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Maths Bits for 10th Class Quiz

• Chapter 1 Real Numbers Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 2 Polynomials Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 3 Pair of Linear Equations in Two Variables Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 4 Quadratic Equations Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 5 Arithmetic Progressions Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 6 Triangles Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 7 Coordinate Geometry Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 8 Introduction to Trigonometry Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 9 Some Applications of Trigonometry Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 10 Circles Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 11 Areas Related to Circles Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 12 Surface Areas and Volumes Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 13 Statistics Bits for 10th Class
• Chapter 14 Probability Bits for 10th Class

Also Read

• AP Board Solutions Class 10
• AP Board Solutions Class 10 Maths
• AP 10th Class Maths Chapter Wise Important Questions
• AP 10th Class Maths Notes

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AP 10th Class Social Bit Bank Pdf Download in Telugu & English Medium

AP 10th Class Social Bit Bank: History (India and the Contemporary World – II)

• 1st Lesson The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Bits
• 2nd Lesson Nationalism in India Bits
• 3rd Lesson The Making of a Global World Bits
• 4th Lesson The Age of Industrialisation Bits
• 5th Lesson Print Culture and the Modern World Bits

AP 10th Class Social Bit Bank: Geography (Contemporary India – II)

• 1st Lesson Resources and Development Bits
• 2nd Lesson Forest and Wildlife Resources Bits
• 3rd Lesson Water Resources Bits
• 4th Lesson Agriculture Bits
• 5th Lesson Minerals and Energy Resources Bits
• 6th Lesson Manufacturing Industries Bits
• 7th Lesson Lifelines of National Economy Bits

AP 10th Class Social Bit Bank: Political Science (Democratic Politics – II)

• 1st Lesson Power Sharing Bits
• 2nd Lesson Federalism Bits
• 3rd Lesson Gender, Religion and Caste Bits
• 4th Lesson Political Parties Bits
• 5th Lesson Outcomes of Democracy Bits

AP 10th Class Social Bit Bank: Economics (Understanding Economic Development)

• 1st Lesson Development Bits
• 2nd Lesson Sectors of the Indian Economy Bits
• 3rd Lesson Money and Credit Bits
• 4th Lesson Globalisation and the Indian Economy Bits
• 5th Lesson Consumer Rights Bits

Also Read

• • AP Board Solutions Class 10
  • AP Board Solutions Class 10 Social
  • AP 10th Class Social Important Questions
  • AP 10th Class Social Notes

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AP State Syllabus Bit Bank for 10th, 9th, 8th, 7th, 6th Class in English and Telugu

AP 10th Class Bit Bank | AP 10th Class Important Bits

• AP 10th Class Maths Bit Bank
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• AP 6th Class Maths Bit Bank
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AP 10th Class Physics Bit Bank Pdf Download in Telugu & English Medium

• Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 4 Carbon and Its Compounds Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 9 Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 10 The Human Eye and the Colourful World Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 11 Electricity Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 12 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 5 Life Processes Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 6 Control and Coordination Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 7 How do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 8 Heredity Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 13 Our Environment Class 10 MCQ

Also Read

• AP Board Solutions Class 10
• AP Board Solutions Class 10 Physics (Physical Science)
• AP 10th Class Physics Important Questions (Physical Science)
• AP 10th Class Physical Science Notes

AP Bit Bank

AP 10th Class Biology Bit Bank Pdf Download in Telugu & English Medium

• Chapter 5 Life Processes Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 6 Control and Coordination Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 7 How do Organisms Reproduce Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 8 Heredity Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 13 Our Environment Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 1 Chemical Reactions and Equations Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 2 Acids, Bases and Salts Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 3 Metals and Non-metals Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 4 Carbon and Its Compounds Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 9 Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 10 The Human Eye and the Colourful World Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 11 Electricity Class 10 MCQ
• Chapter 12 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 MCQ

Also Read

• AP Board Solutions Class 10
• AP Board Solutions Class 10 Biology
• AP 10th Class Biology Important Questions
• AP 10th Class Biology Notes

AP Bit Bank

Class 9 Science Chapter 12 MCQ Improvement in Food Resources

MCQ on Improvement in Food Resources Class 9

Select and write the most appripriate option out of the four options for each of the question :

Question 1.
Which one is oil yielding plant among the following ?
A) Lentil
B) Cauliflower
C) Hibiscus
D) Sunflower
Answer:
D) Sunflower

Question 2.
Which one is not a source of carbohydrate?
A) Rice
B) Millets
C) Sorghum
D) Gram
Answer:
D) Gram

Question 3.
Find out the wrong statement from the following:
A) White revolution is meant for increase in milk production.
B) Blue revolution is meant for increase in fish production
C) Increasing food production without compromising with environment quality is called as sustainable agriculture
D) Poultry fowl will not suffer from a number of diseases caused by virus, bacterial fungi etc.
Answer:
D) Poultry fowl will not suffer from a number of diseases caused by virus, bacterial fungi etc.

Question 4.
To solve the food problem of the country which among the following is necessary ?
A) Increases production & storage of food grains
B) Easy access of people to the food grain
C) People should have money to purchase the grains
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 5.
Find out the correct sentence.
i) Hybridisation means crossing between genetically dissimilar plants.
ii) Cross between two varieties is called as interspecific hybridisation.
iii) Introducing genes of desired character into a plant gives genetically modified crop
iv) Cross between plants of two species is called as intervarietal hybridisation.
A) i & iii
B) ii & iv
C) ii & iii
D) iii & iv
Answer:
A) i & iii

Question 6.
Weeds affect the crop platins by …………
A) Killing of plants in field before they grow
B) Dominating the plants to grow
C) Competing various resources of crops
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 7.
Find out the Italian species of honey bee.
A) Apis dorsata
B) Apis Florae
C) Apis cerana Indica
D) Apis mellifera
Answer:
D) Apis mellifera

Question 8.
Cattle husbandry is done for the following purposes.
i) Milk production
ii) Agricultural work
iii) Meat production
iv) Egg production
A) i, ii & iii
B) ii, iii & iv
C) iii & iv
D) i & iv
Answer:
A) i, ii & iii

Question 9.
Which of the following are Indian cattle ?
i) Bos domestics
ii) Bes bubelis
iii) Bes vulgaris
iv) Bos indicus
A) ii & iv
B) i & ii
C) iii & iv
D) ii & iii
Answer:
A) ii & iv

