TS Class 10

These TS 10th Class Social Bits with Answers 19th Lesson Post-War World and India will help students to enhance their time management skills.

TS 10th Class Social Bits 19th Lesson Post-War World and India

Question 1.
The Cold War was between the countries ………………. .( )
A) Japan – America (USA.)
B) USSR – Germany
C) USSR – America (U.S.A.)
D) Britain – France
Answer:
C) USSR – America (U.S.A.)

Question 2.
U.N.O. headquarters is located at …………………… .( )
A) Geneva
B) Switzerland
C) New York
D) France
Answer:
C) New York

Question 3.
Which of the following Is the borderline between India and China? ( )
A) Durand line
B) Mc Mahon line
C) Everest line
D) Radcliffe line
Answer:
B) Mc Mahon line

Question 4.
Who nationalized the Suez canal? ( )
A) Abdul Nazar
B) Churchill
C) George Washington
D) Bismarck
Answer:
A) Abdul Nazar

Question 5.
Which two countries signed the Panchsheel agreement? ( )
A) India-China
B) India-Sri Lanka
C) China-Russia
D) China-Myanmar
Answer:
A) India-China

Question 6.
The conflicts that developed between Arabs and Jews are often described as ( )
A) Europe crisis
B) West Asian crisis
C) South Asian crisis
D) Arab spring
Answer:
B) West Asian crisis

Question 7.
Cold war means ………………… .
A) Traditional war
B) Nuclear war
C) War through propaganda and words
D) Space war
Answer:
C) War through propaganda and words

Question 8.
This is not a specific function of United Nations Organisation ………………….. . ( )
A) preserving peace
B) ensure human rights
C) eradication of poverty
D) encouraging terrorism
Answer:
D) encouraging terrorism

Question 9.
A war fought behind closed doors through propaganda and words is ………………. .()
A) Cold war
B) Direct war
C) Civil war
D) Nuclear war
Answer:
A) Cold war

Question 10.
The first satellite of USSR is …………………….. .( )
A) Aryabhalla
B) Sputnik
C) Kukai
D) Bhaskara
Answer:
B) Sputnik

Question 11.
Bandung Conference, 1955 was the significant wIth the formation of …………….. . ( )
A) Non-aligned Movement
B) Palestinian Libeabon Organization
C) United Nations Organization
D) World Bank
Answer:
A) Non-aligned Movement

Question 12.
This is NOT an issue in between India and Bangladesh ……………… .( )
A) River water sharing
B) Illegal migration
C) Fencing of border
D) Implementation of welfare schemes
Answer:
D) Implementation of welfare schemes

Question 13.
The conflicts between the Arabs and the Jews ( )
A) West Europe conflict.
B) West Asia conflict.
C) West-American conflict.
D) West Africa conflict.
Answer:
B) West Asia conflict.

Question 14.
The opposition groups in the cold war. ( )
A) USA – India
B) USSR – India
C) USA – USSR
D) UK – India
Answer:
C) USA – USSR

Question 15.
Dispute of Brahmaputra – Ganga is between ……………………. . ( )
A) Bharat – Bangladesh
B) Sharat – Pakistan
C) Bharat – Nepal
D) Btarat – Sri Lanka
Answer:
A) Bharat – Bangladesh

Question 16.
Zionist Movement called for ………………. . ( )
A) uniting the Jews.
B) attadlng on Christians.
C) exploiting the Jews.
D) suicide squads.
Answer:
A) uniting the Jews.

Question 17.
The main aim of the Jews in Zionist movement ……………………. .( )
A) for oil resources.
B) independence of Israel,
C) to reclaim Palestine.
D) separation of Palestine from Israel.
Answer:
C) to reclaim Palestine.

Question 18.
One of the principles of Panchsheel pact is …………………. . ( )
A) Interference in others Internal affairs.
B) Non-interference in others internal affairs.
C) Interference in others external affairs
D) Non-interference in others external affairs.
Answer:
B) Non-interference in others internal affairs.

Question 19.
“The West Asian conflicts’ are related to ……………….. . ( )
A) Arabs – Chinese.
B) Arabs – Christians.
C) Arabs – Jews.
D) Arabs – Hindus.
Answer:
C) Arabs – Jews.

Question 20.
The main aim of Palestinian Liberation Organisation is to ( )
A) regain the land, it lost without violence.
B) regain the land, it lost with violence.
C) spread Judaism.
D) spread Christianity.
Answer:
D) spread Christianity.

Question 21.
The conflicts between Arabs and Jews. ( )
A) Vietnam- French conflicts.
B) West Asian conflicts.
C) Norib Africa conflicts.
D) Western Europe conflicts.
Answer:
B) West Asian conflicts.

Question 22.
The issue not related to India and Bangladesh is ……………… .( )
A) Illegal migration.
B) Fencing of border.
C) Sharing of rtver water.
D) Sharing of weapons.
Answer:
D) Sharing of weapons.

Question 23.
During the Second World War, the President of the US was ( )
A) Wilson
B) Truman
C) Regan
D) Eisen Howar
Answer:
B) Truman

Question 24.
The following country was not Involved to draft charter of UNO ( )
A) England
B) France
C) China
D) Japan
Answer:
D) Japan

Question 25.
The membership of UN at the time of establishment ( )
A) 54
B) 51
C) 49
D) 25
Answer:
A) 54

Question 26.
The membership of UN in 2014 ( )
A) 154
B) 120
C) 193
D) 190
Answer:
C) 193

Question 27.
UN works through these many different organs ( )
A) 5
B) 4
C) 3
D) 6
Answer:
D) 6

Question 28.
International Court of Justice Is located at ( )
A) New York
B) Hague
C) Paris
D) Geneva
Answer:
B) Hague

Question 29.
World Health Organisation is located at ( )
A) Hague
B) NewYork
C) Geneva
D) Paris
Answer:
C) Geneva

Question 30.
The United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organisation is functioning from ( )
A) Paris
B) Geneva
C) Hague
D) New York
Answer:
A) Paris

Question 31.
The United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund Is functioning from ( )
A) Hague
B) Geneva
C) NewYork
D) Paris
Answer:
C) NewYork

Question 32.
Decisions relating to war and peace taken In UNO at ( )
A) Security Council
B) international Court of Justice
C) General Assembly
D) UNESCO
Answer:
A) Security Council

Question 33.
The following country has Veto power In Security Council ( )
A) Japan
B) China
C) Germany
D) Spain
Answer:
B) China

Question 34.
Identify the country which does not belong to USA block. ( )
A) Spain
B) France
C) Britain
D) Poland
Answer:
D) Poland

Question 35.
Intense tensions between the US and the USSR during this period are called Cold War ( )
A) 1945-91
B) 1919-45
C) 1874-1914
D) 1919-1991
Answer:
A) 1945-91

Question 36.
Angola became Independent from Portugal in ( )
A) 1948
B) 1979
C) 1975
D) 1956
Answer:
C) 1975

Question 37.
In 1971 this country invaded Afghanistan to put a friendly government ( )
A) USA
B) China
C) Iraq
D) USSR
Answer:
D) USSR

Question 38.
Bandung conference was held in ( )
A)1948
B) 1955
C) 1961
D) 1952
Answer:
B) 1955

Question 39.
Chief spokesperson of NAM was ( )
A) Tito
B) Nehru
C) Nasser
D) Roosevelt
Answer:
B) Nehru

Question 40.
The first summit of NAM was held at ( )
A) Delhi
B) Colombo
C) Belgrade
D) Bandung
Answer:
C) Belgrade

Question 41.
Brujan, France, USA, USSR, and China drafted a Charter for the formation of ……………….. . ( )
A) UNESCO
B) UN
C) WHO
D) UNO
Answer:
D) UNO

Question 42.
The Zionist Movement was developed by ( )
A) Jews
B) Arabs
C) Nazis
D) Christians
Answer:
A) Jews

Question 43.
Fidayeens (Sulcid. squad.) was formed In ( )
A) Palestine
B) Israel
C) Egypt
D) Lebanon
Answer:
C) Egypt

Question 44.
Palestinian Liberation Organisation was started in ( )
A) Jordon
B) Egypt
C) Palestine
D) Israel
Answer:
A) Jordon

Question 45.
Arab Nationalism and socialism are slogans of ( )
A) Libya
B) Iraq
C) Egypt
D) Palestine
Answer:
B) Iraq

Question 46.
President of the USSR to announce its disbanding was ( )
A) Mikhail Gorbachev
B) Vladimir Putin
C) Joseph Stalin
D) Boris Yeltsin
Answer:
D) Boris Yeltsin

Question 47.
India-China signed Panchsheel pact In ( )
A) 1949
B) 1962
C) 1954
D) 1976
Answer:
C) 1954

Question 48.
Alter 1965 war, India and Pakistan signed a treaty In 1966 In ( )
A) Tashkent
B) Pakistan
C) India
D) UNO
Answer:
A) Tashkent

Question 49.
A major military operation Kargil War took place between India and Pakistan in ( )
A) 1999
B) 1993
C) 1991
D) 1998
Answer:
A) 1999

Question 50.
Sri Lanka got liberated In the year ( )
A) 1947
B)1956
C) 1948
D) 1949
Answer:
C) 1948

Question 51.
Bangladesh was liberated from Pakistan with the help of Indian troops in ( )
A) 1965
B) 1971
C) 1975
D) 1972
Answer:
D) 1972

Question 52.
This war divided Kashmir into two parts ( )
A) The War in 1947 – 48
B) The war in 1999
C) The war in 1965
D) The war In 1971
Answer:
A) The War in 1947 – 48

Question 53.
…………………… and ………………. were superpowers up to World War II. ( )
A) The USA, the USSR
B) India, China
C) Pakistan, Russia
D) The USA, Germany
Answer:
A) The USA, the USSR

Question 54.
In the Second World War ………………… has benefited more. ( )
A) the USSR
B) China
C) the USA
D) Japan
Answer:
C) the USA

Question 55.
………………….. countries of UNO have the veto power. ( )
A) Four
B) Six
C) Five
D) None
Answer:
C) Five

Question 56.
“We have emerged from this war the most powerful nation These are the words of the US President ……………… In 1945. ( )
A) Clinton
B) Reagon
C) Truman
D) Nixon
Answer:
C) Truman

Question 57.
In ………………. the USSR invaded Afghanistan to install a friendly government there. ( )
A) 1947
B) 1979
C) 1971
D) 1984
Answer:
C) 1971

Question 58.
The first summit of NAM was held at ………………. . ( )
A) Belgrade
B) Tokyo
C) Nairobi
D) Delhi
Answer:
A) Belgrade

Question 59.
…………….. was the promised land of Jews. ( )
A) Mecca
B) Israel
C) Palestine
D) Varanasi
Answer:
C) Palestine

Question 60.
……………… was the PLO leader till 2004. ( )
A) Yassei- Arafat
B) Bin Laden
C) Kamal Pasha
D)Mohanwnad Geelani
Answer:
A) Yassei- Arafat

Question 61.
……………….. came to power with the slogan of Arab nationalism. ( )
A) Nasar
B) Karzai
C) Arafat
D) Saddam Hussain
Answer:
D) Saddam Hussain

Question 62.
Congo got independence In ( )
A) 1958
B) 1963
C) 1960
D) 1971
Answer:
C) 1960

Question 63.
Che Guevara was a popular leader from ( )
A) Latin America
B) North America
C) Africa
D) Asia
Answer:
A) Latin America

Question 64.
Bandung conference was held In 1955. it Is in ( )
A) India
B) Indonesia
C) West Indies
D) Egypt
Answer:
B) Indonesia

Question 65.
The first summit of NAM In Belgrade was attended by ( )
A) 20 member countries
B) 25 member countries
C) 50 member countries
D) 54 member countries
Answer:
B) 25 member countries

Question 66.
Palestinians were mostly ( )
A) Catholics
B) Protestants
C) Arab Muslims
D) African Muslims
Answer:
C) Arab Muslims

Question 67.
In 1956, Israel attacked ……………… with support of western powers. ( )
A) Jordan
B) Palestine
C) Syria
D) Egypt
Answer:
D) Egypt

Question 68.
Glasnost’ and ‘PerestroikW were reformed in Russia started by ( )
A) Boris Yeltsin
B) Vladimir Pubn
C) Mikhail Gorbachev
D) Nauta Kruschev
Answer:
C) Mikhail Gorbachev

Question 69.
The Independent butter zone between India and China was ( )
A) Bhutan
B) Tibet
C) Nepal
D) Myanmar
Answer:
B) Tibet

Question 70.
China annexed Tibet in ( )
A) 1950
B) 1956
C) 1962
D) 1954
Answer:
A) 1950

Question 71.
Bangladesh was liberated from Pakistan in 1972 wIth the help of ………………… troops.
A) American
B) Incan
C) Russian
D) Chinese
Answer:
B) Incan

Question 72.
…………… nationalised Suez Canal. ( )
A) Naseer
B) Yasser
C) Saddam
D) Tito
Answer:
A) Naseer

Question 73.
The Cold War is between
A) The Communist and Fascist countries
B) The USA and European countries
C) The Capitalist and Communist countries
D) India and China
Answer:
C) The Capitalist and Communist countries

Question 74.
The problem of Palestine Is related to these people. ( )
A) Jews – Egyptians
B) Jews – Arabs
C) Jews – Syrians
D) Arabs- English
Answer:
B) Jews – Arabs

Question 75.
The Bandung conference was an ( )
A) Indo – American conference
B) Anglo- Italian conference
C) Russo – Japanese conference
D) Asian – African conference
Answer:
B) Anglo- Italian conference

Question 76.
Which of the following organizations of the League of Nations have been functioning till today? ( )
A) International Labour Organization
B) World Health Organization
C) International Court of Justice
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 77.
The number of countries In the U.N.O. In 2016 was
A) 193
B) 115
C) 186
D) 120
Answer:
A) 193

Question 78.
The suitable concept for the pamphlet on World Peace is the …………………. . ( )
A) eradication of malaria
B) eradication of poverty
C) settlement of disputes by peaceful negotiations
D) ban on trafficking of women and children
Answer:
C) settlement of disputes by peaceful negotiations

Question 79.
Which among the following statements about the Cold war Is wrong? ( )
A) Rivalry between US and USSR.
B) USA and USSR engaged in direct war.
C) Triggering off an arms race.
D) An Ideological war between the two superpowers.
Answer:
B) USA and USSR engaged in direct war.

Question 80.
Special powers to the permanent member countries of UNO Is undemocratic, because ……………….. . ( )
A) It Is impossible to establish world peace with these nations.
B) Existence of democratic countries depends on the decisions of these nations.
C) They influence the UNO to accept their decisions.
D) Above all.
Answer:
D) Above all.

Question 81.
The countries stand the first and second places in World population are ……………… . ( )
A) India and China
B) China and India
C) China and Russia
D) India and Russia
Answer:
B) China and India

Question 82.
The present membership of UNO is …………… . ( )
A) 173
B) 183
C) 193
D) 163
Answer:
C) 193

Question 83.
Identify the important aspect that was result of the new processes of the World even as the war-devastated countries rebuilt their economies. ( )
A) Imperialism
B) Dictatorsh
C) Establishing UNO
D) Colonisation
Answer:
C) Establishing UNO

Question 84.
International Court of Justice is located at …………………. . ( )
A) Hague
B) New York
C) Paris
D) Geneva
Answer:
A) Hague

Question 85.
These countries have veto power? ( )
A) All member countries of security council
B) Permanent meters of security council
C) Temporary merger counties of security around
D) All merrùer countries of UNO
Answer:
B) Permanent meters of security council

These TS 10th Class Social Bits with Answers 18th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000 will help students to enhance their time management skills.

TS 10th Class Social Bits 18th Lesson Emerging Political Trends 1977 to 2000

Question 1.
Telecom revolution was Initiated by ( )
A) Indira Gandhi
B) P.V. Narasimha Rao
C) A.B. Vajpayee
D) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
D) Rajiv Gandhi

Question 2.
The party came to power in centre. immediately after the end of emergency was ………………. . ( )
A) Congress Party
B) Siromani Akali Dal
C) Communist Party of India
D) Janatha Party
Answer:
D) Janatha Party

Question 3.
Which of the following political parties is not existed in India now? ( )
A) Indian National Congress (I)
B) Bharatiya Janata Party
C) Communist Party of India
D) Muslim League
Answer:
D) Muslim League

Question 4.
Article 356 of Indian Constitution Is related to ………………… . ( )
A) the election of President.
B) amendments In Constitution.
C) President’s rule.
D) elections in the states.
Answer:
C) President’s rule.

Question 5.
The following la not related to the policy of liberalisation ……………….. . ( )
A) Drastic reduction of Govt. expenditure.
B) Reducing restrictions on foreign investments.
C) Giving chance to private investors.
D) imposing restrictions on Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
D) imposing restrictions on Fundamental Rights.

Question 6.
The main demand of Asom movement ………………….. .( )
A) to remove the outsiders.
B) expansion of tea plantations.
C) independence of Asom.
D) for political power.
Answer:
A) to remove the outsiders.

Question 7.
Coalition governments are ……………….. .( )
A) Consist of number of National and Regional parties.
B) Consist of single National party.
C) Consist of single Reonal party
D) Ruled by the Governor.
Answer:
A) Consist of number of National and Regional parties.

Question 8.
Identify the wrong statement. ( )
A) Telecom Revolution was Initiated by Rajiv Gandhi.
B) There were no phones en India before Telecom Revolution.
C) Telecom Revolution spread the network of telephonic communication
D) Satellite Technology is used during telecom revolution
Answer:
B) There were no phones in India before Telecom Revolution.

