinkle on the milky way,
They stretched in never-ending line
Along the margin of a bay:
Ten thousand saw I at a glance,
Tossing their heads in sprightly dance.

The waves beside them danced; but they
Outdid the sparkling waves in glee:
A poet could not but be gay,
In such a jocund company:
I gazed—and gazed—but little thought
What wealth the show to me had brought:

For oft, when on my couch I lie
In vacant or in pensive mood,
They flash upon that inward eye
Which is the bliss of solitude;
And then my heart with pleasure fills,
And dances with the daffodils.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
‘I’wandered as a cloud over
(A) Hills
(B) Oceans & Seas
(C) Hills & Valleys
(D) Oceans
Answer:
(C) Hills & Valleys

Question 7.
‘Ten thousand saw I at a glance….’ what did he see ?
(A) Rivers
(B) Stars
(C) Brooks
(D) Flowers
Answer:
(D) Flowers

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What was the sight that attracted the poet all of a sudden?
Answer:
The sight of a lot many thousands of small golden yellow daffodils swinging on the side of the pond.

Question 9.
How did the sight of the flowers help the poet?
Answer:
Later in his moments of loneliness, the sight of the dancing golden yellow flowers had filled his mind with immense pleasure.

Question 10.
What is the real ’wealth’ mentioned in the poem ?
Answer:
The sight of the beautiful brook side with the a lot of beautiful flowers.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(21) Read the following poem.

Thou still unravish’d bride of quietness,
Thou foster-child of silence and slow time,
Sylvan historian, who canst thus express
A flowery tale more sweetly than our rhyme:
What leaf-fring’d legend haunts about thy shape
Of deities or mortals, or of both,
In Tempe or the dales of Arcady?
What men or gods are these? What maidens loth?
What mad pursuit? What struggle to escape?
What pipes and timbrels? What wild ecstasy?
Heard melodies are sweet, but those unheard
Are sweeter; therefore, ye soft pipes, play on;
Not to the sensual ear, but, more endear’d,
Pipe to the spirit ditties of no tone:
Fair youth, beneath the trees, thou canst not leave
Thy song, nor ever can those trees be bare;
Bold Lover, never, never canst thou kiss,
Though winning near the goal yet, do not grieve;
She cannot fade, though thou hast not thy bliss,
For ever wilt thou love, and she be fair!
Ah, happy, happy boughs! that cannot shed
Your leaves, nor ever bid the Spring adieu;
And, happy melodist, unwearied,
For ever piping songs for ever new;
More happy love! more happy, happy love!
For ever warm and still to be enjoy’d,
For ever panting, and for ever young;
All breathing human passion far above,
That leaves a heart high-sorrowful and cloy’d,
A burning forehead, and a parching tongue.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The word ‘sensual ears’ represents
(A) The sensory organ ears
(B) The one we need to hear divine sounds
(C) The one which we have lost
(D) The one the fairies have
Answer:
(A) The sensory organ ears

Question 7.
The branches depicted in the urn has
(A) Seasons changing as it is with the other trees.
(B) Been enjoyed by the people engraved in the urn
(C) Leaves which will shed seasonally as usual
(D) Leaves which will never be shed.
Answer:
(D) Leaves which will never be shed.

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
How did the poet describe the pictures engraved on the urn?
Answer:
The poet feels that the historians may struggle to find out the real stories, as they have depicted the deities and the humans with great perfections and clarity.

Question 9.
How does the poet console the lover?
Answer:
The poet says that he could never enjoy the kiss of his love, but need not worry, as she too will be there itself, always trying to compete her love.

Question 10.
Which is the sweetest song ?
Answer:
The song still unheard is the sweetest song.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(22) Read the following poem.

My country! In thy day of glory past
A beauteous halo circled round thy brow,
And worshipped as a deity thou wast.
Where is that glory, where that reverence now?
Thy eagle pinion is chained down at last,
And groveling in the lowly dust art thou:
Thy minstrel hath no wreath to weave for thee
Save the sad story of thy misery!
Well let me dive into the depths of time,
And bring from out the ages that have rolled
A few small fragments of those wrecks sublime,
Which human eyes may never more behold;
And let the guerdon of my labour be
My fallen country! One kind wish from thee!

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
In the olden days, the nation was considered as
(A) Mother
(B) Deity
(C) Sister
(D) All
Answer:
(B) Deity

Question 7.
The word ‘art’ in the 12th line of the poem means
(A) A piece of art
(B) Are
(C) An art effect
(D) Artistic
Answer:
(B) Are

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What does the poet want to convey through the poem?
Answer:
The poet wants to say that the care, respect and concern that the people had towards the nation had reduced over the time.

Question 9.
What does the poet want to do?
Answer:
He would like to go into the history and bring some glorious moments from there to keep them safe.

Question 10.
How is the present day condition of the nation described ?
Answer:
The eagle pinion of the country got chained.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(23) Read the following poem.

Stern Daughter of the Voice of God!
O Duty! if that name thou love
Who art a light to guide, a rod
To check the erring, and reprove;
Thou, who art victory and law
When empty terrors overawe;
From vain temptations dost set free;
And calm’st the weary strife of frail humanity!
There are who ask not if thine eye
Be on them; who, in love and truth,
Where no misgiving is, rely
Upon the genial sense of youth:
Glad Hearts! without reproach or blot;
Who do thy work, and know it not:
Oh! if through confidence misplaced
They fail, thy saving arms, dread Power! around them cast.
Serene will be our days and bright,
And happy will our nature be,
When love is an unerring light,
And joy its own security.
And they a blissful course may hold Even now, who, not unwisely bold,
Live in the spirit of this creed;
Yet seek thy firm support, according to their need.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The ‘Voice of God’ is …
(A) Consciousness
(B) Duty
(C) Character
(D) Discipline
Answer:
(A) Consciousness

Question 7.
Who are described as the ‘genial Hearts’?
(A) The people who follow duty regularly
(B) The people who need duty to guide them through
(C) The people who are never duty conscious
(D) The people who are duty conscious, but not regularly.
Answer:
(A) The people who follow duty regularly

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
How does the poet describe Duty?
Answer:
According to the poet, Duty is the daughter of Consciousness, His voice, who is a light that shows the right path and the stick that punishes when people do mistakes.

Question 9.
Why do some people seek the help of Duty as per their need?
Answer:
They are duty conscious and do their duties regularly. But still, they do depend on the reminders of duty, If they require duty to remind them of the same.

Question 10.
According to the poet, who is happy ?
Answer:
The one who follows duty as per his requirement is happy.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(24) Read the following poem.

O WHAT can ail thee, knight-at-arms,
Alone and palely loitering?
The sedge has wither’d from the lake,
And no birds sing.

“O what can ail thee, knight-at-arms!
So haggard and so woe-begone?
The squirrel’s granary is full,
And the harvest’s done.

“I see a lily on thy brow
With anguish moist and fever-dew.
And on thy cheeks a fading rose
Fast withereth too.”

“I met a lady in the meads,
Full beautiful – a faery’s child,
Her hair was long, her foot was light,
And her eyes were wild.

“I made a garland for her head,
And bracelets too, and fragrant zone;
She look’d at me as she did love,
And made sweet moan.
“I set her on my pacing steed,
And nothing else saw all day long;
For sidelong would she bend, and sing
A faery’s song.

“She found me roots of relish sweet,
And honey wild and manna-dew;
And sure in language strange she said,
‘I love thee true.’

“And there she lulled me asleep,
And there I dream’d – ah! woe betide!
The latest dream I ever dream’d
On the cold hill’s side.

“I saw pale kings and princes too,
Pale warriors, death-pale were they all:
They cried, ‘La belle Dame sans Merci
Hath thee in thrall!’

“I saw their starved lips in the gloam
With horrid warning gaped wide,
And I awoke and found me here
On the cold hill’s side.

“And this is why I sojourn here
Alone and palely loitering,
Though the sedge is wither’d from the lake,
And no birds sing.”

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The word’knight’stands for
(A) An honour
(B) A soldier
(C) A brave Soldier
(D) An Officer
Answer:
(C) A brave Soldier

Question 7.
The knight made … for her
(A) Garland
(B) The steed
(C) The roots
(D) The fruits
Answer:
(A) Garland

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What did the lady do for the knight?
Answer:
The lady sang beautiful songs, found roots and fruits for him. In the sweetest language he had ever heard, she had expressed her love to him too.

Question 9.
What did the knight find in the cave?
Answer:
In the cave the knight found many people trapped by the lady. They were all pale and weak, lost all their charm, and were awaiting death.

Question 10.
What did the poet realise about the lady ?
Answer:
She was a strange creature who was trapping people using her beauty.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(25) Read the following pern.

My long two-pointed ladder’s sticking through a tree
Toward heaven still,
And there’s a barrel that I didn’t fill
Beside it, and there may be one or two
Apples I didn’t pick upon some bough.
But I am done with apple-picking now.
Essence of winter sleep is on the night,
The scent of apples: I am drowsing off.
I cannot rub the strangeness from my sight
I got from looking through a pane of glass
I skimmed this morning from the drinking trough
And held against the world of hoary grass.
It melted, and I let it fall and break.
But I was well
Upon my way to sleep before it fell,
And I could tell
What form my dreaming was about to take.
Magnified apples appear and disappear,
Stem end and blossom end,
And every fleck of russet showing clear.
My instep arch not only keeps the ache,
It keeps the pressure of a ladder-round.
I feel the ladder sway as the boughs bend.
And I keep hearing from the cellar bin
The rumbling sound
Of load on load of apples coming in.
For I have had too much Of apple-picking:
I am overtired Of the great harvest I myself desired.
There were ten thousand thousand fruit to touch,
Cherish in hand, lift down, and not let fall.
For all
That struck the earth,
No matter if not bruised or spiked with stubble,
Went surely to the cider-apple heap As of no worth.
One can see what will trouble
This sleep of mine, whatever sleep it is.
Were he not gone,
The woodchuck could say whether it’s like his
Long sleep, as I describe its coming on,
Or just some human sleep.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
All the day, the man was busy ………..
(A) Plucking apples
(B) Clearing the place for harvesting
(C) Clearing the apples plucked
(D) Getting the ladders kept for harvest
Answer:
(A) Plucking apples

Question 7.
The apples harvested were divided into ………
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Answer:
(C) Three

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What was the strange sight the poet had in the morning?
Answer:
The vision of the earth, through the sheet of ice he got from the water container.

Question 9.
How are the apples sorted?
Answer:
The good ones are to be sent for the bigger market, whereas the fallen ones are to be sorted out based on the damages caused. The ones with cuts and damages are to be sent to the Cidar factory and the other ones to the local market.

Question 10.
Pickout the line which shows that he was really tired.
Answer:
My Instep arch not only keeps the ache,

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(26) Read the following poem.

Two roads diverged in a yellow wood,
And sorry I could not travel both
And be one traveller, long I stood
And looked down one as far as I could
To where it bent in the undergrowth;

Then took the other, as just as fair,
And having perhaps the better claim,
Because it was grassy and wanted wear;
Though as for that the passing there
Had worn them really about the same,

And both that morning equally lay
In leaves no step had trodden black.
Oh, I kept the first for another day!
Yet knowing how way leads on to way,
I doubted if I should ever come back.

I shall be telling this with a sigh
Somewhere ages and ages hence:
Two roads diverged in a wood, and I—
I took the one less traveled by,
And that has made all the difference.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The season mentioned in the poem is
(A) Autumn
(B) Spring
(C) Summer
(D) Winter
Answer:
(A) Autumn

Question 7.
The poet knows that…
(A) He cannot come back immediately
(B) He may take some time to come back
(C) He could never come back and change the path
(D) He could change the path as his wish
Answer:
(C) He could never come back and change the path

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What was the reason the poet chose the second path?
Answer:
It was not worn out, with full of grass and was not used by many people to travel.

Question 9.
How is the poem related with our lives?
Answer:
We too will have situations where we have to take unusual decisions and follow them.

Question 10.
Why is the poet unable to take a decision ?
Answer:
The poet is a single traveller and there are two roads to go.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(27) Read the following poem.

Whose woods these are I think I know.
His house is in the village though;
He will not see me stopping here
To watch his woods fill up with snow.

My little horse must think it queer
To stop without a farmhouse near
Between the woods and frozen lake
The darkest evening of the year.

He gives his harness bells a shake
To ask if there is some mistake.
The only other sound’s the sweep
Of easy wind and downy flake.

The woods are lovely, dark and deep,
But I have promises to keep,
And miles to go before I sleep,
And miles to go before I sleep.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The word ‘woods’ in the first line stand for
(A) Cut down trees
(B) Trees
(C) Forests
(D) Planks
Answer:
(C) Forests

Question 7.
The man could not see the poet stopping there because
(A) The man is a blind man
(B) The man is not there at present
(C) The man lives in the village and is not there
(D) The man has problem with his vision.
Answer:
(C) The man lives in the village and is not there

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
How does the poet come to know that the horse was confused?
Answer:
The horse had shaken the bell in its neck, to remind the poet of his onward journey.

Question 9.
What does the poet say as the reason that he has to move on?
Answer:
The poet was overwhelmed by the beauty of the valley, but he has so many things to do before he goes to bed that day. So, he has to move on.

Question 10.
What made the horse confused ?
Answer:
The poet has stopped him without a farmhouse there.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(28) Read the following poem.

If you can keep your head when all about you
Are losing theirs and blaming it on you,
If you can trust yourself when all men doubt you,
But make allowance for their doubting too;
If you can wait and not be tired by waiting,
Or being lied about, don’t deal in lies,
Or being hated, don’t give way to hating,
And yet don’t look too good, nor talk too wise:

If you can dream—and not make dreams your master;
If you can think—and not make thoughts your aim;
If you can meet with Triumph and Disaster
And treat those two impostors just the same;
If you can bear to hear the truth you’ve spoken
Twisted by knaves to make a trap for fools,
Or watch the things you gave your life to, broken,
And stoop and build ’em up with worn-out tools:

If you can make one heap of all your winnings
And risk it on one turn of pitch-and-toss,
And lose, and start again at your beginnings
And never breathe a word about your loss;
If you can force your heart and nerve and sinew
To serve your turn long after they are gone,
And so hold on when there is nothing in you
Except the Will which says to them: ‘Hold on!’
If you can talk with crowds and keep your virtue,
Or walk with Kings—nor lose the common touch,
If neither foes nor loving friends can hurt you,
If all men count with you, but none too much;
If you can fill the unforgiving minute
With sixty seconds’ worth of distance run,
Yours is the Earth and everything that’s in it,
And—which is more—you’ll be a Man, my son!

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
Another quality one requires to be great is
(A) To treat success greater than that of failure
(B) To treat success almost equal with that of failure.
(C) To accept failure as equal as success.
(D) To accept failure as equal as success and start again for success.
Answer:
(D) To accept failure as equal as success and start again for success.

Question 7.
Which among the following is not correct?
(A) To think of great achievements and aims
(B) To have the thoughts as the aim.
(C) To establish a sense of equality in success and failure
(D) To not to get carried away in the criticisms of others.
Answer:
(B) To have the thoughts as the aim.

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What are described as ‘imposters’? Why?
Answer:
The triumph and disaster are the impostors. They are said so, because the excess and lack of them could cause the same effects.

Question 9.
Why do you think the poet gives these pieces of advice to his son?
Answer:
The poet would like to have his son be a good man and human being. For that he should know what he should do and should not. So these pieces of advice were given to his son, to make him a stoic.

Question 10.
According to the poet, even when should one hold his head high ?
Answer:
even though all others are standing against him.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(29) Read the following poem.

A shape less recognisable each week,
A purpose more obscure.
I wonder who Will be the last, the very last, to seek
This place for what it was; one of the crew
That tap and jot and know what rood-lofts were?
Some ruin-bibber, randy for antique,
Or Christmas-addict, counting on a whiff
Of gown-and-bands and organ-pipes and myrrh?
Or will he be my representative,

Bored, uninformed, knowing the ghostly silt
Dispersed, yet tending to this cross of ground
Through suburb scrub because it held unspilt
So long and equably what since is found
Only in separation – marriage, and birth,
And death, and thoughts of these – for which was built
This special shell? For, though I’ve no idea
What this accoutred frowsty barn is worth,
It pleases me to stand in silence here;

A serious house on serious earth it is,
In whose blent air all our compulsions meet,
Are recognized, and robed as destinies.
And that much never can be obsolete,
Since someone will forever be surprising
A hunger in himself to be more serious,
And gravitating with it to this ground,
Which, he once heard, was proper to grow wise in,
If only that so many dead lie round.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The place mentioned in the poem as…..
(A) A place of Worship
(B) A place of Production
(C) A place of Merchandise
(D) A place of Consumption
Answer:
(A) A place of Worship

Question 7.
The purposes for which one may visit the church is…
(A) Birth
(B) Death
(C) Marriage
(D) All the three
Answer:
(D) All the three

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
How does the poet explain the church, in the conclusion?
Answer:
A serious place on the serious earth.

Question 9.
Who are the people whom the poet expects to come back to the church?
Answer:
One of the crew, some ruin-bibber, randy for antique, or a Christmas-addict are expected by the poet to visit the church.

Question 10.
What does the poet like to do there?
Answer:
The poet would like to stay there in silence for a while.

(30) Read the following poem.

I do not understand this child
Though we have lived together now
In the same house for years. I know
Nothing of him, so try to build
Up a relationship from how
He was when small. Yet have I killed
The seed I spent or sown it where
The land is his and none of mine?
We speak like strangers, there’s no sign
Of understanding in the air.
This child is built to my design
Yet what he loves I cannot share.
Silence surrounds us. I would have
Him prodigal, returning to
His father’s house, the home he knew,
Rather than see him make and move
His world. I would forgive him too,
Shaping from sorrow a new love.
Father and son, we both must live
On the same globe and the same land.
He speaks: I cannot understand
Myself, why anger grows from grief.
We each put out an empty hand,
Longing for something to forgive.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The way they behave and speak are compared to that of
(A) Strangers
(B) Official
(C) Acquaintance
(D) Friends
Answer:
(A) Strangers

Question 7.
The poet could not understand…
(A) Why there is such a silence around them.
(B) Why they could not converse mutually and understandingly
(C) Why he gets anger from the sorrow and pain he has about his son
(D) All the above.
Answer:
(D) All the above.

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What does the poet like, regarding his son?
Answer:
He would like his son to be prodigal and return to his home, rather than wandering.

Question 9.
Why does the poet struggle to establish a relationship with his son?
Answer:
Because he doesn’t know anything behaviour of the perplexed his son, to make him a story.

Question 10.
What is the poet speak about, in the poem ?
Answer:
The poet is talking about the perplexed behaviour of his teenaged son.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(31) Read the following poem.

The cardboard shows me how it was
When the two girl cousins went paddling
Each one holding one of my mother’s hands,
And she the big girl – some twelve years or so.
All three stood still to smile through their hair
At the uncle with the camera, A sweet face
My mother’s, that was before I was born
And the sea, which appears to have changed less
Washed their terribly transient feet.
Some twenty- thirty- years later
She’d laugh at the snapshot. “See Betty
And Dolly,” she’d say, “and look how they
Dressed us for the beach.” The sea holiday
was her past, mine is her laughter. Both wry
With the laboured ease of loss
Now she’s been dead nearly as many years
As that girl lived. And of this circumstance
There is nothing to say at all,
Its silence silences.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
Whose cousins are pictured in the photograph?
(A) Poet’s
(B) His Mother’s
(C) His cousins’
(D) Someone’s
Answer:
(B) His Mother’s

Question 7.
The thing that has not èhanged still is..
(A) The Mother
(B) The poet
(C) The Cousins
(D) The Ocean
Answer:
(D) The Ocean

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What does the photograph do?
Answer:
Evokes great memories of the poet’s mother.

Question 9.
How do we come to know that the photograph is very old?
Answer:
The photograph is described as a cardboard, and there are indications that the poet’s mother is no more.

Question 10.
How is the photograph important for the poet?
Answer:
The photograph brings him the sweet memories of her mother and the happiness she had while looking at the photograph.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(32) Read the following lines.

And who art thou? said
I to the soft-falling shower,
Which, strange to tell, gave me an answer, as here translated:
I am the Poem of Earth, said the voice of the rain,
Eternal I rise impalpable out of the land and the bottomless sea,
Upward to heaven, whence, vaguely form’d, altogether changed, and
yet the same,
I descend to lave the droughts, atomies, dust-layers of the globe,
And all that in them without me were seeds only, latent, unborn;
And forever, by day and night, I give back life to my own origin,
and make pure and beautify it;
(For song, issuing from its birth-place, after fulfilment, wandering,
Reck’d or unreck’d, duly with love returns.)

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The word ‘impalpable’ means
(A) Unable to be touched
(B) Unable to be modified
(C) Unable to be changed
(D) Unable to be made
Answer:
(A) Unable to be touched

Question 7.
The atomies and dust layer stand for _______
(A) The rise of water vapour
(B) The climatic conditions
(C) The hot summers
(D) The component of cloud.
Answer:
(C) The hot summers

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
Why are the clouds described as ‘vaguely formed’ ?
Answer:
Because the clouds are in intermediate stage.

Question 9.
Why does the poet says that ‘strange to tell’?
Answer:
Because it is strange to believe that the rain has said something to him, thdt he could understand.

Question 10.
What is the scientific principle explained in the poem?
Answer:
The Water Cycle.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(33) Read the following poem.

And now we will count to twelve
and we will all keep still.
For once on the face of the earth
let’s not speak in any language,
let’s stop for one second,
and not move our arms so much.
It would be an exotic moment
without rush, without engines,
we would all be together
in a sudden strangeness.
Fisherman in the cold sea
would not harm whales
and the man gathering salt
would not look at his hurt hands.
Those who prepare green wars,
wars with gas, wars with fire,
victory with no survivors,
would put on clean clothes
and walk about with their brothers
in the shade, doing nothing.
What I want should not be confused
with total inactivity.
Life is what it is about,
I want no truck with death.
If we were not so single-minded
about keeping our lives moving,
and for once could do nothing,
perhaps a huge silence
might interrupt this sadness
of never understanding ourselves
and of threatening ourselves with death.
Perhaps the earth can teach us
as when everything seems dead
and later proves to be alive.
Now I’ll count up to twelve,
and you keep quiet and I will go.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The poet insists the people
(A) Not to speak for a moment
(B) Not to do any work
(C) Not to make any sound
(D) All the above
Answer:
(D) All the above

Question 7.
According to the poet,
(A) Even in inactivity, there is still life.
(B) Even in wars and other activities, there is loss of life
(C) The earth has the power to contain life in it
(D) Could not contain any life in it.
Answer:
(C) The earth has the power to contain life in it

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
What is the thing that the poet is trying to explain in the poem?
Answer:
The importance of stopping all kinds of violence, and the need for the humanity to think about the need of leading a life with peace.

Question 9.
What does the poet expects the people to understand from the silence thus created?
Answer:
The poet expects the people to realise that there is life in stillness also, and the Earth also may get a chance to teach the people regarding the importance of emerging from the ashes.

Question 10.
What should the people who are preparing for wars think about ?
Answer:
A new world without any survivors.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(34) Read the following poem. (March 2018)

WHAT’S THE LIFE OF A MAN
As I was walking one morning with ease
Viewing the leaves that had fell from the trees.
All in full motion appearing to be
Those that had withered, they fell from the tree.

If you had seen the leaves just a few days ago
How beautiful and bright they did all seem to grow,
A frost came upon them and withered theym all
A storm came upon them and down they did fall.

What’s the life of a man any more than a leaf
A man has his seasons so why should he grieve.
For although through this life we appear fine and gay
Like a leaf we must wither and soon fade away.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The leaves have withered because
(A) the frost has withered them
(B) they have lost their beauty
(C) the storm has withered them
(D) the man has withered them
Answer:
(A) the frost has withered them

Question 7.
Like the bright and beautiful leaf, man is
(A) pale and dull in his old age
(B) pale and happy in his youth
(C) fine and gay in his youth
(D) gay and ill in his old age
Answer:
(C) fine and gay in his youth

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
How were the leaves a few days ago ?
Answer:
A few days ago, the leaves were fully grown, beautiful and bright.