Question 10.
Which of the following are exotic breeds ?
i) Brown
ii) Jersey
iii) Brown Swiss
iv) Jersey Swiss
A) i & iii
B) ii & iii
C) i & iv
D) ii & iv
Answer:
B) ii & iii

Question 11.
Poultry farming is undertaken to raise following.
i) Egg production
ii) Feather production
iii) Chicken meat
iv) Milk production
A) i & iii
B) i & ii
C) ii & iii
D) iii & iv
Answer:
A) i & iii

Question 12.
Poultry fowl are susceptible to the following pathogens …………
A) Viruses
B) Bacteria
C) Fungi
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 13.
Which one of the following fishes is a surface feeder ?
A) Rohus
B) Mrigals
C) Common carps
D) Catlas
Answer:
D) Catlas

Question 14.
Animal husbandry is the scientific management of
i) Animal breeding
ii) Culture of animals
iii) Animal live stock
iv) Rearing of animals
A) i, ii & iii
B) ii, iii & iv
C) i, ii & iv
D) i, iii & iv
Answer:
D) i, iii & iv

Question 15.
This arrangement is reacted to …………

A) Cow
B) Dog
C) Fish
D) Honey bee
Answer:
D) Honey bee

Question 16.
Mango fruit — Sunflower
Ground nuts — Sugar cane
From the a picture, identify the oil producing plants
A) Mango
B) Ground nut
C) Sunflower
D) B & C
Answer:
D) B & C

Question 17.
Nitrogen, Phosphorus and Potassium are examples of …………
A) Macro Nutrients
B) Micro Nutrients
C) Fertilisers
D) Both A&B
Answer:
A) Macro Nutrients

Question 18.
Cyperinus and parthenium are types of …………
A) Diseases
B) Pesticides
C) Weeds
D) Pathogens
Answer:
C) Weeds

Question 19.
What is the other name of Apis cerana Indica.
A) Indian cow
B) Indian buffallow
C) Indina bee
D) None
Answer:
C) Indina bee

Question 20.
The management and production of fish is called …………
A) Pisci culture
B) Api culture
C) Seri culture
D) Aqua culture
Answer:
A) Pisci culture

Question 21.
Pisci culture : fish : : Api culture : …………
A) Cow
B) Goat
C) Honey bee
D) Deer
Answer:
C) Honey bee

Question 22.
Pasturage is related to …………
A) Cattle
B) Fishery
C) Apiculture
D) Sericulture
Answer:
C) Apiculture

Question 23.
Leg horn is related to
A) Api culture
B) Dairy farming
C) Pisci culture
D) Poultry
Answer:
D) Poultry

Question 24.
If we grow two or more crops in a definite pattern is called …………
A) Crop rotation
B) Inter cropping
C) Mixed cropping
D) Organic cropping
Answer:
B) Inter cropping

Question 25.
Mullets, prawns, mussels are examples of ………….
A) Marine fishes
B) Fresh water fishes
C) Finned fishes
D) Shell fish
Answer:
A) Marine fishes

Question 26.
Which one of the following fishes is a surface feeder?
A) Rohus
B) Mrigals
C) Common carps
D) Catlas
Answer:
D) Catlas

Question 27.
Which one of the following nutrients is not available in fertilisers ?
A) Nitrogen
B) Phosphorus
C) Iron
D) Potassium
Answer:
C) Iron

Question 28.
Animal husbandry is the scientific management of …………
i) Animal breeding
ii) Culture of animals
iii) Animal livestock
iv) Rearing of animals
A) i, ii & iii
B) ii, iii & iv
C) i, ii & iv
D) i, iii & iv
Answer:
D) i, iii & iv

Question 29.
In composite fish culture, Catlas are used because they …………
A) are bottom feeders
B) feed on the weeds
C) reside in the middle zone
D) are surface feeders
Answer:
D) are surface feeders

Question 30.
Poultry farming is undertaken to raise …………
A) Egg and feather production
B) Chicken meat and feather production
C) Chicken meat and egg production
D) Egg and milk production
Answer:
C) Chicken meat and egg production

Question 31.
Which one of the following options is an example of an exotic breed of cattle?
A) Aseel
B) Leghorn
C) Jersey
D) Sahiwal
Answer:
C) Jersey

Question 32.
Which of the following contain Micro – nutrients only ?
A) Iron, Manganese, Boron
B) Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium
C) Iron, Manganese, Nitrogen
D) Manganese, Boron, Potassium
Answer:
A) Iron, Manganese, Boron

Question 33.
Identify the fish

A) Silver Carp
B) Catla
C) Rohu
D) Mrigal
Answer:
B) Catla

Question 34.
Identify the figure

A) Macro brachium rosen bergii
B) Peneous monodon
C) Rohu
D) Common carp
Answer:
A) Macro brachium rosen bergii

Question 35.
Identify the animal.

A) Leg horn
B) Carp
C) Catla
D) Aseel
Answer:
D) Aseel

Question 36.
Identify the instrument.

A) Mixer
B) Fan
C) Honey extractor
D) A & B
Answer:
C) Honey extractor

Question 37.
Which one of the following nutrients is not available in fertilisers ?
A) Nitrogen
B) Phosphorus
C) Iron
D) Potassium

Question 38.
Preventive & controlling measures adopted for the storage of grains include ( )
A) strict cleaning
B) Proper disjoining
C) Fumigation
D) All of the above

9th Class Biology Bits

Class 9 Science Chapter 6 MCQ Tissues

MCQ on Tissues Class 9

Select and write the most appripriate option out of the four options for each of the question :

Question 1.
Which of the following cells has dead cells ?
A) Parenchyma
B) Sclerenchyma
C) Collenchyma
D) Epithelial tissue
Answer:
B) Sclerenchyma

Question 2.
Find out incorrect statement.
A) Parenchymatous tissues have intercellular spaces.
B) Collenchymatous tissues are irregularly thickened at corners.
C) Apical and interecalary meristems are permanent tissues.
D) Meristematic tissue, in its early stage, lack vacuoles.
Answer:
C) Apical and interecalary meristems are permanent tissues.