Question 9.
…………………. quit Congress alter Emergency and joined Anti-Congress Front. ( )
A) Kamaraj Nadar
B) J.P. Narayan
C) J.B.Krlpaiani
D) Jagjivan Ram
Answer:
C) J.B.Krlpaiani

Question 10.
The period between ………………. was a testing time for Indian democracy. ( )
A) 1975-1985
B) 1985-1990
C) 1990 -1995
D)1995-2000
Answer:
A) 1975-1985

Question 11.
When elections were announced in ……………….. it took everyone by surprise. ( )
A) January 1975
B) January 1976
C) January 1977
D) January 1978
Answer:
C) January 1977

Question 12.
The Congress returned to power in …………………… . ( )
A) 1977
B) 1978
C) 1979
D) 1980
Answer:
D) 1980

Question 13.
NT. Rama Rao began the Telugu Desam Party (TDP) on his 60th bIrthday in ( )
A) 1982
B) 1983
C) 1984
D) 1985
Answer:
A) 1982

Question 14.
Mandal Commission recommended ……………………… reservation to OBC. ( )
A) 31%
B) 40%
C) 25%
D) 27%
Answer:
C) 25%

Question 15.
Operation Blue Star was conducted in this year. ( )
a) 1968
B)1969
C) 1984
D) 1971
Answer:
C) 1984

Question 16.
The tea industry was mainly based in ( )
A) Calcutta
B) Delhi
C) Bombay
D) Chennai
Answer:
A) Calcutta

Question 17.
The border with could not be sealed due to both diplomatic reasons and also geographic reasons. ( )
A) Burma
B) Bangladesh
C) Pakistan
D) Afghanistan
Answer:
B) Bangladesh

Question 18.
At the other end of India, another movement for autonomy was taking shape in the state of ……………… . ( )
A) Punjab
B) Maharashtra
C) Onasa
D) Bihar
Answer:
A) Punjab

Question 19.
Janata government came to power in ( )
A) 1980
B)1967
C) 1984
D) 1977
Answer:
D) 1977

Question 20.
The Akali Dal had passed a set of resolutions in 1978 during this party rule. ( )
A) Congress Party
B) Communist Party
C) Janata Party
D) DMK
Answer:
C) Janata Party

Question 21.
The dismissal of the Akall government and the return of the Congress occutved in ………………. . ( )
A) 1980
B) 1981
C) 1982
D) 1983
Answer:
A) 1980

Question 22.
Bhindranwale demanded the formation of a …………… state Khalistan. ( )
A) Maratlip
B) Sikh
C) Jam
D) Buddhists
Answer:
B) Sikh

Question 23.
The Shlromani Akali Dal government was dismissed by Congress in ( )
A) 1977
B) 1980
C) 1982
D) 1978
Answer:
B) 1980

Question 24.
The Prime Minister who was assassinated in 1984 in India was ( )
A) Indira Gandhi
B) Rajpakse
C) Nixon
D) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
A) Indira Gandhi

Question 25.
In ……………… an assembly at the Akal Takht, made a declaration of an independent state of Khalistan. ( )
A) April 1985
B) April 1988
C) April 1987
D) April 1988
Answer:
B) April 1988

Question 26.
In ………………. alone about a thousand people were killed. ( )
A) 1991
B) 1992
C) 1993
D) 1994
Answer:
A) 1991

Question 27.
P.V. Narasimha Rao hails from this state. ( )
A) Tamil Nadu
B) Maharashtra
C) Telangana
D) Kamataka
Answer:
C) Telangana

Question 28.
Rajiv Gandhi began a peace initiative in Punjab, Assam and Mizoram and also in the neighbouring country of ……………… . ( )
A) Sri Lanka
B) Pakistan
C) Afghanistan
D) Sudan
Answer:
A) Sri Lanka

Question 29.
Lankan government and the force was finally withdrawn in …………. . ( )
A) 1988
B)1989
C) 1990
D) 1991
Answer:
B)1989

Question 30.
The Janata Dal focussed on the need for ( )
A) Exclusive Development
B) Majoritarian Democracy
C) Inclusive Democracy
D) Inclusive development
Answer:
D) Inclusive development

Question 31.
Some sections of the Hindus had begun a campaign for building a temple for Lord …………………. Ayodhya in the place of Badri Masjid. ( )
A) Ram
B) Krishna
C) Siva
D) Vishnu
Answer:
A) Ram

Question 32.
The Prime Minister of first coalition of Janata Dal In 1989 was ( )
A) Chandrasekhar
B) V.P. Singh
C) Morarji Desai
D) P.V. Narasimha Rao
Answer:
B) V.P. Singh

Question 33.
An example for left-wing political parties ………….. . ( )
A) CPI
B) Congress
C) Janata Party
D) DMK
Answer:
A) CPI

Question 34.
The Left Front Government was led by Jyoti Basu of ……………….. . ( )
A) Communist Party
B) Congress Party
C) DMK
D) CPM
Answer:
D) CPM

Question 35.
In ………… the West Bengal government launched operations Barga to record the names of the sharecroppers. ( )
A) June 1978
B) June 1979
C) June 1980
D) June 1981
Answer:
A) June 1978

Question 36.
Approximately half of rural households in …………….. have received land reform benefits. ( )
A) Bihar
B) West Bengal
C) Andhra Pradesh
D) Madhya Pradesh
Answer:
B) West Bengal

Question 37.
As a result of welfare measures, agricultural production in West Bengal increased almost by …………………. and rural power by declined significantly. ( )
A) 10%
B) 20%
C) 30%
D) 40%
Answer:
C) 30%

Question 38.
In 1990 …………………. the leader of BJP led e Rath Yatra from Somnath to Ayodhya. ( )
A) V.P. Singh
B) L.K. Advani
C) P.V. Narasirnha Bao
D) Raglv Gandhi
Answer:
B) L.K. Advani

Question 39.
After forming government at the centre Janata Party dismissed …………………. state
governments of Congress. ( )
A) Nine
B) Seven
C) Six
D) Eight
Answer:
D) Eight

Question 40.
The Prime Minister who made, agreement with All Assam Student Union In 1984 was ( )
A) Indira Gandhi
B) Rajiv Gandhi
C) VP Singh
D) Deve Gowda
Answer:
B) Rajiv Gandhi

Question 41.
The revolution with which Rajiv Gandhi’s name associated is ( )
A) Green revolution
B) White revolution
C) Buo revolution
D) Telecom revolution
Answer:
D) Telecom revolution

Question 42.
MandaI Commission recommended ………….. % reservation to OBCs. ( )
A) 25
B) 31
C) 27
D) 40
Answer:
C) 27

Question 43.
The Prime Minister to implement Mandal Commission was ( )
A) Rajiv Gandhi
B) Indira Gandhi
C) LB Sastri
D) VP Singh
Answer:
D) VP Singh

Question 44.
The policy of liberalisation was accepted by Prime Minister ( )
A) Rajiv Gandhi
B) PV Narasimha Rao
C) VP Singh
D) Indira Gandhi
Answer:
B) PV Narasimha Rao

Question 45.
Telugu Desam party in combined Andhra Pradesh was started In ( )
A) 1983
B) 1982
C) 1984
D) 1981
Answer:
B) 1982

Question 46.
In 1980 general elections Congress was victorious in all states except ( )
A) Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
B) Tamil Nadu, Bihar
C) Tamil Nadu, West Bengal
D) West Bengal, Assam
Answer:
C) Tamil Nadu, West Bengal

Question 47.
find the odd one regarding welfare measures of NTR in 1982 election promises. ( )
A) Rs. 2 per kg of rice to the poor
B) Janma Bhoomi
C) Liquor prohibition
D) Midday meal scheme in government schools
Answer:
B) Janma Bhoomi

Question 48.
NTRs government in combined Andhra Pradesh was dismissed in ( )
A) 1984
B) 1982
C) 1983
D) 1985
Answer:
A) 1984

Question 49.
The leader who defected from TOP to Congress end became Chief minister in 1984 was ( )
A) N. Janardbana Reddy
B) K. Vijaya Bhaskara Reddy
C) N Bhsskara Rao
D) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
Answer:
C) N Bhsskara Rao

Question 50.
The talks between AASO and Central Government were lasted for ……………. years before came to an agreement. ( )
A) five
B) four
C) two
D) three
Answer:
D) three

Question 51.
The offshoot of AASU and a political party In Assam is ( )
A) Assom Gana Parishad
B) Ass0m National Conference
C) Assom Democratic Front
D) Assom, National Front
Answer:
A) Assom Gana Parishad

Question 52.
Farmers of ……….. states agitated under the leadership of Mahindra Singh Tikait ( )
A) UP and Bihar
B) Bihar and Haryana
C) Haryana and Madhya Pradesh
D) UP and Haryana
Answer:
D) UP and Haryana

Question 53.
Farmers of Maharashtra were fighting under the leadership of ( )
A) Sardar Joshi
B) Vilas Reo Patil
C) Bal Thackeray
D) Sharad Pawar
Answer:
A) Sardar Joshi

Question 54.
Coalitions form ……………….. for better understanding among parties. ( )
A) Cooperative Cell
B) Common Need Cell
C) Common Minimum Programme and Coordination Committees
D) Nation Committees & Common Services
Answer:
C) Common Minimum Programme and Coordination Committees

Question 55.
Of the following words, which means different? ( )
A) Structural adjustment programme
B) Liberalisation
C) Globalisation
D) industrialisation
Answer:
D) lndustrialisation

Question 56.
The Prime Minister, who negotiated with MF in 1992 for loans, to come out of economic crises, was ( )
A) P.V. Narasimha rao
B) Dr. Manmohan Singli
C) VP Singh
D) Rajiv Gandhi
Answer:
A) P.V. Narasimha rao

Question 57.
LK Advanis Rath Yatra is from …………….. to ………………… . ( )
A) Ayodhya to Somanath
B) Somanath to Delhi
C) Somartath to Ayodhya
D) Ayodhya to Delhi
Answer:
C) Somartath to Ayodhya

Question 58.
P.V. Narasimha Reo was made Prime Minister of India in ( )
A) 1991
B) 1992
C) 1997
D) 2002
Answer:
B) 1992

Question 59.
The party based in Punjab is ( )
A) Bharatiya 10k Del
B) Shiroman Akali Dal
C) Dravida Munnetra Kazagam
D) Telugu Desam
Answer:
B) Shiroman Akali Dal

Question 60.
Indian army sent to maintain peace in Sn Lanka was withdrawn In ( )
A) 1988
B) 1989
C) 1987
D) 1986
Answer:
B) 1989

Question 61.
In June 1978, the …………………… government launched Operation Barga. ( )
A) Punjab
B) Haryana
C) West Bengal
D) Kerala
Answer:
C) West Bengal

Question 62.
The longest-served Chief Minister of a state ( )
A) Jyoti Basu
B) Narendra Modi
C) Shiela Dixit
D) Naveen Patnaik
Answer:
A) Jyoti Basu

Question 63.
Presidents rule can be imposed In state under artIcle ( )
A) 352
B) 370
C) 356
D) 324
Answer:
C) 356

Question 64.
The first coalition government was led by ……………………. . ( )
A) Indira Gandhi
B) Vajpayee
C) Morarji Desai
D) V.P. Singh
Answer:
C) Morarji Desai

Question 65.
Which are the following measures to gain substantial support of the rural population for the Left Front government in West Bengal? ( )
A) Operation Barga
B) Implementation of Panchayat Raj
C) Price control
D) Both options (A) and (B)
Answer:
A) Operation Barga

Question 66.
This party led anti-Hindi agitation in South ( )
A) AIADMK
B) DMK
C) TUP
D) TRS
Answer:
B) DMK

Question 67.
Emergency was announced by ……………. . ( )
A) Indira Gandhi
B) Morarli Dosai
C) Charan Singh
D) Batiu Jagieevan Ram
Answer:
A) Indira Gandhi

Question 68.
Observe the below statement. ( )
1) Potti Sriramulu, demanding the formation of a separate Telugu-speaking state, died after 58 days of fasting In October 1952.
2) N.T.Rama Reo began the Telugu Desam Party (TDP) on his 60th bIrthday In 1982. He said that the TOP stood for the honour and self-respect of the Telugu-speaking people (Telugu Vail Atmagauravam).
A) 1 and 2 True
B) 1 True, 2 False
C) 1 False,2 True
D) Both 1,2 False
Answer:
A) 1 and 2 True

Question 69.
The first coalition government was led by ………………. . ( )
A) Indira Gandhi
B) Vajpayee
C) Morarji Dosai
D) V.P. Singh
Answer:
D) V.P. Singh

Question 70.
Which of the following political party Is not existed In India now? ( )
A) Indian National Congress (I).
B) Bharatiya Janata Party
C) Communist Party of mola
D) Muslim League
Answer:
D) Muslim League

Question 71.
Operation Barga was launched by ………………. Government. ( )
A) Punjab
B) Haryana
C) West Bengal
D) Kerala
Answer:
C) West Bengal

Question 72.
Mandai commission recommended ………………… reservation to O.B.C. ( )
A) 31%
B) 40%
C) 25%
D) 27%
Answer:
D) 27%

These TS 10th Class Social Bits with Answers 17th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77) will help students to enhance their time management skills.

TS 10th Class Social Bits 17th Lesson Independent India (The First 30 years – 1947-77)

Question 1.
Emergency was announced by ( )
A) Indira Gandhi.
B) Moratji Dosai.
C) Charan Singh.
D) Babu Jagjeevan Ram.
Answer:
A) Indira Gandhi.

Question 2.
By this agreement. Hyd.r.bad and Andhra State were merged and formed into Andhra Pradesh. ( )
A) Srt Krishna Agreement
B) Mulki Agreement
C) Gentiemens Agreement
D) Chief Minister’s Agreement
Answer:
C) Gentiemens Agreement

Question 3.
The political party that dominated in the first thirty years of independent India was ……………….. .( )
A) Indian National Congress
B) Bharatiya Janata Party
C) Jane Sangh Party
D) Communist Party of India
Answer:
A) Indian National Congress

Question 4.
The Election Commission came up with the idea of having symbols in elections to overcome the problem of …………………… .( )
A) Poverty
B) Illiteracy
C) Unemployment
D) Corruption
Answer:
B) Illiteracy

Question 5.
The political party system in India is ( )
A) Single party
B) Multiparty
C) Dual party
D) No party system
Answer:
B) Multiparty

Question 6.
This is NOT related to the First General Elections in India. ( )
A) Symbols were introduced.
B) Separate ballot boxes for each candidate
C) Massive campaign to encourage the voters.
D) Electronic voting machines were used.
Answer:
D) Electronic voting machines were used.

Question 7.
Consequence of 1967 Indian Elections are …………………. . ( )
A) disappearance of regional parties.
B) loss of Congress power in many states.
C) destruction of a multi-party system.
D) Communist party came to power In the center.
Answer:
B) loss of Congress power in many states.

Question 8.
The Congress won with a record margin in 1971 due to ……………….. .( )
A) Amin Hatao.
B) Beti Bacheo- Beti Padhao,
C) Bimari Hatao.
D) Garibi Hateo.
Answer:
D) Garibi Hateo.

Question 9.
This was given more Importance during First Five Year Plan. ( )
A) Agriculture
B) industries
C) Services
D) Self-Reliance
Answer:
A) Agriculture

Question 10.
The second five-year plan focused on: ( )
A) Industries
B) Agriculture
C) Population control
D) Removal of poverty
Answer:
A) Industries

Question 11.
In Assom, a new state called Meghalaya was created in December ……………….. . ( )
A) 1968
B) 1969
C) 1970
D) 1971
Answer:
B) 1969

Question 12.
Women in ………………….. got the right to vote only In 1971. ( )
A) Switzerland
B) Malaysia
C) Indonesia
D) Singapore
Answer:
A) Switzerland

Question 13.
The ……………… consistently won over 70% of the seats by obtaining about 45% of the total votes cast. ( )
A) CPM
B) BJP
C) Congress
D) CPI
Answer:
C) Congress

Question 14.
…………………. competition In the one-party dominant system took place within the Congress. ( )
A) Political
B) Social
C) Cultural
D) Economical
Answer:
A) Political

Question 15.
The …………………… had been active even during the British rule. ( )
A) Ravindra Bharathi
B) Andhra Mahasablia
C) Andhra Kalakshetrarn
D) None
Answer:
B) Andhra Mahasablia

Question 16.
The States Reorganisation Act was passed In Parliament In this year. ( )
A) 1954
B) 1955
C) 1956
D) 1957
Answer:
C) 1956

Question 17.
The …………….. Commission was eat up within a month of the inauguration of the new
Constitution. ( )
A) Planning
B) Foreign
C) Mukheqee
D) None
Answer:
A) Planning

Question 18.
The First Five Veer Plan focussed on and stressed on the need for increasing food production. ( )
A) Industries
B) Agriculture
C) Transport
D) Social services
Answer:
B) Agriculture

Question 19.
…………… were to bring economies of scale and also provide valuable Inputs like seeds, manure, fertiliser and so on. ( )
A) Ration shops
B) Cooperatives
C) Departmental stores
D) Wholesale shops
Answer:
B) Cooperatives

Question 20.
While ……………… system was abolished, edistilbution of land to the landless did not take place. ( )
A) Zamindari system
B) Patwari system
C) Both A and B
D) None
Answer:
A) Zamindari system

Question 21.
………………….. benefited both the agriculture and the industrial sector. ( )
A) Banks
B) Societies
C) Dams
D) None
Answer:
C) Dams

Question 22.
From the second Five Year plan onwards the emphasis shifted to ……………… . ( )
A) Industries
B) Agriculture
C) Employment
D) Self-reliance
Answer:
A) Industries

Question 23.
India had to face two wars, first with Pakistan over Kashmir In ………………… . ( )
A) 1947
B) 1948
C) 1949
D) 1950
Answer:
B) 1948

Question 24.
With the death of Nehru In 1964, the Congress managed a successful transition with the choosing of ……………… as its leader In government ( )
A) Sardar Valiabhbai Patel
B) Rajeradra Prad
C) Lal Bahadur Shastri
D) Gandhiji
Answer:
C) Lal Bahadur Shastri

Question 25.
The Official Language Act was passed in ………………. . ( )
A) 1963
B) 1964
C) 1965
D) 1966
Answer:
A) 1963

Question 26.
Green Revolution was a technocratic strategy in …………….. . ( )
A)1961-64
B) 1964-67
C) 1987-70
D) 1970-71
Answer:
B) 1964-67

Question 27.
The …………………. election was a landmark election ¡n the history of India. ( )
A) 1952
B) 1987
C) 1957
D) 1971
Answer:
B) 1987

Question 28.
The Congress governments fell and they were replaced by ……………… governments. ( )
A) Samyukta Vidhayak Dei (SVD)
B) Vyakthi Vikas Dal
C) RSS
D) None
Answer:
A) Samyukta Vidhayak Dei (SVD)

Question 29.
Penchsheel policy was signed by these countries …………………….. . ( )
A) China, England
B) India, China
C) India, England
D) China, Japan
Answer:
B) India, China

Question 30.
The Congress Prime Minister who took left turn was ( )
A) Indira Gandhi
B) Rajiv Gandhi
C) Jawaharlal Nehru
D) Lal Bahadur Sastry
Answer:
A) Indira Gandhi

Question 31.
He was the first Prime Minister of India ( )
A) Gandhi
B) Rajendra Prasad
C) Ambecikar
D) Nehru
Answer:
D) Nehru

Question 32.
First States Reorganisation Commission was set up In ( )
A) 1952
B) 1956
C) 1953
D) 1950
Answer:
C) 1953

Question 33.
Political party which dominated the anti-Hindi agtation was ( )
A) Assom Gana Parishad
B) Siromani Akaii Del
C) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam
D) Shivasena
Answer:
C) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam

Question 34.
Rise of regional parties was marked in the elections in India In ( )
A) 1987
B) 1971
C) 1957
D) 1962
Answer:
A) 1987

Question 35.
A war between India and Pakistan to liberate Bangladesh was started in ( )
A) 1948
B) 1993
C) 1965
D) 1971
Answer:
D) 1971

Question 36.
Indira Gandhi gave the slogan Garibi Hateo In this general election year ( )
A) 1967
B) 1971
C) 1977
D) 1980
Answer:
B) 1971

Question 37.
The first general elections in India were held In
A) 1952
B) 1957
C) 1962
D) 1972
Answer:
A) 1952

Question 38.
………………… is the communication language between centre and states. ( )
A) Telugu
B) Hindi
C) English
D) Sanskrit
Answer:
C) English

Question 39.
Green Revolution deals with ( )
A) Water management skill
B) Use of fertilizers
C) Use ai High Yielding Vanities
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 40.
………………… popularized DMK in Tamil Nadu. ( )
A) Rajkurnar
B) MGR
C) Rajinikanth
D) Viayakanth
Answer:
B) MGR

Question 41.
Jammu and Kashmir state gets special stat, status under ( )
A) Article 244
B) Article 266
C) Article 342
D) Article 370
Answer:
D) Article 370

Question 42.
Separate state of Telangana came Into existence from ( )
A) 8th June 2014
B) 6th June 2014
C) 4th June 2014
D) 2nd June 2014
Answer:
D) 2nd June 2014

Question 43.
Telangana bill was passed in Lok Sabha on ( )
A)18th Feb 2014
B) 21st Feb 2014
C) 25th Feb 2014
D) 27th Feb 2014
Answer:
A)18th Feb 2014

Question 44.
What is Incorrect regarding first general elections in India? ( )
A) It was based on universal adult franchise
B) Most of the electorate is illiterate
C) Use of symbols from everyday tite was provided
D) Indelible Ink marking was not introduced
Answer:
D) Indelible Ink marking was not introduced

Question 45.
Congress showed one party dominance In political system – correct one ( )
A) First three general elections witnessed this
B) No other political party contested
C) Other parties won 45% seats
D) Congress got 70% of the votes cast
Answer:
A) First three general elections witnessed this

Question 46.
What is correct regarding Nehru and State Reorganisation? ( )
A) He was opposed to it.
B) He was not opposed to it.
C) He never accepted it.
D) He was ready to accept it.
Answer:
B) He was not opposed to it.