Question 9.
What is the comparison put forward in the poem ?
Answer:
The comparison put forward in the poem is between the life of a man and a leaf. It is made clear that the life of a man is not more than of a leaf’ A leaf as well as a man is mortal.

Question 10.
We can relate the four seasons Spring, Summer, Autumn and Winter to man’s life. How?
Answer:
We can relate the four seasons, Spring, Summer, Autumn and Winter to man’s life since man has four stages, viz, childhood, adolescence, adulthood and old age. Man can perish Just like a leaf which also withers and fades away.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

(35) Read the following poem. (June 2018)

I’m an angel disguise with dimpled cheeks and laughing eyes.
Don’t you want me ? I am your baby.
I have come as a gift from heaven’s hall in your heart.
Oh, hear my call Mother keep me I am your baby,
Oh Mother, let me live, don’t take away my life. Mother let me live
You know it isn’t right to stop me being born, I want to be yours
Oh Mother, let me live, don’t take away my life. Mother let me live.
I want to live my life.
Mother, you will see when you look at me and hold me in your arms.
You’ll fall in love with me,
Like a flower in your care, I am a gift to pure and fair.
Don’t you want me ? I am your baby.
My little life please don’t abort, let me live, don’t cut me short.
Mother, keep me I am your baby.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 6.
The poem is a cry of
(A) a girl child
(B) an angel
(C) an unborn baby girl
(D) a daughter
Answer:
(C) an unborn baby girl

Question 7.
The word ‘abort’ in the poem means
(A) to kill a baby
(B) to stop the development of an unborn baby
(C) to operate on the baby
(D) to operate on the mother
Answer:
(B) to stop the development of an unborn baby

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Poems Question Number 6 to 10

Answer the following questions in one or two sentences.

Question 8.
Why is the speaker in danger ?
Answer:.
The speaker is in danger because the people are not letting her to live.

Question 9.
When will the mother fall in love ?
Answer:
The mother will fall in love when she looks at her child and holds the baby in her arms.

Question 10.
Do you like the poem ? Give reasons.
Answer:
Yes. Because it depicts the burning problem gender discrimination.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 1 to 5

These TS 10th Class English Important Questions Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 1 to 5 will help the students to improve their time and approach.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 1 to 5

Section – A : Reading Comprehension

(1) Read the following passage.

It was Mrs. Packletide’s pleasure and intention that she should shoot a tiger. Not that the lust to kill that had suddenly descended on her, or that she felt that she would leave India safer and more wholesome than she had found it, with one fraction less of wild beast per million of inhabitants. The compelling motive for her sudden deviation towards the footsteps of Nimrod was the fact that Loona Bimberton had recently been carried eleven miles in an aeroplane by an Algerian aviator, and talked of nothing else; only a personally procured tiger-skin and a heavy harvest of press photographs could successfully counter that sort of thing.

Mrs. Packletide had already arranged in her mind the lunch she would give at her house in Curzon Street, ostensibly in Loona Bimberton’s honour, with a tiger-skin rug occupying most of the foreground and all of the conversation. She had also already designed in her mind the tiger-claw brooch that she was going to give Loona Bimberton on her next birthday. In a world that is supposed to be chiefly swayed by hunger and by love Mrs. Packletide was an exception; her movements and motives were largely governed by dislike of Loona Bimberton.

Circumstances proved propitious. Mrs. Packletide had offered a thousand rupees for the opportunity of shooting a tiger without overmuch risk or exertion, and it so happened that a neighbouring village could boast of being the favoured rendezvous of an animal of respectable antecedents, which had been driven by the increasing infirmities of age to abandon game – killing and confine its appetite to the smaller domestic animals.

The prospect of earning the thousand rupees had stimulated the sporting and commercial instinct of the villagers; children were posted night and day on the outskirts of the local jungle to head the tiger back in the unlikely event of his attempting to roam away to fresh hunting – grounds, and the cheaper kinds of goats were left about with elaborate carelessness to keep him satisfied with his present quarters. The one great anxiety was lest he should die of old age before the date appointed for the memsahib’s shoot. Mothers carrying their babies home through the jungle after the day’s work in the fields hushed their singing lest they might curtail the restful sleep of the venerable herd-robber.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices. Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
What do you understand by the expression, “that sort of thing” ?
(A) going towards Nimrod
(B) Loona Bimberton’s becoming familiar
(C) the compelling motive
(D) Loona Bimberton’s meeting an Algerian aviator
Answer:
(B) Loona Bimberton’s becoming familiar

Question 2.
Which of the following words given in the passage means, “favourable” ?
(A) ostensibly
(B) sway
(C) venerable
(D) propitious
Answer:
(D) propitious

Question 3.
Name the figure of speech you find in the expression, “elaborate careless¬ness”.
(A) Hyperbole
(B) Simile
(C) Oxymoron
(D) Metaphor
Answer:
(C) Oxymoron

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
Do you think Mrs. Packletide wished to kill tiger ?
Answer:
Mrs. Packletide wished to kill a tiger to counter the fame of Loona Biraberton who had flown in an aeroplane. She couldn’t bear her becoming familiar. She thought a tiger hunt would put her above her. Hence she decided to hunt a tiger.

Question 5.
How did the villagers help Mrs. Packletide shoot the tiger ?
Answer:
The villagers arranged an old tiger for her to hunt. They posted the-children to see that the tiger didn’t attempt to roam away to fresh hunting – grounds. The women crossing the forest were asked not to sing loudly so that the tiger was not disturbed in his sleep.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(2) Read the following passage.

Working 12 to 18 hours a day was not uncommon for scientists at the rocket launching station, Thuinba. A group of such scientists was frustrated due to the work pressure and meeting their boss’ demands; however, they were loyal to him.

One day, a scientist gathered enough courage to go up to his boss and say, “Sir, I have promised my children that I will take them to the exhibition this evening. Therefore, I have to leave the office at 5.30 pm. Can I leave early today, Sir?”

His boss replied, “Alright You may leave early today.”

The scientist was happy for having received the permission and went on to continue his work. He stayed on to work after lunch, and, as always, got so engrossed in his work, that he peered at his watch only when he thought he was done. Unfortunately, it was past 08:15 pm.

With a jolt, he remembered his promise to his children. He looked for his boss who was not in his office. Having told him just that morning, he wrapped up work and hurried home.
As he drove home, he felt very guilty for having let his children down. When he reached, the children were not at home. His wife was busy reading. He felt that initiating any conversation with her would only add fuel to fire, so he stayed quiet.

Looking up at him, his wife asked, “Do you want something hot to drink or have dinner right away?”,
The man could only ask, “Where are the children?”
His wife said, “Don’t you know? Your boss came here at 5.15 pm and took the children to the exhibition you had promised to take them to.”

He was surprised, but, it did not take him too long to guess what had happened. The boss who granted him permission had observed him working very seriously well past 5.00 pm. He must have thought that the scientist would not leave the work half done, but if he has promised his children a visit to the exhibition, then they deserve it. So, he took the lead in taking them to the exhibition himself.

The boss does not have to do it every time. But once it is done, loyalty established. No wonder, all scientists at Thumba continue to work under this boss in spite of the great pressure.
This boss was none other than Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The scientist was happy because
(A) he received permission from his boss to leave early.
(B) he invented a new thing.
(C) he himself took his children to the exhibition.
(D) he was leaving office immediately after their lunch.
Answer:
(A) he received permission from his boss to leave early.

Question 2.
When the scientist went home, he felt very guilty because
(A) he didn’t complete his office work.
(B) his boss didn’t like him.
(C) he broke his promise.
(D) his wife scolded him.
Answer:
(C) he broke his promise.

Question 3.
“He looked for his boss who was not in his office.” Where do you think his boss had gone
(A) He went home.
(B) He took the scientist’s children to the exhibition.
(C) He went to the club.
(D) He went to the nearby town.
Answer:
(B) He took the scientist’s children to the exhibition.

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
Why was the group of scientists frustrated ?
Answer:
The scientists had to work for 12 to 18 hours a day. They were frustrated due to the work pressure and meeting their boss demands.

Question 5.
Why does the writer say, ” Conversation with her would only add fuel to fire.” ?
Answer:
The scientist had promised that he would take his children to the exhibition that day. He even took the permission from his boss but later forgot about It as he got engrossed in his work. Hence, he drove home and found that his children were not at home and his wife was busy reading. He knew that initiating any conversation with her would make her angrier. Add fuel to fire” is used to suggest that the scientist’s wife was angry and she would be angrier if he had tried to talk with her.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(3) Read the following passage.

Speech is a great blessing but it can also be a great curse, for while it helps us to make our intentions and desires known to our friends; it can also, if we use it carelessly, make our attitude completely misunderstood. A slip of the tongue, the use of an unusual word, and so on, may create an enemy where we had hoped to win a friend. Again, different classes of people use different vocabularies, and the ordinary speech of an educated man may strike an uneducated listener as pompous.

Unwittingly, we may use a word which bears a different meaning to our listener from what it does to men of our own class. Thus speech is not a gift to use lightly without thought, but one which demands careful handling. Only a fool will express himself alike to all kinds and conditions of men.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
According to the passage, speech is a blessing because
(A) it makes our attitude completely misunderstood.
(B) it helps us to reveal our intentions and desires.
(C) it hurts others.
(D) it helps us to express ourselves alike to all.
Answer:
(B) it helps us to reveal our intentions and desires.

Question 2.
The expression ‘slip of tongue’ means
(A) Something said carefully.
(B) Something said to make ourselves pompous.
(C) Something said without giving proper thought.
(D) Something misunderstood.
Answer:
(C) Something said without giving proper thought.

Question 3.
According to the passage, one can win a friend by
(A) avoiding ambiguity in speech.
(B) using high vocabulary.
(C) using irony in speech.
(D) giving scope to misunderstanding.
Answer:
(A) avoiding ambiguity in speech.

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
‘Speech can also be a curse’. Give examples to this.
Answer:
If we use the speech carelessly, it makes our attitude completely misunderstood. A slip of the tongue may create an enemy.

Question 5.
Why do we change the style of our language according to the context?
Answer:
We should speak carefully, Different classes of people understand the speech differently. A speech demands careful handling. So we should change the style of our language according to the context.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(4) Read the following passage.

There was once a town in the heart of America where all life seemed to live in harmony with its surroundings … Even in winter the road-sides were places of beauty, where countless birds came to feed on the berries and on the seed heads of the dried weeds rising above the snow.

Then a strange blight crept over the area and everything began to change. Some evil spell had settled on the community: mysterious maladies swept the flocks of chickens; the cattle and sheep sickened and died. Everywhere was a shadow of death…. There had been several sudden and unexplained deaths, not only among adults but even among children, who would be stricken suddenly while at play and die within a few hours.

There was a strange stillness… The birds, for example where had they gone? Many people spoke of them, puzzled and disturbed. The feeding stations in the backyards were deserted…It was a spring without voices; … only silence lay over the fields and woods and marsh.

On the farms the hens brooded, but no chicks hatched. .. The apple trees were coming into bloom but no bees droned among the blossoms, so there was no pollination and there would be no fruit.

The roadsides, once so attractive, were now lined with browned and withered vegetation as though swept by fire. These, too, were silent, deserted by all living things. Even the streams were now lifeless. Anglers no longer visited them, for all the fish had died.

In the gutters under the eaves and between the shingles of the roofs, a white granular powder still showed a few patches; some weeks before it had fallen like snow upon the roofs and the lawns, the fields and streams.
No witchcraft, no enemy action had silenced the rebirth of new life in this stricken world. The people had done it themselves.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
What is the passage about?
(A) a town in the heart of America
(B) the unexplainable deaths of birds, animals and people
(C) total environmental disaster caused by man
(D) the deserted feeding stations in the backyard
Answer:
(C) total environmental disaster caused by man

Question 2.
Why were the apple trees not bearing fruit?
(A) As there was no water.
(B) As there were no trees.
(C) As there was no pollination.
(D) As there were no people to nurture.
Answer:
(C) As there was no pollination.

Question 3.
The writer says that it was a spring without voices, because
(A) there were no bees and birds.
(B) there were no trees.
(C) fire destroyed the vegetation.
(D) there were no living beings.
Answer:
(D) there were no living beings.

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
Why does the writer say that there was a shadow of death?
Answer:
The writer says that there was a shadow of death as mysterious maladies swept the blocks of chickens. The cattle and sheep sickened and died. There had been several sudden and unexplained deaths of both adults and children.

Question 5.
What, according to you, is the white granular powder?
Answer:
The white granular powder is nothing but the harmful chemical remains, from a nuclear station.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(5) Read the following passage.

Mountaineering is now looked upon as the king of sports. But men have lived amongst the mountains since pre-historic times and in some parts of the world, as in the Andes and Himalayas, difficult mountain journeys have inevitably been a part of their everyday life. However, some of the peaks were easily accessible from most of the cities of Europe. It is quite interesting that while modern mountaineers prefer difficult routes for the greater enjoyment of sport, the early climbers looked for the easiest ones, for the summit was the prize they all set their eyes.
In the risky sport of mountaineering the element of competition between either individuals or teams is totally absent. Rather one can say that the competition is between the team and the peaks themselves. The individuals making up a party must climb together as a team, for they depend upon one another for their safety.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
People living in the Andes and Himalayas made mountain journeys:
(A) as they lived in pre-historic time.
(B) because of the challenge offered by the difficult journey.
(C) as it was a kind of sport.
(D) Because it was a part of their day-to-day life.
Answer:
(D) Because it was a part of their day-to-day life.

Question 2.
Mountaineers should climb as a team because :
(A) there is no competition among them.
(B) they have to rely on each other for safety.
(C) the height is too much for one individual.
(D) they enjoy as a team.
Answer:
(B) they have to rely on each other for safety.

Question 3.
Mountaineering is different from other sports because the competition is be-tween :
(A) teams.
(B) individuals
(C) teams and individuals.
(D) teams and peaks.
Answer:
(D) teams and peaks.

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
According to the author, what is quite interesting ?
Answer:
According to the author, it is quite interesting that while modern mountaineers prefer difficult routes for the greater enjoyment of sport, the early climbers looked for the easiest ones, for the summit was the prize they all set their eyes.

Question 5.
Why do you think mountaineering is one of the risky sports ?
Answer:
The risks of climate changes, glaciers, crevasses, rockfall, avalanches, equipment failure, fatigue etc. are there in mountaineering. Hence, it is a risky sport.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(6) Read the following passage.

“What’s your name ?” the teacher at the Cleveland School asked the nine-year old new comer.
“J.C. Owens, madam” answered the black boy in a polite tone.
The teacher misheard the initials, and “Sit down, Jesse”.
“My name has been changed. Should I protest ? No, let me accept this name. Owens thought so and he came to be called Jesse Owens thereafter.

But he actually changed the way others looked at black people. Winning four gold medals at the 1936 Olympics, he shattered the view of many that black people were inferior by birth.

Jesse, the grandson of a slave, was born in Alabama in 1913. Gradually he came to know that the world around him was very strange. He was not served with food at some hotels. While boarding a bus, he was asked to enter by the back door. He was not allowed to use the elevators, which white people used.

He had either to go up the stairs or use the elevator meant for goods. Great people refused to shake hands with him. Why did others treat him in such a cruelly different way ? Not because he had any infection, not because he was dirty, but because he was black! Many black children received similar humiliation.

But there was a different man at school – Charles Riley. At the gymnasium, he saw Jesse’s talent in athletics. He took special care of Jesse who was very poor. He understood the plight of the boy who had to pick 100 pounds of cotton at the age of seven. Now at school, poverty forced him to do some job or the other after school hours. So the coach offered to train this poor boy separately in the morning hours. In course of time, his country recognized Jesse as the best athlete among high school students. Jesse felt indebted to Riley for life.

Later Ownes attended the Ohio State University and his success at athletics continued here too. People were amazed to see him equal the world records. Yet he was a black man and while travelling he had to stay at the ‘Black-only’ hotels.

As a young man of 22 he was one of the members that represented his country at Olympics. In 1936, the Olympics were being held in Germany, when Adolf Hitler was the head of the state. He too believed in racism. He thought that his Germans belonged to the Aryan race, which was the best in the world. All the others were inferior persons in his eyes.

Jesse never believed in the superiority or inferiority of any race. Undaunted, he wanted to do his best. He saw a tall German young man with blue eyes performing very well at the qualifying jumps. Jesse Owens tried to give a better performance. But he made silly mistakes twice. Once he casually ran into the pit and the judges considered it as his first attempt. In the next one he fouled. There was only one attempt left. If he failed now, he would lose the chance of achieving a medal at the long jump event. He was worried.

Now, there was a hand on his shoulder. He turned back to face the tall German with friendly blue eyes.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
Great people refused to shake hands with him because
(A) he was dirty.
(B) he suffered from leprosy.
(C) he had some infection.
(D) he was black.
Answer:
(D) he was black.

Question 2.
Owens shattered the view of many that black people were inferior by birth by
(A) changing his name.
(B) winning gold medals.
(C) ioininq the Cleveland school.
(D) protesting against his new name.
Answer:
(B) winning gold medals.

Question 3.
The coach offered to train Owens separately in the morning hours because
(A) the boy had to do some job or the other after school hours.
(B) the boy was the coach’s relative.
(C) the boy was not at all interested to undergo training after school hours.
(D) the boy was the coach’s friend’s son.
Answer:
(A) the boy had to do some job or the other after school hours.

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
“My name has been changed “. Why was his name changed ? Did he accept it? What was his real name ? What was his changed name ?
Answer:
When Owens’ teacher asked him about his name, he answered ‘J.C. Owens’. ‘But the teacher misheard as ‘Jesse Owens’. Thus his name was changed. He accepted it. His real name was J.C.Owens and Jesse Owens was his changed name.

Question 5.
Why did the writer say,”But he actually changed the way others looked at black people”?
Answer:
At his times it was considered that black people were inferior by birth. The white didn’t treat the black as their equals. But Jesse Owens changed the way others looked at black people by winning four gold medals at the 1936 Olympics.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(7) Read the following passage.

The flu is the common name for influenza. The flu is a respiratory sickness. The flu can be mild. The flu can be severe. Sometimes the flu can even cause death. Each year in the U.S., up to 60 million people get the flu. Each year in the U.S., about 200,000 people go to the hospital because of the flu. Each year in the U.S., about 36,000 people die from problems related to the flu.

The flu is caused by a virus. A virus is a germ. People can spread the virus. The virus can live in tiny drops of liquid. If you have the virus, you can spread it by sneezing or coughing. You can get the virus by touching something that has the virus on it and then touching your eyes, nose, or mouth.

A flu shot can prevent the flu. The nasal flu mist can also prevent the flu. The shot and the nose spray are vaccines. Talk to your doctor about getting a vaccine. You can get information about the flu shot and nasal spray from your local health department.

If you get the flu, you might get a headache. You might have a fever. You might have a cough and a runny nose. You might have a sore throat. You might feel very tired. Your body might hurt all over. Some people have diarrhoea and vomiting.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
Influenza is an illness which affects
(A) Intestine
(B) Lungs
(C) Kidney
(D) Heart
Answer:
(B) Lungs

Question 2.
Flu can be controlled by
(A) Vaccine
(B) Surgery
(C) Transplantation
(D) Medicine
Answer:
(A) Vaccine

Question 3.
Flu is a
(A) Epidemic
(B) Common
(C) Dangerous
(D) Serious
Answer:
(C) Dangerous

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
What are the major symptoms of flu?
Answer:
Headache, fever, sore throat, cough and a runny nose are the common symptoms of flu. People might feel very tired and body might hurt all over. Some people have diarrhoea and vomiting.

Question 5.
How can flu be controlled?
Answer:
By using the vaccines like flu shot and a nasal spray called the nasal flu mist.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(8) Read the following passage.

New Delhi : Atithi Devo Bhavah. To make visitors to the city feel welcome during the Commonwealth Games, India Tourism Development Corporatdon (ITDC) is set to train taxi and auto drivers, CISF personnel posted at monuments, dhaba owners, hotel staff, etc. Participants will be taught English as well as courtesy and ways to communicate with tourists.

At present, there is a shortage of trained guides in the city and with Common-wealth Games drawing close, the issue has to be addressed promptly.

With hundreds of historical sites to visit and each monument boasting its own unique history, foreign nationals are often left to fend for themselves and depend on tourist books and brochures for information. Language is another problem. Quite a contrast to facilities offered in tourist sites in western countries, where trained guides-proficient in several languages-are easily available to aid visitors apart from group-guided trips at regular intervals.

Although the Archeological Survey of India (ASI) plans to introduce audio guide services in five languages at some world heritage sites our experts point that not a single monument or tourist place in the city has an interpretation centre where tourists can come and get all information pertaining to a particular site.

ASI is also in the process of bringing out more brochures and guides for foreign visitors in the city. Experts say such facilities are crucial if the government wants to promote Delhi as a ‘heritage city’. Various agencies like INTACH are also involved in the plans.

Under ITDC’s plans, etiquette training for the Games will also be provided to residents who offer rooms to foreigners under Delhi government’s bed and breakfast scheme. “House-owners will be given hospitality related training and a brief of Indian tourism scenario. Most visitors generally question their hosts on information about the city so they will be provided information on the golden triangle-Delhi, Agra and Jaipur as well as where tourists should go visiting in Delhi,” said an official.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The things to be provided to residents who offer rooms to foreigners under ITDC’s plan are
(A) better tourist guides and interpretation centres.
(B) visits to the golden triangle cities.
(C) etiquette training, hospitality treatment.
(D) comfortable stay, friendly and hospitable treatment
Answer:
(C) etiquette training, hospitality treatment.

Question 2.
The initiatives to be taken up by the India Tourism Development Corporation to make the visitors feel welcome during the Commonwealth Games are
(A) arranging audio cassettes and tapes on tourism.
(B) promoting the sale of tourist books and brochures.
(C) constructing more bed and breakfast homes.
(D) training of drivers, CISF personnel, dhaba owners and hotel staff.
Answer:
(D) training of drivers, CISF personnel, dhaba owners and hotel staff.

Question 3.
The type of text you have read just now is
(A) a report
(B) a biographical sketch.
(C) an autobiographical sketch
(D) a narrative.
Answer:
(A) a report

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
What are the problems faced by the foreigners during their visit to our country ?
Answer:
There is a shortage of trained guides in our country. The foreigners had to depend on tourist books and brochures for information. Language is another problem for them.

Question 5.
“…………….. the issue has to be addressed promptly.” What is the issue ? Why has it to be addresser! promptly ?
Answer:
The issue is the shortage of trained guides in New Delhi. It has to be addressed promptly as Common
Wealth Games are drawing close.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(9) Read the following passage.

Water is the most commonly used liquid in the world. Lakes, Rivers, Ponds, Canals, Seas and Oceans contain water. The water in rivers, pends, and canals is fresh water. The water in the seas oceans is salt water.
About 70% of the world is covered by water. About 97% of water in the world is salt water. Only 3% of the world’s water is fresh water. Fresh water is not salty.

People usually think of water as a liquid. But water freezes to form a solid. The solid is called ice. And water boils to form a gas. The gas is called steam or vapour.
Clouds are made of water. Water falls from clouds as rain. When it is very cold, water falls as snow. Sometimes waterfalls as sleet. Sleet is partly water and partly ice. Sometimes waterfalls as hail. Hail is ice. All these are known as Precipitation.

Human beings, Animals, Insects and Plants need water to live. All living things in the world need water to live.
People all over the world need to drink clean water to live. About one billion people in the world do not have clean drinking water. The most important cause of human death in the world is drinking water that is unsanitary.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The amount of salt water in the world is
(A) 70%
(B) 3 %
(C) 97%
(D) 17%
Answer:
(C) 97%

Question 2.
________ is partly water and partly ice.
(A) Mist
(B) Sleet
(C) Waterfall
(D) Hail
Answer:
(B) Sleet

Question 3.
When water boils, it forms ________
(A) Ice
(B) Cloud
(C) Hail
(D) Vapour
Answer:
(D) Vapour

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Precipitation?
Answer:
The different ways by which the cloud is converted into different forms of water is known as precipitation.