Question 3.
Girth of stem increases due to …………
A) Apical meristem
B) Lateral meristem
C) Intercalary meristem
D) Vertical meristem
Answer:
B) Lateral meristem

Question 4.
Which cell does not have perforated cell wall ?
A) Tracheids
B) Companion cells
C) Sieve tubes
D) Vessels
Answer:
B) Companion cells

Question 5.
Intestine absorbs the digested food materials, what type of epithelial cells are responsible for that?
A) Stratified squamous epithelium
B) Columnar epithelium
C) Spindle fibrous
D) Cuboidal epithelium
Answer:
B) Columnar epithelium

Question 6.
A person met with an accident in which two long bones of hand were dislocated. Which among the following may be the possible reason?
A) Tendon break
B) Break of skeletal muscle
C) Ligament break
D) Areolar tissue break
Answer:
C) Ligament break

Question 7.
While doing work and running, you move your organs like hands, legs, etc., which among the following is correct ?
A) Smooth muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones.
B) Smooth muscles contract and pull the tendons to move the bones.
C) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the ligament to move the bones.
D) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to move the bones.
Answer:
D) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to move the bones.

Question 8.
Which muscles acts involuntarily ?
i) Striated muscles
ii) Smooth muscles
iii) Cardiac muscles
iv) Skeletal muscles
A) i and ii
B) ii and iii
C) iii and iv
D) i and iv
Answer:
B) ii and iii

Question 9.
Meristematic tissues in plants are…………
A) Localised and permanent
B) Not limited to certain regions
C) Localised and dividing cells
D) Growing in volume
Answer:
C) Localised and dividing cells

Question 10.
Which is not a function of epidermis ?
A) Protection from adverse condition
B) Gaseous exchange
C) Conduction of water
D) Transpiration
Answer:
C) Conduction of water

Question 11.
Cartilage is not found in…………
A) Nose
B) Ear
C) Kidney
D) Larynx
Answer:
C) Kidney

Question 12.
Fats are stored in the human body as…………
A) Cuboidal epithelium
B) Adipose epithelium
C) Bones
D) Cartilage
Answer:
B) Adipose epithelium

Question 13.
Bone matrix is rich in…………
A) Flouride and calcium
B) Calcium and phosphorus
C) Calcium and potassium
D) Phosphorus and potassium
Answer:
B) Calcium and phosphorus

Question 14.
Contratile proteins are found in…………
A) Bones
B) Blood
C) Muscles
D) Cartilage
Answer:
C) Muscles

Question 15.
Voluntary muscles are found in…………
A) Alimentary canal
B) Limbs
C) Iris of the eye
D) Bronchi of lungs
Answer:
B) Limbs

Question 16.
Nervous tissue not found in…………
A) Brain
B) Spinal cord
C) Tendons
D) Nerves
Answer:
C) Tendons

Question 17.
Nerve cell does not contain…………
A) Axon
B) Nerve endings
C) Tendons
D) Dendrites
Answer:
C) Tendons

Question 18.
Which of the following helps in repair of tissue and fills up the space inside the organ?
A) Tendon
B) Adipose tissue
C) Areolar
D) Cartilage
Answer:
C) Areolar

Question 19.
The muscular tissue which function throughout the life continuously without fatigue is…………
A) Skeletal muscle
B) Cardiac muscle
C) Smooth muscle
D) Voluntary muscle
Answer:
B) Cardiac muscle

Question 20.
Which of the following cells are found in cartilaginous tissue of the body ? ( )
A) Mast cells
B) Basophills
C) Osteocytes
D) Chondrocytes
Answer:
D) Chondrocytes

Question 21.
The dead element present in the phloem is …………
A) Companion cells
B) Phloem fibres
C) Phloem parenchyma
D) Sieve tubes
Answer:
B) Phloem fibres

Question 22.
Which of the following does not lose their nucleus at maturity ?
A) Companion cells
B) Red blood cells
C) Vessel
D) Sieve tube cells
Answer:
A) Companion cells

Question 23.
In desert plants, rate of water los gets reduced die to the presence of ………… ( )
A) Cuticle
B) Stomata
C) Lignin
D) Seberin
Answer:
A) Cuticle

Question 24.
A long tree has several branches. The tissue that helps in the sideways conduction of water in the branches is …………
A) Collenchyma
B) Xylem parenchyma
C) Parenchyma
D) Xylem vessels
Answer:
B) Xylem parenchyma

Question 25.
If the tip of the sugarcane plant is removed from the field, even then it keeps on growing in length. It is due to the presence of …………
A) Cambium
B) Apical meristem
C) Lateral meristem
D) Intercalary meristem
Answer:
D) Intercalary meristem

Question 26.
Parenchyua cells are …………
A) Relatively unspecified and thin walled
B) Lignified
C) Thick walled and specialised
D) None of these
Answer:
A) Relatively unspecified and thin walled

Question 27.
Flexibility in plants due to …………
A) Collenchyma
B) Sclerenchyma
C) Parenchyma
D) Chlorenecyma
Answer:
A) Collenchyma

Question 28.
Xylem and phloem are examples of …………
A) Epidermal tissue
B) Simple tissue
C) Protective tissue
D) Complex tissue
Answer:
D) Complex tissue

Question 29.
Survival of plants in terrestrial environment has been made possible by the presence of
A) Inter calary
B) Conducting tissue
C) Apical meristem
D) Parenchymatous tissue
Answer:
B) Conducting tissue

Question 30.
Choose the wrong statement.
A) The natures of matrix differs according to the function of the tissue.
B) Fats are stored below the skin.
C) Epithelial tissue have intercellular spaces between them.
D) Cells of striated muscles are multinucleated and unbranched.
Answer:
C) Epithelial tissue have intercellular spaces between them.