Question 47.
1st State Reorganisation Commission was set up In ( )
A) August 1952
B) August 1953
C) October 1952
D) October 1953
Answer:
B) August 1953

Question 48.
He was not a member of 1st SRC ( )
A) HN Kunzru
B) Fazl All
C) KM Panikkar
D) KT Telang
Answer:
D) KT Telang

Question 49.
1st SAC created ………………….. linguistic states. ( )
A)12
B) 8
C) 14
D) 6
Answer:
C) 14

Question 50.
The first linguistic state created was ( )
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Assom
C) Bihar
D) Utter Pradesh
Answer:
A) Andhra Pradesh

Question 51.
Land reform were Implemented in ………………… manner in IndIa. ( )
A) Whole-hearted
B) Half-hearted
C) Deliberate
D) Forceful
Answer:
B) Half-hearted

Question 52.
Indo-Chinese war took place In ( )
A) 1972
B) 1971
C) 1962
D) 1965
Answer:
C) 1962

Question 53.
………………….. succeeded Sastri as Prime Minister.( )
A) Nehru
B) Indira Gandhi
C) Charan Sini
D) Vajpayee
Answer:
B) Indira Gandhi

Question 54.
In 1967 electIons Congress got ………………….. Lok Sabha seats.( )
A) 364
B) 361
C) 382
D) 284
Answer:
D) 284

Question 55.
In 1973 …………………. war raised oil prices to all-time high. ( )
A) Indo-Pak
B) Arab-Israeli
C) China-India
D) India-Afghan
Answer:
B) Arab-Israeli

Question 56.
…………………… High Court unseated Indira Gandhi from Lok Sabha.( )
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Kolkata
C) Mumbai
D) Allahabad
Answer:
D) Allahabad

Question 57.
This amendment is nicknamed as Mini Constitution ( )
A) 44th
B) 42nd
C) 26th
D) 35th
Answer:
B) 42nd

Question 58.
Nationalisation of Banks and abolition of privy purses was taken up by
A) Nehru
B) Sastri
C) Patel
D) Indira Gandhi
Answer:
D) Indira Gandhi

Question 59.
Which of the following slogans does NOT relate to the right to vote? ( )
A) Right to vote is the most powerful weapon of a voter
B) Vote for corrupt person – damage to the nation
C) Vote for note
D) Don’t get bribed, caste your vote freely
Answer:
C) Vote for note

Question 60.
The dot given in the map represents ……………… .( )

A) Delhi
B) Kolkata
C) Chennai
D) Visakhapatnam
Answer:
C) Chennai

Question 61.
Political equality can be Identified with ………………….. . ( )
A) Right to get admission in any school.
B) Principle of one person one vote.
C) Right to enter any religious worship place.
D) Above all
Answer:
B) Principle of one person one vote.

Question 62.
Emergency is Imposed to …………………… .( )
A) restrict people’s rights.
B) ensure eradication of poverty.
C) be accepted by all political parties.
D) provide freedom of expression.
Answer:
A) restrict peoples rights.

Question 63.
Universal Adult Franchise In the Indian context means ……………… .
A) allowing all people to vote for any political party.
B) allowing all adults to vote in elections.
C) allowing all people to vote for a single party.
D) regular, free and fair elections.
Answer:
B) allowing all adults to vote in elections.

Question 64.
India consists of ……………………. .
A) 23 states 7 union territories.
B) 29 states 8 union territories.
C) 28 states 8 union territories.
D) 28 states 7 union territories.
Answer:
C) 28 states 8 union territories.

Question 65.
Identify the mismatched pairs.
List-A List-B
1) Switzerland (iii) (i) Voting rights in 1971
2) Novel dea (v) (ii) Election syntols
3) Congress Party (iv) (iii) Madras
4) British Presidency (ii) (iv) Group politics
5) linguistic movement (i) (v) SRC
A) 1, 2
B) 3, 4
C) 4, 5
D) 2,5
Answer:
B) 3, 4

Question 66.
Identify the correct matched pairs.
List-A List-B
1) Nehru (v) (i) Panchsheel
2) Indira (iv ) (ii) Privy purses
3) Anti-Hind agitation (¡) (iii) DMK
4) Vokkaligas (ii) (iv) Haryana
5) Jets (ii) (v) Kamataka
A) 1,2
B) 3,5
C) 2,3,4
D) 1,4,5
Answer:
A) 1,2

Question 67.
Which one of the following statements le wrongly written? ( )
A) In 1956. the State Reorganisation Act was passed in Parliament.
B) State Reorganisation Corwnittee (SRC) members were Dr. B. R. Antedkar, Jawaharlal
Nehru and ValLabhbhai Palel.
C) Linguistic Reorganisation didn’t weaken India,
D) As per SAC report, 14 States and 6 Union territories were created.
Answer:
B) State Reorganisation Corwnittee (SRC) members were Dr. B.R. Antedkar, Jawaharlal Nehru, and ValLabhbhai Palel.

Question 68.
Which of the following would raise question marks on the Issue of national unity and Integrity? ( )
A) Use religion for political purposes
B) The partisan role of government
C) Mass movements
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 69.
This party led anti-Hindi agitation in South ( )
A) AIADMK
B) DMK
C) TDP
D) TAS
Answer:
B) DMK

Question 70.
Identify the TRUE statements from the following: ( )
1. The first general .ectlons held In 1952.
2. 17th general elections held In 2019.
3. Indian National Congress got victory in the first general .lectlon.
4. Bharatiya Jenata Party got great victory in the 16th general elections.
A) 1,3 and 4
B) 2,3 and 4
C) 1,4 and 2
D) 12,3 and 4
Answer:
D) 12,3 and 4

Question 71.
When did the Fu-st War held between India and Pakistan? ( )
A) 1962
B) 1947
C) 1971
D) 1991
Answer:
B) 1947

Question 72.
This country was known as East Pakistan. ( )
A) Bbutan
B) Burma
C) Bahrain
D) Bangladesh
Answer:
D) Bangladesh

Question 73.
The main slogan of Congress Party for general elections in 1971 was …………………. . ( )
A) Jai Jawan
B) Jal Kisan
C) Jal Hind
D) Garibi Hatavo
Answer:
D) Garibi Hatavo

Question 74.
…………………… Is the communication language between center and states. ( )
A) Telugu
B) Sanskrit
C) English
D) Hindi
Answer:
C) English

These TS 10th Class Social Bits with Answers 16th Lesson Election Process in India will help students to enhance their time management skills.

TS 10th Class Social Bits 16th Lesson Election Process in India

Question 1.
The officer Incharge to conduct and monitor elections in every Constituency is ……………… . ( )
A) Presidng Officer.
B) Polling Officer.
C) Returning Officer.
D) Electorate.
Answer:
C) Returning Officer.

Question 2.
This is not the function of Election Commission ( )
A) Preparation 01 Electoral rolls.
B) Demarcation of Constituencies.
C) Appointment of the Prime Minister.
D) Allocation of symbols to the politica. parties.
Answer:
C) Appointment of the Prime Minister.

Question 3.
Chief Election Commissioner of India. ( )
A) Rajiv Kumar
B) Achal Kumar Jyoti (22 Jan 2018 To 30 Nov 2018)
C) Ranjith Kumar
D) Ajith Kumar Dhoval
Note : At present Shrl Sunil Arora (15th Feb 2019 ……………… )
Answer:
B) Achal Kumar Jyoti (22 Jan 2018 To 30 Nov 2018)

Question 4.
Returning officer ( )
A) Constituency Election officer
B) Official at the booth level
C) State Chief Election officer
D) Presiding 0fficer
Answer:
A) Constituency Election officer

Question 5.
This was used In tint General Elections. ( )
A) NOTA
B) EVM
C) Symbols
D) WPAT
Answer:
C) Symbols

Question 6.
By – electIons ere conducted for: ( )
A) all the constituencies in the country
B) all the constituencies in the states.
C) all the constituencies in the union territories.
D) one or a few vacant constituencies.
Answer:
D) one or a few vacant constituencies.

Question 7.
…………………. Is the largest democratic country. ( )
A) Pakistan
B) Sri Lanka
C) India
D) Nepal
Answer:
C) India

Question 8.
Who conduct the elections in IndIa? ( )
A) Judiciary
B) Parliament
C) CID
D) Election Commission
Answer:
D) Election Commission

Question 9.
The Election Commission of India came into existence on ………………… . ( )
A) 25’ January 1950
B) 26” January 1950
C) 26’ November 1949
D) 25’ November 1949
Answer:
A) 25’ January 1950

Question 10.
The following Is an autonomous body ( )
A) Election Cornrrssion
B) Sports Authority
C) Shah Commission
D) PWD
Answer:
A) Election Cornrrssion

Question 11.
We celebrate Voters Day on ( )
A) January 1st
B) January 26th
C) January 25th
D) January 30th
Answer:
C) January 25th

Question 12.
During the British rule only ……………………….. of the population had right to vote. ( )
A) 13%
B) 14%
C) 11%
D) 12%
Answer:
B) 14%

Question 13.
First general elections were held in ( )
A) 1960
B) 1951
C) 1952
D) 1967
Answer:
C) 1952

Question 14.
How many voters were there in 1952? ( )
A) 18 crores
B) 17.32 crores
C) 16.8 crores
D) 19 crores
Answer:
B) 17.32 crores

Question 15.
At present, the number of voters In India ( )
A) 90 crores
B) 65 crores
C) 69 crores
D) 70 crores
Answer:
A) 90 crores

Question 16.
For conducting elections Election Commission uses ………………. staff in 2019 elections. ( )
A) 60 Million
B) 70 Crores
C) 55 Lakhs
D) 11 Million
Answer:
D) 11 Million

Question 17.
Who is the head of the Election Commission? ( )
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Chief Eleclion Commissioner
D) Governor
Answer:
C) Chief Eleclion Commissioner

Question 18.
Who is the present Chief Election CommissIoner of India? ( )
A) Sunil Arora
B) Y.S.Khuresh
C) T.N Seshan
D) V.S. Rame Devi
Answer:
A) Sunil Arora

Question 19.
The Tenure of Chief Election Commissioner is ( )
A) 5 years
B) 6 years
C) 7 years
D) 8 years
Answer:
B) 6 years

Question 20.
The tenure of T.N. Seshan was ( )
A) 1991-94
B)1990-98
C) 1990- 96
D) 1998 – 2004
Answer:
C) 1990- 96

Question 21.
Functions of Election Commission are mentioned in the Article ( )
A) 321
B) 322
C) 323
D) 324
Answer:
D) 324

Question 22.
In which part of the Constitution, Election Commissions functions are mentioned? ( )
A) 14
B) 16
C) 15
D) 20
Answer:
C) 15

Question 23.
According to which amendment voters age is reduced?
A) 61 st
B) 62nd
C) 64th
D) 65th
Answer:
A) 61 st

Question 24.
In which year voters age was reduced?
A) 1990
B)1962
C) 1988
D) 1985
Answer:
C) 1988

Question 25.
At the initial period the age of voter is
A) 18
B) 22
C) 20
D) 24
Answer:
A) 18

Question 26.
Which organ revises the voters list? ( )
A) Panchayat Raj
B) Mandai Parishat
C) Jucciary
D) Election Commission
Answer:
D) Election Commission

Question 27.
Universal Adult Franchise” means
A) Right to Education
B) Right to Vote
C) Right to Freedom
D) Right to lite
Answer:
B) Right to Vote

Question 28.
Electorate means
A) People
B) Chiren
C) Body of voters
D) Govt. offices
Answer:
C) Body of voters

Question 29.
Party symbols are allotted by ( )
A) Election Commission
B) Finance Commission
C) Planning Corrwnission
D) CBI
Answer:
A) Election Commission

Question 30.
How many Assembly seats or valid votes should be won by a party for recognisation of state party? ( )
A) 4 seats, 3 % valid votes
B) 5 seats, 4 % valid votes
C) 3 seats, 3% valid votes
D)10 seats, 8% valid votes
Answer:
C) 3 seats, 3% valid votes

Question 31.
For a recognisation of National Party how many M.P seats, and In how many states a party should win ( )
A) 10 M.P seats; 4 states
B) 10 M.P seats; 5 states
C) 11 M.P seats: 4 states
D)11 M.P seats; 5 states
Answer:
C) 11 M.P seats: 4 states

Question 32.
Model code of conduct was imposed by
A) Election Commission
B) Parliament
C) legislature
D) Assembly
Answer:
A) Election Commission

Question 33.
On the day of polling ………………….. shall not b. distributed. ( )
A) Sweets
B) Milk
C) Alcohol
D) None of the above
Answer:
C) Alcohol

Question 34.
These are not used during the election campaign ( )
A) Religious symbols
B) Party symbols
C) Printed papers with manifesto
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) Religious symbols

Question 35.
Election Commissioner is appointed by ( )
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Speaker
D) Home Minister
Answer:
A) President

Question 36.
Who acts as a district Chief Election Commissioner? ( )
A) District Judge
B) District DEC
C) District RI
D) District Collector
Answer:
D) District Collector

Question 37.
Who supervises and conducts the elections in a constituency? ( )
A) District Judge
B) S.P
C) Returning Officer
D) R.I
Answer:
C) Returning Officer

Question 38.
Electoral Roll means ( )
A) Body of voters
B) List of Registered voters
C) All the people
D) Government officers
Answer:
B) List of Registered voters

Question 39.
Who scrutinizes the nomination papers?
A) Senior Judge
B) Public Information Officer
C) Retunwg Officer
D) District Judge
Answer:
C) Retunwg Officer

Question 40.
NOTA was introduced in
A) 2014
B) 2015
C) 2016
D) 2013
Answer:
D) 2013

Question 41.
General Elections are conducted for every years.
A) Five
B) Six
C) Seven
D) Eight
Answer:
A) Five

Question 42.
Bye-Election means
A) For whole seats
B) For one or few vacant seats
C) For same states
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) For one or few vacant seats

Question 43.
The following is the second most populous country In the world
A) China
B) U.S.A
C) Canada
D) India
Answer:
D) India

Question 44.
So far General Elections held for Loksabha
A) 9
B) 14
C) 17
D)18
Answer:
C) 17

Question 45.
The Article of the constitution which says that the elections In India shall be held on the basis of adult suffrage is ( )
A) 326
B) 395
C) 443
D) 17
Answer:
A) 326

Question 46.
Right to vote is a ( )
A) Clvii right
B) Political right
C) Fundamental right
D) Moral right
Answer:
B) Political right

Question 47.
The officer in charge of e polling booth ( )
A) Presiding Officer
B) Asst. Presiding Officer
C) PoHing Clerk
D) Route Officer
Answer:
A) Presiding Officer

These TS 10th Class Social Bits with Answers 15th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution will help students to enhance their time management skills.

TS 10th Class Social Bits 15th Lesson The Making of Independent India’s Constitution

Question 1.
The words those emphasised the values of Secularism and Socialism of the Preamble were ……………….. . ( )
A) Directive Principles of State Policy
B) Democracy and Republik
C) Equality, Liberty, Justice
D) Fundamental Rights
Answer:
C) Equality, Liberty, Justice

Question 2.
The words “Secular and Socialist” are Included in ……………….. . ( )
A) Schedules
B) Parts
C) Preamble
D) Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
C) Preamble

Question 3.
This is NOT correct with regard to the formation of Constituent Assembly. ( )
A) 26 members were there from SCs.
B) 9 women members were there.
C) 93 members were elected from all the Princely States.
D) Members were elected through Universal Franchise.
Answer:
D) Members were elected through Universal Franchise.

Question 4.
The main task of Dr. Ambedkar’s Drafting Committee was to ………………. . ( )
A) Conduct elections for Constituent Assembly.
B) Form the Radical army.
C) Lead the Muslim League.
D) Prepare the draft of the Constitution.
Answer:
D) Prepare the draft of the Constitution.

Question 5.
Article 356 of Indian Constitution is related to …………………. .( )
A) the election of President
B) amencknents in Constitution
C) President’s rule
D) elections in the states
Answer:
C) President’s rule

Question 6.
Significance of November 26, 1949 …………………….. . ( )
A) Implementation of Constitution.
B) Independence of India.
C) Approval of Constitution.
D) Formation of Drafting Committee.
Answer:
C) Approval of Constitution.