Question 5.
Write about the distribution of water.
Answer:
About 70% of the world is covered by water. About 97% of water in the world is salt water. Only 3% of the world’s water is fresh water. Fresh water is not salty.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(10) Read the following passage.

It was the strangest murder trial I ever attended. They named it the Peckham murder in the headlines, though Northwood Street, where the old woman was found bat-tered to death, was not strictly speaking in Peckham. This was not one of those cases of circumstantial evidence, in which you feel the jurymen’s anxiety – because mistakes have been made – like domes of silence muting the court. No, this murderer was all but found with the body; no one present when the Crown Counsel outlined his case believed that the man in the dock stood any chance at all.

He was a heavy stout man with bulging bloodshot eyes. All his muscles seemed to be in his thighs. Yes, an ugly customer, one you wouldn’t forget in a hurry – and that was an important point because the Crown proposed to call four witnesses who hadn’t forgotten him, who had seen:him hurrying away from the little red villa in Northwood Street. The clock had just struck two in the morning.

Salmon in 15 Northwood Street had been unable to sleep; she heard a door click shut and thought it was her own gate. So she went to the window and saw Adams (that was his name) on the steps of Mrs. Parker’s house. He had just oixte out and he was wearing gloves. He had a hammer in his hand and she saw him drop it into the laurel bushes by the front gate. But before he moved away, he had looked up at her window.

The fatal instinct that tells a man when he is watched exposed him in the light of a street-lamp to her gaze – his eyes suffused with horrifying and brutal fear, like an animal’s when you raise a whip. I talked afterwards to Mrs. Salmon, who naturally after the astonishing verdict went in fear herself. As I imagine did all the witnesses – Henry Mac Dougall, who had been driving home from Bendfleet late and nearly ran Adams down at the corner of Northwood Street Adams was walking in the middle of the road looking dazed.

And old Mr. Wheeler, who lived next door to Mrs. Parker, at No. 12, and was wakened by a noise – like a chair falling through the thin-as-paper villa wall, and got up and looked out of the window, just as Mrs. Salmon had done, saw Adam’s back and, as he turned, those bulging eyes. In Laurel Avenue he had been seen by yet another witness – his luck was badly out; he might as well have committed the crime in broad daylight.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
(A) Northwood street murder case.
(B) Peckham robbery case.
(C) Peckham murder case.
(D) Old woman murder case.
Answer:
(C) Peckham murder case.

Question 2.
What do we understand by the sentence “All muscles seemed to be in his thighs.”
(A) All muscles in the body were actually brought to the thighs.
(B) The thighs were very strong and muscular.
(C) There were no muscles elsewhere in the body.
(D) His muscles and bones were strong.
Answer:
(B) The thighs were very strong and muscular.

Question 3.
Who does the word ‘he’ refer to in the sentence “He was a heavy stout man with bulging blood shot eyes.”
(A) The man standing in the yard
(B) The man in the prison
(C) Mr. Parker
(D) The man standing in the dock
Answer:
(D) The man standing in the dock

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
Why is the case strange ?
Answer:
The name of the case is Peckham Murder Case, though the place of murder was not a part of Peckham. The case has every evidence to prove that the accused was the culprit.

Question 5.
How many witnesses did the Crown require ? Why did he need them ?
Answer:
The Crown proposed to call four witnesses who had seen the culprit hurriedly walking away. None of them forgot the accused.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(11) Read the following passage.

Sang Nila Utama was a prince of Sumatra. Wanting to find a suitable place for a new’city, he decided to visit the islands off the coast of Sumatra. He set sail from Sumatra in a number of ships with his men. While hunting on an island, he climbed to the top of a large rock and spotted a beautiful island. When told it was called Temasek, he decided to visit it.

However, when his ship was out at sea, a great storm blew up and the ship was tossed about in the huge waves. The ship began to take water and started to sink. Even though the crew threw out all the things onboard, the ship kept on sinking. It was only when Sang Nila Utama threw his crown into the sea did the storm stop and they reached Temasek safely.

On the island, he saw a majestic animal that moved with great speed as it disappeared into the jungle. When told that it was a lion, he thought that it was a good sign about the island and decided to name it Singapura; ‘Singa’ means lion and ‘pura means city. And that was how Singapore got its name.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
Sang Nila Utama was a
(A) prince of Singapura
(B) prince of Sumatra.
(C) sailor
(D) hunter.
Answer:
(B) prince of Sumatra.

Question 2.
He set sail with his men because he wanted to
(A) hunt for lions
(B) look for islands.
(C) create a new city
(D) look for Temasek.
Answer:
(C) create a new city

Question 3.
The ship started sinking when
(A) the crew threw overboard things on the ship
(B) the storm started.
(C) the ship started taking in water.
(D) Sang Nila Utama threw his crown into the sea.
Answer:
(C) the ship started taking in water.

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
Why did he decide to name the island Singapura?
Answer:
He decided to name the island Singapura because he thought that the lion was a good sign and the lion is called ‘Singa’ in their language.

Question 5.
What happened when Sang Nila Utama threw his crown into the sea ?
Answer:
The storm stopped.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(12) Read the following pasage.

There are many ways of dividing human beings into groups and classes. One possible way would be to have two classes: the drifters, who have little will of their own and allow themselves to be carried hither and thither like straw on the surface of the waters, and those who try to play an effective role in life and to influence their surroundings. For the latter class, knowledge and understanding are essential, for effective action can only be based on these.

Mere goodwill or pious hopes are not enough. When there is a natural calamity or an epidemic or a failure of the rains, or almost any other misfortune, we often see, not only in India but in Europe also, people praying for relief. If the prayer soothes them and gives them confidence and courage, it is a good thing, and no one need object to it. But the idea that prayer will stop an epidemic is giving place to the scientific notion that the root-causes of disease should be wiped out by sanitation and other means.

When there is a breakdown in the machinery of a factory or there is a puncture in the tyre of a car,- who has heard of people sitting down and just hoping or piously wishing, or even praying that the machine might right itself or the puncture mend itself ? They set to work and mend the machinery or the tyre, and soon the machinery is functioning again or the car running smoothly along the road.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
Human beings are divided into
(A) drifters
(B) who are effective and influence the surroundings
(C) both A & B
(D) non of the above
Answer:
(C) both A & B

Question 2.
For the effective action
(A) good will is enough
(B) pious hopes are enough
(C) both good will and pious hopes are enough
(D) Mere good will and pious hopes are not enough
Answer:
(C) both good will and pious hopes are enough

Question 3.
When the machine breaks down
(A) We should pray to the God
(B) We should set to work
(C) We should sit and hope for good
(D) We should leave it to the God
Answer:
(C) We should sit and hope for good

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
Who are drifters ?
Answer:
Drifters are people who have little will of their own and allow themselves to be carried by the fate.

Question 5.
What should we do when machine fails ?
Answer:
We should set to work and mend the machinery.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(13) Read the following passage.

“What is the world like ?” Hoppy asked everyone he met. “It’s a big flat place,” said his mother. “No, it’s square,” said his father. Nobody could agree.
One evening, Hoppy saw Owl sitting in a tree. He called out, “Owl, what is the world like?” Owl immediately said. “Round.”

Happy believed him but wanted to see it for himself. As soon as he woke up, he said farewell to his family and left. He came to the edge of the woods and saw a fence. It was surrounding a vegetable garden. Hoppy looked round the garden and saw a large round pumpkin. “The world!” he exclaimed, and hopped over to the pumpkin.
Hoppy patted the pumpkin. “The world is hard,” he thought. Then he scrambled to the top of the pumpkin and looked all around, then slid down the other side.

Just then Mr Brown came home and saw Hoppy near his pumpkin. He shouted and frightened Hoppy so much that the little rabbit scampered back to his family in the woods. “Owl is right,” he thought to himself. “The world is round and I have been all over it !”

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
Hoppy was a
(A) mischievous rabbit.
(B) talkative rabbit.
(C) curious rabbit
(D) rude rabbit.
Answer:
(C) curious rabbit

Question 2.
He left his family to see
(A) the world
(B) the vegetable garden.
(C) the pumpkin
(D) Mr. Brown
Answer:
(A) the world

Question 3.
The vegetable garden was probably part of
(A) the woods
(B) a farm
(C) the world
(D) a house
Answer:
(B) a farm

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
Who was Mr Brown?
Answer:
Mr. Brown was the farmer.

Question 5.
What did Hoppy find in the vegetable garden?
Answer:
Hoppy found a large round pumpkin.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(14) Read the following passage.

The Columbian Exchange was the “exchange of plants, animals, foods, human populations (including slaves) communicable diseases and ideas between the Eastern and Western hemispheres that occurred after 1492,” according to Wikipedia. The term “Columbian. Exchange,” coined in 1972 by historian Alfred Crosby, took hold and became not only standard shorthand for the phenomenon which it exemplified, but also a perspective for witnessing societal and ecological events.

When Christopher Columbus made landfall with his crew in the Bahamas in October 1492, two worlds with separate evolutionary histories met. When Europeans began to settle in America’s east coast, they brought with them and cultivated familiar crops – wheat and apples – as well as familiar weeds, such as dandelion and chickweed. In the 1600s, they introduced cattle and horses, which flourished in the New World climate.

Devastating diseases were introduced to the American population which had no resistance to them. John R. McNeill, Professor of history at Georgetown University, points out that “when the first inhabitants of the Americans arrived across the Bering land bridge between 15,000 and 12,000 years ago, they brought few diseases with them … they had no domesticated animals, the original source of human diseases such as smallpox and measles. In addition, as they passed from Siberia to North America, the first Americans had spent many years in extreme cold, which eliminated many of the disease-causing agents that might have travelled with them.”

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The term “Columbian Exchange,” was used by
(A) John R. McNeill
(B) Alfred Crosby
(C) Columbus
(D) Alfred Nobel
Answer:
(B) Alfred Crosby

Question 2.
Christopher Columbus made landfall with his crew in
(A) Siberia
(B) America
(C) Columbia
(D) The Bahamas
Answer:
(D) The Bahamas

Question 3.
Which flourished in the New World climate. New world is in
(A) Australia
(B) North America
(C) Africa
(D) Europe
Answer:
(B) North America

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
Which were the ‘two worlds’ mentioned in the second paragraph?
Answer:
The American and European worlds.’

Question 5.
How did the early Europeans influence the Americans?
Answer:
When Europeans began to settle in America’s east coast, they brought with them and cultivated familiar crops – wheat and apples – as well as familiar weeds, such as dandelion and chickweed.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(15) Read the following passage.

Babies need a lot more sleep than adults. A newborn infant needs up to 18 hours of sleep each day. A baby spends about nine hours in REM (Rapid Eye Movement) sleep. Five- year-olds need 11-13 hours of sleep each day. A five-year- old spends about 2 hours in REM sleep. Teenagers need 9-10 hours of sleep each day. Many people think that elderly people need less sleep than younger adults, but that is not true. Scientists are not sure of all the reasons for sleep. They know that sleep helps the body to heal and grow.

Sleep helps the immune system – which helps people fight diseases. Sleep helps the infant brain grow. It seems that REM sleep is especially important for babies’ brain growth. It also seems that sleep is a time for processing memories.
Why do we dream? Some scientists believe that dreams have a psychological purpose. Some think that dreams help to organize our brains. Some think that dreams are the result of random brain activity during REM sleep.

Sleep patterns differ substantially from culture to culture. Cultures with artificial light have different sleep patterns from cultures without artificial light (like electric lamps.) In cultures that use artificial light, people usually go to sleep later at night, and they sleep throughout the night. In other cultures, people often sleep for two periods. They go to sleep shortly after the sun goes down. They sleep deeply for several hours. Then, they tend to wake up for several hours. Afterward, they go to sleep again for several more hours. In hunter- gatherer groups, people sleep off and on throughout the day and night.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The total time a baby spends in REM Sleep is ________ hours.
(A) 18
(B) 11-13
(C) 9-10
(D) 9
Answer:
(D) 9

Question 2.
________ helps to fight disease.
(A) Sleep
(B) REM Sleep
(C) Immune System
(D) Cultures
Answer:
(C) Immune System

Question 3.
________ is believed to have a psychological purpose.
(A) Sleep
(B) Dream
(C) REM
(D) Light
Answer:
(B) Dream

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
What is the misconcept that people have about sleep?
Answer:
Many people think that elderly people need less sleep than younger adults, which is not true.

Question 5.
What are the benefits of good sleep?
Answer:
Good sleep helps the immune system and the infant brain to grow. It also seems that sleep is a time for processing memories.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(16) Read the following passage.

The clock is a very old invention. Sundials were used in ancient times. Sundials work by measuring shadows that are cast by the sun. Candle clocks were used a very long time ago.

Candle clocks work by measuring the time it takes for the wax to melt. Hourglasses are similar to candle clocks because they also measure the time it takes for something to happen. Hourglasses work by pouring fine sand through a small opening of one glass into another glass. The time taken is measured, to calculate the accurate time, as it takes one hour to complete one cycle of sand pouring.

Mechanical clocks appeared in the 13th century in Europe. They work with a system of moving gears. The gears always move at the same speed. Pendulum clocks work with a swinging weight.
The swinging weight is called a pendulum. The pendulum makes the clock parts move.

Now people typically use mechanical clocks or digital clocks. Digital clocks show numbers on a screen. The numbers represent the time. Some people use auditory clocks.
Auditory clocks use language to tell the time aloud. Computers also use clocks. Computers use internal clocks in order to work properly.

In today’s world, clocks are everywhere – in homes, schools, offices, and public places.
Most of the people live their lives according to the clock. People go to work and return home according to the clock. School days start and end according to the clock. Airplanes take off and land according to the clock. It is fun to imagine a world without clocks!

Now, answer the following questions. Each cftiestion has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The ________ is used shadows to measure time.
(A) Sundial
(B) Candle clock
(C) Pendulum clocks
(D) Auditory clocks
Answer:
(A) Sundial

Question 2
________ use an internal clock.
(A) Swinging weight
(B) Airplanes
(C) Computers
(D) Hourglasses
Answer:
(C) Computers

Question 3.
Mechanical clocks work with a system of ________
(A) Moving Gears
(B) Sand
(C) Pendulum
(D) Shadow
Answer:
(A) Moving Gears

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
How does the hourglass work?
Answer:
Hourglasses work by measuring the time it takes for sand or water to pour through a small opening of one glass into another glass.

Question 5.
How has the pendulum clock become the first mechanical clock?
Answer:
Mechanical clocks work with a system of moving gears. The pendulum clock works with a swinging weight, which in turn makes the gears work, with its swinging movement. Thus, it is the first mechanical clock.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(17) Read the following passage.

The night receptionist regretfully shrugged his shoulders. “It’s all we have available” he said. “And at this late hour you won’t find a single anywhere. It’s up to you, of course, if you want to try other hotels. Let me tell you, though, even this free bed in a double room will no doubt be gone should you decide to come back for it later.”

“Very well,” Schwamm said, “I’ll take it. Only, I’m sure you’ll understand, I should like to know with whom I am sharing the room. Not that I’m afraid, I have no reason to be. Is my partner – as I suppose one might almost call a person with whom one is to spend a night – already in the room ?”
“Yes. He’s probably asleep.”

Schwamm filled out the registration forms and handed them back to the receptionist; then he mounted the stairs.
As he came within sight of the room number, Schwamm instinctively slowed down, held his breath in the hope of hearing some noise the stranger might make, then bent low for a peep through the keyhole. The room was dark. Schwamm pressed down the door handle, shut the door again behind him and started groping for the light switch. Suddenly he froze : a voice at his elbow -deep but firm, called out :

“Hold it ! Please don’t turn on the light. You’d do me a favour if you left the room dark”

“Were you waiting for me ?” Schwamm asked, quite startled. The stranger didn’t answer him but said “Don’t fall over my crutches or run into my suitcase, which I put somewhere in the middle of the room. Let me direct you to your bed : take three stens along the-wall, make a left turn, then taken another three steps and you’ll be able to touch the bedport”.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
“It’s all we have available” in this context means
(A) the hotel
(B) single room.
(C) a room to be shared with others
(D) a cot
Answer:
(C) a room to be shared with others

Question 2.
What does the speaker mean when he says “even this free bed in a double room will no doubt be gone….”
(A) Someone will take away the bed.
(B) Some one will occupy the bed.
(C) The hotel management will sell the bed.
(D) None of the above
Answer:
(B) Some one will occupy the bed.

Question 3.
What does the word ‘instinctively’ mean ?
(A) with an expectation
(B) forcibly
(C) with a feeling of fear
(D) without any previous planning
Answer:
(D) without any previous planning

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
Why did Schwamm accept the shared room ?
Answer:
It was a late hour and Schwamm was not sure that he would be able to get a single anywhere. So he accepted the shared room.

Question 5.
“Schwamm filled out the registration forms and handed them back to the receptionist; then he mounted the stairs” – What do the lines tell us about Schwaram?
Answer:
Schwamm accepted to take the shared room and he was eager to know the nature of the person he was going to spend the night with. So he filled out the registration forms. He was eager to go to the room soon. So he mounted the stairs.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(18) Read the following passage.

‘I hope you’ll stay in after that – today being Tagore’s birthday. I met my youngest brother-in-law in Netaji Pharmacy yesterday. He is in the film business, in the production department. He said he was looking for an actor for a scene in a film they’re now shooting. The way he described the character – fiftyish, short, bald-headed – it reminded me of you. So I gave him your address and asked him to get in touch with you directly.

I hope you won’t turn him away. They’ll pay you, of course.’

Patol Babu hadn’t expected such news at the start of the day. That an offer to act in a film could come to a 52-year-old nonentity like him was beyond his wildest dreams.
‘Well, yes or no ?’ asked Nishikanto Babu. ‘I believe you did some acting on the stage at one time ?’

…. ‘That’s true,’ said Patol Babu. ‘I really don’t see why I should say no. But let’s talk to your brother-in-law first and find out some details. What’s his name?’
‘Naresh. Naresh Dutt. He’s about thirty. A strapping young fellow. He said he would be here around ten-thirty.’

Buying provisions in the market, Patol Babu mixed up his wife’s orders and bought red chillies instead of onion seeds. And he quite forgot about the aubergines. This was not surprising. At one time Patol Babu had a real passion for the stage; in fact, it verged on obsession. In Jatras, in amateur theatricals, in plays put up by the club in his neighbourhood, Patol Babu was always in demand. His name had appeared in hand-bills on countless occasions. Once it appeared in bold type near the top : ‘Sitalakanto Ray (Patol babu) in the role of Parasar’. Indeed, there was a time when people bought tickets especially to see him.

That was when he used to live in Kanchrapara. He had a job in the railway factory there. In 1934, he was offered higher pay in a clerical post with Hudson and Kimberley, in Calcutta, and was also lucky to find a flat in Nepal Bhattani Lane. He gave up his factory job and came to Calcutta with his wife. It was quite smooth sailing for some years, and Patol Babu was in his boss’s good books. In 1943, when he was just toying with the idea of starting a club in his neighbourhood, sudden retrenchment in his office due to the war cost him his nine-year-old job.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
Patol Babu mixed up his wife’s orders and bought red chillies instead of onions because
(A) he was forgetful in nature
(B) he was reckless.
(C) he liked the onions most
(D) he was excited
Answer:
(D) he was excited

Question 2.
Who does’you’refer to in the expression,” it reminded me of you” ?
(A) Naresh Dutt
(B) the narrator
(C) Patol Babu
(D) Nishikanto Babu
Answer:
(C) Patol Babu

Question 3.
Naresh Dutt chose Patol Babu for the role of a character in his film because
(A) he was a well known actor.
(B) he was Naresh Duds relative.
(C) he was Nishikanto Babu’s relative.
(D) he was fiftyish, short and bald-headed.
Answer:
(D) he was fiftyish, short and bald-headed.

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
“Patol Babu hadn’t expected such news at the start of the day.” What was the news? Why hadn’t he expected that news ?
Answer:
Nishikanto Babu’s brother-in-law told him that he was looking for an actor who could be fiftyish, short and bald-headed. It reminded him of Patol Babu and he gave this news to him. Patol Babu hadn’t expected that news as he was a 52-year-old nonentity.

Question 5.
How did Patol Babu react when he heard the news ?
Answer:
Patol Babu never expected such news because he was a 52-year old nonentity.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(19) Read the following passage:

Azim Hasham Premji, Chairman, Wipro Corporation is an alumnus of Stanford University, USA. He joined Wipro in 1966 at the age of 21. Under his leadership, a Rs. 70 million company in hydrogenated cooking fats has grown to a $500 million diversified Corporation in Services, Technology Products and Consumer Products with leadership positions in the businesses it is in.

One of the world’s richest men, Mr. Azim Premji’s strength lies in bringing together and building teams of high potential-high performing people. His vision and pragmatism have helped Wipro Corporation become the #2 most competitive and successful company in India as rated by Business Today, a leading business magazine in India. Wipro in terms of market capitalization is among the top 10 Corporations in India.

Over the years, Premji diversified into sectors like computer hardware and lighting, disregarding marketing laws that extolled the virtues of core competence and frowned on brand extensions into unrelated segments. Despite all the success, the media-shy Premji maintained a low profile, letting his work do all the talking. Until early last year the media broke the story that Azim Premji had become the second-richest man in India ?. In spite of his billions, however, he still travels economy class and stays in budget hotels.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The word Alumnus means
(A) A metal
(B) An Ore
(C) Old Student
(D) Old Employee
Answer:
(C) Old Student

Question 2.
Azim Hasham Premji is the ________ of Wipro Corporation.
(A) Founder
(B) Manager
(C) Chairman
(D) CEO
Answer:
(C) Chairman

Question 3.
Azim Premji leads an ________ life.
(A) Ordinary
(B) Luxurious
(C) Poor
(D) BPL
Answer:
(A) Ordinary

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
How was Azim Hasham Premji able to be successful?
Answer:
Azim Hasham Premji was able to be successful by bringing together and building teams of high potential-high performing people, with whom he was able to make the company successful.

Question 5.
Explain the meaning of the word ‘Diversification’, from the context.
Answer:
The word diversification means starting different kinds of business, along with the main business. In this context, along with Softwares- the main business of Wipro, Premji was successful in bringing consumer goods and lights also.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(20) Read the following passage.

Many people worked to create television. In 1862, Abbe Giovanna Caselli invented a machine called the Pantelograph. Caselli was the first person to send a picture over wires. By the 1880s, Alexander Graham Bell invented a machine that transmitted pictures and sound over wires. His machine was called the Photophone.
The World’s Fair was held in Paris, France, in the year 1900. The first International Congress of Electricity was held at the World’s Fair. That was when the word television was first used – by a Russian named Constantin Perskyi. That name stuck, and is now shortened to “TV.”

At the beginning of TV history, there were several types of TV technology. One system was a mechanical model based on a rotating disc. (Rotating discs are discs that spin like CDs.) The other system was an electronic model. In 1906, Boris Rosing built the first working mechanical TV in Russia.

In the 1920s, John Logie Baird in England and Charles Francis Jenkins in the United States demonstrated improved mechanical systems. Philo Taylor Farnsworth also showed an electronic system in San Francisco in 1927. His TV was the forerunner of today’s TV, which is an electronic system based on his ideas.

Now TV is everywhere. Before 1947, there were only a few thousand televisions in the U.S. By the 1990s, there were televisions in 98% of American homes.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The forerunner of present day television was first built by ________
(A) Abbe Caselli
(B) Constantin Perskyi
(C) Boris Rosing
(D) Philo Taylor
Answer:
(D) Philo Taylor

Question 2.
________ is a machine which can send pictures and sounds on wires.
(A) Television
(B) Telephone
(C) Photophone
(D) Photovision
Answer:
(C) Photophone

Question 3.
The television of Boris Rosing was the first ________ television.
(A) Electric
(B) Mechanical
(C) Automatic
(D) Plasma
Answer:
(B) Mechanical

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
Explain the term television.
Answer:
The word ‘tele’ means distance and ‘vision’ means view. So, the term television can mean a mechanical device which helps us to watch things telecast from a distant place.