Question 31.
The water conducting tissue generally present in gymnosperms is
A) Vessels
B) Sieve tubes
C) Tracheids
D) Xylem fibres
Answer:
C) Tracheids

Question 32.
The connective tissue that connects muscle to bone is called
A) Ligament
B) Tendon
C) Nervous tissue
D) All of the above
Answer:
B) Tendon

Question 33.
The tissue that helps in movement of our body is …………
A) Muscle tissue
B) Skeletal tissue
C) Nervous tissue
D) None
Answer:
A) Muscle tissue

Question 34.
Sieve tubes and companion cells are present in …………
A) Xylem
B) Phloem
C) Cork
D) Cambium
Answer:
B) Phloem

Question 35.
Cartilage and bone are types of …………
A) Muscular tissue
B) Connective tissue
C) Meristematic tissue
D) Epithelial tissue
Answer:
B) Connective tissue

Question 36.
A tissue whose cells are capable of diving and redividing is called …………
A) Complex tissue
B) Connective tissue
C) Permanent tissue
D) Meristematic tissue
Answer:
D) Meristematic tissue

Question 37.
The size of stem increases in the width due to …………
A) Apical meristem
B) Intercalary meristem
C) Primary meristem
D) Lateral meristem
Answer:
D) Lateral meristem

9th Class Biology Bits

Class 9 Science Chapter 5 MCQ The Fundamental Unit of Life

MCQ on The Fundamental Unit of Life Class 9

Select and write the most appripriate option out of the four options for each of the question :

Question 1.
Who discovered the cell ?
A) Robert Hooke
B) Robert Brown
C) Robert John
D) Robert Virchow
Answer:
A) Robert Hooke

Question 2.
Robert Hook observed the cell in …………
A) Paper
B) Honey Bee
C) Cork
D) Root
Answer:
C) Cork

Question 3.
Who discovered the free living cells in pond water for the first time
A) Leeuwenhoek
B) Robert Brown
C) Shlieden
D) Schwann
Answer:
A) Leeuwenhoek

Question 4.
Robert Brown discovered the Nucleus in the year
A) 1839
B) 1835
C) 1831
D) 1834
Answer:
C) 1831

Question 5.
Who coined three term protoplasm ?
A) Purkinje
B) Schleiden
C) Schwann
D) Robert Brown
Answer:
A) Purkinje

Question 6.
Who proposed the cell theory?
A) Purkinje
B) Schleiden
C) Schwann
D) B & C
Answer:
D) B & C

Question 7.
The cell theory was further extended by …………
A) Virchow
B) Purkinje
C) Schleiden
D) Schwann
Answer:
A) Virchow

Question 8.
All cells arise from ………… cells.
A) Pre-existing
B) Bacteria
C) Plant cell
D) Virus
Answer:
A) Pre-existing

Question 9.
What is the fundamental and functional unit of life ?
A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Cell
D) Vacuole
Answer:
D) Vacuole

Question 10.
The outermost covering of the cell which allows the entry and exit of matrials in and out of the cell
A) Cell wall
B) Plasma membrane
C) Nucleus
D) Nuclear membrane
Answer:
B) Plasma membrane

Question 11.
The spontaneous movement of a substance from a region of high concentration to a region where its concentration low is called ………….
A) Dialysis
B) Evaporation
C) Diffusion
D) Condensation
Answer:
C) Diffusion

Question 12.
The movement of water molecules through a selective permeable membrane is called ………..
A) Diffusion
B) Evaporation
C) Condensation
D) Osmosis
Answer:
C) Condensation

Question 13.
If the medium surrounding the cell has a higher water concentration than the cell, the cell will gain water by osmosis. The cell is likely ………… up.
A) Shrink
B) Swell
C) Evacuated
D) Evaporated
Answer:
B) Swell

Question 14.
If the medium surrounding the cell has a same water concentration as the cell, there is no overall movement of water. They cell stay the ………… size.
A) Big
B) Small
C) Circle
D) Same
Answer:
D) Same

Question 15.
If the medium surrounding the cell has a lower concentration of water than the cell, the cell will loses water. Then the cell will …………
A) Shrink
B) Stand
C) Swell
D) Split
Answer:
A) Shrink

Question 16.
We found endocytosis in …………
A) Plant
B) Amoeba
C) Shake
D) None
Answer:
B) Amoeba

Question 17.
Functional segments of DNA …………
A) Nucleus
B) Genes
C) Leaves
D) Roots
Answer:
B) Genes

Question 18.
Which part controls all the activities of the cell ?
A) Nucleus
B) Endoplasmic Reticulum
C) Golgi Apparatus
D) Ribosomes
Answer:
A) Nucleus

Question 19.
The fluid portion of the cell is …………
A) Golgi Apparatus
B) Cytoplasm
C) Nuclear membrane
D) Liquid
Answer:
B) Cytoplasm

Question 20.
Is to serve as channel for the transportation of materials? (especially proteins)
A) Nucleus
B) Endoplasmic Reticulum
C) Ribosomes
D) Mitochondria
Answer:
B) Endoplasmic Reticulum

Question 21.
Golgi Apparatus was first described by …………
A) Camillo Golgi
B) Virchow
C) Schleiden
D) Schwann
Answer:
A) Camillo Golgi

Question 22.
Among these, the suicide of bag of cell is …………
A) Ribosome
B) Golgi complex
C) Lysosomes
D) Robert Brown
Answer:
C) Lysosomes

Question 23.
Mitochondria known as the ………… of the cell.
A) House
B) Power house
C) Energy
D) Degenerator
Answer:
B) Power house

Question 24.
Plastids are present in ………… cells only.
A) Plant
B) Animal
C) Both A & B
D) None
Answer:
A) Plant

Question 25.
The coloured plastids are called …………
A) Chromoplasts
B) Chloroplasts
C) Leucoplasts
D) Both A & C
Answer:
A) Chromoplasts

Question 26.
The colourless plastids are …………
A) Chromoplasts
B) Chloroplasts
C) Leucoplasts
D) Both A & C
Answer:
C) Leucoplasts

Question 27.
Chloroplasts contain ………… coloured pigments which helps in photosynthesis
A) Chlorophyll
B) Leucophyll
C) Leucoplasts
D) Both A & C
Answer:
A) Chlorophyll

Question 28.
The size of vacuole in plant cell is …………
A) Big
B) Small
C) Less
D) normal
Answer:
A) Big

Question 29.
The process by which new cells are made is called …………
A) Cell Division
B) Elongation
C) Germination
D) Plantation
Answer:
A) Cell Division

Question 30.
In mitosis, the mother cell divides to form ………… identical daughters …………
A) 1
B) 3
C) 2
D) 4
Answer:
C) 2

Question 31.
In Meiosis the number of daughter cells …………
A) 1
B) 3
C) 2
D) 4
Answer:
D) 4

Question 32.
In mitosis the number of chromosomes in daughter cell are … as mother cell. ( )
A) Different
B) Same
C) A & B
D) None
Answer:
B) Same

Question 33.
In Meiosis the number of chromosomes are ………… to the number of mother cells ( )
A) Full
B) Higher
C) Half
D) Less
Answer:
C) Half

Question 34.
Which of these options are not functions of ribosomes ?
i) It helps in manufacture of protein molecules
ii) It helps in manufacture of enzymes.
iii) It helps if manufacture of hormones
iv) It helps in manufacture of starch molecules.
A) i & ii
B) ii and iii
C) iii & iv
D) i only
Answer:
D) i only

Question 35.
Plasmolysis in a plant cell is defined as ……….
A) Break down plasma membrane in hypotonic medium
B) Shrinkage of cytoplasm in hypertonic medium.
C) Shrinkage of nucleo plasm
D) None of these
Answer:
B) Shrinkage of cytoplasm in hypertonic medium.