Question 7.
Keshavananda Bharathl case is related to ……………….. . ( )
A) Fundamental Rights
B) Fundamental Duties
C) Directive Principles
D) Articles
Answer:
A) Fundamental Rights

Question 8.
This is not an organ of the Government: …………………. .( )
A) Constitution
B) Legislature
C) Executive
D) Judiciary
Answer:
A) Constitution

Question 9.
The first elections were held in Nepal under a Constitution issued by king ……………. . ( )
A) Narendra
B) Mahendra
C) Koirala
D) None
Answer:
B) Mahendra

Question 10.
The ………………. of any country provides a certain basic structure and principles according to Its state functions. ( )
A) Constitution
B) Assembly
C) Parliament
D) Government
Answer:
A) Constiution

Question 11.
The Constitution of India was prepared and adopted by the ………………… . ( )
A) Legislator
B) Judiasry
C) Constituent Assembly
D) Executive
Answer:
C) Constituent Assembly

Question 12.
The Constitution of Inca was the culmination of the long struggle of the Indian people for freedom from ……………….. . ( )
A) British colonial rule
B) French colonial rule
C) Dutch colonial rule
D) None
Answer:
A) British colonial rule

Question 13.
The Cabinet Mission appointed in …………… allotted seats to each Province or group of states. ( )
A) 1945
B) 1946
C) 1947
D) 1948
Answer:
B) 1946

Question 14.
The Council also ensured that …………………. members from Scheduled Castes are represented In the Assembly. ( )
A) 24
B) 25
C) 26
D) 27
Answer:
C) 26

Question 15.
The Indian National Congress was the single largest party with ……….. of all seats followed by the Muslim League which had most of the seats reserved for Muslims. ( )
A) 69%
B) 70%
C) 71%
D) 72%
Answer:
A) 69%

Question 16.
………………… made this significant statement In the Assembly on 13th December 1946. ( )
A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Jawaharlal Nehru
C) Subhash Chandra Bose
D) Bhagat Singh
Answer:
B) Jawaharlal Nehru

Question 17.
A Drafting Committee was set up under the chairmanship of ……………….. . ( )
A) Dr, B.R. Ambedkar
B) Radha Krìshnan
C) Sardar Vallabhbai Patel
D) Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
A) Dr, B.R. Ambedkar

Question 18.
The Constitution was finally adopted by the CA (Constituent Assembly) on 26th November 1949 and it came Into force on ………………… . ( )
A) 26th January 1949
B) 26th January 1950
C) 26th January 1951
D) 26th January 1952
Answer:
B) 26th January 1950

Question 19.
The Draft Constitution ……………… is a formidable document. It contains ………………. Articles and 8 Schedules. ( )
A) 313
B) 314
C) 395
D) 316
Answer:
C) 395

Question 20.
In the Draft Constitution there is placed at the head of the Indian Union a functionary who is called the …………………. of the Union. ( )
A) President
B) Vice-President
C) Chairman
D) Prime Minister
Answer:
A) President

Question 21.
The President of the United States is not bound to accept any advice tendered to him by any of his …………………….. . ( )
A) President
B) Secretaries
C) Ministers
D) Vice-President
Answer:
B) Secretaries

Question 22.
The President of the Indian Union will be generally bound by the advice of his ……………… . ( )
A) President
B) Vice-President
C) Ministers
D) Councillors
Answer:
C) Ministers

Question 23.
The President of the Indian Union has no power to do so long as his Ministers command a majority In ………………….. . ( )
A) Lok sabha
B) Rajya sabha
C) Assembly
D) Parliament
Answer:
D) Parliament

Question 24.
The Draft Constitution is, Federal Constitution In as much as it establishes what may be called a ………………. . ( )
A) Dual polity
B) Monarchial
C) Anarchial
D) None
Answer:
A) Dual polity

Question 25.
In the consent of light to equality It was decided to legally put an end to the practice of …………………… . ( )
A) Zamindaris
B) Untouchability
C) Patwari System
D) Privy purses
Answer:
B) Untouchability

Question 26.
The Constitution also has In It the ………………… which sets out main social systems before the government. ( )
A) Fundamental fights
B) Articles/Schedules
C) Directive principles of state policy
D) None
Answer:
C) Directive principles of state policy

Question 27.
Major changes In the Constitution were made during ………………… . ( )
A) 1970
B) 1971
C) 1972
D) 1973
Answer:
A) 1970

Question 28.
The second major event In the life of Indian Constitution has been a Supreme Court judgment popularly known as case. ( )
A) Keshavanada Barati
B) Chandra Sekhar Azad
C) Subhash Chandra Bose
D) None
Answer:
A) Keshavanada Barati

Question 29.
Declaring Nepal as a federal, democratic republican state upon duly abolishing the ………. . ()
A) Anarchy
B) Monarchy
C) Democracy
D) Diarchy
Answer:
B) Monarchy

Question 30.
The Constituent Assembly members were elected indirectly by the members of the ……………. . ()
A) Rajya Sabha
B) Parliament
C) Provincial Assemblies
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Provincial Assemblie

Question 31.
Only about ………………. % of the population could vote In the provincial elections then ( )
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
Answer:
A) 10

Question 32.
The princely states had not yet agreed to become part of the ………………….. and many of them hoped to remain independent kingdoms. ( )
A) Pakistan
B) Indian Union
C) Bangladesh
D) None
Answer:
B) Indian Union

Question 33.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar presented the draft of the Constitution before the CA on ……………… . ( )
A) 1948
B) 1949
C) 1950
D) 1951
Answer:
A) 1948

Question 34.
What the Draft Constitution proposes Is the …………………….. . ( )
A) Presidential system
B) Parliamentary system
C) Empirical system
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Parliamentary system

Question 35.
The American form of Government is called the ………………….. system. ( )
A) Parliamentary
B) Dictatorial
C) Presidential
D) None
Answer:
C) Presidential

Question 36.
Under the Presidential system of America, the President Is the Chief head of the Executive. The ………………….. is vested In him. ( )
A) Administration
B) Power
C) Authority
D) None
Answer:
A) Administration

Question 37.
The first elections were held In Nepal In ……………….. . ( )
A) 1951
B) 2007
C) 1947
D) 1959
Answer:
D) 1959

Question 38.
Monarchy was abolished In Nepal in ……………….. . ( )
A) 1959
B) 1951
C) 2007
D) 1947
Answer:
C) 2007

Question 39.
Population of India when Constitution was prepared was ………………. . ( )
A) 400 nallions
B) 330 millions
C) 360 millions
D) 450 mIllions
Answer:
A) 400 nallions

Question 40.
Constituent Assembly was set up in
A) 1942
B) 1950
C) 1948
D) 1947
Answer:
C) 1948

Question 41.
It is not a basic matter to maintain unity in India
A) Single Judiciary
B) Uniformity in-laws
C) Corrw’non all India Civil Service
D) Dual Judiciary
Answer:
D) Dual Judiciary

Question 42.
He is the head of the Indian Union
A) President
B) Prime Minister
C) Governor
D) Vice President
Answer:
A) President

Question 43.
…………………. emphasised that too much centralization of power takes towards fascist ideals. ( )
A) Arnbedkar
B) Gandhi
C) Nehru
D) D.S. Seth
Answer:
B) Gandhi

Question 44.
came to power with majority in 1991 in Nepal.
A) Congress Party of Nepal
B) Communist Party of Nepal
C) Socialist Party of Nepal
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Congress Party of Nepal

Question 45.
In Nepal, the process of making Constitution is completed in ( )
A) 2007
B) 2013
C) 2009
D) Not yet completed
Answer:
D) Not yet completed

Question 46.
Provinces under British rule elected ………………….. members to Constituent Assembly. ( )
A) 93
B) 292
C) 385
D) 26
Answer:
B) 292

Question 47.
Princely states elected ………………………. members to Constituent Assembly.
A) 292
B) 26
C) 385
D) 93
Answer:
D) 93

Question 48.
There were ……….. women members in Constituent Assembly.
A) 9
B) 26
C) 35
D) 93
Answer:
A) 9

Question 49.
After 14 August 1947 the Constituent Assembly was
A) nullified
B) remained same
C) members from Pakistan joined it
D) members from Pakistan formed a separate Constituent Assembly
Answer:
D) members from Pakistan formed a separate Constituent Assembly

Question 50.
The Draft Constitution has been before the public for ………………… months. ()
A) six
B) eight
C) eleven
D) ten
Answer:
B) eight

Question 51.
The President of the Indian Union
A) can do anything contrary to the advice of ministers
B) need not bound to accept the advice of ministers
C) has the power to dismiss any minister at any time
D) can do nothing contrary to the advice of ministers.
Answer:
D) can do nothing contrary to the advice of ministers.

Question 52.
The chapters on which law can be made are divided into ………………….. . ( )
A) Centrai list
B) State list
C) Concurrent list
D) All the three
Answer:
D) All the three

Question 53.
If state makes a law contradictory to central on Concurrent list ( )
A) State law Is Valid
B) Central law is valid
C) Both laws are nullified
D) New law has to be made
Answer:
B) Central law is valid

Question 54.
Regarding President of Indian Union which Is Incorrect? ( )
A) He s the head of the state.
B) He rules the nation.
C) He represents the nation.
D) He is the symbol of the nation.
Answer:
B) He rules the nation.

Question 55.
Find the odd one out: ( )
A) Indian Constitution adopts from experiences of freedom struggle.
B) Indian Constitution adopts from already existing Constitutions.
C) Indian Constitution has remained same since its drafting.
D) Indian Constitution provides principles and provisions for ruling the country.
Answer:
C) Indian Constitution has remained same since its drafting.

Question 56.
What type of Government system does India follow?
A) Presidential system.
B) Monarchy system.
C) Central system.
D) Parliamentary system.
Answer:
D) Parliamentary system.

Question 57.
Which one of the following principles in Socialistic Government do you appreciate? ( )
A) Religious State
B) Dictator King
C) Equality
D) Capitalism
Answer:
C) Equality

Question 58.
In Draft Constitution, there were …………….. Articles.
A) 395
B) 316
C) 320
D) 321
Answer:
A) 395

Question 59.
This is the Important aspect of the social engineering.
A) Rights of minorities
B) Fundamental rights
C) Fundamental duties
D) Right to information
Answer:
A) Rights of minorities

Question 60.
The certain provisions in the Indian Constitution cannot be changed under any circumstances. Supreme Court gave judgment In this case. ( )
A) Shah Bano
B) Keshavananda Btiarathi
C) Golaknath
D) 42nd Amendment
Answer:
B) Keshavananda Btiarathi

These TS 10th Class Social Bits with Answers 14th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence: 1939-1947 will help students to enhance their time management skills.

TS 10th Class Social Bits 14th Lesson National Movement in India–Partition & Independence: 1939-1947

Question 1.
Who led the Quit India Movement? ( )
A) Subhash Chandra Bose
B) Gandhiji
C) Jawaharlal Nehru
D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Answer:
B) Gandhiji

Question 2.
Which demand was NOT related to the Royal Indian Navy strike? ( )
A) Bad food
B) Behaviour of their British Officers
C) Release of INA prisoners
D) Promotions
Answer:
D) Promotions

Question 3.
Peasant movement was related to ……………………… . ()
A) Justice Party
B) Republican Party
C) Communist party
D) Jana Sangh
Answer:
C) Communist party

Question 4.
Mohammad Ali Jinnah actively participated in ……………………. . ()
A) Indian National Congress.
B) Swarajya Party.
C) Muslim League.
D) Republican Party.
Answer:
C) Muslim League.

Question 5.
‘Do or Die slogan related to ……………………. . ( )
A) Non-Cooperation movement.
B) Quit the India movement.
C) Khilafat movement
D) CMI disobedience movement
Answer:
B) Quit India movement.

Question 6.
The party which led a massive movement of farmers of the Telangana region in Hyderabad ( )
A) Congress Party
B) Communist Party
C) Btiaratiya Janata Party
D) Kisan Sabba
Answer:
B) Communist Party

Question 7.
In 1947, the charge for integration of princely states was given to ………………… . ( )
A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Sarda Patel
C) Arnbedkar
D) Jawaharlal Nehru
Answer:
B) Sarda Patel

Question 8.
The organization wished to unite all the Hindus and overcome the divisions of caste and sect to reform their social life is ………………. . ( )
A) Indian National Army
B) Kerala Shastra Sahitya Parishad
C) Rastiiya Swayamsevak Sangh
D) Youth Congress
Answer:
C) Rastiiya Swayamsevak Sangh

Question 9.
Till 1930, Muslim League represented the interests of …………………… .( )
A) Muslim industrialised.
B) Sikh landlords.
C) Muslim women.
D) Muslim landlords of Uttar Pradesh.
Answer:
D) Muslim landlords of Uttar Pradesh.

Question 10.
The reason for the Quit India Movement …………………. .( )
A) Failure of Purta pact.
B) Pressure of Moderates.
C) Failure of Cripps Mission.
D) Pressure of Extremists.
Answer:
C) Failure of Cripps Mission.

Question 11.
Privy purse was given to ………………. . ( )
A) take up welfare programmes in princely states.
B) encourage revolts in princely states.
C) wage a war against princely states.
D) meet the personal expenses of royal families of princely states.
Answer:
D) meet the personal expenses of royal families of princely states.

Question 12.
Tebhaga movement was started by ……………………… .( )
A) Small, poor peasants.
B) Zarrwndars and landlords.
C) Government employees,
D) Sepoys.
Answer:
A) Small, poor peasants.

Question 13.
The British cabinet sent a three-member mission team to Delhi in 1946 to examine the demand to………………….. .( )
A) suggest a suitable political framework for Indian freedom.
B) divide India.
C) unite India.
D) implement Land reforms.
Answer:
A) suggest a suitable political framework for Indian freedom.

Question 14.
Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch his third major movement against British Rule. ( )
A) Charrparan
B) Vande Mataram Movement
C) Quit India Movement
D) Non-Cooperation Movement
Answer:
C) Quit India Movement

Question 15.
The movement that was started after the failure of Crippen Mission. ()
A) Quit India Movement.
B) Civil Disobedience Movement.
C) Vandemataram Movement.
D) Non – Cooperation Movement.
Answer:
A) Quit India Movement.

Question 16.
The Princely State that joined Indian Union by 15th August 1947 was: ( )
A) Kashmir
B) Hyderabad
C) Junagadh
D) Travancore
Answer:
D) Travancore

Question 17.
To fight against the British, Subhash Chandra Bose sought the help of ……………. .( )
A) Germany
B) Italy
C) Austria
D) Japan
Answer:
D) Japan

Question 18.
The Government of India Act was passed In ……………………. by the British parliament.( )
A) 1930
B) 1935
C) 1940
D) 1945
Answer:
B) 1935

Question 19.
The right to vote was given to a small section of the population – about ………………. % for
provincial assemblies. ( )
A) 12%
B)13%
C) 14%
D) 15%
Answer:
A) 12%

Question 20.
Eight out of ………………… provinces had a Congress “Prime Minister”, working under the supervision of a British Governor. ( )
A) 9
B) 10
C) 11
D) 12
Answer:
C) 11

Question 21.
Congress leaders were opposed to Hitler, Mussolini, and the ideology of ………………. . ( )
A) Nazism
B) Colonialism
C) Fascism
D) Imperialism
Answer:
C) Fascism

Question 22.
At the time of war, ………………… had an MI-party government headed by Prime Minister Winston Churchill of the Conservative party. ( )
A) Britain
B) India
C) Italy
D) Denmark
Answer:
A) Britain

Question 23.
All Congress ministries resigned In ………………. after having come to power in 1937.
A) October 1937
B) October 1938
C) October 1939
D) October 1940
Answer:
C) October 1939

Question 24.
Congress organized a series of individual ………………….. to pressure the rulers. ( )
A) Non-violence
B) Satyagrahas
C) Non-cooperation
D) Civil disobedience
Answer:
B) Satyagrahas

Question 25.
The ……………. League was popular in the United Provinces, Bombay, and Madras,( )
A) Muslim
B) Christian
C) Hindu
D) Sikh
Answer:
A) Muslim

Question 26.
The ……………. and the Rashtrêya Swamyam Sewak Sangh were engaged an active mobilisation. ( )
A) INC
B) Hindu Mahasabha
C) INA
D) None
Answer:
B) Hindu Mahasabha

Question 27.
The Urdu poet …………………, the writer of, Sare Jahan Se Achha Hindustan Hamara” spoke of a need for a “North-west Indian Muslim state in his presidential address to the Muslim League in 1930. ( )
A) Mohammad Iqbal
B) Mujbar Rehman
C) Moulana
D) None
Answer:
A) Mohammad Iqbal

Question 28.
The name Pakistan or Pak-stan (from Punjab, Afghan, Kashmir, Sind, and Baluchistan,) was coined by a Punjabi Muslim student at …………….. Choudhry Rehmat Ali. ( )
A) Chicago
B) Oxford
C) Cambridge
D) Michigan
Answer:
C) Cambridge

Question 29.
The ………………… campaign. which began in August 1942.
A) Simon go back
B) The Quit India
C) Non-cooperation
D) Civil disobedience
Answer:
B) The Quit India

Question 30.
POWs mean …………………. .
A) Prisoners of war
B) Patriots of the world
C) Both
D) None
Answer:
A) Prisoners of war

Question 31.
………………… recruited the prisoners of war in his army which he called the Indian National Army. ( )
A) Mahatma Gandhi
B) Valiabhbhai Patel
C) Bhagat Singh
D) Bose
Answer:
D) Bose

Question 32.
A ………………… committee was elected with MS. Khan as Its head.
A) Naval Central Strike
B) Airforce Strike
C) Army Cultural Strike
D) Workers Central Strike
Answer:
A) Naval Central Strike

Question 33.
Another armed revolt of peasants took place In Travancore in ………………… .
A) Kanyakurnan
B) Punnapra-Vayalar
C) Guruvayar
D) Katpadi
Answer:
B) Punnapra-Vayalar

Question 34.
This was called the Tebhage movement and was led by the provincial …………………. .
A) Workers Union
B) Sigh
C) Kisan Sabha
D) Society
Answer:
C) Kisan Sabha

Question 35.
The Muslim League decided on Direct Action for winning Its Pakistan demand and announced 16 August 1946 as …………………. . ( )
A) Direct Action Day
B) Black Day
C) Both
D) None
Answer:
A) Direct Action Day

Question 36.
Gandhiji, the Father of this Nation, was trying to bring peace to strife-torn………….. (In Bengal) on 15th August 1947. ( )
A) Sabamiati
B) Noahkhali
C) Calcutta
D) None
Answer:
B) Noahkhali

Question 37.
Gandhiji came to its capital, Delhi, only on ……………….. 1947. ( )
A) 7 September
B) 8 September
C) 9 September
D) 10 September
Answer:
C) 9 September

Question 38.
To form Indian National Army, Bose took the prisoners of war from ( )
A) Germany
B) Italy
C) Japan
D) Singapore
Answer:
C) Japan

Question 39.
In Hyderabad, which party led struggle of farmers of Telangana? ( )
A) Muslim League
B) Congress
C) Socialist
D) Communist
Answer:
D) Communist

Question 40.
…………….. was given charge of Integration of states in 1947. ( )
A) Nehni
B) Patel
C) Gandhi
D) Ambedkar
Answer:
B) Patel

Question 41.
A separate electorate for Muslims was started in ( )
A) 1909
B) 1919
C) 1906
D)1937
Answer:
A) 1909

Question 42.
Integration of these prIncely states became troublesome ( )
A) Hyderabad
B) Junagadh
C) Kashmir
D) All the three
Answer:
D) All the three

Question 43.
There were around ………………. Princely states under British paramountcy In 1947. ( )
A) 389
B) 292
C) 550
D) 650
Answer:
C) 550

Question 44.
Less than ……………….. months of independence. Gandhiji was killed. ( )
A) one
B) six
C) five
D) four
Answer:
B) six

Question 45.
Cabinet Mission came to India in ……………….. . ( )
A) Feb. 1946
B) Aug. 1946
C) Mar. 1946
D) June 1946
Answer:
C) Mar. 1946

Question 46.
The Muslim League was founded In ………………. . ( )
A) 1908
B) 1910
C) 1906
D) 1905
Answer:
C) 1906

Question 47.
Muslim League passed a resolution on formation of Pakistan on ( )
A) 23rd Mar. 1940
B)26th Mar. 1940
C) 5th Apr. 1940
D) 5th Apr. 1941
Answer:
A) 23rd Mar. 1940

Question 48.
Who gave call for Quit India Movement? ( )
A) Nehru
B) Jinnah
C) Gandhi
D) Patel
Answer:
C) Gandhi

Question 49.
After the partition of India ………………… crore people, both Hindus, and Muslims were displaced. ( )
A) one
B) one and half
C) two
D) two and half
Answer:
B) one and half

Question 50.
Royal Indian Navy rebellion was started in …………….. . ( )
A) 1943
B) 1945
C) 1942
D) 1946
Answer:
D) 1946

Question 51.
Gandhiji was assassinated on ……………….. . ( )
A) 3rd Jan. 1948
B) 13th Jan. 1948
C) 30th Jan. 1948
D)23rd Jan. 1948
Answer:
C) 30th Jan. 1948

Question 52.
In 1937, 8 out of 11 provinces were headed by under the supervision of a British Governor. ( )
A) Chief Minister
B) President
C) Governor
D) Prime Minister
Answer:
D) Prime Minister

Question 53.
Britain’s Prime Minister Churchill is of …………………. party. ( )
A) Congress
B) Labour
C) Conservative
D) Democratic
Answer:
C) Conservative

Question 54.
……………………… party In Britain is willing to help Indians attain freedom.
A) Conservative
B) Labour
C) Democratic
D) Republic
Answer:
B) Labour

Question 55.
Congress ministries resigned in October 1939 as …………………. .
A) their term was completed
B) new elections were conducted
C) British did not accept to give full freedom
D) party canceled ministries.
Answer:
C) British did not accept to give full freedom