Question 5.
What is the role of Alexander Graham Bell in the invention of television?
Answer:
By the 1880s, Alexander Graham Bell invented a machine, called Photophone, that transmitted pictures and sound over wires.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(21) Read the following passage:

A hybrid vehicle is a vehicle which uses two or more kinds of propulsion. Most hybrid vehicles use a conventional petrol engine as well as an electric motor to provide power to the vehicle. These are usually called hybrid-electric-vehicles, or HEVs. Hybrids use two types of propulsion in order to use petrol more efficiently than conventional vehicles do. Most hybrid vehicles use the petrol engine as a generator which sends power to the electric motor. The electric motor then powers the car. In conventional vehicles, the petrol engine powers the vehicle directly.

Since the main purpose of using a hybrid system is to efficiently use resources, most hybrid vehicles also use other efficient systems. Most hybrid vehicles have regenerative braking systems. In conventional vehicles, the petrol engine powers the brakes, and the energy used in braking is lost. In regenerative braking systems, the energy lost in braking is sent back into the electrical battery for use in powering the vehicle.

Some hybrid vehicles use periodic engine shutoff as a gas-saving feature. When the vehicle is idle, the engine temporarily turns off. When the vehicle is put back in gear, the engine comes back on. Some hybrids use tyres made of a stiff material which rolls easily and prevents drag on the vehicle.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
A hybrid vehicle has two or more kinds of..
(A) Propulsion
(B) Engine
(C) Steering
(D) Drivers.
Answer:
(A) Propulsion

Question 2.
Hybrid vehicles make the usage of efficiently.
(A) Engine
(B) Gas
(C) Petrol
(D) Tyres
Answer:
(C) Petrol

Question 3.
In ________ vehicles the energy used for breaking is lost.
(A) Conventional
(B) Petrol
(C) Hybrid
(D) Regenerative
Answer:
(A) Conventional

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
What is meant by Hybrid Vehicle?
Answer:
A vehicle which uses two or more kinds of propulsion, mostly a conventional petrol engine as well as an electric motor to provide power to the vehicle is called a Hybrid Vehicle.

Question 5.
What are the basic energy efficiency systems used in Hybrid Vehicles?
Answer:
Regenerative braking systems, temporary engine off etc are some basic energy efficiency systems used in Hybrid Vehicles.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(22) Read the following passage.

Ethanol is a renewable biofuel; in only six months a new crop can be grown, harvested, and converted to fuel, so it is profitable for rural crop-producing economies. In addition, it keeps engines clean and can be used in gasoline engines with no modifications when combining gas with up to 10% ethanol. It can be used in specially modified vehicles called “flexible-fuel” or “flex-fuel” vehicles in concentrations of up to 85%. Gasoline combined with 85% ethanol is generally referred to as “E85.” Higher ratios of ethanol in the fuel mixture result in less reliance on fossil fuels, so there is less dependence on imports.

American opponents of ethanol fuel point to three disadvantages: its price fluctuations, its energy level, and its availability.

The price of ethanol fluctuates on a different cycle than gasoline; therefore, at times ethanol is more expensive than gasoline, and at times it is cheaper. Another drawback of ethanol is that it contains less energy per gallon than gasoline; even when it is cheaper per gallon than conventional fuel, it does not take the vehicle as far as a gallon of gas.

A car’s fuel economy with ethanol can be expected to be 20-30% less than a vehicle which burns gasoline. So the occasional cheaper price is offset by the lower energy yields. In addition, ethanol is not as widely distributed as gasoline. It is readily available only in the Midwest; other areas have limited ethanol infrastructure.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
Production of Ethanol could be a source of income for ________.
(A) Townships
(B) Villagers
(C) City dwellers
(D) Employees.
Answer:
(B) Villagers

Question 2.
E85 is a variety of
(A) Ether
(B) Flex fuel
(C) Petrol
(D) Gasoline
Answer:
(B) Flex fuel

Question 3.
Ethanol is a fuel suitable for ________ engine.
(A) Patrol
(B) Petrol
(C) Gas
(D) All fuels
Answer:
(B) Petrol

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
What do you mean by Flex Fuel Vehicle?
Answer:
Vehicles which can run on a combination of Petrol and Ethanol are called Flex Fuel Vehicles.

Question 5.
What are the major drawbacks of Ethanol?
Answer:
Cost variation, comparatively less energy efficiency and rare availability in different regions of the world are the major drawbacks of Ethanol.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(23) Read the following passage.

The Voyager 1 and 2 spacecrafts left Earth in 1977 on a five-year mission. Their mission was to reach Jupiter and Saturn and send information back to earth about them. Jupiter and Saturn are the largest planets in the solar system. In 1981, they finished their mission. But, they kept going. Scientists decided to plan a longer trip for them: they would travel even further until they reached Uranus and Neptune.

Voyagers 1 and 2 are very efficient. They were built with no moving parts. They use the breakdown, or the decay, of the space element “plutonium” to create fuel. They can each get the equivalent of 30,000 miles per gallon of gasoline! They were made to be able to work in radioactive environments. The “gas giants” – Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune – are very radioactive places.

So far, Voyagers 1 and 2 have sent information back to Earth from farther away than any other spacecraft. Scientists have learned about the atmospheres, interiors, and rings of the gas giant planets. They have also learned about the moons of these planets. Scientists think that they will keep getting information from Voyagers 1 and 2 until about 2020. At that time, the power on the Voyagers 1 and 2 will not be strong enough to send information back to Earth.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The Voyager Serles were aimed at the study of
(A) Planets
(B) Comets
(C) Space
(D) Stars
Answer:
(A) Planets

Question 2.
The largest planet in the Solar System is
(A) Saturn
(B) Jupiter
(C) Uranus
(D) Pluto
Answer:
(B) Jupiter

Question 3.
The fuel used in Voyager is ________
(A) Gasoline
(B) Uranium
(C) Solar Energy
(D) Plutonium
Answer:
(A) Gasoline

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
Why do you think Radioactive elements are used as fuel in Voyager?
Answer:
The Voyagers are designed to study distant planets – Saturn and Jupiter. It will take a long time to reach there. So more fuel is required. The region around Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are highly radioactive.

Question 5.
What are the details that the scientists were able to study using Voyagers?
Answer:
Scientists have learned about the atmospheres, interiors, and rings of the gas giant planets Saturn and Jupiter. They have also learned about the moons of these planets.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(24) Read the following passage.

Soaps and detergents are used for washing and cleaning. People usually use detergent to wash clothes to dishes. People usually use soap to wash their bodies.
Soap has a long history. There was soap in Ancient Babylon. There was soap in Ancient Egypt. Some people think there was soap before people wrote history.

Soap and detergent are similar, but soap and detergent are not exactly the same.
In some cases, soap is better than detergent. For example, soap is milder on the skin. Soap is milder on the environment. Soap is biodegradable – nature’s processes clean soap up.
Soap does not build up in rivers. Soap does not cause pollution in rivers. Soap does not build up in streams. Soap does not cause pollution in streams.

In some cases, detergent is better than soap. For example, soap builds up in clothes after many washings. Detergent does not build up in clothes even after many washings. Soap loses its cleaning power in clothes over time. Detergent does not lose its cleaning power in clothes overtime.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The history of soaps could be traced upto
(A) Babylonia
(B) Siberia
(C) Egypt
(D) India
Answer:
(A) Babylonia

Question 2.
________ is used to wash dishes.
(A) Soaps
(B) Detergents
(C) Shampoo
(D) Conditioner
Answer:
(B) Detergents

Question 3.
________ do not pollute water.
(A) Soaps
(B) Detergents
(C) Shampoo
(D) Conditioner
Answer:
(A) Soaps

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
How are soaps better than detergents?
Answer:
Soap is milder on the skin and on the environment. Soap is biodegradable – nature’s processes clean soap up. Soap does not build up in streams and rivers. Hence Soap does not cause pollution in streams and rivers.

Question 5.
What are the advantages that detergents have on soaps?
Answer:
Detergent does not build up in clothes even after many washings. Soap loses its cleaning power on clothes over time. Detergent does not lose its cleaning power in clothes even overtime.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(25) Read the following passage.

The cactus is a plant which grows in very hot, dry places. They do not have leaves. Instead, they have spiny needles which stick out of their stems. There are many shapes of the cactus. Some are small and round. Others are tall like columns or pillars. Some are shaped like tubes or bells. Some are shaped like wheels. Some grow as trees or shrubs. Others grow as ground cover. Cactus flowers are big, and some of them bloom at night. Their flowers come out at night because they are pollinated by insects or small animals that come out at night. Insects and small animals carry pollen from one cactus to another.

Most cacti live in North and South America. Others live in Africa, Madagascar, and Sri Lanka.

Cacti do not have very large leaves because large leaves would allow water to evaporate. When water evaporates, it changes from a liquid to a gas. When it becomes a gas, it is light enough to move through the air. That would be bad for the cactus because the cactus lives in dry areas, where these is only a little water.

Some cacti have waxy coatings on their stems, so that water won’t evaporate and will run down the stem to the roots.
Cacti can absorb water from fog in the air, since it does not rain very much in the desert. Most cacti have long roots which can spread out close to the surface so they can absorb a lot of water on the occasions when it rains.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The Cactus are usually found in ________ region.
(A) Valley
(B) Desert
(C) Coastal
(D) Mountain
Answer:
(B) Desert

Question 2.
The leaves of the cacti are ________
(A) Broad
(B) Thin
(C) Spindle
(D) Spiny
Answer:
(D) Spiny

Question 3.
Most cacti live in ________
(A) America
(B) Australia
(C) Africa
(D) India
Answer:
(A) America

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
What advantages do you think that the cacti have by flowering at night?
Answer:
The flowers of cacti come out at night because they are pollinated by insects or small animals that come out at night. Insects and small animals carry pollen from one cactus to another.

Question 5.
Write about the water management system of cacti.
Answer:
Cacti absorbs water from fog in the air, since it does not rain very much In the desert. Most cacti have long roots which can spread out close to the surface so they can absorb a lot of water on the occasions when it rains.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(26) Read the following passage.

Mr Jones’s shop sold food. Mr Jones and a young man worked there. The young man’s name was George.
A man came into the shop on Monday. He was a funny man.
Mr Jones was in the office. It was behind the shop. The funny man looked at George and said, “I want a small table, please.”

George said, “We don’t sell tables in this shop. We sell food.”
The man smiled and answered, “A small, brown table.” He took a picture out of his bag and showed it to George. It was a picture of a small, brown table.
George put his mouth near the man’s ear and said, “We do not have tables in this shop! Food! Not tables!”
The man smiled and answered, “That’s good. Thank you.”

Then he sat down on a chair and waited.
George was not happy. He went into the office and spoke to Mr Jones. Then he and Mr Jones came out again.
Mr Jones was angry. He looked at the man and said, “What do you want?”

The man smiled and answered, “I want a loaf of brown bread, please. Haven’t you got any bread in your shop?”
Mr Jones said, “Yes, we have.” He looked at George, and then he went and got a loaf of brown bread from a big box and gave it to the man.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The kind of a shop did Mr. Jones had was ________
(A) An hotel
(B) A Restaurant
(C) A Cafe
(D) Bookstall
Answer:
(B) A Restaurant

Question 2.
The picture he took was a photograph of ________
(A) A Table
(B) His own
(C) His pet dog
(D) George
Answer:
(A) A Table

Question 3.
The man was behaving in such a manner because he was
(A) Mad
(B) Angry
(C) Funny
(D) Insane
Answer:
(C) Funny

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
What did the man ask for in the shop?
Answer:
The man asked for a small brown table.

Question 5.
Why do you think George spoke in his ears?
Answer:
Because George thought through the man’s reply that the man was deaf.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(27) Read the following pasage.

Once, there lived a hen with her five chicks. The hen was as red as beetroot. She had three friends: a duck, a cat and a dog. They all lived happily.

One day, the red hen stumbled on to a wheat seed. “Hey, who among you wish to plant this seed?” she asked.

“Not me, friend” refused the duck.
“Nor can I.” declined the cat.
“Count me not.” the dog turned his back.

“All right. I will do it then by myself,” said the hen. She planted the seed and watered it. It grew quickly to yield the brownish wheat. “Hi! There, who among you wish to harvest the wheat?” asked the red hen.
“Not me, friend,” the duck sounded bored.
“Nor can I.” shrugged the cat.
“Count me not!” avoided the dog.

“If so, I will do it by myself,” the red hen spoke up as she laboured all day along. By evening she had two gunny bags full of wheat.

“Hello pal! Who among you will lend me a hand to grind this wheat? She queried. All the three refused as usual.
“I will see that I grind this by myself. I will make flour, knead dough and bake bread!” she announced. The next day she baked delicious bread.

“Howdy, who among you wish to eat this bread?” she asked merrily.
“I want to!” answered the duck, smacking her lips.
“Me too!” said the cat with his mouth watering.
“Yummy, smells good,” spoke up the dog, shuffling his feet eagerly.

“None of you can have a bite! I slaved in the field and at home. Only my children and I are entitled to eat this bread!” So saying the red hen fed her chicks and ate a sumptuous meal that day.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
Who were willing to harvest the wheat seed?
(A) All the friends
(B) None of the friends
(C) The Dog and Cat
(D) The Hen
Answer:
(D) The Hen

Question 2.
The word ‘Pal’ means
(A) Friend
(B) Brother
(C) Neighbour
(D) Enemy
Answer:
(A) Friend

Question 3.
The hen had
(A) Good friends
(B) Good enemies
(C) Bad enemies
(D) Bad friends
Answer:
(D) Bad friends

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
How did the friends react to the hen’s ideas?
Answer:
The friends didn’t help the hen in doing anything with the wheat corn it got.

Question 5.
What is the moral that we can learn from the story?
Answer:
We have no rights to enjoy the fruits of the labour of others. We have to earn our bread with working hard.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(28) Read the following passage.

Gladys was at school in a small, quiet town in England. She was sixteen years old, and her father and mother were poor, and their house was very small.
Maisie was Gladys’s friend. She went to that school as well.

Gladys said, “Maisie, I’m going to find a very rich man and I’m going to marry him. Then I’m going to have a beautiful house and a large garden, and a lot of clothes, and a lot of money.”

Maisie smiled and said, “Where are you going to find a very rich man, Gladys? There aren’t any in our town.”
But Gladys was a very pretty girl. Her eyes were blue, and her hair was black and soft. She went to London, and then she went to America. She found a tall, very rich man there, and she married him. She was twenty-two years old then.

Then she and her husband went to England. They went to Gladys’s old house, and Maisie came there.
Gladys saic “I’ve married a very rich man, Maisie, and I’ve got a beautiful house and a large garden and four gardeners. And I’ve bought a lot of clothes and I have money as well. My husband’s got a plane too, and he flies it!”

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
Gladys was a girl.
(A) Poor
(B) Rich
(C) Bad
(D) Ugly
Answer:
(A) Poor

Question 2.
Gladys had a great dream of
(A) Being rich
(B) Being Poor
(C) Going to US
(D) Being in UK
Answer:
(A) Being rich

Question 3.
When she went back to her village, she had become
(A) Poor again
(B) Very Poor
(C) Became rich
(D) as usual
Answer:
(C) Became rich

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
What aspect of Gladys would the author like to project?
Answer:
Determination to make the dream come true is the aspect of Gladys., the authour likes to project.

Question 5.
What was the dream that Gladys had?
Answer:
To marry a rich man, to have a beautiful house and a large garden, and a lot of clothes, and a lot of money.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(29) Read the following passage.

A lion was getting fed up of hunting. He called all animals and passed an order, “Everyday one of you should come by yourself as my prey”. All animals started to obey this order.
It was the hare’s day. The hare was very sad. As he was going to the lion’s den, he came across an old well. He looked into it. It was very deep and dangerous. He made a plan in his mind.

The lion was very angry that no animal had come till then. The hare slowly came towards the lion. The lion roared “Why are you late?” The hare humbly replied, “On my way another lion chased me. I got away with much difficulty to give my life to you, Your Majesty”.

The lion was pleased with the hare. But the thought of another lion in the jungle made him angry. The lion roared “Do you know where he lives?” The hare replied “Yes, Sir. Please come with me”.

The hare took the lion to the old well. He said “Sir, that lion lives in this well”. The lion peeped into the well. He mistook his reflection for another lion. He roared and there was an echo. He thought that the other lion was roaring too and jumped into the well. That was the end of the lion.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The lion passed the order so as to ________
(A) Avoid the trouble of hunting
(B) Make the animals suffer
(C) Make the hunting a game
(D) Enjoy ease hunting.
Answer:
(A) Avoid the trouble of hunting

Question 2.
The hare is similar to ________
(A) Snail
(B) Tiger
(C) Rabbit
(D) Turtle
Answer:
(C) Rabbit

Question 3.
The plan that the hare had was for ________
(A) Appreciating the lion
(B) Eliminating the trouble
(C) Escaping from the lion
(D) To have a fight with the lion
Answer:
(B) Eliminating the trouble

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
What was the order the lion gave for the animals?
Answer:
The lion had ordered the animals that they should come to him, one by one, everyday, to be his food.

Question 5.
What moral did you learn from the story?
Answer:
If we are calm and self-confident, even at the time of the greatest difficulties, there will be a way out.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(30) Read the following passage.

Many religions existed in India in the Middle Age. The most widely prevalent were of course Hinduism and Islam. But there were other religions too, e.g., Buddhism, Jainism and Christianity. The outlook of the people, whether they were Hindus of Muslims, was the same. They believed that the world was a vale of sorrow, and the only way to escape from it and the attainment of true happiness was by turning their hearts away from the temptations of the senses and taking refuge in complete surrender to the will of God whose unlimited grace alone could save man.

It was, therefore, necessary to place oneself under the control of a spiritual guide and preceptor, and to follow the path of inner discipline which led to the goal of realization of God. Both among the Hindus and the Muslims there were many orders which saintly preceptors had established. The heads of these orders ministered to the needs of their disciples. Kabir, Nanak and others among the Hindus had founded such orders.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The most widely prevalent religions in India during the Middle Age were
(A) Hinduism
(B) Islam
(C) both A & B
(D) None
Answer:
(C) both A & B

Question 2.
People beleived that
(A) the world is a vale of happiness
(B) the world is a vale of sorrow
(C) the world is nothing
(D) the world is only for enjoying themselves
Answer:
(B) the world is a vale of sorrow

Question 3.
To reach the goal of realization of God
(A) We should control ourselves
(B) We should be under the control of a spiritual guide
(C) We should turn our hearts away from the temptations of the world
(D) We need not do anything
Answer:
(B) We should be under the control of a spiritual guide

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
What did people believe regarding the world ?
Answer:
Regarding the world the people believed that it is a vale of sorrow, as they had to struggle for every thing and had to suffer from many problems.

Question 5.
Why should we place ourselves under the control of a spiritual guide ?
Answer:
We should place ourselves under the control of a spiritual guide, as he can minister to our needs and keep us in the path of inner discipline, by which we can realize the God.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(31) Read the following passage.

In the last fifty years, a lot of people have left Europe and have gone to live in Australia. One of them was a Hungarian man.
He lived in Australia for a long time, he had a lot of good friends. He always said to them, “Australia’s beautiful, but Hungary’s beautiful too.”

Then one day he said, “I’m going to go back to Hungary now to visit my old home.” All of his new friends said to him, “We want to go with you, because Hungary’s a beautiful country, and we want to see it too.”
The Hungarian Australian took all his friends from Sydney to Rome in a big plane, and then they went from Rome to Budapest in a train, because they wanted to see the mountains, and the villages, and the towns.

They stayed in Budapest for four days, and they liked it very much. One day they went to the zoo in Budapest and saw two kangaroos there.
The Australians were very happy, because kangaroos are natives of Australia. They said to the animals, “Come here, old friends! Come and see your Australian brothers!” But the kangaroos did not move.

Then the Hungarian Australian spoke to the animals in Hungarian. “Come here!” he said, and both the kangaroos ran to him.
The other Australians laughed and said, “Look at that! They’re Australian, but they only know Hungarian!”

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
The man had a lot of friends at
(A) Australia
(B) Hungary
(C) Rome
(D) Budapest
Answer:
(A) Australia

Question 2.
He wanted to visit Hungary because
(A) He was tired of Australia
(B) He wanted to visit his old friends
(C) He wanted to settle in Hungary
(D) He wanted to visit his old home
Answer:
(D) He wanted to visit his old home

Question 3.
The Kangaroos made the friends happy because
(A) They were in Australia
(B) They loved Kangaroos
(C) They are also natives of Australia
(D) Kangaroos loved them
Answer:
(C) They are also natives of Australia

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
Why did the friends accompany him to Hungary?
Answer:
The friends accompanied him to Hungary so as to visit that country, as he had told them that Hungary is also a beautiful country.

Question 5.
Why didn’t the Kangaroos respond when the man called them in Australian language?
Answer:
The kangaroos being in the Hungarian Zoo, they are familiar with the Hungarian language but not with Australian. So, they didnt respond, when the man called them in Australian.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(32) Read the following passage.

Mr and Mrs Brown had two daughters and two sons. Both the daughters were married, and were happy. Soon Mr and Mrs Brown had a granddaughter, and then they had two grandsons. They were very happy.

Then one of their daughters had another baby, and she telephoned her mother, “Please come and attend on your new granddaughter.” Mrs Brown went quickly, but Mr Brown stayed at home, because he had to attend his office. But he said, “I’ll come on Friday evening, and I’ll stay till Monday morning.”
On Friday evening, after work, Mr Brown got into a train. He was very happy. “I’m going to see my new granddaughter now,” he said to himself.

There were three empty seats in the train. There was an old man beside one empty seat, and Mr Brown went to him and said nicely, “Are also you a grandfather?”
“Yes,” the man answered, “I have three granddaughters.”

Mr.Brown went to the second empty seat. There was a nice woman beside that. Mr Brown said to her, “Are you also a grandmother?”
The woman answered, “Yes, I have two granddaughters and two grandsons.”
Mr Brown went to the third empty seat. There was a man beside that, and Mr Brown said to him, “And are you also a grandfather?”
“No, I’m not,” the man answered.
Mr Brown smiled happily and said, “That’s good.” He sat down in the empty place and said to the man happily, “Now I’ll tell you about my granddaughters and grandsons.”

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
Mr. Brown didn’t go with Mrs. Brown because ________
(A) He had to attend his office
(B) His sons didn’t allow him to go
(C) He was aged
(D) His wife didn’t ask him to go.
Answer:
(A) He had to attend his office

Question 2.
Friday evening to Monday morning is usually called ________
(A) Week days
(B) Off Days
(C) Weekend Days
(D) Working Days
Answer:
(C) Weekend Days

Question 3.
Mr. Brown was happy with the man for ________
(A) He was a grandfather
(B) He was not a grandfather
(C) He was not a grandson
(D) He was a grandson
Answer:
(B) He was not a grandfather

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
Why was Mr. Brown happy on Friday evening?
Answer:
Mr. Brown was happy on Friday evening because he was going to see his new granddaughter.

Question 5.
Why didn’t he sit with people who had grandchildren?
Answer:
As they were already grandparents, they too would have got plenty of stories about their grand children. So, they wouldn’t be interested in what he had to say.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(33) Read the following passage.

Joe was the son of a farmer. His father’s farm was poor, and Joe worked on it for a long time. But when father died, Joe said to himself, “I needn’t stay here now. I’ll sell this farm and buy one in a better place. Then I’ll soon be rich.”
He bought a farm in the east of the country, and wanted to settle there. But his new neighbours said to him, “The weather’s often very bad here. The wind’s very strong, and it breaks windows and doors. You must build a room under the ground, and then you and your family can go down there, and you’ll be safe from the wind.”