Question 36.
Which of the following are covered by a single membrane ?
i) Mitochondria
ii) Vacuole
iii) Lysosome
iv) Plastid
A) i & ii
B) ii & iii
C) iv only
D) i & iii
Answer:
B) ii & iii

Question 37.
Find out the false one.
A) Golgi Apparatus first described by Cabrillo Golgi
B) Nucleus, Mitochondria, Plastids have DNA, hence they synthesise their own proteins.
C) Plasma membrane do not permits the different materials in out of the cell.
D) Robert Brown discovered the Nucleus.
Answer:
C) Plasma membrane do not permits the different materials in out of the cell.

Question 38.
The undefined nuclear region of prokaryotes also known as ………….
A) Nucleus
B) Nucleolus
C) Nucleic Acid
D) Nucleoid
Answer:
C) Nucleic Acid

Question 39.
Identify the type of cell division.

A) Mitosis
B) Meiosis
C) Lipids
D) Proteins
Answer:
A) Mitosis

Question 40.
Identify the cell …

A) Prokaryotic cell
B) Eukaryotic cell
C) Virus
D) Nucleoid
Answer:
B) Eukaryotic cell

Question 41.
Identify the cell organelle.

A) Golgi complex
B) Cytoplasm
C) Endoplasmic Reticulum
D) Mitochondria
Answer:
A) Golgi complex

Question 42.
The nucleus is at the side of the cell wall. Why?

A) Endoplasmic Reticulum occupied the space
B) Vacuole Reticulum occupied the space
C) Golgi Apparatus occupied the space
D) Mitochondira Reticulum occupied the space
Answer:
B) Vacuole Reticulum occupied the space

9th Class Biology Bits

Class 9 Science Chapter 11 MCQ Sound

MCQ on Sound Class 9

Select and write the most appripriate option out of the four options for each of the question :

Question 1.
What is vibration?
A) A type of sound
B) A type of light
C) A kind of rapid to and fro motion of an object
D) A type of smell
Answer:
C) A kind of rapid to and fro motion of an object

Question 2.
What produces sound in the human voice?
A) Vibrations in the vocal cords
B) Vibrations in the ears
C) Vibrations in the nose
D) Vibrations in the throat
Answer:
A) Vibrations in the vocal cords

Question 3.
How is the buzzing sound produced by a bee ?
A) By flapping its wings
B) By clapping its legs
C) By scratching its wings with legs
D) By shaking its mouth
Answer:
A) By flapping its wings

Question 4.
What is a medium in the context of sound propagation?
A) A device that amplifies sound
B) The air surrounding a vibrating object
C) The movement of sound particles
D) The source of sound vibrations
Answer:
B) The air surrounding a vibrating object

Question 5.
What are sound waves characterized by ?
A) Light waves
B) Mechanical waves
C) Radio waves
D) Electric waves
Answer:
B) Mechanical waves

Question 6.
How do sound waves propagate through a medium?
A) By moving particles of the medium
B) By creating regions of high and low pressure in the medium
C) By emitting light waves
D) By creating electromagnetic waves
Answer:
B) By creating regions of high and low pressure in the medium

Question 7.
What is compression in the context of sound propagation?
A) A device that reduces the volume of sound.
B) A region of low pressure in a medium.
C) A region of high pressure in a medium.
D) A region of no molecules.
Answer:
C) A region of high pressure in a medium.

Question 8.
What is rarefaction in the context of sound propagation ?
A) A devine that amplifies sound
B) A region of low pressure in a medium
C) A region of high pressure in a medium
D) A region of no molecules
Answer:
B) A region of low pressure in a medium

Question 9.
What are the three types of media through which sound can travel ?
A) Solid, liquid and gas
B) Gas, vacuum and liquid
C) Solid, gas, and vacuum
D) Liquid, vacuum and solid
Answer:
A) Solid, liquid and gas

Question 10.
What happens when an object vibrates in a medium?
A) The particles of the medium travel to the ear.
B) The particles of the medium around the object vibrate.
C) The object propagates in the medium.
D) The object produces light.
Answer:
B) The particles of the medium around the object vibrate.

Question 11.
What is a wave in the context of sound?
A) A disturbance that moves through a medium when particles of the medium set neighbouring particles into motion.
B) A disturbance that moves through the air when sound is produced.
C) A disturbance that moves through a solid object when it is struck.
D) A disturbance that moves through a vacuum when light is produced.
Answer:
A) A disturbance that moves through a medium when particles of the medium set neighbouring particles into motion.

Question 12.
What is compression in the context of sound?
A) A region of low pressure
B) A region of high pressure
C) A region of high temperature
D) A region of low temperature
Answer:
B) A region of high pressure

Question 13.
What is a rarefaction in the context of sound?
A) A region of low pressure
B) A region of high pressure
C) A region of high temperature
D) A region of low temperature
Answer:
A) A region of low pressure

Question 14.
Assertion : Sound can travel through solids, liquids and gases.
Reason : The matter or substance through which sound is transmitted is called a medium.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
D) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 15.
Assertion : Sound waves are mechanical waves.
Reason : Mechanical waves are waves that require a medium to propagate.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
D) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 16.
Assertion : Sound waves are visualized as waves of pressure variations in a medium.
Reason : The density of particles in a medium is related to the pressure and sound waves are characterized by the motion of particles in the medium.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
D) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 17.
What type of wave are sound waves?
A) Transverse waves
B) Electromagnetic waves
C) Longitudinal waves
D) Standing waves
Answer:
C) Longitudinal waves

Question 18.
In which direction do particles move in a longitudinal wave?
A) Parallel to the direction of wave propagation.
B) Perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
C) Both parallel and perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
D) None of the above.
Answer:
A) Parallel to the direction of wave propagation.