Question 56.
MA Jinnab was a prominent leader of …………………….. .( )
A) Muslim League
B) Congress
C) Socialist
D) Communist party
Answer:
A) Muslim League

Question 57.
In 1937, League won …………………. of the 482 Muslim seats. ( )
A) 26
B) 102
C) 416
D) 225
Answer:
B) 102

Question 58.
In 1937, League got ……………….. % of the total Muslim vote cast. ( )
A) 86%
B) 92%
C) 26%
D) 4.4%
Answer:
D) 4.4%

Question 59.
Muslim League was quite weak In this province in 1937
A) Bombay
B) Madras
C) Bengal
D) United Province
Answer:
C) Bengal

Question 60.
………………. Spoke of e need for a ‘Northwest Indian Muslim’ state In 1930.
A) Mohammad Iqbal
B) KAG Khan
C) MA Jinnah
D) MAR Azad
Answer:
A) Mohammad Iqbal

Question 61.
From 1942 to 1945 most …………………… leaders were in jail.
A) Muslim League
B) Socialist
C) Communist
D) Congress
Answer:
D) Congress

Question 62.
Prime Minister of England In the spring of 1942 was
A) Attlee
B) Mc Donald
C) Churchill
D) Cameron
Answer:
C) Churchill

Question 63.
INA was formed with prisoners of war in …………………. .
A) Burma and Malaya
B) Malaya and Slmhala
C) Simhala and Burma
D) Suvarnabhoomi
Answer:
A) Burma and Malaya

Question 64.
Guards of Royal Indian Navy In Bombay went on hunger strike on ()
A) 18th Feb. 1942
B) 18th Feb. 1943
C) 18th Feb. 1944
D) 18th Feb. 1946
Answer:
D) 18th Feb. 1946

Question 65.
Tebhaga movement was led by …………………. .
A) Congress
B) Kisan Sabha
C) R.S.S.
D) Muslim League
Answer:
A) Congress

Question 66.
In 1946 elections, Muslim League won ………………… reserved seats at centre.
A) \(\frac{30}{30}\)
B) \(\frac{28}{30} \)
C) \(\frac{26}{30}\)
D) \(\frac{29}{30} \)
Answer:
A) \(\frac{30}{30}\)

Question 67.
In 1946 in provincial elections, League won ……………….. seats out of 509.
A) 509
B) 492
C) 442
D) 429
Answer:
C) 442

Question 68.
In March 1947, the Viceroy of India was
A) Wavell
B) Chelmsford
C) Martey
D) Mountbatten
Answer:
D) Mountbatten

Question 69.
…………………. is known as Frontier Gandhi.
A) MA Jinnah
B) MAK Azad
C) RAG Khan
D) Agakhan
Answer:
C) RAG Khan

Question 70.
After Independence, these Princely states took time to sign the instrument of Accession ( )
A) NWFP, UP, Rajasthan
B) Hyderabad, Junagadh, Kashmir
C) Hyderabad. Bombay, Delhi
D) NWFP. Central Provinces, Travancore
Answer:
B) Hyderabad, Junagadh, Kashmir

Question 71.
The Government of India Act was passed In 1935 by the ……………….. .
A) British Parliament
B) Indian Parliament
C) Executive Council
D) East India Company
Answer:
A) British Parliament

Question 72.
Royal Indian Navy rebellion was started in ………………….. .
A) 1943
B) 1945
C) 1942
D) 1946
Answer:
D) 1946

Question 73.
The following causes for the resignations of ministers of the Congress Party in October 1939 was/were ………… . ( )
A) British objected to give full freedom
B) Cabinet mission was established
C) British forced Indians to support the World War
D) There was a conflict between Congress leaders
Answer:
A) British objected to give full freedom

Question 74.
Which movement started In August 1942? ( )
A) The Quit India
B) Non-Co-operation
C) Civil disobedience
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) The Quit India

Question 75.
Who spoke of a need for a “North-west Indian Muslim State’? ( )
A) Moharrimad Iqbal
B) Mohammad Ah Jinnah
C) Rehmat All
D) Mujbar Rehman
Answer:
A) Moharrimad Iqbal

These TS 10th Class Social Bits with Answers 13th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies with Equity will help students to enhance their time management skills.

TS 10th Class Social Bits 13th Lesson National Liberation Movements in the Colonies

Question 1.
Which of these countries is not a colony of Britain? ( )
A) Vietnam
B) India
C) Nigeria
D) Myanmar
Answer:
A) Vietnam

Question 2.
The ……………….. made Communist Party of China a strong social base. ( )
A) Land reforms and Nationalisation
B) Nationalism
C) Five Years Plan
D) Mancliu dynasty
Answer:
A) Land reforms and Nationalisation

Question 3.
The three principles of Sun Yat-sen are San. Mm, Chul. Among these, ‘Min means ………………….. .( )
A) Democracy
B) Nationalism
C) Socialism
D) Monarchy
Answer:
A) Democracy

Question 4.
Choose the odd one. ( )
A) Bntaln – Churchill.
B) America – Roosevelt.
C) Italy – Hitler.
D) Russia – Lenin
Answer:
C) Italy – Hitler.

Question 5.
Chiang – Kai – Shek encouraged women to have the following four virtues ………………… .( )
A) Nationalism – Republic – Democracy – Socialism.
B) Chastity – Appearance – Speech – Work.
C) Food – Clothing – Housing – Transportation.
D) Marriage – Divorce – Education – Profession.
Answer:
B) Chastity – Appearance – Speech – Work.

Question 6.
The reason for use of “Agent Orange” In Vietnam war by America is to ………………… . ( )
A) Kill, and stop people from hiding in the June cover.
B) Protect forests.
C) Protect American soldiers.
D) Supply arms to Vietnam.
Answer:
A) Kill, and stop people from hiding in the June cover.

Question 7.
In China, the Republic was formed based on this principle. ( )
A) Realism.
B) New Democracy.
C) Presidential system.
D) Parliamentary system.
Answer:
B) New Democracy.

Question 8.
Peking University was established in ( )
A) 1802
B) 1902
C) 1912
D) 1922
Answer:
A) 1802

Question 9.
Prices rose ……………… percent per month between 1945 and 1949 and utterly destroyed the lives of ordinary people …………………. . ( )
A) 30
B) 40
C) 50
D) 60
Answer:
A) 30

Question 10.
Long – March was held In ………………. .
A) 1914-1915
B) 1924-1925
C) 1934-1935
D) 1944-1945
Answer:
C) 1934-1935

Question 11.
………………… is dominated by Hausa- Fuieni people who are predominantly Muslims. ( )
A) Northern Nigeria
B) Southern Nigeria
C) Eastern Nigeria
D) Western Nigeria
Answer:
A) Northern Nigeria

Question 12.
The CCP has been founded after the ……………… Revolution. ( )
A) Russian
B) French
C) American
D) Bloodless
Answer:
A) Russian

Question 13.
…………………….. established Comintern. ( )
A) Ko Chi Minh
B) Lenin
C) Marx
D) None
Answer:
B) Lenin

Question 14.
‘Yoruba’ is a tribe in …………………. . ( )
A) China
B) Nigeria
C) Vietnam
D) Indo China
Answer:
B) Nigeria

Question 15.
Leader of NYM was ………………… . ( )
A) Azikiwe
B) Mao
C) Chiang
D) None
Answer:
A) Azikiwe

Question 16.
On 4-5-1919 an angry demonstration was held in …………………… . ( )
A) Peking
B) Beijing
C) Mekong
D) Xiang
Answer:
B) Beijing

Question 17.
The ruler of the republic established in 1911 In China was ( )
A) Sun-yet-sen
B) Mao Zedong
C) Chiang-Kai-Shek
D) Chow-en-Lai
Answer:
A) Sun-yet-sen

Question 18.
May Fourth Movement was organised in ( )
A) 1939
B) 1920
C)1911
D) 1919
Answer:
D) 1919

Question 19.
This Chinese leader Is for militarisation of nation ( )
A) Sun Yat Sen
B) Mao Zedong
C) CNang-Kai-Shek
D) Chow-en-Lal
Answer:
C) CNang-Kai-Shek

Question 20.
Chlang-KaI-Shek encouraged women to cultivate virtues. ( )
A) Three
B) Four
C) Five
D) Two
Answer:
B) Four

Question 21.
The Chinese Communist Party (CCP) was founded In ( )
A) 1921
B) 1919
C) 1917
D) 1920
Answer:
A) 1921

Question 22.
The Long March was conducted over a distance of ( )
A) 3500 miles
B) 2500 miles
C) 6000 miles
D) 10000 miles
Answer:
C) 6000 miles

Question 23.
The Peoples’ Republic of China Government was established in ( )
A) 1919
B) 1911
C) 1954
D) 1949
Answer:
D) 1949

Question 24.
The Peoples Republic of China was based on the principles of ( )
A) Four virtues
B) Three principles
C) New Democracy
D) 4 great needs
Answer:
C) New Democracy

Question 25.
Perhaps ……………… landlords were executed In China While implementing land reforms In China. ( )
A) 5-10 lakhs
B) 50,000
C) 1 lakh
D) 10-20 lakhs
Answer:
D) 10-20 lakhs

Question 26.
The major leader of CCP was
A) Mao Zedong
B) Chiang-Kai-Shek
C) Sun-Yat-sen
D) Chow-en-Laj
Answer:
A) Mao Zedong

Question 27.
Northern Nigeria was dominated by
A) Yoruba tribe
B) Igbo tube
C) Christians
D) Hausa-Fulani people
Answer:
D) Hausa-Fulani people

Question 28.
Southeastern part of Nigeria was dominated by
A) Yoruba tribe
B) Igbo tribe
C) Christians
D) Hausa-Fulani people
Answer:
B) Igbo tribe

Question 29.
Southwestern portions of Nigeria were dominated by
A) Igbo tribe
B) Christians
C) Hausa-Fulani people
D) Yoruba tube
Answer:
D) Yoruba tube

Question 30.
Nigerian National Democratic Party was founded by
A) Azikiwe
B) Macaulay
C) Ken Saro Wiwa
D) Dutchshell
Answer:
B) Macaulay

Question 31.
The Nigerian Youth Movement was founded in the year
A) 1944
B) 1923
C) 1936
D) 1930
Answer:
C) 1936

Question 32.
The Nigerian Youth Movement was founded by ()
A) Azikiwe
B) Dutctishe
C) Macaulay
D) Ken Saro Wiwa
Answer:
A) Azikiwe

Question 33.
Nigeria became independent in
A) 1960
B) 1945
C) 1950
D) 1963
Answer:
D) 1963

Question 34.
After a long haul of military dictatorship, Nigerians elected a democratic government in ( )
A) 1990
B)1992
C) 1999
D) 1996
Answer:
C) 1999

Question 35.
The Manchu empire in China was overthrown in ( )
A) 1911
B) 1919
C) 1921
D) 1925
Answer:
A) 1911

Question 36.
……………… launched military campaign to control the warlords In China. ( )
A) Chiang-Kai-Stek
B) Mao Zedong
C) Sun-yet-sen
D) Chow-en-Lai
Answer:
B) Mao Zedong

Question 37.
Japan invaded China In ( )
A) 1939
B) 1937
C) 1940
D) 1942
Answer:
B) 1937

Question 38.
The Comintem was established to bring a world government that would ( )
A) propagate corwnunlsm
B) encourage Iandlordisrn
C) nationalise industries
D) end exploitation
Answer:
D) end exploitation

Question 39.
Mao Zedong camped in Jlangxl mountains to ( )
A) study the nature and write
B) propagate communism
C) be secure from Guomindang attacks
D) fight with landlords
Answer:
C) be secure from Guomindang attacks

Question 40.
May Fourth Movement was burst In ………………. in China.
A) Beijing
B) Shanghai
C) Gangzhou
D) Shantou
Answer:
A) Beijing

Question 41.
Goumlndang was also known as
A) MKT
B) KMT
C) TKM
D) TMK
Answer:
B) KMT

Question 42.
………………………. ‘s ideas became the basis of the political phIlosophy of Guomindang. ( )
A) Mao Zedong
B) Chiang-Kal-Sheic
C) Sun-Yat-sen
D) Lenin
Answer:
C) Sun-Yat-sen

Question 43.
It was not among three principles of Sun Vat Sen
A) Democracy
B) Socialism
C) Nationalism
D) Warlordism
Answer:
D) Warlordism

Question 44.
Which of the following statements is false? ( )
A) Sun-yet-sen is regarded as the founder of modem China.
B) Sun-yet-sens ideas became the basis of the political philosophy of the Guomfldang.
C) Mao led the long march.
D) Multi-parties were allowed in China.
Answer:
D) Multi-parties were allowed in China.

Question 45.
Arrange the Incidents in suitable time order.
i) Peking University was established in China
Ii) Japan Invaded China
¡Ii) China Communist Party established
iv) Long march of China
A) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
B) (ii). (iv), (i), (iii)
C) (i). (lii), (ii). (iv)
D) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
Answer:
D) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

Question 46.
Oil resources In Nigeria are concentrated in southwest region. Eebos claim large share of petroleum profits. What is the suitable solution for this? ( )
A) Oil profits should go to multinational companies.
B) Natural resources are the nation’s wealth show, it should belong to tne entire nation.
C) More profits should go to the people of tne same region.
D) Natural resources of a region should be used for the development of the saine region.
Answer:
B) Natural resources are the nation’s wealth show, it should belong to tne entire nation.

Question 47.
Which of the following aspects of Sun Vat-Sans’ personality do you appreciate? ( )
A) Influenced by democratic idealism.
B) Thought on China’s future.
C) Worked out a programme of action on China’s problems
D) All the above.
Answer:
D) All the above.

Question 48.
Which of the following country Is facing challenges of building democracy? ( )
A) Vietnam
B) America
C) Nigeria
D) China
Answer:
C) Nigena

Question 49.
Indo-Chinas. Communist party belongs to ………………………. . ( )
A) India
B) Nigeria
C) China
D) Vietnam
Answer:
D) Vietnam

Question 50.
Among the following, which one Is NOT the principle, of Sun Yat-sen? ( )
A) Nationalism
B) Democracy
C) Socialism
D) Secularism
Answer:
D) Secularism

These TS 10th Class Social Bits with Answers 12th Lesson The World Between the World Wars with Equity will help students to enhance their time management skills.

TS 10th Class Social Bits 12th Lesson The World Between the World Wars

Question 1.
The International Organization formed immediately after World War-I was ………………. . ( )
A) World Bank
B) League of Nations
C) International Monetary Fund (l.M.F.)
D) Asian Bank
Answer:
B) League of Nations

Question 2.
Eric Hobsbawm says 20th century was ………………………. .( )
A) Age of Extremes.
B) Age of Democracy.
C) Age of Ideology.
D) Age of Intellectuals.
Answer:
A) Age of Extremes.

Question 3.
The immediate cause for Second World War …………………. . ( )
A) Aggressive Nationalism.
B) Hitler attacked on Poland.
C) Militarism.
D) Death of Ferdinand and Sofia.
Answer:
B) Hitler attacked on Poland.

Question 4.
The following one was NOT the cause for the World Wars ( )
A) Militarism
B) Vengeful domination of Germany
C) Secret Alliances
D) Declaration of independence to all countries
Answer:
D) Declaration of independence to all countries

Question 5.
What is the most significant result of the February revolution in Russia? ( )
A) Abdication of the Tzar
B) Women empowerment
C) End of World War – I
D) Lenin came into power
Answer:
A) Abdication of the Tzar

Question 6.
Who among the following persons were not inspired by the Communism? ( )
A) M,N. Roy
B) Tagore
C) Jawaharlal Nehru
D) Subhash Chandra Bose
Answer:
D) Subhash Chandra Bose

Question 7.
This is NOT an effect of the Great Depression ( )
A) Increase in unemployment
B) Reduction of Indushial production
C) Youth took to criminal activities
D) Increase in employment
Answer:
D) Increase in employment

Question 8.
On 8th March, 1917, around 10,000 women of the capital St. Petersburg, took out a
procession demanding …………………. .( )
A) Land
B) Housing
C) Peace and bread
D) Sufficient wages
Answer:
C) Peace and bread

Question 9.
The immediate provocation for the World War II was …………………….. .( )
A) Murder of Austrian Prince
B) Hitler’s invasion on Poland
C) League of Nations
D) Formation of UNO
Answer:
B) Hitler’s invasion on Poland

Question 10.
The Soviets in USSR are the councils of ……………………. .( )
A) Officers. Soldiers, Traders
B) Peasants, Workers, Soldiers
C) Landlords. Tenants, Teachers
D) Nobles, Kings. Landlords
Answer:
B) Peasants, Workers. Soldiers

Question 11.
It is established to continue the purpose of the League of NatIons. ( )
A) United Nations Organisation
B) World Bank.
C) Capitalist group.
D) Socialist group.
Answer:
A) United Nations Organisation

Question 12.
The immediate cause of the First World War …………………….. . ( )
A) Japan attacked on Pearl Harbour.
B) Establishment of UNO.
C) Hitler’s attack on Poland.
D) Assassination of Austrian Prince.
Answer:
D) Assassination of Austrian Prince.

Question 13.
Fascism emphasised the idea of ………………….. .( )
A) National unity.
B) Democracy.
C) Liberty.
D) Equality.
Answer:
A) National unity.

Question 14.
The U.S.A. came up with “MarshaIl PIan” to fund the economic rival of …………….. . ( )
A) Italy and France.
B) Austria and England.
C) Germany and Japan.
D) Norway and Sweden.
Answer:
C) Germany and Japan.