So Joe built a room under the ground. It was a lot of work, because the ground was hard. But after that, the weather was good for a very long time.
There was no wind, and Joe spoke angrily. He said, “Why have I listened to my neighbours? I didn’t have to make that room under the ground. The wind never blows strongly here.”

But one day there was a very strong wind, and Joe and his family had to go down into their room under the ground.
They were there for a long time. When the wind stopped, and they came up. Some of the windows and doors in their house were broken.
Joe was not angry about his work now. He smiled happily and said, “Ah! I’m glad I built that room!”

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
Joe wanted to sell his land to ________
(A) Start a business
(B) Buy better land
(C) Build a house
(D) Go abroad
Answer:
(B) Buy better land

Question 2.
The weather was often bad at ________
(A) Joe’s old place
(B) South of the country
(C) East of the country
(D) West of Joe’s new place.
Answer:
(C) East of the country

Question 3.
Joe constructed an underground cellar for ________
(A) Himself
(B) His Family
(C) His friends
(D) His neighbours
Answer:
(B) His Family

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
What advice did the neighbours give to Joe?
Answer:
As there would be strong winds, it was better to construct underground room to save the family.

Question 5.
How did Joe change his attitude?
Answer:
Suddenly there was a heavy wind one day and Joe had to use the cellar to save his family.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(34) Read the following passage. (March 2018)

Tyagaraja was born atTiruvarur in Tanjavur district of Tamil Nadu on May 4, 1767. He was the third child of his parents, Ramabrahmam and Sitamma. They spoke Telugu at home. Tyagaraja had an elder brother named Panchapakesan or Jalpesan.
There was music in Tyagaraja’s blood. His mother was a good singer. He had his first lessons in music from her. His father was a good scholar in Telugu and Sanskrit. He learnt both the languages from him. When he was seven years old, the family moved to a village called Thiruvaiyaru.

Tyagaraja was interested in music from his childhood. Even as a young boy he used to compose songs and write them on the walls of his house. Noticing his son’s interest in music, his father took him to Sonti Venkataramayya, a musician at the court of King Sarabhoji of Tanjavur. Tyagaraja became his disciple and learnt music from him.

When he grew up, he spent most of his time composing songs and singing them in front of the idol of Lord Rama in his house. He was married at the age of eighteen. Once a week he went along the streets singing songs in praise of God and maintained his family with what people gave him. He never cared for wealth. But his elder brother, Jalpesan, wanted him to earn money through his music.

One day, the Raja of Tanjavur invited Tyagaraja to sing in his court. He offered him a gift of fifty acres of land and a lot of gold coins. But Tyagaraja refused to sing in the king’s court. Jalpesan was wild with anger. He insisted Tyagaraja to sing in the king’s court. They can be rich and live a happy life. When Tyagaraja disagreed, he threw the idol of Lord Rama into the river Kaveri.

Not finding his deity at home, Tyagaraja composed many songs in praise of Lord Rama and sang them with great feeling. After two months he had a dream. He saw the place where his idol of Lord Rama was lying. The next morning he went to the place, found the idol and brought it back home. In a joyful mood, he sang many songs in praise of his deity.

Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
Tyagaraja refused the gift of land and gold coins offered to him by the king because
(A) his songs were his dedication to God
(B) he enjoyed singing on the streets more
(C) he did not have any respecty for the king
(D) he had sufficient money to live.
Answer:
(A) his songs were his dedication to God

Question 2.
Tyagaraja had his first music lessons from his
(A) father Ramabrahmam
(B) mother sitamma
(C) music teacher Venkataramayya
(D) brother Jalpesan.
Answer:
(B) mother sitamma

Question 3.
Jalpesan threw the idol of Lord Rama into the river because
(A) the king had ordered him to do so
(B) he wanted to stop Tyagaraja singing in praise of Rama
(C) Tyagaraja was not giving him food
(D) he was jealous of Tyagaraja.
Answer:
(B) he wanted to stop Tyagaraja singing in praise of Rama

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
How did Tyagaraja get the idol back ?
Answer:
Tyagaraja had a dream in which he saw the place where the idol was lying. He went to the place and brought it back home.

Question 5.
Do you support the act of Jalpesan ? Justify your answer.
Answer:
No, I don’t support the act of Jalpesan. His brother Tyagaraja was satisfied with what the people gave him. His songs were dedìcated to God.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5

(35) Read the following passage. (June 2018)

Chocolate is liked by all irrespective of a child or an adult. Nowadays, different types of edible products mixed with chocolate powder are available in the market. Some of them are chocolate ice-creams, chocolate coffee, chocolate tea and chocolate milk.
A chocolate tree may sound like something made up in a book or film, but chocolate really does come from trees. A tree called ‘Cocoa’ is the source of all cocoa powder and chocolate.

Cocoa trees grow only in warm areas that get a lot of rain. Long fruits called ‘pods’ grow on these trees. Pods range in colour from bright yellow to deep purple. Inside the pods are rows of seeds called cocoa beans. Each is about the size and shape of a big fingernail. It is from these cocoa beans that we get one of the world’s favourite foods, i.e. chocolate.

A lot of things have to be done to the beans before they are formed into chocolates. The beans turn into a rich colour and begin to smell like chocolate after being left in a damp place for a few days. They are roasted and ground into a paste in a factory. A fatty yellow liquid ‘cocoa butter’ has to be removed from the paste to make dry cocoa powder. The paste in fact is very bitter. So, a lot of sugar is mixed in it. The chocolate is then poured into moulds to harden into chocolate bars.

AP Board Solutions 10th Class English Important Questions - Question Number 1 to 5
.
Now, answer the following questions. Each question has four choices.
Choose the correct answer and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Question 1.
According to the passage, chocolate is ________
(A) world’s tasty food
(B) world’s popular food
(C) world’s favourite food
(D) world’s expensive food
Answer:
(C) world’s favourite food

Question 2.
Climate most suitable for cocoa trees to grow is ________
(A) dry without rains
(B) slightly wet in monsoon
(C) warm with heavy rains
(D) arid with no rainfall
Answer:
(C) warm with heavy rains

Question 3.
‘Cocoa butter’ is removed from paste to ________
(A) make dry cocoa powder
(B) get bitterness
(C) make pods
(D) to add sugar.
Answer:
(A) make dry cocoa powder

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 4.
How are pods described ?
Answer:
Long fruits of cocoa trees are called pods. Pods range In colour from bright yellow to deep purple.

Question 5.
Write the names of chocolate products available in your area.
Answer:
Chocolate ice-creams, chocolate coffee, chocolate tea and chocolate milk.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

These TS 10th Class English Important Questions Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15 will help the students to improve their time and approach.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

1. Read the following passage.

Abraham Lincoln writes to the Headmaster of his son’s school

“He will have to learn, I know, that all men are not just, all men are not true. But teach him also that for every scoundrel, there is a hero and that for every selfish politician, there is a dedicated leader. Steer him away from envy, if you can, teach him the secret of quiet laughter… Teach him, if you can, the wonder of books… but also give him quiet time to ponder over the eternal mystery of birds in the sky, bees in the sun, and flowers on a green hillside.”

“In school, teach him that it is far more honorable to fail than to cheat… Teach him to have faith in his own ideas, even if everyone tell him they are wrong. Teach him to be gentle with gentle people, and tough with the tough. Try to give my son the strength not to follow the crowd when everyone is getting on the bandwagon. Teach him to listen to all men, but teach him also to filter all he has heard on the screen of truth, and take on the good that comes through it.”

“Teach him, if you can, how to laugh when he is sad… teach him there is no shame in tears. Teach him to scoff at cynics, and to beware of too Much sweetness… Teach him to sell his brawn and brain So ,the,highest bidders, but never to put a tag on his heart and soul. Teach him to close his ears to the howling mob… and to stand and fight if he thinks he’s right”.

“Teach him gently, but do not cuddle him, because only the test of fire makes fine steel. Let him have the courage to be impatient… Let him have the patience to be brave. Teach him always to have sublime faith in himself because then he will always have sublime faith in mankind.”

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
Abraham Lincoln writes a letter to his son’s Headmaster because……
(A) he wants his son to be educated in the best possible manner.
(B) he is very apprehensive abouthis son’s welfare.
(C) he wishes to assert his views on education.
(D) he does not approve of the way the Headmaster runs the school.
Answer:
(A) he wants his son to be educated in the best possible manner.

Question 12.
Reading books is important for students, but it is equally important…….
(A) for them to be quiet, and to think and introspect
(B) to make them appreciate the mysteries of nature.
(C) to make sure they listen to their fellow beings.
(D) to make them dedicated leaders.
Answer:
(B) to make them appreciate the mysteries of nature.

Question 13.
Students must understand it is honourable to fail than to cheat because
(A) they are being watched by God
(B) by cheating they lose self-respect
(C) they develop the habit of cheating
(D) they will have to live with failure.
Answer:
(B) by cheating they lose self-respect

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
“…………… everyone is getting on the bandwagon.” What does this phrase mean?
Answer:
The phrase ‘Everyone is getting on the bandwagon” means everyone is becoming involved in something.

Question 15.
Abraham Lincoln does not want the Headmaster to cuddle his son. Why?
Answer:
Abraham Lincoln feels that only the test of fire makes fine steel. He wants that the Headmaster should not show his son any love or affection. Thus he wants to make his son a good citizen.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

2. Read the following passage.

After retiring as the director of a multinational company, he had found the greatest pleasure of life in reading books on India’s culture, literature and plants. He could talk endlessly on the applications of each and every part of the neem tree in Indian medicine. The seed oil and soap made from it can be used very effectively in every skin disease like ulcers, ringworm and in rheumatism. The bark is used as tincture. People say it is beneficial in malaria as well.

Grandpa always used the fresh tender twigs to clean his teeth and the children of the house learnt to do so. Grandma and mother always kept dried neem leaves in books, paper and clothes to protect them. ‘Neem begun’ or leaves of neem fried with pieces of brinjal, was a favourite dish of the whole family, which was eaten as a prevention-for pox, In his childhood, once grandpa, had smallpox and his mother would ,comfort his burning skin with neem leaves. The truth is that much of this knowledge of Indian culture and tradition came to him from his mother, grandmother and others in the family.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
For which purpose can the seed oil of neem be used ?
(A) teeth
(B) to grow brinjal
(C) skin diseases like ulcers, ringworm, and rheumatism
(D) for burning skin
Answer:
(C) skin diseases like ulcers, ringworm, and rheumatism

Question 12.
‘Which disease is cured by its bark ?
(A) smallpox
(B) tincture
(C) rheumatism
(D) malaria
Answer:
(B) tincture

Question 13.
Which word in the passage means the same as ‘to stop something from happening’?
(A) applications
(B)tincture
(C) prevention
(D) favourite
Answer:
(C) prevention

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
Why were neem leaves kept in books, paper and clothes ?
Answer:
Neem leaves were kept in books, paper and clothes to protect them from insects

Question 15.
Which disease had grandpa got in his childhood ?
Answer:
Smallpox.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

3. Read the following passage.

Advertising is a close companion of market economy, yet it is an unpleasant feature of modern life. It costs heavily to one’s pocket and one’s life too. An innocent student tried to imitate acrobatics of a Youngman in an advertisement and lost his life. Indeed, advertising has invaded every aspect of human existence, which includes sponsoring of events like sports. Advertising sells goods and ideas too.

Good ideas, like national integration and communal harmony, are spread through advertising. In addition to commercial advertising, we have social advertising, which deals with social issues. Social advertising aims at masses who can be educated about issues like health, family welfare, national security, etc. It is true that even the government falls back upon social advertising to highlight issues of immediate and national concern.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
According to the passage advertising is considered close companion of market economy because
(A) it regulates market economy.
(B) it monitors market economy.
(C) it enhances marketing.
(D) it evaluates marketing.
Answer:
(C) it enhances marketing.

Question 12.
‘Advertising sells ideas too’- this can be understood as
(A) Ideas need advertisement.
(B) Ideas can be spread through advertising.
(C) Advertising is compulsory.
(D) Advertising is necessary for market.
Answer:
(B) Ideas can be spread through advertising.

Question 13.
Social advertising is necessary because
(A) the government falls back upon it.
(B) society falls back upon it.
(C) it aims at the economy of the people.
(D) it aims at the welfare of the people.
Answer:
(D) it aims at the welfare of the people.

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What are the two types of advertising referred in the passage ? How are they different?
Answer:
The two types of advertising are commercial advertising and social advertising. Commercial advertising enhances market economy where as social advertising educates people about issues like health, family welfare, national security etc.

Question 15.
Do you think advertising really costs one’s life ? What can be done to avoid this ?
Answer:
Yes, I think commercial advertising really costs one’s life. One should not imitate the things shown in advertisements without proper training and skill.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

4. Read the following passage.

There is an incident which occured at the examination during my first year at the high school, and which is worth recording. Mr.Giles, the Educational Inspector, had come on a visit of inspection. He had set us five words to write as spelling exercise. One of the words was ‘kettle’. I had mis-spelt it. The teacher tried to prompt me with the point of his boot, but I would not be prompted.

It was beyond me to see that he wanted me to copy the spelling from my ‘neighbours’ slate, for I had thought that the teacher was there to supervise us against copying. The result that all the boys except myself were found to have spelt every word correctly. Only I had been stupid. The teacher tried later to bring this stupidity home to me, but without effect. I never could learn the ‘art of copying’.

Yet the incident did not in the least diminish my respect for my teacher. I was, by nature, blind to the faults of elders. Later I came to know many other failings of this teacher, but my regard for him remained the same. For I had learnt to carry out the orders of elders, not to scan their actions. – Gandhiji

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
Who came to the high school on a visit of inspection?
(A) neighbour
(B) teacher
(C) educational inspector
(D) Gandhiji
Answer:
(C) educational inspector

Question 12.
‘Gandhiji had learnt
(A) art of copying
(B) carrying out the orders of elders.
(C) finding fault with his teachers.
(D) scanning the actions of elders.
Answer:
(B) carrying out the orders of elders.

Question 13.
The copying incident did not lessen Gandhiji’s respect for his teacher because:
(A) he did not find fault with elders.
(B) he believed that teachers were always right.
(C) he was afraid of speaking.
(D) many students copy in their exams.
Answer:
(A) he did not find fault with elders.

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What did the teacher prompt Gandhiji to do ?
Answer:
The teacher prompted Gandhiji to copy the spelling from his neighbours’ slate.

Question 15.
What do you learn as a student, from this account of Gandhiji’s school days ?
Answer:
We should not find fault with elders and carry out the orders of elders. We should not copy from others.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

5. Read the following passage.

The printing of music differs essentially from the printing of a purely verbal text. As this difference arises from the divergence between the nature of music and the nature of literature, it must be summarised at the outset. Whereas in a verbal text the letters forming a word represent a concept to be conveyed by the eye to the brain, in music the note, whether accompanied by a text or not, is primarily an instruction to bring into action lungs or fingers, or both combined, in order to produce a sound at a certain pitch and of a certain duration.

Besides devising symbols to convey these instructions with unmistakable precision, the musical typographer has also to bear in mind the need to indicate as clearly as possible, first, the interval, of whatever degree, between the pitch of one note and that of the next, and second, the changes in spacing between one note or group of notes and the next, as required by changes in time-values. These are principles of horizontality.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
Why do you think the printing of Music is difficult?
(A) It uses symbols
(B) It uses notes
(C) Actions differ
(D) Plain text
Answer:
(B) It uses notes

Question 12.
The printed music has
(A) Instructions to sing
(B) Principles of horizontality
(C) Sounds and patterns
(D) Intervals and durations of music.
Answer:
(D) Intervals and durations of music.

Question 13.
The print of literature is basically:-
(A) Plain
(B) Complicated
(C) Combined
(D) Summarized.
Answer:
(A) Plain

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What has caused the difference in printing Literature and Music?
Answer:
The divergence between the nature of music and the nature of literature

Question 15.
What do you mean by a ‘Musical Typographer’?
Answer:
A person who specializes In the design, choice, and arrangement of type matter of music.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

6. Read the following passage.

Until a hundred years ago as humans we had a simple, uncomplicated biological connect. It was a straightforward equation: we drew roughly 3000 calories each of energy out of the Earth for our food and life’s sustenance. Today that number per capital has grown to 100000 calories. We still need only 3000 calories each to nourish life itself. All the rest of this energy is what we extract from the Earth for everything else besides keeping ourselves alive.

In some countries, like the US, this per capital number runs at over 200000 calories. Some of us are concerned about this. We fret over what we could – and should – really be doing to soften this abuse of resources. Little things fox us in the welter of things that we get to read.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
The earliest human beings were:-
(A) Close to the earth
(B) Overconsumptions
(C) Over eating
(D) Over dieting
Answer:
(A) Close to the earth

Question 12.
The basic calorie requirement for human beings is:-
(A) 100000CIS
(B) 3000CIS
(C) 200000CIS
(D) 3000CIS
Answer:
(B) 3000CIS

Question 13.
Over the years, the requirement of calories for humans have:-
(A) Increased
(B) Decreased
(C) Not Changed
(D) Always changing
Answer:
(C) Not Changed

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
How are the earliest and modern human beings different?
Answer:
The earliest humans depended on the earth only for their needs and sustenance. Modern humans depend on the earth for greed and luxuries.

Question 15.
What does the excess consumption of Calories mean?
Answer:
Over usage of resources.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

7. Read the following passage.

Health is wealth ! People have been conscious of maintaining a healthy body and keeping fit. The present generation is going through a lot of stress, tension and competition in their personal and professional lives. Many of us try to follow a regular exercise regime, but sometimes diet is not taken care of or vice versa. And many of us are working in offices, which results in sitting and working for long hours. Thus it leads to lack of physical activity and thus we tend to put on weight. Also we travel by our own vehicles to our places of work.

And most of the home makers also have the latest gadgets at home or they employ maids to do the routine house work. I have tried to plan my diet eating at the right time. I eat non-vegetarian only of in a week, try to eat green vegetables, leafy vegetables, pulses, chapatis and very less rice. I try to avoid deeply fried food stuffs and also too many snacks. Instead I try to drink fresh fruit juices, eat fresh fruits, salads and avoid sweets. Then I make it a point to avoid tea and coffee. Instead I try to drink milk and eat curd daily.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
The main reason for putting on weight is
(A) food
(B) drinks
(C) lack of exercise
(D) lack of knowledge.
Answer:
(C) lack of exercise

Question 12.
The author avoids in his diet
(A) fresh fruit juice
(B) deeply fried food.
(C) fresh fruit
(D) salads
Answer:
(B) deeply fried food.

Question 13.
The word in the’passage which means the same as strain or pressure is :
(A) vice versa
(B) stress
(C) regime
(D) gadgets
Answer:
(B) stress

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What has been the present generation going through ?
Answer:
The present generation has been going through a lot of stress, tension and competition in their personal and professional lives.

Question 15.
What is the plan of diet of the author ? What has he replaced tea and coffee with ?
Answer:
He wants to eat at the right time and to eat non-vegetarian only once in a week, tries to eat green vegetables, leafy vegetables, pulses, chapatis and very less rice. The author has replaced tea and coffee with milk and curd.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

8. Read the following passage.

One day a ragged beggar was creeping along from house to house. He carried an old wallet in his hand and was asking at every door a few cents to buy something to eat. As he was grumbling at his misfortune, he kept wondering why it was that folks who had so much money were never satisfied but were always wanting more.

“Here,” said he, “is the master of this house -1 know him well. He was always a good businessman and he made himself wondrously rich a long time ago. Had he been wise, he would have stopped then. He would have turned over his business to someone else, and then he could have stopped the rest of his life in ease. But what did he do instead? He built ships and sent them to sea to trade with foreign lands. He thought he would get mountains of gold.”

“But there were great storms on the water, his ships were wrecked and his riches were swallowed up by the waves. Now all his hopes lie at the bottom of the sea, and his great wealth vanished.”
“There are many such cases. Men seem to never be satisfied unless they gain the whole world.”
“As for me, if I had only enough to eat and to buy clothing, I would not want anything more.”

Just at that moment Fortune came down the street. She saw the beggar and stopped. She said to him:
“Listen! I have long wished to help you. Hold your wallet and I will pour this gold into it, but only on one condition : all that falls into the wallet shall be pure gold, but every piece that falls upon the ground shall become dust. Do you understand?”
“Oh! Yes, I understand,” said the beggar.

“Then be careful,” said Fortune, “your wallet is old, so do not load it too heavy.” The beggar was so glad that he could hardly wait. He quickly opened his wallet, and a stream of yellow dollars poured into it. The wallet grew heavy. ,
“Is that enough?” asked the Fortune.
“Not yet.”
“Isn’t it cracking?”
“Never fear.”
The beggar’s hands began to tremble. “Ah, if the gold would only pour forever!”
“You are the richest man in the world now.”

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
Why did the master of the house lose all of his money ?
(A) A robber stole it from him
(B) His ships sank at sea
(C) His treasure turned to dust
(D) He gave it all away to the poor
Answer:
(B) His ships sank at sea

Question 12.
Which word best describes the writer ?
(A) Greedy
(B) Happy
(C) Wise
(D) Weak
Answer:
(A) Greedy

Question 13.
Why do you think Fortune gives the gold to the beggar ?
(A) He has too much gold already
(B) To teach him a lesson
(C) He likes the way the beggar dresses
(D) To make him the richest man in the world
Answer:
(B) To teach him a lesson

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What kind of man was the beggar ?
Answer:
(a) The beggar was a greedy man.
(b) He was insincere and hypocritic even at his thoughts.

Question 15.
What is the moral of this passage ?
Answer:
(a) Greediness brings us misery.
(b) To teach is very easy than to practise.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

9. Read the following passage.

Why don’t Indian people go to libraries anymore? The reason is that even though India has a population of approximately 100 crores, only 50 per cent are literate and only 30 per cent educated. So, out of 100 hardly 5 people visit libraries and make use of the facilities.

Most of the erudite class lives in the metros or smaller cities and towns. Life in the smaller towns and cities is slower than the metros and at the end of the day, they get time to fulfil their hobbies. But only a fragment of the educated class can afford to pursue a hobby. People cannot afford to lose themselves in the fantastic world of books due to monetary constraints. Often those who are interested in reading do not have the financial backup, whereas people who are rich enough to buy all the luxuries of the world do not consider books a money-spinning investment.
People do not mind spending thousands of rupees on clothes but think twice before buying a book. People no longer have the space, time and energy in their lives to read.

Another aspect, which needs to be highlighted in this context, is the inception of satellite television. It is largely responsible for the decline in reading habits, especially among the youth.
Today we are addicted to the television. As a result, children instead of going through big bulky books for pleasure or purpose prefer watching their favourite TV channel. And those who do read, do not necessarily read good literature. As somebody said, “education has produced a vast population able to read but unable to distinguish what is worth reading”.

It is a fact that a major setback to the libraries all over the world has come due to the Internet. Nobody has the time and patience to go to the libraries. Instead, they prefer accessing online e-book services, which save time and money.
Another fact, which fails to draw people towards the library, is that a number of them are funded by the State Governments, which are always short of resources to update the books and facilities and as a result, fail to provide the reader with the latest and handy information.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
The libraries run on government funds always
(A) don’t attract readers
(B) attract readers
(C) lack in funds
(D) are allotted more funds
Answer:
(C) lack in funds

Question 12.
People prefer accessing online e-book services because
(A) they save time and money
(B) they fascinate the youth
(C) they have variety of programmes
(D) they are very near to their dwelling places
Answer:
(A) they save time and money

Question 13.
The responsible thing for decrease in number among the young people in reading is
(A) lack of money
(B) satellite television
(C) lack of interest
(D) lack of energy
Answer:
(B) satellite television

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What do the rich prefer to buy ; the luxuries or the books ? Why ?
Answer:
The rich prefer to buy the luxuries of the world as they don’t consider books a money-spinning investment.

Question 15.
Why should one read books ?
Answer:
One should read books to acquire knowledge about various things.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

10. Read the following passage.

Until a few years ago, the most extensive attempt to communicate with chimpanzees went something like this: A newborn chimp was taken into a household with a newborn baby, and both would be raised together—twin cribs, twin bassinets, twin high chairs, twin potties, twin diaper pails, twin babypowder cans. At the end of three years, the young chimp had, of course, far outstripped the young human in manual dexterity, running, leaping, climbing and other motor skills.