Question 19.
Which type of wave is seen on the surface of water when a pebble is dropped in a pond?
A) Longitudinal wave
B) Standing wave
C) Electromagnetic wave
D) Transverse wave
Answer:
D) Transverse wave

Question 20.
What type of wave is light ?
A) Longitudinal wave
B) Electromagnetic wave
C) Standing wave
D) Transverse wave
Answer:
B) Electromagnetic wave

Question 21.
How do particles move in a transverse wave?
A) Parallel to the direction of wave propagation.
B) Perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
C) Both parallel and perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.
D) None of the above.
Answer:
B) Perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation.

Question 22.
Assertion: Sound waves are longitudinal waves.
Reason : In a longitudinal wave, particles of the medium move in a direction parallel to the direction of propagation of the disturbance.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
D) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 23.
Assertion: Water waves are transverse waves.
Reason : When a pebble is dropped in a pond, the waves that propagate on the water surface are examples of longitudinal waves.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
D) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
D) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 24.
Assertion: The speed of sound in air depends on the frequency of the sound wave.
Reason : The speed of sound in air is constant and depends on the temperature, pressure and humidity of the air.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
D) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
D) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.

Question 25.
What three properties can be used to describe a sound wave?
A) Frequency, wavelength and volume.
B) Frequency, amplitude and speed.
C) Wavelength, volume and speed.
D) Amplitude, wavelength and density.
Answer:
B) Frequency, amplitude and speed.

Question 26.
What is a compression in a sound wave ?
A) A region where particles are spread apart.
B) The peak of a sound wave.
C) A region where particles are crowded together.
D) The trough of a sound wave.
Answer:
C) A region where particles are crowded together.

Question 27.
What is the wavelength of a sound wave ?
A) The distance between two consecutive compressions or rarefactions.
B) The distance between two consecutive crests or troughs.
C) The height of the peak or trough.
D) The distance between two different sound waves.
Answer:
A) The distance between two consecutive compressions or rarefactions.

Question 28.
What is the unit of frequency ?
A) Hertz
B) Metre
C) Pascal
D) Joule
Answer:
A) Hertz

Question 29.
How is frequency of a sound wave determined?
A) By measuring the wavelength.
B) By measuring the amplitude.
C) By counting the number of compressions or rarefactions that cross a point per unit time.
D) By measuring the speed of the wave.
Answer:
C) By counting the number of compressions or rarefactions that cross a point per unit time.

Question 30.
Which of the following is the correct symbol for time period?
A) P
B) F
C) T
D) V
Answer:
C) T

Question 31.
What is the S.I. unit of time period?
A) Hertz
B) Second
C) Joule
D) Watt
Answer:
B) Second

Question 32.
How are frequency and time period related?
A) υ = T²
B) υ= T^-1
C) υ = T
D) υ= 1/T
Answer:
D) υ= 1/T

Question 33.
Which characteristic of sound is responsible for pitch ?
A) Amplitude
B) Loudness
C) Frequency
D) Quality
Answer:
C) Frequency

Question 34.
What is the amplitude of a sound wave ?
A) The time taken for one complete oscillation.
B) The magnitude of the maximum disturbance in the medium.
C) The speed at which the sound wave travels.
D) The distance between two consecutive compressions.
Answer:
B) The magnitude of the maximum disturbance in the medium.

Question 35.
Which characteristic of sound determines its loudness or softness ?
A) Pitch
B) Frequency
C) Amplitude
D) Quality
Answer:
C) Amplitude

Question 36.
Why does a louder sound travel a larger distance than a softer sound ?
A) Because it has a higher frequency
B) Because it has a lower amplitude
C) Because it has a higher energy
D) Because it has a longer wavelength
Answer:
C) Because it has a higher energy

Question 37.
What is the characteristic of sound that enables us to distinguish one sound from another having the same pitch and loudness ?
A) Pitch
B) Loudness
C) Quality
D) Frequency
Answer:
C) Quality

Question 38.
What is a tone?
A) A sound of single frequency
B) A sound produced due to a mixture of several frequencies
C) A pleasant sound
D) An unpleasant sound
Answer:
A) A sound of single frequency

Question 39.
Assertion : Louder sounds can travel a larger distance than softer sounds. ( )
Reason : The energy of a sound wave is directly proportional to its amplitude and louder sounds have higher amplitudes.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
D) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion

Question 40.
What is the speed of sound in air at 0°C ?
A) 331 ms^-1
B) 344 ms^-1
C) 375 ms^-1
D) 400 ms^-1
Answer:
A) 331 ms^-1

Question 41.
How does the speed of sound change with increasing temperature?
A) It increases
B) It decreases
C) It remains the same
D) It cannot be determined
Answer:
A) It increases

Question 42.
Which state of matter has the highest speed of sound?
A) Solid
B) Liquid
C) Gas
D) Plasma
Answer:
A) Solid

Question 43.
What is the speed of sound in air at 22° C?
A) 331 ms^-1
B) 344 ms^-1
C) 375 ms^-1
D) 400 ms^-1
Answer:
B) 344 ms^-1

Question 44.
What is the reason behind the delay between seeing a lightning flash and hearing the thunder?
A) Light travels, faster than sound
B) Sound travels faster than light
C) Both travel at the same speed, but sound takes a longer path
D) Both travel at the same speed, but sound is reflected multiple times before reaching the observer
Answer:
A) Light travels, faster than sound

Question 45.
When sound waves hit a solid or liquid, what happens to the sound ?
A) It disappears
B) It is absorbed
C) It is reflected
D) It changes frequency
Answer:
C) It is reflected

Question 46.
What are the laws of reflection for sound waves ?
A) The angle of incidence equals the angle of reflection.
B) The angle of incidence and angle of reflection make a 90-degree angle.
C) The angle of incidence and angle of reflection make equal angles with the normal to the reflecting surface at the point of incidence and the three are in the same plane.
D) The angle of incidence and angle of reflection are random.
Answer:
C) The angle of incidence and angle of reflection make equal angles with the normal to the reflecting surface at the point of incidence and the three are in the same plane.