Question 15.
This is not the cause of the First World War. ( )
A) Imperialism
B) Aggressive Nationalism
C) Treaty of Versailles
D) Secret Alliances
Answer:
C) Treaty of Versailles

Question 16.
Reichstag is the : ( )
A Treaty signed by the Axis powers
B) Lower House of the German Parliament
C) Upper House of the Germar’ Parliament
D) German Secret Society
Answer:
B) Lower House of the German Parliament

Question 17.
This was formed as a consequence of the Treaty of Versailles : ( )
A) United Nations Organisation
B) international Monetary Fund
C) League of Nations
D) Union of Soviet Socialist Republics
Answer:
C) League of Nations

Question 18.
Industrial capitalism had changed the way many people earned their livelihood but only in the ……………….. countries. ( )
A) Western
B) Eastern
C) Northern
D) Southern
Answer:
A) Western

Question 19.
………………… century was called The Age of Extremes.( )
A) 19th
B) 20th
C)21st
D) 15th
Answer:
B) 20th

Question 20.
The Great Depression was occurred in ……………………… .
A) 1920
B) 1921
C) 1929
D) 1935
Answer:
C) 1929

Question 21.
The Second World War ended with the defeat of ……………………. .
A) The USA
B) Britain
C) France
D) Germany
Answer:
D) Germany

Question 22.
The Allies were not led by …………………… .
A) Germany
B) The US
C) The USSR
D) Britain
Answer:
A) Germany

Question 23.
Archduke Franz Ferdinand was a/an
A) German
B) Austrian
C) Serbian
D) Russian
Answer:
B) Austrian

Question 24.
………………… Invaded Poland In 1939.
A) Mussohni
B) Woodrow Wilson
C) Hitler
D) None
Answer:
C) Hitler

Question 25.
This is not an example for aggressive ………………… nationalism.
A) Fascism
B) Nazism
C) Hinduism
D) None
Answer:
D) None

Question 26.
…………………….. was very active In the formation of the League of Nations.
A) Metiernich
B) Woodrow Wilson
C) Hitler
D) Mussolini
Answer:
B) Woodrow Wilson

Question 27.
The Russian Revolution took place in …………………… .
A) 1915
B) 1916
C) 1917
D) 1918
Answer:
C) 1917

Question 28.
…………………… became a Weimar Republic.
A) Russia
B) America
C) Italy
D) Germany
Answer:
D) Germany

Question 29.
The British women got their voting right in …………………… .
A) 1918
B)1920
C) 1922
D) 1929
Answer:
A) 1918

Question 30.
International women’s suffragist movement was established In
A) 1914
B) 1814
C) 1921
D) 1918
Answer:
A) 1914

Question 31.
The First World War was broke out in
A) 1918
B) 1939
C) 1914
D) 1921
Answer:
C) 1914

Question 32.
The First World War ended with the victory of
A) Germany
B) Austria
C) Turkey
D) England
Answer:
D) England

Question 33.
The Second World War fought between the years
A) 1918-22
B) 1914-18
C) 1939-45
D) 1949-55
Answer:
C) 1939-45

Question 34.
The Second World War was concluded with the defeat of
A) England
B) Japan
C) The USA
D) France
Answer:
B) Japan

Question 35.
The First World War was ended In the year
A) 1918
B) 1945
C) 1939
D) 1914
Answer:
A) 1918

Question 36.
The port of Danzlng was with
A) Germany
B) Poland
C) Denmark
D) Belgium
Answer:
B) Poland

Question 37.
It was not one among central or axis powers
A) The USA
B) Italy
C) Germany
D) Japan
Answer:
A) The USA

Question 38.
Aggressive nationalism under Italian Fascism was from
A) 1918
B) 1914
C) 1919
D) 1923
Answer:
D) 1923

Question 39.
The country that was not a part of Triple Entente ( )
A) Britain
B) Russia
C) Germany
D) France
Answer:
C) Germany

Question 40.
Triple Entente was formed in the year ( )
A) 1907
B) 1904
C) 1891
D) 1882
Answer:
A) 1907

Question 41.
Triple Alliance was led by ( )
A) Italy
B) Austro-Hungary
C) Germany
D) Japan
Answer:
C) Germany

Question 42.
It was not a part of triple alliance ( )
A) Germany
B) Italy
C) Austro-Hungary
D) Japan
Answer:
D) Japan

Question 43.
From 1880 to 1914 sIx big powers military expenditure was increased by over ( )
A) 100%
B) 300%
C) 200%
D) 400%
Answer:
B) 300%

Question 44.
The Treaty of Versailles was made in year ( )
A) 1914
B) 1918
C) 1921
D) 1919
Answer:
D) 1919

Question 45.
The countries that were not invited to the Treaty of Versailles were ( )
A) Russia, Germany, Austria, Turkey
B) Russia, the USA, Germany, France
C) Enand, Austria, Turkey, Italy
D) Japan, Italy, Germany, the USA
Answer:
A) Russia, Germany, Austria, Turkey

Question 46.
In Russia communist state was established in ( )
A) 1924
B) 1917
C) 1905
D) 1933
Answer:
B) 1917

Question 47.
Russia became the USSR In ( )
A) 1922
B) 1928
C) 1905
D) 1917
Answer:
A) 1922

Question 48.
It was not the empire that andad after World War I ( )
A) Russian Empire
B) German Empire
C) Ottoman Empire
D) British Empire
Answer:
D) British Empire

Question 49.
Peace organisation set up after World War I was ( )
A) United Nations
B) League of Nations
C) United States
D) United Arab Emirates
Answer:
B) League of Nations

Question 50.
Peace organisation formed after World War II was ( )
A) League of Nations
B) United States
C) United Nations
D) United Arab Emirates
Answer:
C) United Nations

Question 51.
UNO was being accused as a tool of great powers ( )
A) The USA, the USSR
B) Germany. Italy
C) China, Japan
D) England, France
Answer:
A) The USA, the USSR

Question 52.
The number of Indian soldiers that were killed In World War I ( )
A) 1,50,400
B) 2,46,000
C) 1,75.000
D) 75,000
Answer:
D) 75,000

Question 53.
In 1939, Germany made a non-aggression pact wIth ( )
A) Austria
B) Japan
C) Russia
D) Italy
Answer:
C) Russia

Question 54.
This country provoked the USA into World War lI ( )
A) Germany
B) Japan
C) Italy
D) Austria
Answer:
B) Japan

Question 55.
World War I had claimed ………………….. million men in battle. ( )
A) 5
B) 7
C) 10
D) 12
Answer:
C) 10

Question 56.
………………… dropped atom bombs in Japan in World War I.
A) The USA
B) England
C) Russia
D) China
Answer:
A) The USA

Question 57.
The leader of the Nazi party is
A) Mussolini
B) Woodrow Wilson
C) Hitler
D) Roosevelt
Answer:
C) Hitler

Question 58.
Russian Revolution in 1917 was led by ()
A) Lenin
B) Stalin
C) Nikita Kruschev
D) Vladimir Putin
Answer:
A) Lenin

Question 59.
The League of Nations was formed In ()
A) 1917
B) 1920
C) 1922
D) 1919
Answer:
B) 1920

Question 60.
UNO was formed on ( )
A) Sept. 24, 1945
B) Oct. 24, 1946
C) Oct 24, 1945
D) Sept 24, 1946
Answer:
C) Oct 24, 1945

Question 61.
The Treaty of Versailles was attended by ……………………. national delegations. ()
A) 38
B) 52
C) 54
D) 32
Answer:
D) 32

Question 62.
The headquarters of UNO is at ( )
A) Geneva
B) Zurich
C) The Hague
D) New York
Answer:
D) New York

Question 63.
Which of these countries are permanent members of UN? ( )
A) France, China, USA, UK, Russia
B) France, UK. Germany, USA. India
C) USA, UK. Russia, Japan, Italy
D) USA, UK, Japan, France, Russia
Answer:
A) France, China, USA, UK, Russia

Question 64.
What are the major nations belonging to Allies group? ( )
A) Russia, USA, UK
B) Germany, Austria, Ottoman Enip4re
C) Japan. China, Russia
D) France. Italy, Germany
Answer:
A) Russia, USA, UK

Question 65.
If a nation behaves aggressively with another country, the second country should …………………… . ()
A) also behave aggressively
B) show an attitude of give and take
C) increase its weapons and army
D) try to solve the issue with political bilateral discussions
Answer:
D) try to solve the issue with political bilateral discussions

Question 66.
World War- I was ended with the Treaty of …………………….. . ( )
A) Treaty of Versailles,
B) Treaty of Paris,
C) Treaty of Frankfurt
D) Treaty of Prague.
Answer:
A) Treaty of Versailles,

Question 67.
The Soviets under the Bolshevik leadership seized power from the provisional government in ……………….. . ( )
A) 1919
B) 1918
C) 1917
D) 1916
Answer:
C) 1917

Question 68.
The people who wanted to put an immediate end to the existing governments In Europe ( )
A) Nationalists
B) Liberals
C) Revolutionaries
D) Radicals
Answer:
C) Revolutionaries

Question 69.
When was the Socialist Revolutionary Party formed In Russia? ( )
A) 1898
B) 1900
C) 1905
D) 1910
Answer:
B) 1900

Question 70.
In the World War – I, Russia fought against ……………….. . ( )
A) Bntain France
B) Germany, Austria
C) America
D) None
Answer:
B) Germany, Austria

Question 71.
…………………. led the Bolshevik group in Russia during Russian Revolution. ( )
A) Karl Marx
B) Engles
C) Lenin
D) Trotsky
Answer:
C) Lenin

Question 72.
……………….. started ‘Collectivisation Programm. In Russia. ( )
A) Lenin
B) Marx
C) Rasputin
D) Stalin
Answer:
D) Stalin

Question 73.
………………. was a special surveillance and security force created by Hitler. ( )
A) CBI
B) Gestapo
C) CDI
D) Both A & C
Answer:
B) Gestapo

Question 74.
Germany’s genocidal war’ was against the following people
A) Jews and political opponents
B) Gypsies and Polish civilians
C) Disabled Germans
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 75.
The Dawas Plan was ……………………… . ( )
A) A plan which proposed more tines on Germany
B) A plan which withdrew all punishment from Germany
C) A plan victim reworked the terms of reparation to ease financial burden on the Germans.
D) None
Answer:
C) A plan victim reworked the terms of reparation to ease financial burden on the Germans.

Question 76.
The incident led to the World War – II ( )
A) German invasion on Switzerland
B) German invasion on Poland
C) German Invasion on Russia
D) German invasion on Pearl Harbour
Answer:
D) German invasion on Pearl Harbour

Question 77.
The Second World War came to an end in ………………… . ( )
A) 1944
B) 1945
C) 1946
D) 1947
Answer:
B) 1945

Question 78.
World War – I lended with the Treaty 0f …………………….. . ( )
A) Versailles
B) Livotek
C) League
D) None
Answer:
A) Versailles

Question 79.
Germany invaded Poland in September, ……………………. . ( )
A) 1938
B) 1939
C) 1943
D) 1945
Answer:
B) 1939

Question 80.
A Tripartite was signed between Germany, Italy and …………………. . ( )
A) Russia
B) China
C) Japan
D) India
Answer:
C) Japan

Question 81.
According to Nazis ………………… were desirable. ( )
A) Pure and healthy Nordic Aryans
B) Pure and healthy Jews
C) German soldiers
D) Worshippers of Hitler
Answer:
A) Pure and healthy Nordic Aryans

Question 82.
A feature of Hitler’s foreign policy ( )
A) He pulled out of League of Nations in 1933
B) He decided not to attack any country
C) He thanked the Allies
D) None of these
Answer:
A) He pulled out of League of Nations in 1933

Question 83.
The emperor of the following country is Tsar ( )
A) Turkey
B) Germany
C) Austro Hungarian
D) Russia
Answer:
D) Russia

Question 84.
Lenin regime put down the civil wars by ( )
A) 1917
B) 1924
C) 1920
D) 1928
Answer:
C) 1920

Question 85.
The USSR was set up in the year ( )
A) 1917
B) 1922
C) 1928
D) 1905
Answer:
B) 1922

Question 86.
First Five-Year Plan In the USSR was introduced in ( )
A) 1924
B) 1917
C) 1928
D) 1933
Answer:
C) 1928

Question 87.
He did not figure In men Inspired by communism ( )
A) Gandhi
B) MN Roy
C) Tagcwe
D) Nehru
Answer:
A) Gandhi

Question 88.
The Great Depression began around ( )
A) 1924
B) 1929
C) 1928
D) 1938
Answer:
B) 1929

Question 89.
The Great Depression lasted till ( )
A) 1930
B) 1939
C) 1935
D) 1945
Answer:
B) 1939

Question 90.
The US President to start ‘the New Deal’ to bail out the USA from the Great Depression was ( )
A) Lincoln
B) Washington
C) Roosevelt
D) Regan
Answer:
C) Roosevelt

Question 91.
This country helped Germany before 1928 to stabilize Its economy post World War I was ( )
A) The USA
B) Italy
C) England
D) The USSR
Answer:
A) The USA

Question 92.
The famous enabling act was passed in ( )
A) 1928
B) 1929
C) 1935
D) 1933
Answer:
D) 1933

Question 93.
The German people’s car was ( )
A) Rolls Royce
B) Ford
C) Volkswagen
D) Marcidos Benz
Answer:
C) Volkswagen

Question 94.
Hitler attacked this country on September 1939 ( )
A) Austria
B) Poland
C) Russia
D) The USA
Answer:
B) Poland

Question 95.
Japan attack on Pearl Harbour forced this country to enter Into the Second World War ( )
A) England
B) France
C) Russia
D) USA
Answer:
D) USA

Question 96.
Identify the odd one. ( )
A) Reichstag
B) Weimar
C) Parliament
D) DIET
Answer:
B) Weimar

Question 97.
During Second World War, this country waged a genocidal war ( )
A) The USA
B) Italy
C) Germany
D) The USSR
Answer:
C) Germany

Question 98.
Last country to surrender during World War II was ( )
A) Italy
B) Japan
C) Germany
D) Turkey
Answer:
B) Japan

Question 99.
It was not the country of becoming Independent In 1950s ( )
A) South Africa
B) China
C) Egypt
D) Indonesia
Answer:
A) South Africa

Question 100.
The population of Russia in 1917 was ( )
A) 150 millions
B) 156 millions
C) 160 millions
D) 102 millions
Answer:
B) 156 millions

Question 101.
Revolutionaries In Russia organIsed themselves In council, which were called ( )
A) Soldiers
B) Mobs
C) Soviets
D) Groups
Answer:
C) Soviets

Question 102.
……………….. used his disputed power to build the economy of the USSR. ( )
A) Stalin
B) Lenin
C) Kruschev
D) Putin
Answer:
A) Stalin

Question 103.
The country suffered least during Great Depression was ( )
A) The USA
B) Britain
C) Russia
D) Germany
Answer:
C) Russia

Question 104.
The civil war lasted in Russia In between ( )
A) 1918 to 1925
B) 1918 to 1923
C) 1917 to 1920
D) 1917 to 1924
Answer:
C) 1917 to 1920

Question 105.
The book written by Adolf Hitler was ( )
A) Animal Farm
B) In Praise of Folly
C) Main Kampf
D) Tempest
Answer:
C) Main Kampf

Question 106.
Due to Great Depression …………………….. % Americans were unemployed ( )
A) 37%
B) 30%
C) 22%
D) 25%
Answer:
D) 25%

Question 107.
Nazi party got …………………… % votes in Reichstag in 1932. ( )
A) 42%
B) 39%
C) 37%
D) 35%
Answer:
C) 37%

Question 108.
Japan’s parliament was called ( )
A) Congress
B) DIET
C) Duma
D) Parliament
Answer:
B) DIET

Question 109.
In 1928, Nazi party had ……………… % votes in Germany. ( )
A) 2.6%
B) 37%
C) 25%
D) 22%
Answer:
A) 2.6%

Question 110.
By 1932, industrial production was reduced to …………………. % of the 1929 level In Germany. ( )
A) 25%
B) 30%
C) 50%
D) 40%
Answer:
D) 40%

Question 111.
On March 8th, 1917 around ………………… women took out a procession demanding Peace and Bread In Russia. ( )
A) 10,000
B) 12,000
C) 15,000
D) 18,000
Answer:
A) 10,000

Question 112.
The number of Jews that were killed by Nazis were
A) 20,00,000
B) 60,00,000
C) 2,00,000
D) 10,00,000
Answer:
B) 60,00,000

Question 113.
The term ‘collectivisation’ means
A) Collective weapons
B) Collective farming
C) Collective war
D) Collective people
Answer:
C) Collective war

Question 114.
The three ‘R’ s with reference to ‘The New Deal
A) Racism. Revolution. Religion
B) Rural, Reform, Revolution
C) Relief, Recovery, Reform
D) Religion, Reform. Recovery
Answer:
C) Relief, Recovery, Reform

Question 115.
Which of the following is a branch of Germany’s secret police force?
A) Castopo
B) Gestapo
C) Starmpo
D) Trupers
Answer:
B) Gestapo

Question 116.
Which of the following activities by Hitler led to the World War?
A) Declaration of establishment of racial superiority
B) Arresting political rivals
C) Invading the neighbouring countries
D) All of these
Answer:
D) All of these

Question 117.
Which of the following activities of Hitler do you appreciate?
A) Declaration of establishment of racial superiority.
B) Arresting political rivals.
C) War with neighbouring countries.
D) Best oration that moves and attracts people.
Answer:
D) Best oration that moves and attracts people.

These TS 10th Class Social Bits with Answers 11th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity will help students to enhance their time management skills.

TS 10th Class Social Bits 11th Lesson Sustainable Development with Equity

Question 1.
Use of fertilizers and pesticides are banned in this state. ()
A) Kerala
B) Karnataka
C) Maharashtra
D) Sikkim
Answer:
D) Sikkim

Question 2.
Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA) is …………………. .()
A) Environmental movement
B) Economic movement
C) Political movement
D) Water movement
Answer:
A) Environmental movement

Question 3.
The Supreme Court held that one of the following of the Constitution includes the right of pollution free water and air for full enjoyment of life. ( )
A) Political right
B) Legal right
C) Right to life
D) Directive principles
Answer:
C) Right to life

Question 4.
The min aim of Chipko Movement is ………………….. .()
A) protection of animals
B) construction of dams
C) food security
D) protection of trees
Answer:
D) protection of trees

Question 5.
The Chipko Movement focuses On ……………………….. .()
A) stop felling of trees.
B) increase animal rearing.
C) to encourage organic farming.
D) encouraging industries.
Answer:
A) stop felling of trees.

Question 6.
The environment’s source function is to ……………………… . ( )
A) provide natural resources.
B) pollute natural resources.
C) prevent natural disasters.
D) cause natural disasters.
Answer:
A) provide natural resources.

Question 7.
In a series of rulings, the Supreme Court of India had ordered all public transport vehicles to use the fuel ( )
A) Diesel
B) Petrol
C) Compressed Natural Gas
D) Kerosene
Answer:
C) Compressed Natural Gas

Question 8.
Main objective of Chipko movement is ………………………. .( )
A) against the dams.
B) against falling of trees.
C) for the rights of tribals.
D) for the rights of displaced people.
Answer:
B) against falling of trees.