But while the child was happily babbling away, the chimp could say only, and with enormous difficulty, “Mama,” “Papa,” and “cup.” From this it was widely concluded that in language, reasoning and other higher mental functions, chimpanzees were only minimally competent, as it was published in “Beasts abstract not.” Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
A home reared chimp has:-
(A) A well developed physical abilities
(B) A well developed language skills
(C) A well developed hygiene sense
(D) A better sense of living
Answer:
(A) A well developed physical abilities

Question 12.
The three year old chimp is different from a child, as:-
(A) He can’t climb trees like other chimps
(B) He could speak like humans
(C) He could do different things like humans
(D) He can’t speak like humans
Answer:
(D) He can’t speak like humans

Question 13.
The different types of skills that humans develop by three years are:-
(A) Physical
(B) Communicative
(C) Language
(D) All the above
Answer:
(D) All the above

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What was the method of communicating with Chimps described here?
Answer:
Rearing the chimp along with a human baby and developing the skills.

Question 15.
What was the conclusion of the study?
Answer:
In language, chimpanzees have only minimally competency in reasoning and other higher mental functions.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

11. Read the following passage.

Many managers believe that the costs of marketing form an additional expense that have to be accepted in order to sell their goods. While it is true that many companies use certain tools of marketing for this purpose, it is also true that the most successful companies accept marketing as an essential of the company’s total commercial operation, for it is an essential cost in the same way as production or finance.

Companies often avoid planning marketing procedures in detail because of the effort needed to express their forward policy in a written form. Managers commonly consider that their time is too valuable to spend on anything other than urgent operational problems. In fact, the manager who spends his time on dealing with current administrative detail is almost certain to have ignored proper planning in the past.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
The money spend for advertisement is actually:-
(A) An additional cost incurred
(B) A part of the cost of production
(C) A part of the margin of sales
(D) A burden for the management.
Answer:
(B) A part of the cost of production

Question 12.
A major misconception the managers have is:-
(A) They need not spent time more on operational problems.
(B) They need to concentrate more on administration.
(C) They need to concentrate more on marketing strategies.
(D) They need to spent time more on operational problems.
Answer:
(D) They need to spent time more on operational problems.

Question 13.
Planning marketing policies are usually avoided as:-
(A) They are complicated
(B) They are busy
(C) The policies are useless
(D) They won’t help much in the development of the company.
Answer:
(A) They are complicated

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What is the misconception that the managers have about advertising?
Answer:
That the expenditure on advertising is an additional expense.

Question 15.
Who is said to have ignored proper planning?
Answer:
The manager who spends his time on dealing with current administrative details.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

12. Read the following passage.

The skill acquired by the early printers was not used with progressive consistency, nor did it undergo much technical development, when it came to print music. Even in the 1490s, the staves were often left blank for the notes to be added by hand. Sometimes both staves and notes were still so added. The reasons for this were liturgical, economic, and technical. Music-type was costly and consequently scarce.

Its use in a double impression was stow and expensive. Not all those who printed service books could afford this extra luxury. By no means all dioceses followed the use of Rome. Local requirements could be met more conveniently if the notes, at least, were added by hand. This enabled a printer to find a ready market for the same service book in different parts of Europe.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
The most common practice of making music books were:-
(A) Fully printed
(B) Fully handmade
(C) Notes were written
(D) None
Answer:
(C) Notes were written

Question 12.
In the olden days, the Music types were:-
(A) Costly
(B) Rare
(C) Difficult to insert
(D) All the above
Answer:
(D) All the above

Question 13.
The only Completely printed Music books were published from:
(A) Rome
(B) Everywhere
(C) Nowhere
(D) India
Answer:
(A) Rome

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What were the major classified reasons for the difficulties of printing Music?
Answer:
The reasons for difficulties of printing music were liturgical, economic, and technical.

Question 15.
How were the local requirements of Music books cleared?
Answer:
By printing books and entering flotes and staves by hand.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

13. Read the following passage.

The contemporary industrial robot, in the eyes of politicians and others, may wear the halo of high technology, but it came into being to meet a rather mundane need. In the booming labour market the early 1960s, it became increasingly difficult to find people willing to do boring, repetitive and unpleasant jobs. What was needed was not a machine which could master elaborate human skills, but one which could provide the mindless lumpen proletariat demanded by mass production.

What had to be learnt, and proved well within the robot’s capacity, were sequences of precise movement of the arm and hand. Such sequences were relatively easily programmed into a computer memory, especially after the advent of the microprocessor freed robots from their dependence on the mainframe computers of the 1960s.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
The word ‘Mundane’ means:-
(A) Manmade
(B) Realistic
(C) Nature bound
(D) Dull
Answer:
(D) Dull

Question 12.
The greatest step towards programmed memory was:-
(A) Computers
(B) Robots
(C) Microprocessors
(D) Laptops
Answer:
(C) Microprocessors

Question 13.
One of the biggest problems of 1960s was:-
(A) Advent of robots in manufacturing
(B) Increased production in factories
(C) Unwillingness of people to do boring production
(D) Technical downfall.
Answer:
(C) Unwillingness of people to do boring production

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What was the requirement of the 1960s?
Answer:
Not a machine which could master elaborate human skills, but one which could provide the mindless lump demanded by mass production.

Question 15.
How were the robots before and after 1960s different?
Answer:
The Robots before 1960s were controlled by computers, and after 1960s were controlled by Microprocessors.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

14. Read the following passage.

Nepal lies between India and Tibet, among the Himalayan mountains. It is a country of mountains and valleys. The tallest mountain in the world, Mount Everest, is in Nepal. And there are several other mountains nearly as high. When mountaineers try to climb Mount Everest, they take the help of the Sherpas, who live in these mountains, to carry heavy loads and to act as guides.

A long time ago, the Sherpas crossed over the mountains from Tibet and made their homes along the slopes of the Himalayas in Nepal. So, they are rather like the people of Tibet to look at. Here, life is hard, and the entire family, including the children, have to work to get enough to eat.

The Sherpas grow potatoes, barley, garlic, and other vegetables. They also graze their yaks on the higher mountain slopes in the summer and on the lower slopes in the winter. The Sherpas use them for almost everything they need. They ride them, plough with them, and use them to carry their goods. The hairy wool of these animals is made into cloth and their skins into leather boots and tents. The yaks also provide milk, fat and meat. Their dung is dried and used as a fuel instead of wood or coal.

There are hardly any roads in the Himalayas, and everything has to be carried either on animals like yaks and donkeys or on human backs. Even children learn to carry heavy loads in large baskets which are tied to them. The baskets are big enough to carry a person.

The highest mountain tops of the Himalayas are cold, cheerless and covered with snow, but lower down one can find flowers in the spring and summer, and fir trees too. There are colourful butterflies, kites and eagles in the skies, and black and red Himalayan bears hiding in the rocks.

Though the Sherpas lead a tough life in their beautiful country, these small, dark haired people are always cheerful, and like most Buddhist people, they are friendly and kind.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
What is the passage about ?
(A) About Mount Everest
(B) About Nepal
(C) About the Sherpas
(D) About the life in Nepal
Answer:
(C) About the Sherpas

Question 12.
Actually Sherpas are the aborigines of
(A) India
(B) Bhutan
(C) Nepal
(D) Tibet
Answer:
(D) Tibet

Question 13.
What is used as a fuel in Nepal
(A) Coal
(B) Firewood
(C) Dung of the yaks
(D) Dung of cows
Answer:
(C) Dung of the yaks

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What are the modes of transport in the Himalaya?
Answer:
There are hardly any roads ¡n the Himalayas and everything has to be carried either on animals like yaks and donkeys or human backs. Even children learn to carry heavy loads ¡n large baskets which are tied to them. The baskets are big enough to carry a person.

Question 15.
Why do Sherpas look like the people of Tibet ?
Answer:
A long time ago Sherpas crossed over the mountains from Tibet and made their homes along the slopes of the Himalayas in Nepal. So they are rather like the people of Tibet to took at.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

15. Read the following passage.

Gates Avenue was a short street, but it seemed longer because it was so ugly. Most of the families who lived there had very little money. They never expected to have any more. Their houses had not been painted for many years and they did not have even running water.

The girls in the school near Gates Avenue wore pretty new clothes on a spring festival. But one little girl wore same dirty clothes that she had worn all winter. Probably that was the only dress she owned. The teacher noticed this. The little girl was not very rveat.

One day the teacher said, “Leave alone your clothes, would you wash your face before you come to school tomorrow morning?” The girl smiled and replied, “I have only one frock and one face. I cannot give my frock to a laundry. Regarding my face, I shall keep it clean by washing.” The teacher took pity on the poor girl. She bought two new frocks for the oirl. The girl got her spring gifts.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
Many of houses were not painted for many years because
(A) the people were too poor to buy paints,
(B) the people were disinterested to paint.
(C) the paints were very costly.
(D) the school children did not like painted houses.
Answer:
(A) the people were too poor to buy paints,

Question 12.
The girl had been wearing the same dress
(A) for the last three months.
(B) throughout the winter.
(C) since the beginning of summer.
(D) since the beginning of the spring.
Answer:
(B) throughout the winter.

Question 13.
The teacher advised the girl
(A) to work hard.
(B) to be punctual to school.
(C) to keep her face clean.
(D) not to quarrel with others.
Answer:
(C) to keep her face clean.

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
Describe Gates Avenue.
Answer:
Gates Avenue was a short street, but it seemed longer because it was so ugly. Most of the families who lived there had very little money. They never expected to have any more. Their houses had not been painted for many years and they did not have even running water.

Question 15.
Why did the teacher take pity on the girl and what did she do ?
Answer:
The teacher took pity on the girl because she was very poor and she owned only one dress to wear. The teacher bought two new frocks for the girl.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

16. Read the following passage.

Luke was never an ice hockey fan. May be because his sports-minded dad had died when he was only three years old, and he was raised by a single mother who knew absolutely nothing about the game. That mother is me. His older brother, Jay, a diehard arts student, was more interested in exposing Luke to the world of art galleries and movies than to the rough-and-tumble sport of hockey. But in spite of the influences around him, Luke evolved, and one day woke up and had discovered hockey. It was 2002, and he was hooked.

“Mom, I want to join a hockey league,” he announced.

It was a reasonable request from a young boy, but since Luke couldn’t even skate, it was with a heavy heart that I started looking for a team. As a matter of fact, at almost twelve years of age, Luke had never skated a day in his life. I asked a league if it was possible for a nonskater to join. He got the nod and was drafted into house league.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
The expression, “He got the nod …………………“ means
(A) he was refused
(B) he was allowed.
(C) he was thrown out
(D) he was tackled.
Answer:
(B) he was allowed.

Question 12.
Luke’s mother was worried when he said he wanted to join a hockey league because
(A) Luke didn’t even know how to skate
(B) Luke was only twelve years old.
(C) Luke lost his father.
(D) Luke didn’t know about the death of his father
Answer:
(A) Luke didn’t even know how to skate

Question 13.
What do you understand by the expression, “………. and he was hooked”?
(A) he was hanged
(B) he caught something with a hook
(C) he bought a hook
(D) he was attracted
Answer:
(D) he was attracted

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
Why do you think Luke was never an ice hockey fan ?
Answer:
Luke was never an ice hockey fan because his sports-minded dad had died when he was only three years old and he was raised by a single mother.

Question 15.
“But in spite of the influences around him, Luke evolved ” What were the influences around him ?
Answer:
The influences were:

  1. His father had died.
  2. He was raised by a single mother who knew absolutely nothing about the ice hockey.
  3. His older brother Jay was more interested in exposing Luke to the world of art galleries and movies than to the sport of hockey.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

17. Read the following passage.

There is now considerable evidence that Type B malnutrition is a major cause of chronic degenerative diseases. If this is the case, then it is logical to treat such diseases not with drugs but with multiple micronutrient repletion, or ‘pharmaco-nutrition’. This can take the form of pills and capsules-‘nutraceuticals’, or food formats known as ‘functional foods’.

This approach has been neglected hitherto because it is relatively unprofitable for drug companies-the products are hard to patent-and it is a strategy which does not sit easily with modern medical interventionism. Over the last 100 years, the drug industry has invested huge sums in developing a range of subtle and powerful drugs to treat the many diseases we are subject to. Medical training is couched in pharmaceutical terms and this approach has provided us with an exceptional range of therapeutic tools in the treatment of disease and in acute medical emergencies.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
The word’Chronic’means:-
(A) In the order of
(B) collections
(C) Order of stories
(D) difficult to cure
Answer:
(D) difficult to cure

Question 12.
The best ways to fight Type B malnutrition is:?
(A) Therapeutic Tools
(B) Drugs
(C) Functional food
(D) Death
Answer:
(C) Functional food

Question 13.
The drug companies were against Functional Food as:
(A) It was not a good solution
(B) It was unprofitable for them
(C) It has affected their investment on drugs
(D) It was a waste to use them.
Answer:
(C) It has affected their investment on drugs

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What do you mean by ‘Functional Food?
Answer:
A food containing health giving additives.

Question 15.
How has the drug industry become helpful?
Answer:
The drug industry has provided us with an exceptional range of therapeutic tools in the treatment of disease and in acute medical emergencies.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

18. Read the following passage.

The Serengeti lions have been under continuous observation for more than 35 years, beginning with George Schaller’s pioneering work in the 1960s. But the lions in Tsavo, Kenya’s oldest and largest protected ecosystem, have hardly been studied. Consequently, legends have grown up around them. Not only do they look different, according to the myths, they behave differently, displaying greater cunning and aggressiveness. Their fearsome image became well-known in 1898, when two males stalled construction of what is now Kenya Railways by allegedly killing and eating 135 Indian and African laborers.

A British Army officer in charge of building a railroad bridge over the Tsavo River, Lt. Col. J. H. Patterson, spent nine months pursuing the pair before he brought them to bay and killed them. Stuffed and mounted, they now glare at visitors to the Field Museum in Chicago. Patterson’s account of the leonine reign of terror, The Man-Eaters of Tsavo, was an international best-seller when published in 1907. Still in print, the book has made Tsavo’s lions notorious. That annoys some scientists.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
Tsavo is located at:-
(A) USA
(B) Chicago
(C) Britain
(D) Kenya
Answer:
(D) Kenya

Question 12.
The legends were made about the Tsavo Lions, as:-
(A) They were known for their ferociousness
(B) They are mythological
(C) They are not much studied about
(D) They are unique and strange.
Answer:
(A) They were known for their ferociousness

Question 13.
The two male lions are now:-
(A) Still wandering in Tsavo
(B) Displayed in Chicago Zoo
(C) Stuffed and kept at the Field Museum in Chicago
(D) Mythological.
Answer:
(C) Stuffed and kept at the Field Museum in Chicago

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
How was the ferocity of Tsavo Lions came to be famous?
Answer:
In 1898, two male lions stalled the construction of Kenya Railways by allegedly killing and eating 135 Indian and African laborers.

Question 15.
Why were some scientists annoyed?
Answer:
The book by Mr, Patterson, on his hunting down the two male Tsavo lions, has presented the Lions as notorious.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

19. Read the following passage.

During Second World War, American planners were well aware that the United States was going to emerge as a world-dominant power, in a position of hegemony that had few historical parallels, and they organized and met in order to deal with this situation. From 1939 to 1945, extensive studies were conducted by the Council on Foreign Relations and the State Department.

One group was called the War-Peace Studies Group, which met for six years and produced extensive geopolitical analyses and plans. The Council on Foreign Relations is essentially the business input to foreign policy planning. These groups also involved every top planner in the State Department, with the exception of the Secretary of State. The conception that they developed is what they called ‘Grand Area’ planning.

The Grand Area was a region that was to be subordinated to the needs of the American economy. As one planner put it, it was to be the region that is “strategically necessary for world control.” The geopolitical analysis held that the Grand Area had to include at least the Western Hemisphere.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
USA has emerged as a World Power after the
(A) First World War
(B) Second World War
(C) Gulf War
(D) Vietnam War
Answer:
(B) Second World War

Question 12.
The ‘Historical Parallels’ mentioned is:
(A) USSR
(B) Middle East
(C) India
(D) Russia
Answer:
(A) USSR

Question 13.
The economical support required was to be gained from:
(A) The War
(B) Grand Area
(C) USSR
(D) Alaska
Answer:
(B) Grand Area

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
Why were the studies conducted before the Second World War?
Answer:
From 1939 to 1945, extensive studies were conducted by the Council on Foreign Relations and the State Department, in order to deal with historical parallels.

Question 15.
How was ‘Grand Area’ important for USA?
Answer:
The Grand Area was a region that was to be subordinated to the needs of the American economy. It was to be the region that is ‘strategically necessary for world control.”

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

20. Read the following passage.

More than a century later, the Earth seems to be literally falling to pieces – recent environmental setbacks include billions of tonnes of ice shelves breaking off in the Antarctic and unusually warm temperatures in different parts of the world. Panic reactions range from predictions of sinking islands to lamenting the ill-effects of global warming induced by release of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere. The trouble is that we are too obsessed with the climate change problem to even acknowledge the fact that the state of the planet hinges on much more.

Climate change is at best a symptom of a far more complex malaise, just as a fever is most often only an indicator of something that’s gone awry in our body. It’s time for a complete and comprehensive planetary health check, that will examine the impacts of change in land use, loss of biodiversity, use of fertilizers and pesticides and consistent pollution of water bodies. This would overcome the limitations of evaluating how ecosystems work by reacting to just, one major environmental concern as is happening in the case of global warming.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
Ice Shelves in Antarctica is melting down due to:-
(A) Landslides
(B) Heavy Weight
(C) Environmental Change
(D) Chemicals
Answer:
(C) Environmental Change

Question 12.
Environmental changes are best reflected:-
(A) Every day
(B) Seasons
(C) Climate Changes
(D) Pollutions
Answer:
(C) Climate Changes

Question 13.
The problems and impacts of the environmental changes are termed as
(A) Global Warming
(B) Climate Change
(C) Green House Effect
(D) Heat wave
Answer:
(C) Green House Effect

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What are the effects of Global Warming?
Answer:
Breaking of Ice shelves in Antarctica, Climatic Changes, Sinking Islands into the oceans.

Question 15.
Why is a planetary Health Check important now?
Answer:
A whole planetary check now could help in retaining the remaining world and resources, as well as for repairing the damages.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

21. Read the following passage.

Like most teenagers, I dreamed of one day having my name in lights. And perhaps an interview in National Geographic for my work with Rwanda’s apes. May be an Oscar for my portrayal as a feisty heroine in an epic drama preferably set in India. Or a Nobel Prize for poetry, which ‘I’d collect in Stockholm wearing a black turtleneck. Suffice to say, none of these has come true. I prefer dogs to gorillas. My poetry is used to line the bottom of my drawer, and I’ve never been to India.

Sure, as a writer, I get my name in the occasional glow of a nine-point byline, but the difference between Oscars and Nobels and Helvetica type face is that the former are all about me; the latter is by me. With the advent of the internet, all that has changed. Like most users, I am a gratuitous googler, squandering valuable work time looking up invaluable topics such as how to clean my dog’s teeth, how to cook Risotto, and, myriad medical ailments, including tough heels (definitely cancer), lumps on elbows (certainly cancer) and easy bruising (absolutely cancer).

But among these endless searches will be a valuable constant: my own name, Helen Walne. In the great scheme of things I am not very important. I have never been medically paroled from jailed, I haven’t gone to rehab and I am not about to marry a famous celebrity. My husband has gently suggested that I seek psychological help for my addiction.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
‘To have names in Lights’ means:-
(A) To become popular
(B) To be wealthy
(C) To forget all
(D) To lighten up
Answer:
(A) To become popular

Question 12.
The poet says that his creations have come from:-
(A) Bottom of Heart
(B) Bottom of the Pen
(C) Bottom of drawer
(D) death
Answer:
(C) Bottom of drawer

Question 13.
The poet says about the problem she has as addiction to:-
(A) Dream
(B) Drugs
(C) Smoking
(D) Medicines
Answer:
(A) Dream

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What does the poet say about the usage of Google?
Answer:
Most of the people use Google and other such facilities for something which is not that much useful.

Question 15.
What did her husband suggest her?
Answer:
The poet’s husband suggested her to take the help of the psychologist to clear the addiction of dreams.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

22. Read the following passage.

Libraries comprise an important part of the market for printed books and they are increasingly aware of the fragility of this material. The extend of the deterioration of library collections is alarming. Surveys conducted at various major institutions reveal that 26 percent to 40 percent of the books they hold are seriously embrittled and thus unavailable for normal use.

Programmes are now being developed with two main aims in mind-on the one hand, to improve the physical condition of library collections, especially by the process called ‘mass de-acidification’ (which is designed to eliminate acid from the paper of published books and insert a buffer compound that will provide protection against future acid attack form the environment); and on the other, to transfer the contents of existing books to another medium (such as microfilm or optical disk).

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
Now a days, the Libraries face a large scale….
(A) Increase
(B) Deleted
(C) Decrease
(D) Classified
Answer:
(C) Decrease

Question 12.
The books in Libraries are unable to be used as they are:-
(A) Damaged
(B) Neglected
(C) Over used
(D) Torn
Answer:
(B) Neglected

Question 13.
The content of the books need to be transferred to another medium for:-
(A) They need to be preserved
(B) The books are being damaged.
(C) The books are being burned off
(D) Books are being sold off.
Answer:
(B) The books are being damaged.

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
Why are Libraries described as fragile?
Answer:
Because the digital media has started with greater influence among the readers, as they offer great advantages, which Libraries can’t offer.

Question 15.
What do you mean by ‘mass de-acidification’?
Answer:
Mass de-acidification is designed to eliminate acid from the paper of published books and insert a buffer compound that will provide protection against future acid attack from the environment.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

23. Read the following passage.

“On the morning of June 4, some residents of Dandong city of Liaoning province were shot by DPRK [Democratic People’s Republic of Korea, as the North Korea is officially known] border guards on suspicion of crossing the border for trade activities, leaving three dead and one injured”, said Mr. Qin. After the incident, China attached great importance to it and immediately raised solemn representations to the DPRK. The shooting, which also left one person injured, was first reported over, “the weekend by the North Korea Intellectuals Solidarity, a group of defectors based in Seoul, South Korea.

The group said, “The three Chinese were traders who were trying to smuggle copper into China”. Chinese officials did not verify this claim, and said investigations into the incident were still progressing. Recent months have seen some signs of discord between the long-term allies, with China coming under increasing international pressure to take action against North Korea over an attack on a South Korean warship. Following the March 26 sinking of the Cheonan warship, which left 46 sailors dead, South Korea and the West have been calling for strong sanctions against North Korea.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
DPRK stands for:-
(A) Korea
(B) North Korea
(C) South Kore
(D) China
Answer:
(B) North Korea

Question 12.
The shooting was
(A) Very severe and dangerous
(B) Mild and not that dangerous
(C) Three people killed in the accident
(D) The police people were killed
Answer:
(B) Mild and not that dangerous

Question 13.
The long-term allies mentioned here are…………
(A) North and South Korea
(B) North Korea and China
(C) South Korea and China
(D) China and India
Answer:
(B) North Korea and China

Answer the following questions in two or three.

Question 14.
What was the reason for the Shootout on July 4?
Answer:
Four people who were suspected to be smuggling goods from Korea to China were shot.

Question 15.
What was the earlier reason for the unrest in the region?
Answer:
The sinking of the ‘Cheonan warship, which left 46 sailors dead, on March 26.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

24. Read the following passage.

Of the several features or the Toyota Production System that have been widely studied, most important is the mode of governance of the shop-floor at Toyota. Work and inter-relations between workers are highly scripted in extremely detailed ‘operating procedures’ that have to be followed rigidly, without any deviation at Toyota. Despite such rule- bound rigidity, however, Toyota does not become a ‘command-control system’. It is able to retain the character of a learning organization.