Question 47.
What is the minimum time interval required to hear a distinct echo ?
A) 0.01 s
B) 0.1 s
C) 1 s
D) 10 s
Answer:
B) 0.1 s

Question 48.
What is the minimum distance of the obstacle from the source of sound to hear a distinct echo?
A) 3.44 m
B) 17.2 m
C) 34.4 m
D) 68.8 m
Answer:
B) 17.2 m

Question 49.
What is the phenomenon called when sound persists in a big hall due to repeated reflections?
A) Reflection
B) Echo
C) Reverberation
D) Refraction
Answer:
C) Reverberation

Question 50.
How can excessive reverberation in an auditorium or big hall be reduced ? ( )
A) By increasing the temperature of the air
B) By increasing the sound intensity
C) By covering the roof and walls with sound-absorbent materials
D) By increasing the size of the hall
Answer:
C) By covering the roof and walls with sound-absorbent materials

Question 51.
Which of the following instruments is designed to send sound in a particular direction?
A) Guitar
B) Piano
C) Megaphone
D) Drum
Answer:
C) Megaphone

Question 52.
How does a stethoscope work?
A) It amplifies sounds from the body.
B) It reflects sound waves to the doctor’s ears.
C) It absorbs sound waves from the body.
D) It cancels out background noise.
Answer:
B) It reflects sound waves to the doctor’s ears.

Question 53.
Why are the ceilings of concert halls, conference halls and cinema halls curved?
A) To make the hall look more aesthetically pleasing.
B) To prevent sound waves from reflecting off the ceiling.
C) To ensure that sound waves reach all corners of the hall.
D) To reduce the amount of sound absorbed by the ceiling.
Answer:
C) To ensure that sound waves reach all corners of the hall.

Question 54.
What is the audible range of sound for human beings?
A) 20 Hz to 200 Hz
B) 20 Hz to 2000 Hz
C) 20 Hz to 20000 Hz
D) 20 Hz to 25000 Hz
Answer:
C) 20 Hz to 20000 Hz

Question 55.
Which animals can hear up to 25 kHz ?
A) Cats
B) Dogs
C) Birds
D) Elephants
Answer:
B) Dogs

Question 56.
What is the term used to describe sounds of frequencies below 20 Hz ?
A) Ultrasonic sound
B) Infrasonic sound
C) Audible sound
D) Frequency sound
Answer:
B) Infrasonic sound

Question 57.
Which animal produces sound in the infrasound range ?
A) Dolphins
B) Rhinoceroses
C) Bats
D) Porpoises
Answer:
B) Rhinoceroses

Question 58.
What is the frequency range of ultrasound ?
A) Below 20 Hz
B) 20 Hz to 2000 Hz
C) 20 Hz to 20000 Hz
D) Above 20000 Hz
Answer:
D) Above 20000 Hz

Question 59.
What are ultrasounds commonly used for in industries and for medical purposes ?
A) To heat objects
B) To clean objects
C) To create images of internal body parts
D) To measure temperature changes
Answer:
B) To clean objects

Question 60.
How do ultrasonic waves clean hard-to-reach objects ?
A) By creating a vacuum
B) By using chemicals
C) By detaching particles of dust, grease and dirt
D) By scraping off dirt
Answer:
C) By detaching particles of dust, grease and dirt

Question 61.
What can ultrasounds be used for in the construction industry ?
A) To detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks
B) To heat concrete
C) To test the strength of wood
D) To measure the temperature of steel beams
Answer:
A) To detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks

Question 62.
Assertion : In sound propagation, it is the energy of the sound that travels and not the particles of the medium.
Reason : The particles of the medium only oscillate back and forth about their mean position and do not travel with the sound wave.
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B) Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C) Assertion is true, but the reason is false.
D) Assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
A) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 63.
Which of the following sentence is true ?
i) In sound propagation, it is the energy of the sound that travels and not the particles of the medium.
i) Sound cannot travel in vacuum.
A) i only
B) ii only
C) both i and ii
D) none
Answer:
C) both i and ii

9th Class Physics Bit Bank

Class 9 Science Chapter 9 MCQ Work and Energy

MCQ on Work and Energy Class 9

Select and write the most appripriate option out of the four options for each of the question :

Question 1.
What are the two conditions that must be satisfied for work to be done?
A) A force should act on an object and the object should be at rest.
B) A force should act on an object and the object must he displaced.
C) The object must be at rest and the force should be applied continuously.
D) The force and displacement should be perpendicular to each other
Answer:
B) A force should act on an object and the object must he displaced.

Question 2.
What is the definition of work from a scientific perspective?
A) The amount of energy required to perform a task.
B) The amount of time required to complete a task.
C) The product of force and displacement.
D) The product of force and velocity.
Answer:
C) The product of force and displacement.

Question 3.
What is the unit of work?
A) Joule (J)
B) Newton (N)
C) Watt (W)
D) Meter (m)
Answer:
A) Joule (J)

Question 4.
What is the work done when the force on the object is zero?
A) Zero
B) Indeterminate
C) Negative
D) Positive
Answer:
A) Zero

Question 5.
What would be the work done when the displacement of the object is zero ?
A) Zero
B) Indeterminate
C) Negative
D) Positive
Answer:
A) Zero

Question 6.
Assertion : Work is done only when both force and displacement occur.
Reason : Work is defined as the product of force and displacement.
A) Both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
A) Both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 7.
Assertion: If the force on an object is zero, no work is done on the object.
Reason : Work done is equal to the product of force and displacement.
A) Both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
A) Both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 8.
Assertion : If the displacement of an object is zero, no work is done on the object.
Reason : Work done is equal to the product of force and displacement.
A) Both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.

Question 9.
Assertion : A bullock is pulling a cart. The cart moves. Work is done in this situation.
Reason : Work is defined as the product of force and distance and the bullock exerts a force on the cart causing it to move.
A) Both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
A) Both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 10.
Assertion: Work done is a scalar quantity.
Reason : Work done has only magnitude and no direction.
A) Both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
B) Both the assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
C) The assertion is true, but the reason is false.
D) The assertion is false, but the reason is true.
Answer:
A) Both the assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.