Question 9.
The state that banned use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides is: ( )
A) Sikkim
B) Kerala
C) Tamil Nadu
D) Telangana
Answer:
A) Sikkim

Question 10.
…………………… expands the meaning of development to include social inoicators education and health. ( )
A) GDP
B) HDI
C) NBA
D) DDT
Answer:
B) HDI

Question 11.
In India, more than …………………. of the workforce is in the unorganised sector. ( )
A) 60%
B) 70%
C) 80%
D) 90%
Answer:
D) 90%

Question 12.
People with ………………… income and wealth are the ones who have all the choices in the world to buy and consume. ( )
A) high
B) low
C) minimum
D) maximum
Answer:
A) high

Question 13.
With ‘Mota Baavi’ only ……………… acres can be irrigated. ( )
A) 1 to 2
B) 2 to 3
C) 3 to 4
D) 4 to 5
Answer:
B) 2 to 3

Question 14.
………………… was limited to rainy season and large areas were rainfed drylands. ( )
A) Agriculture
B) Industry
C) Textile
D) Non-food crops
Answer:
A) Agriculture

Question 15.
Open wells had water at …………………. feet deep. ( )
A) I to 5
B) 5 to 10
C) 10 to 15
D) 15 to 20
Answer:
C) 10 to 15

Question 16.
Open wells had water at 10 to 15 feet deep; utmost ……………….. feet deep. ( )
A) 100
B) 200
C) 300
D) 400
Answer:
A) 100

Question 17.
After all, the ……………. has go down to the ground for it to be lifted up. This is called ‘recharge. ( )
A) fire
B) water
C) air
D) none
Answer:
B) water

Question 18.
About ……………… districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 meters during past 20 years. ( )
A) 100
B) 200
C) 300
D) 400 .
Answer:
C) 300

Question 19.
About 300 dIstncts have reported a water level decline of over 4 metres durmg the past years. ( )
A) 10
B) 20
C) 30
D) 40
Answer:
B) 20

Question 20.
………………… has been used as a sink to dump all kinds of waste and tonic substances. ( )
A) Soil
B) Water
C) Fire
D) Air
Answer:
B) Water

Question 21.
In ………………. of districts of India. water from hand pumps and wells are unsafe for drinking. ( )
A) 29%
B) 39%
C) 49%
D) 59%
Answer:
D) 59%

Question 22.
This is because of contamination of groundwater from …………………….. Waste from agriculture and Industry.
A) Chemical industrial
B) Textile industry
C) Small scale industry
D) Agricultural industry
Answer:
A) Chemical industrial

Question 23.
In the Year ……………….. Rachel Carson wrote the book “Slient Spring”. ()
A) 1942
B) 1952
C) 1962
D) 1972
Answer:
C) 1962

Question 24.
In ……………………. to protect the areas cashew crop from pests, the government carned out treatment of land. ( )
A) 1966
B)1976
C) 1986
D) 1996
Answer:
B)1976

Question 25.
To protect the areas cashew crop from pests, the government carried out treatment of ………………… acres of land with endosulfan, sprayed by helicopter. ( )
A) 5,000
B) 10,000
C) 15,000
D) 20,000
Answer:
C) 15,000

Question 26.
The air, water and entire environment was suffused with the pesticide, as treatment confirmed for some ……………. years. ( )
A) 10
B) 15
C) 20
D) 25
Answer:
D) 25

Question 27.
As at least ………………. people have died and for countless others, life has become worse than death as cancer and deformities became prevalent. ( )
A) 1,000
B) 5,000
C) 10,000
D)15,000
Answer:
B) 5,000

Question 28.
The environmental costs of the Narmada Valley Development Project, which involves the construction of more than ……………….. large and small dams are immense. ( )
A) 1,000
B) 2,000
C) 3,000
D) 4,000
Answer:
C) 3,000

Question 29.
The largest of the dams constructed Is the Sardar Saroval, which floods more than ………………. hectares of forest and agricultural land. ( )
A) 34,000
B) 35,000
C) 36,000
D) 37,000
Answer:
D) 37,000

Question 30.
The following letter was written by Bava Maha(lya of .Jalslndhi village In Jhabua district to the Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh In ……………………. . ( )
A) 1994
B) 1995
C) 1996
D) 1997
Answer:
A) 1994

Question 31.
Development project like the …………………. dam home disrupted the lives and livelihood of thousands of people. ()
A) Sardar Sarovar
B) Bakra Nangal
C) Nagarjuna Sagar
D) Almati
Answer:
A) Sardar Sarovar

Question 32.
The stock of ……………….. has been built and enriched over generations.
A) education
B) knowledge
C) diversrty
D) agriculture
Answer:
B) knowledge

Question 33.
Another Important environmental movement Is the Chipko Andolan which started In the early ………………… . ( )
A) 1950
B) 1960
C) 1970
D) 1980
Answer:
C) 1970

Question 34.
…………………… is big country with a high population.
A) India
B) Bangladesh
C) Egypt
D) Iran
Answer:
A) India

Question 35.
lt is unjust to ask the poor people to bear the cost of
A) Development
B) Agriculture
C) Environment
D) Peshcides
Answer:
A) Development

Question 36.
Different groups have championed the rights of local people over the ………………. . ( )
A) Agriculture
B) Environment
C) Development
D) Pesticides
Answer:
B) Environment

Question 37.
In 1991, the Supreme Court held that the Right to Life Is a fundamental right under ………………… of the Constitution. ( )
A) Article 21
B) Article 22
C) Article 23
D) Article 24
Answer:
A) Article 21

Question 38.
Sikkim s the first state In India that Is planning to shift completely to organic farming by ……………………. . ( )
A) 2005
B) 2010
C) 2015
D) 2020
Answer:
C) 2015

Question 39.
Uttarakhand too Is following the same path of being …………………….. organic state. ( )
A) 50%
B) 100%
C) 150%
D) 200%
Answer:
B) 100%

Question 40.
The potential of an environment to provide these resources is referred to as an …………… . ( )
A) Environment source function
B) Natural source function
C) Both A&B
D) OnlyB’
Answer:
A) Environment source function

Question 41.
In the past fifty years of economic development, both the source and sink functions of the ……………………… have been overused. ( )
A) environment
B) artificial nature
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
A) environment

Question 42.
The …………………. describes an environmenVs ability to absorb and render harmless waste and pollution. ( )
A) function
B) sink function
C) nature function
D) none
Answer:
B) sink function

Question 43.
………………… are an Important component of the modern agricultural practice. ( )
A) Pesticides
B) Landowners
C) Farmers
D) Labour
Answer:
A) Pesticides

Question 44.
The Narmada Valley Development Project is one of the largest …………………. in the world. ( )
A) Thermal electric project
B) Hydroelectric project
C) Atomic projects
D) None
Answer:
B) Hydroelectric project

Question 45.
It is true that Irrigation and power have been produced and both are cental to …………….. . ( )
A) modem development
B) traditional development
C) cultural development
D) none
Answer:
A) modem development

Question 46.
Development projects like the ……………… have disrupted the lives and livelihoods of thousands of people. ( )
A) Nagarjuna Sagar
B) Damodar Valley
C) Sardar Sarovar
D) None
Answer:
C) Sardar Sarovar

Question 47.
Equally, the environment is denuded of its rich ………………… as the traditional knowledge is lost along with the people. ( )
A) biodiversity
B) unity in diversity
C) diversity
D) none
Answer:
A) biodiversity

Question 48.
The resistance to ………………… and other dams with simIlar consequences in the Narrnada valley has taken the form of a social movement. ( )
A) Polavaram Proiect
B) Sardar Sarovar
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) Sardar Sarovar

Question 49.
…………………. has stood for the rights of the people over land, forests and river. ( )
A) Narmada Bachavo
B) Krishna Bachavo
C) Godavari Bachavo
D) Cauveri Bachavo
Answer:
A) Narmada Bachavo

Question 50.
Growth in …………………… and modem industrial development are necessary. ( )
A) NNP
B) GDP
C) NDP
D) GNP
Answer:
B) GDP

Question 51.
To destroy the environment means to destroy these …………….. . ( )
A) communities
B) castes
C) groups
D) none
Answer:
A) communities

Question 52.
It is unjust to ask the poor people to bear the ………………….. . ( )
A) cost
B) cost of development
C) cost of production
D) none
Answer:
B) cost of development

Question 53.
Individually a country may take initiative to reduce emissions of ……………… . ( )
A) greenhouse gases
B) gases
C) CO₂
D) O₂
Answer:
A) greenhouse gases

Question 54.
The has taken the bold step to ban chemical fertilizers and pesticides. ( )
A) Assom government
B) Bihar government
C) Sikkim government
D) Manipur government
Answer:
C) Sikkim government

Question 55.
Households with income above Rs. 17 lakhs per annum in India ( )
A) 3 millions
B) 31 millions
C) 71 millions
D) 135 millions
Answer:
A) 3 millions

Question 56.
‘Dharavi’ slum is located in this city.
A) Delhi
B) Murnbai
C) Ahmedabad
D) Kolkata
Answer:
D) Kolkata

Question 57.
‘Silent Spring is written by
A) Robert Hine
B) Rudyard
C) Rachel Carson
D) J.K. Rowling
Answer:
C) Rachel Carson

Question 58.
The main elm of the Chipko movement is ………………….. . ( )
A) to prevent felling of trees
B) to protect forest wealth for the contractors
C) environmental protection
D) all of these
Answer:
A) to prevent felling of trees

Question 59.
The main aim of the Chipko Movement started at Uttarakhand is ………………. . ( )
A) Protection of forests
B) Protection of farmland
C) Protection of river water
D) Protection of agriculture
Answer:
A) Protection of forests

Question 60.
The book SiIent Spring” belongs to ……………… . ( )
A) impacts at usage of DDT.
B) factors of water pollution.
C) effects of fertiksers and pesticides.
D) protection of environment.
Answer:
A) impacts at usage of DDT.

Question 61.
Environment and sustainability are having relation with ( )
A) Equality
B) Liberty
C) Law
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Equality

Question 62.
Rachel Carson’s Silent Spring is about
A) Narmada Valley Development Proiect
B) Reduction environmental pollution
C) The effect of DOT on humans
D) Against the construction of Polavaram Project
Answer:
C) The effect of DOT on humans

Question 63.
Right to Life Le under the Article ……………… . ( )
A) Article 21
B) Article 22
C) Article 23
D) Article 24
Answer:
A) Article 21

These TS 10th Class Social Bits with Answers 10th Lesson Food Security will help students to enhance their time management skills.

TS 10th Class Social Bits 10th Lesson Food Security

Question 1.
This is related to PDS ……………………………. .( )
A) Sell Help Groups (SHG)
B) Banks
C) Rythu Bazar
D) Ration Shop
Answer:
D) Ration Shop

Question 2.
The stock of foodyrains mainly wheat and rice Is procured by the government through ……………….. .( )
A) BCCI
B) DCI
C) FCI
D) FCCI
Answer:
C) FCI

Question 3.
National Food Security Act 2013 legalices the peoples right to ………………….. . ( )
A) vote
B) wok
C) job security
D) food
Answer:
D) food

Question 4.
One of the following Is not a coarse cereal. ( )
A) Jowar
B) Ragi
C) Bajra
D) Wheat
Answer:
D) Wheat

Question 5.
An example to good proteins In the following is/are ………………………… .
A) Dais
B) Jowar
C) Ragi
D) Sugar
Answer:
A) Dais

Question 6.
This is done by Food Corporation of India ………………………… .
A) Procurement of food grains
B) Declaration of minimum support price
C) Supply of seeds to the farmers
D) Allocation of funds to agriculture
Answer:
A) Procurement of food grains

Question 7.
This is related to Public Distribution System ………………………. .
A) Cooperative Banks
B) Rythu Bazaar
C) Ration shop
D) Self-Help Groups (SHG)
Answer:
C) Ration shop

Question 8.
As per 2013 National Food Security Act, which of the following Is legalised?
A) Cultivation of crops
B) Right to work
C) Right to food
D) Job security
Answer:
C) Right to food

Question 9.
Which of the following is related to public distribution system?
A) Self-Help Groups
B) Banks
C) Fair-price shops
D) Rythu bazar
Answer:
C) Fair-price shops

Question 10.
The Bengal famine In …………………….. for instance, took away about 3 to 5 million people’s lives in and around Bengal, Assam and Orissa. ( )
A) 1960-62
B) 1943-45
C) 1955-1957
D) 1976-1978
Answer:
B) 1943-45

Question 11.
…………………….. are the places where young children are taken care of including meals during the day. ( )
A) Pre-schools
B) Baiwadis
C) Anganwadis
D) None of these
Answer:
C) Anganwadis

Question 12.
By intensive and unscientific application of …………………………. and insecticides led to continuous but unsustainable increase in the yield levels.
A) Magnesium
B) Chemical fertilizers
C) Iron
D) Sulphur
Answer:
B) Chemical fertilizers

Question 13.
Availability of foodgrains per person per day is availability of foodgrains for the year population …………………….. . ( )
A) 365
B) 366
C) 180
D) 265
Answer:
A) 365

Question 14.
Farmers require support in terms of inputs and market opportunities for diversification to other ………………. Items. ( )
A) vegetable
B) non-food
C) food
D) none
Answer:
C) food

Question 15.
Midnapore has …………………. soil. ( )
A) Black cotton
B) Alluvial
C) Red latent
D) Sandy
Answer:
C) Red latent

Question 16.
India’s per capita availability is very …………………… when we compare the same for countries in Europe (700 grams) and USA (850 grams). ( )
A) low
B) high
C) constant
D) none
Answer:
A) low

Question 17.
The Indian Government came out with a new law in ……………. called the National Food Security Act. ( )
A) 2013
B) 2014
C) 2012
D) 2011
Answer:
A) 2013

Question 18.
About …………………… children studying in schools eat mid-day meal today. ( )
A) 13 crore
B) 14 crore
C) 15 crore
D) 16 crore
Answer:
B) 14 crore

Question 19.
………………………. for blood formation le provided through groen leafy vegetables, ragi. etc. ( )
A) Vitamins
B) Proteins
C) Iron
D) Carbohydrates
Answer:
C) Iron

Question 20.
A survey conducted by the National Institute of Nutrition, …………………. (NIN) across many states In the country confirms the overall alarming status of nutrition. ( )
A)Warangal
B) Kanmnagar
C) Hyderabad
D) Vizag
Answer:
C) Hyderabad

Question 21.
Nutritionists in India suggest that every person should eat 300 grams of vegetables but availability was …………………………… .()
A) 180 grams
B) 220 grams
C) 240 grams
D) 300 grams
Answer:
A) 180 grams

Question 22.
The prevalence of chronic energy deficiency was ……………… In the states of Odisha, Gularat and Uttar Pradesh. ( )
A) highest
B) lowest
C) constant
D) all the above
Answer:
A) highest

Question 23.
Famines are situations of extreme ……………………. of food. ( )
A) scarcity
B) plenty
C) price
D) none
Answer:
A) scarcity

Question 24.
…………………….. where people go and buy food grains at subsidised prices. ( )
A) Markets
B) Retail outlets
C) Ration shops
D) Wholesale shops
Answer:
C) Ration shops

Question 25.
Producing sufficient amount of foodgrains is an important requirement of ………………. . ( )
A) food security
B) finance security
C) monetary security
D) none
Answer:
A) food security

Question 26.
The ………………….. can Increase the availability of rice for the people by selling from Its existing stocks. ( )
A) organisation
B) institution
C) government
D) none
Answer:
C) government

Question 27.
……………………… need a diverse food basket and a balanced diet. ( )
A) Consumers
B) lnvesters
C) Buyers
D) Sellers
Answer:
A) Consumers

Question 28.
Food Security Act covers ………………….. of the population of IndIa. ( )
A) right to live
B) right to freedom
C) right to food
D) none
Answer:
C) right to food

Question 29.
The major reason for low-calorie intake is the lack of …………………… of the people. ( )
A) consuming power
B) purchasing power
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
B) purchasing power

Question 30.
Families In different states procure foodgrains from …………………………. . ( )
A) PDS
B) MNCs
C) Retail outlets
D) None
Answer:
A) PDS

Question 31.
The ……………………… also has become proactive in ensuring food security. ( )
A) Indian Judiciary
B) Indian legislature
C) Indian executive
D) None
Answer:
A) Indian Judiciary

Question 32.
The …………………. directed all the state governments and central government to provide mid-day meals. ( )
A) A.P. High Court
B) Supreme Court
C) Sessions Court
D) Civil Court
Answer:
B) Supreme Court

Question 33.
The farmers are paid a pre-announced price for their crops, this price is called ……………… . ( )
A) USP
B) MNC
C) MSM
D) MSU
Answer:
A) USP

Question 34.
Which of the following statements are correct. ( )
i) Increase in food production alone ensures food security.
ii) It is important to encourage mono-crop cultivation to ensure food security.
iii) Low-calorie intake is higher among people with low income.
iv) Legislations have an important role to play in ensuring food security.
v) PDS system could be used to address the issue of child nutrition.
A) i, v
B) ii, iii
C) iii, iv
D) All of them
Answer:
C) iii, iv

Question 35.
The scheme that is being implemented to solve the problem of malnutrition is the ……………………….. . ()
A) Integrated Child Welfare Scheme
B) System 01 organizing toilets
C) Swachh Bharat Programme
D) Mid-day Meals Programme
Answer:
D) Mid-day Meals Programme

Question 36.
The calories to be taken by the urban people in a day are ………………… . ( )
A) 2100
B) 2200
C) 2300
D) 2400
Answer:
A) 2100

Question 37.
The important aspect in the midday meals programme because of the judiciary instructions is that …………………….. . ( )
A) warm food should be prepared at the schools
B) priority should be given lo the women who do not have any other source of income
C) nutritional values should be maintained
D) all of these
Answer:
D) all of these

Question 38.
……………………. supply food products for the low income groups. ( )
A) Multi-national Corporation
B) World Health Organisation
C) Public Distribution System
D) Government Security Institution
Answer:
C) Public Distribution System

Question 39.
Minimum protection price Is decided by ………………………. . ( )
A) Farmers
B) Government
C) Mediators
D) Traders
Answer:
B) Government

Question 40.
The people working in rural areas recommended to take …………………. kilograms calories. ( )
A)200
B)2,100
C)2,400
D)2,300
Answer:
C)2,400

Question 41.
The recommended food intake per day for a person ¡n rural areas is ………………… . ( )
A) 2100 k. cal
B) 2400 k. cal
C) 2000 k. cal
D) 2500 k. cal
Answer:
B) 2400 k. cal

Question 42.
What is the function of ‘call centre? ( )
A) Research and design
B) Manufacturing of components
C) Assembling of components
D) Customer care
Answer:
D) Customer care

Question 43.
According to census 2011, the population of Visakhapatnam is ……………………. . ( )
A) above 13 lacs
B) above 10 lacs
C) above 27 lacs
D) above 20 lacs
Answer:
D) above 20 lacs

Question 44.
The Antyodaya card holders are entitled to get ………………. kgs. of food grains per month per family. ( )
A) 25
B) 30
C) 35
D) 15
Answer:
C) 35

These TS 10th Class Social Bits with Answers 9th Lesson Globalisation will help students to enhance their time management skills.

TS 10th Class Social Bits 9th Lesson Globalisation

Question 1.
Result of Globalisation. ( )
A) Competition increases among countries.
B) Gemng profits for small producers.
C) Reduced relations between countries.
D) Scarcity of goods.
Answer:
A) Competition increases among countries.

Question 2.
Example for Indian Multinational Company is ………………….. .( )
A) Honda
B) Tata Motors
C) Nokia
D) Pepsi
Answer:
B) Tata Motors

Question 3.
These companies have control over the foreign trade as a result of globalization ( )
A) Local Private Companies
B) Multi-National Companies
C) Companies under Government sector
D) Cottage Industries
Answer:
B) Multi-National Companies

Question 4.
This is an Indian MNC ( )
A) NIKE
B) Ranbaxy
C) Honda
D) Nokia
Answer:
B) Ranbaxy

Question 5.
It is not true regarding World Trade Organisation. ( )
A) It allows free trade to all countries.
B) It encourages trade barners.
C) Its aim is to liberalise international trade.
D) It establishes rules regarding international trade.
Answer:
B) It encourages trade barners.

Question 6.
With the liberalisation of trade, the Government ………………….. . ( )
A) imposes more restrictions.
B) imposes less restrictions.
C) bans exports.
D) bans imports.
Answer:
B) imposes less restrictions.

Question 7.
Example of a foreign Multi-national Company …………………….. .( )
A) Honda
B) Ranbaxy
C) Asian Paints
D) Tata Motors
Answer:
A) Honda

Question 8.
The past two decades of ……………………… has seen rapid movements In goods, services and Investments between countries.
A) Globalisation
B) Privatisation
C) Liberalization
D) None
Answer:
A) Globalisation

Question 9.
The most common route for Investments by MNCs In countries around the world is to ()
A) set up new factories
B) form partnerships with local companies
C) buy existing local companies
D) none
Answer:
B) form partnerships with local companies

Question 10.
Globalisation has led to higher standards of living of ……………………… .
A) Poor consumers
B) Big producers
C) Well-off consumers
D) Small producers
Answer:
C) Well-off consumers

Question 11.
This company has branches In many nations ……………….. .
A) Joint-stock
B) Global
C) Corporate
D) Multinational companies
Answer:
D) Multinational companies

Question 12.
MNCs choose to set up production In the areas of …………………. .
A) Cheap labour resources
B) Cheap goods
C) Economic sustainability
D) Scenic beauty
Answer:
A) Cheap labour resources

Question 13.
Cargill Foods has bought over this indigenous Indian company
A) Dabur
B) Parakh Foods
C) Britannia
D) Amul
Answer:
B) Parakh Foods

Question 14.
Ford Motors is connected with ………………………… .
A) Tata Motors
B) Maruthi Suzuki
C) Mahindra and Mahindra
D) Hindustan Motors
Answer:
C) Mahindra and Mahindra

Question 15.
This is happening with the import of Chinese toys In India ( )
A) Indian toys are selling mere.
B) Indian consumers are buying less.
C) No choice toc Chinese consumers.
D) Indian consumers are getting more choice at cheaper rates.
Answer:
D) Indian consumers are getting more choice at cheaper rates.