In fact, many observers characterize it as a community of scientists carrying out several small experiments simultaneously. The design of the operating procedure is the key. Every principle must find an expression in the operating procedure – that is how it has an effect in the domain of action. Workers on the shop-floor, often in teams, design the ‘operating procedure’ jointly with the supervisor through a series of hypothesis that are proposed and validated or refuted through experiments in action.

The rigid and detailed ‘operating procedure’ specification throws up problems of the very minute kind: while its resolution leads to a refraining of the procedure and specifications. This inter-temporal change (or flexibility) of the specification (or operating procedure) is done at the lowest level of the organization; i.e. closest to the site of action.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
The system of administration which is not found in Toyota is………..
(A) Free and lucid
(B) Operation oriented
(C) Command-Control
(D) Free
Answer:
(C) Command-Control

Question 12.
The key of success, as per the success of Toyota is:-
(A) is to follow the rules and implementations
(B) to not to keep and follow the rules and regulations.
(C) to keep the rules simple and make the customer satisfactory.
(D) Designing the operation procedures with practical wisdom.
Answer:
(D) Designing the operation procedures with practical wisdom.

Question 13.
The rigid and detailed ‘operating procedure’ specification throws up ..
(A) Problems of the very minute kind
(B) The problems to the large extend
(C) Operating Procedures
(D) Commanding and Controlling them.
Answer:
(A) Problems of the very minute kind

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What is the characteristic feature of a learning organization?
Answer:
To keep the rules being followed and make the customers satisfied and happy.

Question 15.
What is the ‘Flexibility’ mentioned in the passage?
Answer:
Deriving resolutions for the problems to the minute kinds and finding the way ahead.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

25. Read the following passage.

We are not only afraid of being in the dark; we are also suspicious of being kept in the dark. We often feel that the universe has a hidden order that we cannot quite comprehend. In ancient times, this order was attributed to the gods – omnipotent beings who controlled humans’ Tales, Greek myths in particular portrayed humans as pawns in the great games played by the gods. More recently, there are suspicions of global conspiracies. These conspiracies are cited for events that are too important to be random. We no longer describe them as “Acts of God.”

So they must be the work of other people – people who are hiding their influence over us, covering up their involvement. They are keeping the rest of us in the dark. Among the events attributed to these people are political assassinations and UFO sightings. Examining these events in minute detail results in a long list of “coincidences” which, in the minds of the conspiracy buffs, are too numerous to be truly random. There must be a central planner who is at the hub of a sinister form of order.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
The omnipotents who controlled humans are the
(A) Rulers
(B) Leaders
(C) Manipulators
(D) Gods
Answer:
(D) Gods

Question 12.
UFO stands for…
(A) Universal Federal Organizations
(B) Universal Financial Organisation
(C) Unidentified Flying Objects
(D) Unidentified Familiar Opponents
Answer:
(C) Unidentified Flying Objects

Question 13.
A suitable replacement for’coincidence’is…
(A) Happenings
(B) Speaking
(C) Dealings
(D) Events
Answer:
(A) Happenings

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
Who are ‘They’ mentioned in the passage?
Answer:
The people who are working behind keeping the majority of the people in dark.

Question 15.
What do you mean by ‘Act of God’?
Answer:
The events that keep us in dark, which were earlier believed to be the actions of Gods.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

26. Read the following passage.

The fundamental problem is that an evolved mind must pay attention to indirect cues of biological fitness, rather than tracking fitness itself. This was a key insight of evolutionary psychology in the early 1990s; although evolution favours brains that tend to maximize fitness (as measured by numbers of great-grandkids), no brain has, on an average, under ancestrally normal conditions.

Technology has fairly good capacity enough to do so under every possible circumstance. As a result, brains must evolve shortcuts: fitness-promoting tricks, cons, recipes and heuristics that work at controlling external reality to promote real biological fitnesses, but it’s even better at delivering fake fitness – subjective cues of survival and reproduction without the real-world effects.

Fitness-faking technology tends to evolve much faster than our psychological resistance to it. With the invention of Xbox 360, people would rather play a high-resolution virtual ape in Peter Jackson’s King Kong than be a perfect-resolution real human. Teens today must find their way through a carnival of addictively fitness-faking entertainment products. The traditional staples of physical, mental and social development – athletics, homework, dating – are neglected. The few young people with the self-control to pursue the meritocratic path often get distracted at the last minute.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
The word ‘Biological Fitness’ stands for:-
(A) Psychological fitness
(B) Physical Fitness
(C) Mental Fitness
(D) Psycho-Physiological Fitness
Answer:
(D) Psycho-Physiological Fitness

Question 12.
Brain has to develop shortcuts because:-
(A) The brain has to adjust with the world of today.
(B) The brain has to adjust as per the technological advancement.
(C) The brain has to develop so as to develop the technology.
(D) The brain and technology has to develop hand in hand.
Answer:
(B) The brain has to adjust as per the technological advancement.

Question 13.
The basic issue of the day ¡s:-
(A) Today’ s teens are not much interested in the traditional methods of fitness.
(B) The technology of the day is supporting the fitness technology of people.
(C) The world has to adjust as per the requirement of the day.
(D) Technology should support the development of the brain also.
Answer:
(A) Today’ s teens are not much interested in the traditional methods of fitness.

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
How is technology different from the human brain?
Answer:
Technology which we have, can evolve over the fitness level but human brain cannot.

Question 15.
What do you mean by ‘Fitness Faking Technology’?
Answer:
Technical advancements which make us believe that we have fitness level which we do not actually possess.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

27. Read the following passage.

Sunil Mittal led Bharti Airtel announced that it had completed the acquisition of Zain Telecom’s Africa operations for $10.7 billion. The company has now 180 million subscribers in 18 Asian and African nations. The company announced that it would launch the Airtel brand in Zain’s operations in all the 15 nations. Announcing the completion of the deal, Bharti Group Chairman Sunil Mittal said, “The transaction is the largest ever cross border deal in an emerging market and will result in combined revenues of about $13 billion.

Bharti finally entered Africa after aborting negotiations twice for merger with MTN since 2008, with Mr. Mittal stating that in the Zain’s case, Airtel would have a total control, He said “Zain Africa would now be 100 per cent subsidiary of Bharti International”. This deal would signal many new investments that would go to Africa, he added. At present, China Mobile is the world’s largest mobile player with a subscriber base of 522 million, followed by Vodafone (348 million), Telefonica (206 million) and American Movil (201 million).

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
In South Asian Numbering System, one Billion is…
(A) One Crore
(B) 100 Crores
(C) 100 Lakhs
(D) 1000 Lakhs
Answer:
(B) 100 Crores

Question 12.
The word ‘Cross Border’ means:-
(A) Across the border of the neighbouring nations.
(B) Across two war affected Countries.
(C) Across two nations
(D) Across two states.
Answer:
(C) Across two nations

Question 13.
The deal is finalized with:-
(A) Making Airtel collaborating with Zian Africa.
(B) Making Zian Africa a completely controlled subsidiary of Bharti Airtel.
(C) Making Bharti Airtel a subsidiary of Zian Africa.
(D) Both Bharti Airtel and Zian Africa are sharing the deal.
Answer:
(B) Making Zian Africa a completely controlled subsidiary of Bharti Airtel.

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
How long Bharti Airtel had been trying to enter Africa?
Answer:
Sharti Airtel had been trying to enter Africa, since 2008 or for 9 years.

Question 15.
Why do you think China Mobile is the world’s largest Mobile Player?
Answer:
As China has the largest population, and almost all people use mobile phones, China is the largest Mobile Player in the world.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

28. Read the following passage.

A comprehensive emergency obstetrics and neonatal care centre block will be constructed at an estimated cost of 9 crore with World Bank assistance at the Annal Gandhi Memorial Government Hospital. A three-member World Bank team from New Delhi led by Preeti Kudesia and Sundararajan S Gopalan, (Senior Health Specialists) and Sangeeta Pinto (Operations Analyst), which visited the site of the proposed block at the Hospital, expressed satisfaction about the site.

Talking to the media persons, Dr Preeti Kudesia said that the team-members would discuss about the proposed project with the Tamil Nadu Health Secretary and other officials at Chennai in a day or two. The proposed block was expected to be constructed in a span of two years even though the project period would be three years, she said. She pointed out that the World Bank was supporting the Tamil Nadu Health Systems Project. It provided soft loan to the Tamil Nadu Government for implementing various health projects.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
The word ‘Comprehensive’ means:-
(A) Clear
(B) Include
(C) Complete
(D) Include
Answer:
(C) Complete

Question 12.
The passage says that:-
(A) The construction of the block is already done.
(B) The construction of the new block is being planned.
(C) The construction of the building is rejected and neglected.
(D) The construction of the new building is to be completed.
Answer:
(B) The construction of the new block is being planned.

Question 13.
The construction of the new block is:-
(A) Supported by World Bank.
(B) Supported by The Government of Tamil Nadu
(C) Supported by TN Health System
(D) Supported by The Government of India
Answer:
(A) Supported by World Bank.

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
When is the project of New Block to be completed?
Answer:
The Project of New Block is to be constructed in a span of two years even though the project period would be three years.

Question 15.
What do you mean by ‘Tamil Nadu Health Systems Project?
Answer:
A World Bank supported programme in Tamil Nadu, to support the Health Improvement Programmes of the people of Tamil Nadu.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

29. Read the following passage.

Among those who call themselves socialists, two kinds of persons may be distinguished. There are, in the first place, those whose plan for a new order of society, in which private and individual competition are to be superseded and other motives to action substituted, are on the scale of a village community of township, and would be applied to an entire country by the multiplication of such self-acting units; of this character are the systems of Owen, of Fourier, and the more thoughtful and philosophic socialists generally.

The other class, which is more a product of the continent than of Great Britain and may be called the revolutionary socialists, has people who propose to themselves a much bolder stroke. Their scheme is the management of the whole productive resources of the country by one central authority, the general government. And with this view some of them avow as their purpose that the working classes, or somebody on their behalf, should take possession of all the property of the country, and administer it for the general benefit.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
The basic difference between the two kinds of Socialists is:-
(A) Traditional and Rebellious
(B) Traditional and Reverting
(C) Traditional and Revolutionary
(D) Revolutionary and Reverting
Answer:
(C) Traditional and Revolutionary

Question 12.
The word ‘supersede’ means:-
(A) At a great speed
(B) To replace something
(C) To Reduce Something
(D) Replace
Answer:
(B) To replace something

Question 13.
The Second Category of Socialists are generally called:-
(A) The dangerous Dacoits
(B) The Revolutionaries
(C) The Vicious groups
(D) The Sedative Group
Answer:
(B) The Revolutionaries

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What is the ideology of the second Category of Socialists?
Answer:
The Second Category Socialists believe that the production needs to be controlled by the Central Authority, like the Government.

Question 15.
What is the basic Philosophy of the first category of the Socialists?
Answer:
The wealth of the nation or the society should never be concentrated in the hands of some people, but distributed to all the people equally.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

30. Read the following passage.

The Japanese want their Emperor to reign for long, but their Prime Ministers to have very short tenures. During the 61 years Hirohito has been on the Chrysanthemum throne, 38 prime ministers have come and gone (or atleast 32, if returns to power are left out of account). Eisaku Sato’s eight uninterrupted years as prime minister in the Sixties and early Seventies provoked fears about the possible ill-effects of one-man leadership on Japanese democracy, and led the dominant Liberal Democratic Party (LDP) to lay down the norm of a two-year for a party chief and head of government.

Mr. Yasuhiro Nakasone, now bowing out, has served for an unusual five years. His success as Prime Minister was evidenced by the ruling party re-electing him leader more than once. But his plan to push through the Diet a Bill to levy 5 percent indirect tax as part of financial reforms failed, in spite of LDP majority in both the chambers. It was time then for him to go.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
The passage reveals that the Governing system of Japan is basically of:-
(A) The elected body by the people.
(B) The Kingship of the past
(C) The Elected Body under the Kingship.
(D) The Kingship under the Elected body.
Answer:
(C) The Elected Body under the Kingship.

Question 12.
Japanese Democracy is led by:-
(A) The Prime Minister
(B) The King
(C) The King & The PM
(D) None
Answer:
(A) The Prime Minister

Question 13.
The Official Kingship of Japan is described as:
(A) LDP
(B) The Chrysanthemum throne
(C) The PM
(D) Leader
Answer:
(B) The Chrysanthemum throne

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
How did the Government system in Japan change?
Answer:
Eisaku Sato’s eight uninterrupted years as prime minister in the Sixties and early Seventies provoked fears about the possible ill-effects of one-man leadership on Japanese democracy, and led the dominant Liberal Democratic Party (LDP) to lay down the norm of a two-year for a party chief and head of government.

Question 15.
How is Mr. Yasuhiro Nakasone different from other Prime Ministers of Japan?
Answer:
He has served as the Prime Minister for Five Years.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

31. Read the following passage.

An urgent problem is now threatening libraries throughout the world. Their collections that are crucial for diverse purposes as economic development, educational research and recreational pursuits are in danger of disintegrating. ‘ The problem is mainly due to one cause-the type of paper on which books have been printed for the past one and a half centuries. Until the 1850s, paper was produced from linen or cotton rags and proved to be relatively long-lasting.

In the mid-19th century, however, the popular demand for paper and the commercial need for an economic method of production led to the use of mechanically ground wood pulp. Paper manufactured from wood pulp is highly acidic and therefore inherently unstable. It contains lignin-a major factor in causing paper to discolour and disintegrate. The useful lifespan of most 20th century book paper has been estimated to be no more than a few decades.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
The major problem that the libraries face now are:
(A) Preserving the books
(B) Lack of reading community
(C) Advancing Technology
(D) Quality of the books being bought.
Answer:
(A) Preserving the books

Question 12.
The most important aspect of a book is:
(A) The kind of user it aims
(B) The kind of information it carries
(C) The kind of paper used for its making
(D) The kind of ink used for printing.
Answer:
(C) The kind of paper used for its making

Question 13.
The paper made with latest advanced technology :-
(A) Could last longer than expected.
(B) Has a very limited life span
(C) Is much better than the old paper
(D) Could last for ever.
Answer:
(B) Has a very limited life spa

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What are the basic purposes for which the Libraries are being used?
Answer:
Economic development, educational research and recreational pursuits.

Question 15.
Why was the quality of the paper had to be compromised?
Answer:
The popular demand for paper and the commercial need for an economic method of production led to the use of mechanically ground wood pulp, and compromise the quality.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

32. Read the following sentences.

Every state has constitution, since every state functions on the basis of certain rules and principles. It has often been asserted that the United States has a written constitution but that the Constitution of Great Britain is unwritten. This is true only in the sense that, in the United States, there is a formal document called the Constitution, whereas there is not such document in Great Britain.

In fact, however, many parts of the British Constitution exist in written form, whereas important aspects of the American Constitution are wholly unwritten. The British Constitution includes the Bill of Rights (1689), the Act of Settlement (1700-01), the Parliament Act of 1911, the successive Representation of the People Acts (which extended the suffrage), the statutes dealing with the structure of the courts, the various local government Acts, and many others.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
The meaning of’Local Government’is:-
(A) The hierarchy or ruling with the King as the Head
(B) The Prime Minister and the Group of Ministers.
(C) The Chief Ministers and the Cabinet Ministers
(D) The Village / Panchayat Level Administration
Answer:
(D) The Village / Panchayat Level Administration

Question 12.
The Nation which has an unwritten Constitution is:-
(A) The USA
(B) England
(C) India
(D) Japan
Answer:
(B) England

Question 13.
The word’Suffrage’means:-
(A) The Right to participate in Elections.
(B) The Right to make people Suffer.
(C) The Right to vote in Elections.
(D) The Right to become the ruler.
Answer:
(C) The Right to vote in Elections.

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
Why does every state need a Constitution?
Answer:
Every state needs a constitutIon so that it functions on the basis of certain rules and principles.

Question 15.
What do you mean by ‘A Written Constitution’?
Answer:
To have a formal Document called The Constitution.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

33. Read the following passage.

A truly preventive medicine that focused on the pre-ill, analysing the metabolic errors which lead to clinical illness, might be able to correct them before the first symptom. Genetic risk factors are known for all the chronic degenerative diseases, and are important to the individuals who possess them. At the population level, however, migration studies confirm that these illnesses are linked for the most part to lifestyle factors—exercise, smoking and nutrition. Nutrition is the easiest of these to change, and the most versatile tool for affecting the metabolic changes needed to tilt the balance away from disease.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
What we mean by’Pre-ill’is:-
(A) The occurrence of a specific Illness earlier.
(B) Before falling sick.
(C) The occurrence of the illness later in life.
(D) The history of the disease.
Answer:
(B) Before falling sick.

Question 12.
One of the major risk factor for chronic degenerative diseases are:-
(A) Life standards
(B) Migration
(C) Generic Risk
(D) Smoking
Answer:
(C) Generic Risk

Question 13.
The major studies are usually done in the fields of:-
(A) Generic
(B) Migration
(C) Nutrition
(D) All of the above
Answer:
(D) All of the above

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
How does the ‘Nutrition’ become a factor of illness?
Answer:
Nutrition is the most versatile tool for affecting the metabolic changes needed to tilt the balance away from disease.

Question 15.
What are identified as the reasons for many illness in the population level study?
Answer:
Lifestyle and Nutrition.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

34. Read the following passage. (March 2018)

Great and marvellous indeed are the achievements of Science. It has broken down the barriers of time and distance. Travelling has become short, safe and comfortable. It has made contact and communication with the wold easier and quicker by inventing telephones, telegraphs and the wireless. Agricultre is no longer at the mercy of nature. Yields have been multiplied with the help of mechanized farming and chemical fertilizers. Science has brought a revolution in the sphere of trade, commerce, industry and entertainment. It has relieved human suffering by discovering the secrets of health and diseases.

We, thus, see that Science is a blessing, but it is not an unmixed blessing. No doubt, it has turned impossibility into possibility, imagination into reality. But the question is whether it has taught us how to walk.on the mother earth. It has brought forth the evils of industrialization. Machines have become the masters of man. Can we forget dirty slums, unequal distribution of wealth and large scale unemployment in the wake of industrialization ? Wars have become more hideous than ever before. Thanks to the invention of terrible engines of destruction by Science.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
Science has brought a revolution in _______
(A) trade and distance
(B) trade, commerce and industry
(C) time and commerce
(D) time and distance
Answer:
(B) trade, commerce and industry

Question 12.
Science has _______ the human suffering.
(A) reduced
(B) kept constant
(C) increased
(D) added to
Answer:
(A) reduced

Question 13.
The following can be the best proposed title to the passage.
(A) Advantages of Science
(B) Advantages and Disadvantages of Science
(C) Disadvantages of Science
(D) Achievements of Science
Answer:
(B) Advantages and Disadvantages of Science

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
Why does the writer say, ‘Agriculture is no longer at the mercy of nature” ?
Answer:
Since crop yields have been multiplied with the use of mechanized farming and chemical fertilizers, agriculture is no longer at the mercy of nature.

Question 35.
What do you think are the evils of industrialization ?
Answer:
The evils of industrialization are that machines have become the masters of man. It has given rise to the large scale increase of dirty slums and unequal distribution of wealth and unemployment.

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

35. Read the following passage. (June 2018)

Long ago in Mongolia there lived an emperor who feared growing old. One day, he saw an old man in the street. Upset at being reminded that some day, he too, would age, he ordered all the old people to leave his land.
One day, a violent storm swept the kingdom. Nothing was safe from its fury. It roared into the palace and blew away the emperor’s belongings, including his priceless golden pitcher. When the storm ended, the emperor ordered that the pitcher be found and brought back to him.

People went in search of the pitcher. They saw it in a lake nearby. But no matter who tried, no one could get a grip on the pitcher. All they got was a handful of water. Yet it could be plainly seen, glittering and just below the water’s surface.

Now, Choose the correct answer from the options given.

Question 11.
The emperor’s orders were that all the
(A) old men should leave his land.
(B) the children should leave his land.
(C) young man should leave his land
(D) old men should live in his land.
Answer:
(A) old men should leave his land.

Question 12.
The emperor feared of getting
(A) young
(B) ill
(C) weak
(D) old
Answer:
(D) old

Question 13.
On seeing the old man he reminded that he also would be
(A) getting old
(B) dying soon
(C) becoming strong
(D) defeated
Answer:
(A) getting old

TS 10th Class English Reading Comprehension Passages Question Number 11 to 15

Answer the following questions in two or three sentences.

Question 14.
What happened when the storm attacked the kingdom ?
Answer:
The storm swept the kingdom. It roared into the palace and blew away the emperors belongings, including his priceless golden pitcher.

Question 15.
Do you support the emperor’s decision ? Why ?
Answer:
I don’t support the emperor’s decision because every person would age and old people are the storehouses of wisdom.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

These TS 10th Class English Important Questions Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22 will help the students to improve their time and approach.

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(1) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Eshwar Chandra Vidyasagar was a great social reformer. He fought hard against many evil practices ________ (19) blind beliefs which affected the Indian society of his time. He strongly felt that people ________ (20) India should develop love for their country. He taught them self-respect. It ________ (21) his habit surprising people with his good acts. Vidyasagar was born in a poor family ________ (22) Bengal in 1820.

Question 19.
(A) and
(B) but
(C) or
(D) yet
Answer:
(A) and

Question 20.
(A) by
(B) to
(C) for
(D) of
Answer:
(D) of

Question 21.
(A) are
(B) is
(C) was
(D) am
Answer:
(C) was

Question 22.
(A) in
(B) at
(C) on
(D) for
Answer:
(A) in

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(2) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

To the north of the Himalayas lies a land called Tibet. Here are some ________ (19) mountains, highland lakes, thick forests, rare birds and special animals. Tibet is our neighbouring country. Its people are called Tibetans. They are nomads and they live ________ (20) tents. The tents are made of the belly – wool of the yak. It is very strong and ________ (21) for many years. The yak is the ________ (22) precious animal for Tibetans.

Question 19.
(A) snow-covering
(B) snow-covers
(C) snow-cover
(D) snow-covered
Answer:
(D) snow-covered

Question 20.
(A) in
(B) on
(C) under
(D) beside
Answer:
(A) in

Question 21.
(A) lasted
(B) lasts
(C) last
(D) will last
Answer:
(B) lasts

Question 22.
(A) more
(B) many
(C) most
(D) much
Answer:
(C) most

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(3) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

________ (19) olden days the crow was white. It was as white as a swan. She thouht she was not as beautiful as a peacock. She wanted to appear more beautiful than the peacock. She went to ________ (20) owl who is the painter of the birds. Se requested the owl paint his wings peacock blue. The crow sat on a pot and ________ (21) her wings for the owl to paint. While the owl ________ (22) her wings the crow slipped and fell in the pot.

Question 19.
(A) At
(B) On
(C) In
(D) By
Answer:
(C) In

Question 20.
(A) a
(B) an
(C) the
(D) this
Answer:
(B) an

Question 21.
(A) stretch
(B) stretched
(C) stretches
(D) will stretch
Answer:
(B) stretched

Question 22.
(A) am painting
(B) are painting
(C) is painting
(D) was painting
Answer:
(D) was painting

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(4) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

It is a fact that cleanliness ensures some check, ________ (19) mosquitoes breeding. Mosquitoes ________ (20) if there is no water logging. We must use mosquito nets and ________ (21) our houses sprayed with DDT. There is no need of ________ (22) that we must wear shirts with full sleeves and full pants.

Question 19.
(A) on
(B) in
(C) for
(D) by
Answer:
(A) on

Question 20.
(A) will breeding
(B) breed
(C) will not breed
(D) will be bred
Answer:
(C) will not breed

Question 21.
(A) got
(B) get
(C) getting
(D) have got
Answer:
(B) get

Question 22.
(A) saying
(B) say
(C) says
(D) will say
Answer:
(A) saying

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(5) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

James Simpson was born in 1811 in Scotland in a baker’s family. Right ________ (19) his childhood he was good at studies. His father ________ (20) him to pursue higher studies. He joined ________ (21) University of Edinburgh at the age of fourteen. He choose to study medicine and by the time he was twenty one years of age he was ________ (22) as a doctor.

Question 19.
(A) of
(B) about
(C) for
(D) from
Answer:
(D) from

Question 20.
(A) encourage
(B) encourages
(C) encouraged
(D) encouraging
Answer:
(C) encouraged

Question 21.
(A) a
(B) the
(C) an
(D) one
Answer:
(B) the

Question 22.
(A) qualify
(B) qualifying
(C) qualified
(D) qualifies
Answer:
(C) qualified

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(6) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Small pox, the most devastating and feared pestilence in human history, is making its last stand in two remote areas of Ethiopia, one in the desert and one in the mountains. As of the end of the August ________ (19) five villages had experienced cases ________ (20) the preceding eight weeks. The last known case was on 9th August. Because man is the only known ________ (21) of the small pox virus, the disease should be ________ (22) forever when the last infected person recovers.

Question 19.
(A) much
(B) the
(C) only
(D) many
Answer:
(C) only

Question 20.
(A) about
(B) in
(C) of
(D) for
Answer:
(B) in

Question 21.
(A) culprit
(B) reservoir
(C) producer
(D) generator
Answer:
(A) culprit

Question 22.
(A) existed
(B) eliminated
(C) elaborated
(D) estimated
Answer:
(B) eliminated

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(7) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Laughter brings people together whereas keeping to oneself distances people. It has ________ (19) been rightly said that laughter is the shortest distance between two persons. Once two persons ________ (20) together, the circle of acquaintance and consequently friendship ________ (21), thus making the world a happy place to live ________ (22).

Question 19.
(A) hence
(B) so
(C) however
(D) therefore
Answer:
(D) therefore

Question 20.
(A) get
(B) come
(C) sit
(D) are
Answer:
(B) come

Question 21.
(A) widens
(B) broadens
(C) increases
(D) grows
Answer:
(D) grows

Question 22.
(A) in
(B) on
(C) at
(D) upon
Answer:
(A) in

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(8) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

One of the major problems we have to face is that of unemployment. It is a big problem, a human problem, which we shouldn’t ________ (19). Yet in looking ________ (20) it, it has to be remembered that merely giving some kind of occupation to a large number ________ (21) people does not ultimately increase employment or lessen unemployment. Employment comes by newer and more effective means of wealth production. The whole experience and history of the past 200 years shows that it comes ________ (22) the growth of technological methods.

Question 19.
(A) Ignore
(B) avoid
(C) overlook
(D) neglect
Answer:
(A) Ignore

Question 20.
(A) into
(B) after
(C) at
(D) on
Answer:
(A) into

Question 21.
(A) in
(B) out
(C) of
(D) into
Answer:
(C) of

Question 22.
(A) by
(B) through
(C) for
(D) from
Answer:
(B) through

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(9) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Do not imagine that we can effectively deal with the problem of unemployment without ________ (19) We cannot. Every country which boasts of ________ (20) employment is a country which is technologically advanced. Every country which is not technologically advanced has unemployment or under-employment. Therefore, if India is to advance, she must advance in science and technology. The fact is that our poverty is ________ (21) our backwardness in science and technology. If we ________ (22) that backwardness we create not only wealth but also employment.

Question 19.
(A) technological progress
(B) technical progress
(C) technological temper
(D) technical temper
Answer:
(A) technological progress

Question 20.
(A) complete
(B) total
(C) full
(D) ultimate
Answer:
(C) full

Question 21.
(A) due to
(B) owing
(C) because of
(D) on account of
Answer:
(A) due to

Question 22.
(A) treat
(B) remedy
(C) remove
(D) eradicate
Answer:
(D) eradicate

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(10) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

When she appeared on the screen without ________ (19) cosmetic sales declined. When she played the role of a nun,convent enrolments ________ (20). Letters were delivered to her addressed simply “Ingrid Bergman”. Industrialist Howard Hughes once ________ (21) every available air ticket ________ (22) New York to Los Angeles to be sure she would accept a seat in his private plane. An admirer walked with a sheep all the way from Sweden to Rome as a gift for her.

Question 19.
(A) shoes
(B) hat
(C) jacket
(D) make-up
Answer:
(D) make-up

Question 20.
(A) increased
(B) decreased
(C) lessened
(D) remained steady
Answer:
(A) increased

Question 21.
(A) brought
(B) bought
(C) sold
(D) boarded
Answer:
(B) bought

Question 22.
(A) from
(B) far
(C) at
(D) among
Answer:
(A) from

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(11) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

One of the most ________ (19) women of her time, Ava Gardner never did anything ________ (20) supremely simple self. At the peak of her stardom, Ingrid insisted on taking screen tests and refused leads in favour of lesser but more ________ (21) roles. When the director told his prospective star that they would have to change her name, cap her ________ (22) and pluck her eyebrows, Ingrid threatened to return to Sweden. And so the famous natural look was born.

Question 19.
(A) non-descript
(B) average
(C) self-effacing
(D) glamorous
Answer:
(D) glamorous

Question 20.
(A) and
(B) still
(C) yet
(D) but
Answer:
(D) but

Question 21.
(A) monotonous
(B) humdrum
(C) challenging
(D) similar
Answer:
(C) challenging

Question 22.
(A) nose
(B) cheeks
(C) teeth
(D) elbows
Answer:
(C) teeth

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(12) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

There are quite a few people in the world who are fat and are ________ (19). These people are suspectible to several kinds of illness. Medical advice to these people is to reduce their weight. But it is found difficult to follow this ________ (20) in its totality ________ (21) who want to reduce must drink about a glass full of water, of maximum bearable warmth, before ________ (22)

Question 19.
(A) underweight
(B) overweight
(C) physically fit
(D) thin
Answer:
(B) overweight

Question 20.
(A) command
(B) order
(C) advice
(D) vice
Answer:
(C) advice

Question 21.
(A) dogs
(B) cats
(C) pigs
(D) people
Answer:
(D) people

Question 22.
(A) dancing
(B) swimming
(C) singing
(D) eating
Answer:
(D) eating

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(13) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

The gulping should be done ________ (19). Very soon these people will find their weight coming down by four or five kilograms. Warm water ________ (20) all the glands and secretions in the stomach, and they in turn let the food eaten be digested well. The person gets the ________ (21) out of the nourishment. It also reduces the intake of ________ (22) because it eliminates incomplete assimilation of food.

Question 19.
(A) slowly
(B) gradually
(C) rarely
(D) quickly
Answer:
(D) quickly

Question 20.
(A) endangers
(B) activates
(C) revitalises
(D) discourages
Answer:
(B) activates

Question 21.
(A) least
(B) nothing
(C) nominal
(D) most
Answer:
(D) most

Question 22.
(A) oxygen
(B) bear
(C) food
(D) gin
Answer:
(C) food

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(14) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

The joint family gave way to the nuclear family. Despite the privacy the nuclear family offers, children feel ________ (19), lonely and frustrated leading to phychiatric problems, pressures and ________ (20). A cross-section of children were interviewed, and the matter-of-factly pin pointed problems, at the same time ________ (21) showing the way to ________ (22) solutions.

Question 19.
(A) neglected
(B) avoided
(C) disregarded
(D) segarated
Answer:
(A) neglected

Question 20.
(A) burdens
(B) complexities
(C) complications
(D) disadvantages
Answer:
(B) complexities

Question 21.
(A) inadvertently
(B) unknowingly
(C) obviously
(D) clearly
Answer:
(A) inadvertently

Question 22.
(A) unreasonable
(B) plausible
(C) remarkable
(D) referred
Answer:
(B) plausible

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(15) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

At a time when it has become so important ________ (19) in school, we shouldn’t be ________ (20) to learn that more students are cheating than ever before. With so many of them anxious ________ (21) failing. Students also now seem to believe that those who cheat are unlikely ________ (22).

Question 19.
(A) succeed
(B) succeeding
(C) success
(D) to succed
Answer:
(D) to succed

Question 20.
(A) surprise
(B) surprised
(C) surprises
(D) surprising
Answer:
(B) surprised

Question 21.
(A) about
(B) with
(C) of
(D) over
Answer:
(A) about

Question 22.
(A) to catch
(B) to be catching
(C) to be caught
(D) to have caught
Answer:
(C) to be caught

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(16) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Radium is a white powder that ________ (19) like table salt. A pound of it would be worth a thousand kilos of gold. Radium is very ________ (20) because it is so scarce. There are only a few spoonfuls of it in all the world. But radium is so powerful that so much of it would be ________ (21). If half-a-kilo could be gathered at one spot, it ________ (22) kill people who came near it.

Question 19.
(A) is looking
(B) looked
(C) look
(D) looks
Answer:
(D) looks

Question 20.
(A) cheap
(B) cheaply
(C) cost
(D) costly
Answer:
(D) costly

Question 21.
(A) danger
(B) endangered
(C) dangerously
(D) dangerous
Answer:
(D) dangerous

Question 22.
(A) would have been
(B) would be
(C) will
(D) would
Answer:
(D) would

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(17) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

David Livingstone, the great Scottish explorer of Africa, spent three years in the beautiful valley of’the Mabotsa ________ (19) it was called in his days. He lived there in a house that he built ________ (20) his own hands. The valley was the homeland of a tribe called ________ (21) Bakatila, and of lions. On one occasion the explorer found himself in the jaws of one those kingly beasts. Where you read what he says about his experience during those few minutes, you will feel ________ (22) that he lived to tell his story. The Bakatila’s wealth consisted mainly of cattle.

Question 19.
(A) as
(B) though
(C) if
(D) which
Answer:
(A) as

Question 20.
(A) for
(B) with
(C) in
(D) on
Answer:
(B) with

Question 21.
(A) a
(B) an
(C) these
(D) the
Answer:
(A) a

Question 22.
(A) grateful
(B) grate
(C) gratitude
(D) gratefulness
Answer:
(A) grateful

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(18) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

In India, chess was called chaturanga, meaning “four parts.” The name refers to the four army divisions which were standard at the time: foot soldiers, cavalry, chariots, and elephants. Such terminology confirms ________ (19) any doubt that chess was ________ (20) an abstract representation of war ________ (21) the outset. Over the following centuries, like a true conqueror, chess spread across the globe, becoming ever more popular even as earthly empires rose ________ (22) fell.

Question 19.
(A) above
(B) without
(C) beyond
(D) in
Answer:
(C) beyond

Question 20.
(A) designed
(B) thought
(C) considered
(D) known
Answer:
(C) considered

Question 21.
(A) over
(B) about
(C) to
(D) from
Answer:
(D) from

Question 22.
(A) is
(B) was
(C) and
(D) from
Answer:
(C) and

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(19) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Researchers have developed a vaccine to stop the damaging protein, beta-amyloid, ________ (19) piling up as plaque in the brain. The vaccine, ________ (20) sprayed into the nose, instructs the immune system to produce antibodies ________ (21) attach to the rogue proteins and neutralize them. When the researchers tested the vaccine on mice that had been genetically altered to simulate the onset of Alzheimer’s, the rate of plaque formation ________ (22) by 75 percent.

Question 19.
(A) when
(B) that
(C) which
(D) from
Answer:
(D) from

Question 20.
(A) which
(B) was
(C) when
(D) that
Answer:
(C) when

Question 21.
(A) and
(B) that
(C) to
(D) or
Answer:
(B) that

Question 22.
(A) plunged
(B) rose
(C) down
(D) falling
Answer:
(A) plunged

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(20) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

It may be years before a nasal vaccine passes through clinical trials, but another study points to a more immediate, and appetizing, potential therapy. A second group of researchers found ________ (19) diets rich in curcumin, a compound in the curry spice turmeric, reduced the accumulations of beta amyloid protein in rat brains. Rats ________ (20) with curcumin also performed ________ (21) on memory-dependent maze tests than rats on normal diets. The finding may explain why ________ (22) India, where foods are loaded with turmeric, just 10 percent of people over 65 years contract Alzheimer’s – the lowest incidence of the disease worldwide.

Question 19.
(A) their
(B) which
(C) when
(D) that
Answer:
(D) that

Question 20.
(A) cured
(B) treated
(C) healed
(D) dealing
Answer:
(B) treated

Question 21.
(A) well
(B) worse
(C) better
(D) less
Answer:
(C) better

Question 22.
(A) and
(B) in
(C) to
(D) or
Answer:
(B) in

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(21) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Almost everyone has heard of Las Vegas, Nevada. But as famous as the town is, few people know ________ (19) at all about the town’s early history. The Las Vegas Valley was ________ (20) in December 1829 by Rafael Rivera, a Mexican scout who was looking for a new trade route ________ (21) Santa Fe and Los Angles. The valley’s importance was immediately appreciated, and he became one of the critical links in the “Old Spanish Trail,” which was used ________ (22) by pioneers and traders until 1849.

Question 19.
(A) that
(B) If
(C) it
(D) anything
Answer:
(D) anything

Question 20.
(A) invented
(B) discovered
(C) conceived
(D) built
Answer:
(B) discovered

Question 21.
(A) between
(B) for
(C) over
(D) from
Answer:
(A) between

Question 22.
(A) extremely
(B) extensively
(C) expansively
(D) excessively
Answer:
(B) extensively

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(22) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Despite the wealth of information campaigns telling the people ________ (19) global warming and its causes, most people have yet to realize how severe the problem is. Climatic changes could alter as ________ (20) as one third of plant and animal habitats ________ (21) the end of the 22nd century. These changes could in turn cause widespread extinctions among plant and animal ________ (22) around the globe.

Question 19.
(A) despite
(B) just
(C) about
(D) now
Answer:
(C) about

Question 20.
(A) well
(B) long
(C) much
(D) far
Answer:
(C) much

Question 21.
(A) at
(B) by
(C) until
(D) since
Answer:
(B) by

Question 22.
(A) types
(B) genres
(C) categories
(D) species
Answer:
(D) species

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(23) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Coastal and island habitats are perhaps in the greatest danger ________ (19) they face the combined threats of warming oceans and rising sea ________ (20). As habitats change, many animals will come under intense pressure to find more suitable homes for themselves. Mass ________ (21) of at least some animals are certainly to be expected, but the fact remains that many animals will simply not be able to move fast ________ (22).

Question 19.
(A) although
(B) since
(C) providing
(D) therefore
Answer:
(B) since

Question 20.
(A) heights
(B) altitudes
(C) levels
(D) tides
Answer:
(C) levels

Question 21.
(A) migrations
(B) emigration
(C) immigration
(D) extinctions
Answer:
(A) migrations

Question 22.
(A) at
(B) enough
(C) until
(D) since
Answer:
(D) since

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(24) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Somehow, more than two thousand years ago, ancient humans in Mesoamerica figured out the secret of cacao beans. If you scoop them from the pod with their pulp, let them ferment and dry in the sun, then roast them over a gentle fire, ________ (19) extraordinary happens. They become chocolaty. And if you then grind and press the beans, you ________ (20) a rich, crumbly, chocolate-brown paste: chocolate in its most pure and simple ________ (21). The Mayas and Aztecs revered this chocolate, but they combined it with water and spices to create tasty concoctions. Long after Spanish explorers ________ (22) the beverage to Europe in the 16th century, chocolate retained an Aura of aristocratic luxury.

Question 19.
(A) and
(B) something
(C) then
(D) an
Answer:
(B) something

Question 20.
(A) possess
(B) construct
(C) obtain
(D) require
Answer:
(C) obtain

Question 21.
(A) formation
(B) format
(C) form
(D) formula
Answer:
(C) form

Question 22.
(A) introduced
(B) announced
(C) revealed
(D) discovered
Answer:
(A) introduced

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(25) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

In the last two hundred years, an eye blink in chocolate’s history, the bean has been totally democratized, ________ (19) from an elitist drink into familiar candy bars, cocoa powders, candies, and baked goods. Indeed, chocolate is becoming ________ (20) more popular worldwide, with new markets opening up in Eastern Europe and Asia. But that’s both good news and bad. While farmers are producing record numbers of cacao beans, some experts believe that that’s just not enough to keep pace with global ________ (21). What’s worse is that cacao faces ________ (22) dwindling habitats but also the threat of devastating diseases. Has chocolate become a victim of its own success? Is it in trouble?

Question 19.
(A) transported
(B) transformed
(C) transferred
(D) transmitted
Answer:
(B) transformed

Question 20.
(A) ever
(B) always
(C) quite
(D) so
Answer:
(A) ever

Question 21.
(A) warming
(B) marketing
(C) supply
(D) demand
Answer:
(D) demand

Question 22.
(A) Not only
(B) while
(C) so
(D) but
Answer:
(A) Not only

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(26) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Adult tigers will meet socially only during courtship, when a male and female stay together for several days. After successful mating, the tigress will ________ (19) away the male to near the cubs by herself. Cubs are born blind after a gestation period of ________ (20) 96 and 104 days ________ (21) their eyes open after two weeks, they do not begin to ________ (22) well until the second month.

Question 19.
(A) run
(B) throw
(C) give
(D) drive
Answer:
(D) drive

Question 20.
(A) from
(B) Just
(C) between
(D) roughly
Answer:
(C) between

Question 21.
(A) When
(B) Although
(C) If
(D) Because
Answer:
(B) Although

Question 22.
(A) walk
(B) see
(C) eat
(D) sleep
Answer:
(B) see

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(27) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

At this stage, they are most ________ (19) to predators like jackals and hyenas ________ (20) they are left alone for long periods when the tigress is away hunting. Infant mortality is therefore high; a tigress ________ (21) raises more than one cub per litter successfully. She will keep her ________ (22) with her for almost two years, teaching them everything necessary to perfect their survival skills. At the end of this time, she will gently push them away so that she is free to search out a new mate and begin the breeding cycle anew.

Question 19.
(A) averse
(B) subject
(C) vulnerable
(D) inclined
Answer:
(C) vulnerable

Question 20.
(A) and
(B) so
(C) however
(D) as
Answer:
(D) as

Question 21.
(A) seldom
(B) that
(C) usually
(D) only
Answer:
(A) seldom

Question 22.
(A) newborn
(B) descendant
(C) offspring
(D) cub
Answer:
(C) offspring

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(28) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Warmer weather and abnormally mild winters may bode well for orange growers, but they also encourage the proliferation of mosquitoes that carry diseases such as malaria and dengue fever. The incidence of infectious diseases is already on the ________ (19) in the United States, and ________ (20) are occurring in areas previously too cold for mosquitoes to inhabit. In recent years, cases of malaria have been ________ (21) as far north as Michigan, New Jersey, and New York, and a recent study by the Center for Disease Control and Prevention ________ (22) that the proliferation of disease-carrying mosquitoes could increase the percentage of the world’s population at risk from malaria from 42 percent to 60 percent.

Question 19.
(A) go
(B) way
(C) air
(D) rise
Answer:
(D) rise

Question 20.
(A) outbursts
(B) outcomes
(C) outbreaks
(D) outgrowths
Answer:
(C) outbreaks

Question 21.
(A) observing
(B) opened
(C) reported
(D) suffering
Answer:
(C) reported

Question 22.
(A) recommends
(B) suggests
(C) believes
(D) prefers
Answer:
(B) suggests

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(29) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

In ________ (19), lethal heat waves, such as the 1995 event that ________ (20) over 700 people in Chicago alone, will be another deadly consequence of global warming. As temperatures rise, major cities around the world could ________ (21) thousands ________ (22) heat-related deaths annually.

(30) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

One day, he invited me to his home ________ (19) a meal. His wife was horrified at the idea of a Muslim boy ________ (20) invited to dine in her ritually pure kitchen. She ________ (21) to serve me in her kitchen. Sivasubramania Iyer was not perturbed, ________ (22) did he get angry with his wife, but instead, served me with his own hands and sat down beside me to eat his meal.

Question 19.
(A) to
(B) for
(C) with
(D) in
Answer:
(A) to

Question 20.
(A) be
(B) been
(C) being
(D) has been
Answer:
(B) been

Question 21.
(A) refused
(B) refuses
(C) refuse
(D) refusing
Answer:
(A) refused

Question 22.
(A) either
(B) neither
(C) or
(D) nor
Answer:
(D) nor

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(31) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Many wars that are fought in the world are fought ________ (19) natural resources. Some wars are fought because the environment is ________ (20) degraded that it is not able to support communities and so they fight over the little that is left. Others are fought because some people want to ________ (21) a lot of the resources, to control them, and to keep many other people out. Now whether this happens at the national level or at the regional level, or even at the global level, sooner or ________ (22) there is discontent.

Question 19.
(A) with
(B) over
(C) against
(D) to
Answer:
(B) over

Question 20.
(A) too
(B) very
(C) so
(D) utterly
Answer:
(C) so

Question 21.
(A) has taken
(B) takes
(C) took
(D) take
Answer:
(D) take

Question 22.
(A) later
(B) latter
(C) after
(D) then
Answer:
(A) later

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(32) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Even the early Indian history unmistakably ________ (19) that the political consciousness of the people has from the very early times, grasped the whole of India as ________ (20) unit and assimilated the entire area as the theatre of its activities. India is not a mere geographical expression, nor is it a mere ________ (21) of separate people, traditions and conventions. India is much ________ (22) than this.

Question 19.
(A) show
(B) shows
(C) shown
(D) showing
Answer:
(B) shows

Question 20.
(A) a
(B) an
(C) the
(D) those
Answer:
(A) a

Question 21.
(A) collected
(B) collect
(C) collection
(D) collects
Answer:
(C) collection

Question 22.
(A) more
(B) most
(C) many
(D) full
Answer:
(A) more

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(33) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet.

Homework has been given to students to reinforce what they learn at school, and to help them learn the material ________ (19) ________ (20), too much homework is not helpful and ________ (21) be counter-productive. Excessive amounts of time spent on completing homework can ________ (22) the kid’s social life, family time and it limits their participation in sports and other activities.

Question 19.
(A) good
(B) better
(C) more better
(D) best
Answer:
(B) better

Question 20.
(A) tough
(B) however
(C) in addition
(D) therefore
Answer:
(B) however

Question 21.
(A) should
(B) must
(C) can
(D) would
Answer:
(C) can

Question 22.
(A) take away
(B) take back
(C) take down
(D) take off
Answer:
(A) take away

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(34) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. (March 2018)

Thimmakka and Chikkanna were a selfless couple. The sincere efforts and hard work that they put in to ________ (19) the trees along the highway benefited all the people. Many people criticised and discouraged ________ (20) dream of growing trees for such a long stretch. ________ (21), they believed in themselves and carried on with their plan. Though their efforts ________ (22) recognised many years later, their thoughtful action will be remembered forever.

Question 19.
(A) grew
(B) growing
(C) grow
(D) grown
Answer:
(C) grow

Question 20.
(A) there
(B) their
(C) his
(D) her
Answer:
(B) their

Question 21.
(A) But
(B) And
(C) Hence
(D) From
Answer:
(A) But

Question 22.
(A) is
(B) was
(C) were
(D) has
Answer:
(C) were

TS 10th Class English Grammar Cloze Test Question Number 19 to 22

(35) Complete the passage choosing the right word from those given below it. Each blank is numbered and for each blank has four choices (A), (B), (C) or (D) given. Choose the correct answer from these choices and write (A), (B), (C) or (D) in your answer booklet. (June 2018)

Plants grow almost everywhere on our planet. Plants need the same things ________ (19) live. The four things plants need are light, water, air and soil. The roots are underground. This is the part of the plant that takes in water ________ (20) nutrients from the soil. The stem ________ (21) the roots with leaves. The trunk of a tree is a good example of this part of a plant. This part carries water and nutrients from the roots to other parts of the plant ________ (22) leaves are the parts of the plant that grow out of the stem. They take in nutrients and light.

Question 19.
(A) in
(B) to
(C) on
(D) of
Answer:
(B) to

Question 20.
(A) so
(B) as
(C) but
(D) and
Answer:
(D) and

Question 21.
(A) connect
(B) connecting
(C) connects
(D) connected
Answer:
(C) connects

Question 22.
(A) A
(B) An
(C) The
(D) A little
Answer:
(C) The