Question 16.
The III eftect of globalisation in India ( )
A) Closure of small units
B) Greater choice for urban people
C) Goods of improved quality and lower price
D) Emergence of Indian MNCs
Answer:
A) Closure of small units

Question 17.
If tax Is Imposed on Chinese toys, this will happen ( )
A) Chinese toy makers will benefit
B) Indian toy makers will prosper
C) Chinese toys wiH remain cheap
D) Indian consumers will buy more Chinese toys
Answer:
B) Indian toy makers will prosper

Question 18.
An example of a trade barrier
A) Foreign investment
B) Delay of goods
C) Tax on imports
D) None
Answer:
C) Tax on imports

Question 19.
Removing barriers by the government is called
A) Liberalisation
B) Investment
C) Trade
D) Free trade
Answer:
A) Liberalisation

Question 20.
This Industry has a large number of well-off buyers In urban areas
A) Footwear
B) Automobiles
C) Jewellery
D) Clothing
Answer:
B) Automobiles

Question 21.
Globalisation has created new opportunities of ……………………… .
A) Employment
B) Emerging multinational companies
C) Providing services
D) All the above
Answer:
D) All the above

Question 22.
Liberalisation in India was started around ( )
A) 1951
B) 1991
C) 1971
D) 1961
Answer:
B) 1991

Question 23.
This city Is In Switzerland …………………. . ( )
A) Geneva
B) Colombo
C) Moscow
D) None
Answer:
A) Geneva

Question 24.
……………………. is a major change that occurred across the globe in the late 20th century. ( )
A) Globalization
B) Privatisation
C) Stabilisation
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Globalization

Question 25.
Globalisation has political, cultural as well as dimensions. ( )
A) culture
B) economic
C) political
D) none
Answer:
B) economic

Question 26.
We identify three types of movement within …………………. economic exchanges. ( )
A) national
B) local
C) international
D) none
Answer:
C) international

Question 27.
The 19th century witnessed an accelerated pace of foreign trade, foreign Investment and ………………….. . ( )
A) executive migration
B) labour migration
C) brain drain
D) none
Answer:
B) labour migration

Question 28.
The main destinations of Indian Indentured migrants were the …………………. Mauritius, Fiji, Malaya, Ceylon, etc. ( )
A) Caribbean Island
B) Finland
C) Sri Lanka
D) Falkan Islands
Answer:
A) Caribbean Island

Question 29.
……………….. are playing a major role in the globalisation process. ( )
A) Shops
B) MNCs
C) Outlets
D) None
Answer:
B) MNCs

Question 30.
Trade was the main channel connecting ………………….. . ( )
A) distant villages
B) distant towns
C) distant countries
D) distant cities
Answer:
C) distant countries

Question 31.
The production process is divided into small parts and spread out ………………. . ( )
A) Across the country
B) Across the globe
C) Across the universe
D) None
Answer:
B) Across the globe

Question 32.
The money that MNCs spent to buy assets such as land, buildings, machines and other equipment Is called ………………………… . ( )
A) Foreign Investment
B) National Investment
C) Common people investment
D) All the above
Answer:
A) Foreign Investment

Question 33.
The most common route for MNC investments Is to buy up …………………… and then to expand production. ( )
A) National companies
B) local companies
C) MNCs
D) None
Answer:
B) local companies

Question 34.
Cargill Foods, a very large …………………… MNC, has bought over smaller Indian companies such as Parakh Foods. ( )
A) Indian
B) Russian
C) American
D) Chinese
Answer:
C) American

Question 35.
Cargill Is now the largest producer of …………………. In IndIa. ( )
A) edible oil
B) crude oil
C) both A&B
D) none
Answer:
A) edible oil

Question 36.
In the past three or four decades, more and more MNCs have been looking for ………………………. around the world which would be Cheap for their production. ( )
A) locations
B) situations
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
A) locations

Question 37.
More and more goods and services, ……………. and technology are moving between Countries. ( )
A) capital
B) investments
C) expenditure
D) none
Answer:
B) investments

Question 38.
Most regions of the ……………… are In closer contact with each other than a few decades back. ( )
A) nation
B) earth
C) world
D) universe
Answer:
C) world

Question 39.
Rapid improvement In ………………….. has been one major factor that has stimulated the globalisation process. ( )
A) technology
B) capital
C) land
D) none
Answer:
A) technology

Question 40.
………………………. have now entered almost every field of activity.
A) Typewriters
B) Computers
C) Fax machines
D) None
Answer:
B) Computers

Question 41.
Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is known as ………………….. .
A) Privatisation
B) Liberalisation
C) Globalisation
D) None
Answer:
B) Liberalisation

Question 42.
Trade between countries should be tree without any ……………………. .
A) borders
B) hurdles
C) barriers
D) none
Answer:
C) barriers

Question 43.
Though WTO is supposed to allow free trade for all, in practice, It is seen that the …………………….. have unfairly retained trade barriers. ( )
A) developed countries
B) underdeveloped countries
C) developing nations
D) none
Answer:
A) developed countries

Question 44.
WTO rules have forced the developing countries to ………………….. trade barriers. ( )
A) regress
B) remove
C) regenerate
D) none
Answer:
B) remove

Question 45.
Among producers and workers, the impact of globalisation has not been ……………. . ( )
A) uniform
B) unanimous
C) different
D) none
Answer:
A) uniferm

Question 46.
MNCs have increased their ………………….. in India, which means investing In India has been beneficial for them. ( )
A) expenditure
B) Investments
C) receipts
D) none
Answer:
B) Investments

Question 47.
Several of the top Indian companies have been able to benefit froni the increased ……….. . ()
A) capital
B) investment
C) competition
D) none
Answer:
C) competition

Question 48.
Globalisation has also created new opportunities for companies providing
particularly those involving IT. ( )
A) services
B) sales
C) exchanges
D) all the above
Answer:
A) services

Question 49.
People with education, skill and wealth have made the best use of the new ……………….. . ( )
A) opportunities
B) methods
C) measures
D) none
Answer:
A) opportunities

Question 50.
Globalisation Is the process of rapid ……………………… of countries. ( )
A) integration
B) disintegration
C) misappropriation
D) none
Answer:
A) integration

Question 51.
The benefits of globalisation have been …………………… distributed. ( )
A) unevenly
B) evenly
C) rapidly
D) slowly
Answer:
A) unevenly

Question 52.
The other dimension of inequality Is In the dominating influence of the ……………. on matters of policy. ( )
A) poor countries
B) rich countries
C) Middle income group countries
D) none
Answer:
B) rich countries

Question 53.
………………. like WTO, WB and the IMF represent the Interests of the developed countries for more than that of the developing world. ( )
A) International organisations
B) National organisations
C) Rural organisations
D) None
Answer:
A) International organisations

Question 54.
Expand W.T.O.
A) World Tutors Organization
B) World Tourism Organization
C) World Trade Organization
D) World Tribal Organization
Answer:
C) World Trade Organization

Question 55.
The people who are mainly benefited by globalization are …………………… . ( )
1) rich consumers
2) skilled and educated producers
3) farmers
4) poor people.
A) 1 and 2
B) 3 and 4
C) 1 and 3
D) 1 and 4
Answer:
A) 1 and 2

Question 56.
Expand IT. ( )
A) International Technology
B) Information Technology
C) International Techniques
D) Information Techniques
Answer:
B) Information Technology

Question 57.
The company which controls the production in more than one country is known as …………….. .()
A) Multi-State Organisation
B) Multi-National Company
C) International Trade Organisation
D) International Monetary System
Answer:
B) Multi-National Company

Question 58.
MNCs choose to set up production In the areas of ()
A) Cheap labour resources
B) Cheap goods
C) Economic sustainability
D) Scenic beauty
Answer:
A) Cheap labour resources

Question 59.
TATA company manufactures ………………….. . ()
A) Vehicles
B) Colours
C) Medicines
D) Textile
Answer:
A) Vehicles

Question 60.
Infosys is a ……………… company. ()
A) I.T.
B) Motor Vehicles
C) Paints
D) Medicine (Pharmaceuticals)
Answer:
A) I.T.

These TS 10th Class Social Bits with Answers 8th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy will help students to enhance their time management skills.

TS 10th Class Social Bits 8th Lesson Rampur: A Village Economy

Question 1.
This is the example for non-farming activity ( )
A) Weeding
B) Shopkeeping
C) Threshing
D) Transplantation
Answer:
B) Shopkeeping

Question 2.
Which one of the following doesn’t match? ( )
A) Rural labour demand for better wages.
B) Farmers depend on rains want sufficient rains,
C) Prosperous farmers want to settle m villages.
D) Rich family girls want freedom.
Answer:
C) Prosperous farmers want to settle m villages.

Question 3.
Through MGNREGA, the government ……………….. . ( )
A) provides health care.
B) provides employment.
C) distributes food.
D) distributes land.
Answer:
B) provides employment.

Question 4.
Example for farming activity is ………………… .( )
A) Shopkeeping
B) Transportation
C) Threshing
D) Mining
Answer:
C) Threshing

Question 5.
This is not practiced on dry lands ( )
A) Crop rotation
B) Water harvesting
C) Cultivation of millets
D) Cultivation of paddy
Answer:
D) Cultivation of paddy

Question 6.
Which 0f the following le not f sed capital? ( )
A) Agricultural land
B) Tubewell
C) Fertilizers and pesticides
D) Farm machinery
Answer:
C) Fertilizers and pesticides

Question 7.
which of the following statements is not true about small-scale manufacturing in villages? ( )
A) Farmers engage in it to supplement their income
B) They lake the help of their finely mentors
C) The production e done nicely at home
D) They produce articles for their own use.
Answer:
D) They produce articles for their own use.

Question 8.
What is the basic constraint In raising farm production? ( )
A) Capital is scarce
B) Land Is flied
C) Agriculture workers are not willing to work
D) Irrigation is not well developed
Answer:
A) Capital is scarce

Question 9.
the men activity of the village Rampur is ()
A) Manufacturing
B) Dairy Farming
C) Farming
D) Cattle rearing
Answer:
C) Farming

Question 10.
Which one of fie following Cenote factor of production? ()
A) Capital
B) Labour
C) Ships
D) All the above
Answer:
C) Ships

Question 11.
What percentage of people ara dependent on fie farmIng activity In Rampur? ( )
A) 60%
B) 75%
C) 80%
D) 90%
Answer:
B) 75%

Question 12.
Which Kharif crop is grown during the rainy season? ( )
A) Jowar
B) Rice
C) Milite
D) Sugar
Answer:
A) Jowar

Question 13.
Which is the third crop In multiple cropping besides the two main crops? ( )
A) Onions
B) Cucumber
C) Potato
D) Brinjal
Answer:
C) Potato

Question 14.
HYV means ( )
A) High Yogurt Variety
B) High-Yielding Variety
C) High Yellow Varied
D) High Young Variety
Answer:
B) High-Yielding Variety

Question 15.
Modern farming methods require e greet deal of ( )
A) Concentration
B) Hardwock
C) Capital
D) Technology
Answer:
C) Capital

Question 16.
Two major factors of production are ( )
A) Land and capital
B) Labour and land
C) Capital and labour
D) Land and technology
Answer:
A) Land and capital

Question 17.
In which village were milk collection cum chilling centres set up? ( )
A) Shapur
B) Rampur
C) Raganj
D) None
Answer:
C) Raganj

Question 18.
Which capital Is needed to sat up a jaggery manufacturing unit? ( )
A) Fixed
B) Physical
C) Working
D) Recurring
Answer:
A) Fixed

Question 19.
If more than two crops are grown on the same piece of land during a year, it is called ( )
A) Green Revolution
B) Multiple Cropping
C) Modern Farming
D)Subsistence Farming
Answer:
B) Multiple Cropping

Question 20.
Who are agricultural labourers? ( )
A) Rich farmers
B) Poor people
C) Landless farmers
D) Children
Answer:
C) Landless farmers

Question 21.
In villages across India, ………………… is the main production activity. ( )
A) farming
B) industry
C) service sector
D) none
Answer:
A) farming

Question 22.
…………………. is organised in turn has an important bearing on people’s lives. ( )
A) Distribution
B) Production
C) Allocation
D) None
Answer:
B) Production

Question 23.
Rampur lies In the fertile alluvial plains of the G.angetlc basin in the western part of ………….. . ()
A) Andhra Pradesh
B) Madhya Pradesh
C) Uttar Pradesh
D) Himachal Pradesh
Answer:
C) Uttar Pradesh

Question 24.
Along with …………………. and Haryana. Western Uttar Pradesh forms a contiguous belt of agricultural prosperous region. ( )
A) Punjab
B) Madhya Pradesh
C) Chattisgarh
D) Assom
Answer:
A) Punjab

Question 25.
…………………. is the most crucial factor necessary for farm production. ( )
A) Labour
B) Land
C) Organisation
D) All the above
Answer:
B) Land

Question 26.
During the …………………. farmers grow jowar and bairn. ( )
A) rainy season
B) summer
C) winter
D) none
Answer:
A) rainy season

Question 27.
A part of the land is under …………………… which s harvested once every year. ( )
A) cloves
B) sugarcane
C) millets
D) mirchi
Answer:
B) sugarcane

Question 28.
Sugarcane, in raw form, or as jaggery, is sold to traders ……………… the nearby town. ( )
A) Huzurabad
B) Mehaboobabad
C) Jahangirabad
D) None
Answer:
C) Jahangirabad

Question 29.
To grow more than one crop on the same piece of land during the year is known as …………….. cropping. ( )
A) multiple
B) unitary
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
A) multiple

Question 30.
Farmers from Rampur are able to grow three different crops In a year due to the well-developed system. ( )
A) administration
B) irrigation
C) protection
D) none
Answer:
B) irrigation

Question 31.
………………….. were used by farmers to draw water from the wells and irrigate small area. ( )
A) Motors
B) Machines
C) Persian wheels
D) None
Answer:
C) Persian wheels

Question 32.
The first few ………………….. were installed by the government almost fifty years age. ( )
A) tubewells
B) canals
C) tanks
D) none
Answer:
A) tubewells

Question 33.
Apart from the riverine plains, …………….. in our country are well-Irrigated. ( )
A) Telangana
B) Coastal regions
C) Seemandhra
D) Rayalaseema
Answer:
B) Coastal regions

Question 34.
While Intensive use of natural resources like land and water has led to increased production and yields, the use of the …………….. has not always been judicious ( )
A) artificial resources
B) land only
C) natural resources
D) none
Answer:
C) natural resources

Question 35.
The use of ………………… for Irrigation rises accordingly. ( )
A) Diesel
B) Electricity
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 36.
Unfortunately not all the people engaged in agriculture have sufficient land for …………… . ( )
A) irrigation
B) cultivation
C) production
D) none
Answer:
B) cultivation

Question 37.
The ……………….. families own majority of the land in the village. ( )
A) Upper caste
B) BC
C) SC
D) ST
Answer:
A) Upper caste

Question 38.
The aim of production is to ……………………. goods and services that people need. ( )
A) produce
B) reduce
C) distribute
D) none
Answer:
A) produce

Question 39.
Some production activities require highly ………………. workers to perform the necessary tasks. ( )
A) trained
B) educated
C) both A & B
D) none
Answer:
C) both A & B

Question 40.
Unlike common usage, labour raters to all human effort in production, not just ………………………… labour. ( )
A) manual
B) mechanical
C) computerized
D) none
Answer:
A) manual

Question 41.
The third requirement is ……………………….. the variety of inputs required at every stage during production. ( )
A) land
B) labour
C) knowledge
D) capital
Answer:
D) capital

Question 42.
The various raw materials such as the yarn used by the …………….. and the clay used by the potter are used up in production. ( )
A) weaker
B) stronger
C) moderate
D) none
Answer:
A) weaker

Question 43.
The requIrement for raw material and money is therefore called ………………… capital. ( )
A) fixed
B) working
C) both A & B
D) only A
Answer:
B) working

Question 44.
Every production Is organised by people or entrepreneurs combining the elements of land, labour and ……………. capital. ( )
A) working
B) fixed
C) physical
D) none
Answer:
C) physical

Question 45.
After land, ……………………. is the next necessary factor for production. ( )
A) labour
B) capital
C) organization
D) none
Answer:
A) labour

Question 46.
Farming requires a great deal 0f ………………….. . ( )
A) intelligence
B) hard work
C) assets
D) none
Answer:
B) hard work

Question 47.
Medium and large farmers ……………….. farm labourers to work on their fields. ( )
A) employ
B) execute
C) hire
D) none
Answer:
C) hire

Question 48.
Most ………………. have to borrow money to arrange for the working capital. ( )
A) small farmers
B) large farmers
C) contractors
D) none
Answer:
A) small farmers

Question 49.
In contrast to the small farmers, the medium and large farmers generally have their own …………………….. from farming. ( )
A) incomes
B) savings
C) expenses
D) none
Answer:
B) savings

Question 50.
All …………………….. farmers In Ranipur village have tractor. ()
A) small
B) middle class
C) large
D) none
Answer:
C) large

Question 51.
The traders at the ……………… buy the wheat and sell It further to shopkeepers In the towns and cities. ( )
A) market yard
B) market
C) santha
D) none
Answer:
A) market yard

Question 52.
There Is often a ……………….. In farm activities, especially when crops are damaged because of floods, pests, etc. ( )
A) profit
B) loss
C) expenditure
D) none
Answer:
B) loss

Question 53.
……………………. Is a common activity in many families of Rampur.
A) Dairy
B) Planting
C) Trading
D) None
Answer:
A) Dairy

Question 54.
The traders of Rampur buy various goods from …………………… in the cities and sell them In the village. ( )
A) retail market
B) wholesale market
C) retail outlets
D) none
Answer:
B) wholesale market

Question 55.
A few of the families whose houses are close to the bus stand have used a part of the space to open …………………………. . ( )
A) large shops
B) markets
C) small shops
D) none
Answer:
C) small shops

Question 56.
The women and the children In the family all ……………………………. .
A) share the work
B) share the land
C) share the income
D) none
Answer:
A) share the work

Question 57.
A few ……………………….. also buy goods that villagers produce and supply It to shops/markets in the bigger villages and towns. ( )
A) buyers
B) shopkeepers
C) landowners
D) none
Answer:
B) shopkeepers

Question 58.
From the following …………………. belongs to unorganized sector.
A) Railways
B) Government School
C) Farming of small farmer
D) Banks
Answer:
C) Farming of small farmer

Question 59.
The natural resource which is NOT essential for production is …………………. .
A) land
B) water
C) forest
D) air
Answer:
D) air

Question 60.
The following is not a crop of Kharlf.
A) Paddy
B) Wheat
C) Jowar
D) Bajra
Answer:
B) Wheat

Question 61.
One hectare is equivalent to ……………….. .
A) 2 acres
B) 3½ acres
C) 2½ acres
D) 1½ acres
Answer:
C) 2½ acres