Question 11.
Force is applied in the direction of displacement of an object. In this situation, the work done by the force is :
A) Zero
B) Positive
C) Negative
D) Cannot be determined without knowing the magnitude of the force.
Answer:
B) Positive

Question 12.
A force is applied opposite to the direction of motion of an object with uniform velocity, causing it to come to a stop after a certain displacement. In this situation, the work done by the force is :
A) Zero
B) Positive
C) Negative
D) Cannot be determined without knowing the mass of the object.
Answer:
C) Negative

Question 13.
The work done by a force can be :
A) Positive only
B) Negative only
C) Zero only
D) Both positive and negative
Answer:
D) Both positive and negative

Question 14.
What is the meaning of energy in science ?
A) The ability of an object to do work
B) A vague concept used in daily life
C) The state of being in motion
D) The size or amount of an object
Answer:
A) The ability of an object to do work

Question 15.
What happens to an object that possesses energy when It exerts a force on another object?
A) It gains energy
B) It loses energy
C) Its energy remains constant
D) It becomes stationary
Answer:
B) It loses energy

Question 16.
What is the unit of energy?
A) Newton
B) Meter
C) Second
D) Joule
Answer:
D) Joule

Question 17.
What is the larger unit of energy used instead of joule ?
A) Centijoule (cJ)
B) Megajoule ( mJ )
C) Kilojoule (kJ)
D) Decijoule (dJ)
Answer:
C) Kilojoule (kJ)

Question 18.
How is the energy possessed by an object measured?
A) In terms of its size or amount
B) In terms of its colour or shape
C) In terms of its capacity to do work
D) In terms of its location or position
Answer:
C) In terms of its capacity to do work

Question 19.
What is kinetic energy?
A) Energy possessed by an object due to its position
B) Energy possessed by an object due to its motion
C) Energy possessed by an object due to its temperature
D) Energy possessed by an object due to its chemical composition
Answer:
B) Energy possessed by an object due to its motion

Question 20.
Which of the following is a form of energy ?
A) Kinetic energy
B) Potential energy
C) Electrical energy
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 21.
What is the relation between an object’s kinetic energy and its speed ?
A) The kinetic energy decreases with increasing speed
B) The kinetic energy increases with increasing speed
C) The kinetic energy is independent of the speed
D) The kinetic energy is inversely proportional to the speed
Answer:
B) The kinetic energy increases with increasing speed

Question 22.
What is the equation for the kinetic energy of an object?
A) E = mgh
B) E = mc²
C) E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²
D) E = Fd
Answer:
C) E = \(\frac{1}{2}\) mv²

Question 23.
Which of the following can do work ?
A) A stationary object
B) An object in motion
C) A sleeping animal
D) None of the above
Answer:
B) An object in motion

Question 24.
How does the kinetic energy of an object change with its speed increases ? ( )
A) It remains constant
B) It decreases
C) It increases
D) It becomes negative
Answer:
C) It increases

Question 25.
What is the minimum force required to raise an object of mass ‘ m ‘ through a height ‘h’ from the ground?
A) m/h
B) mgh
C) mg/h
D) \(\frac{1}{2}\) mgh
Answer:
B) mgh

Question 26.
What is the energy gained by an object raised through a height ‘ h ‘ from the ground?
A) mg
B) mgh
C) gh
D) m/h
Answer:
B) mgh

Question 27.
In the given figure, what is the work done on the block when it is raised from position A to B by taking the path AB ?

A) mgh
B) mg
C) gh
D) \(\frac{1}{2}\) mgh
Answer:
A) mgh

Question 28.
What is the law of conservation of energy ?
A) Energy can be created and destroyed.
B) Energy can only be transformed from one form to another.
C) Energy can be transformed and destroyed.
D) Energy can only be created and cannot be transformed.
Answer:
B) Energy can only be transformed from one form to another.

Question 29.
What is the total energy of a system during or after the process of energy transformation?
A) The total energy decreases after the transformation.
B) The total energy increases after, the transformation.
C) The total energy remains unchanged after the transformation.
D) The total energy is unpredictable after the transformation.
Answer:
C) The total energy remains unchanged after the transformation.

Question 30.
Why is the kinetic energy of an object zero at the start of free fall ?
A) Because the object is not moving.
B) Because the potential energy is zero.
C) Because the velocity of the object is zero.
D) Because the object has no energy.
Answer:
C) Because the velocity of the object is zero.

Question 31.
What is the total mechanical energy of an object?
A) The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of an object.
B) The kinetic energy of an object.
C) The potential energy of an object.
D) The sum of potential energy and heat energy of an object.
Answer:
A) The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy of an object.

Question 32.
What happens to the potential energy of an object as it falls freely?
A) It remains constant.
B) It decreases.
C) It increases.
D) It becomes negative.
Answer:
B) It decreases.

Question 33.
What is power?
A) The rate of transfer of energy
B) The amount of work done
C) The speed at which work is done
D) All of the above
Answer:
D) All of the above

Question 34.
What is the unit of power?
A) Joule
B) Watt
C) Kllowatt
D) Second
Answer:
B) Watt

Question 35.
Who is James Watt?
A) The inventor of the watt unit
B) A famous scientist
C) A historical figure
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) The inventor of the watt unit

Question 36.
How is power measured?
A) By the rate of transfer of energy
B) By the amount of work done
C) By the speed at which work is done
D) All of the above
Answer:
A) By the rate of transfer of energy

Question 37.
What is the formula for power?
A) Power = work/time
B) Power = time/work
C) Power = energy × time
D) Power = work/energy
Answer:
A) Power = work/time

Question 38.
What is the definition of a Watt ?
A) The rate of transfer of energy
B) The amount of work done
C) The speed at which work is done
D) The power of an agent, which does work at the rate of 1 joule per second
Answer:
D) The power of an agent, which does work at the rate of 1 joule per second

Question 39.
What is the relationship between watt and kilowatt ?
A) 1 watt =1000 kilowatts
B) 1 kilowatt =1000 watts
C) 1 watt =1 / 1000 kilowatt
D) 1 kilowatt =1/1000 watts
Answer:
B) 1 kilowatt =1000 watts

Question 40.
A force of 10 N acts on an object, which is displaced by 2 metres in the direction of the force. What is the work done on the object ?
A) 10 J
B) 20 J
C) 5 J
D) 2 J
Answer:
B) 20 J

Question 41.
Which of the following is NOT a form of energy?
A) Kinetic energy
B) Potential energy
C) Thermal energy
D) Force
Answer:
D) Force

Question 42.
A 500 kg roller coaster car is at the top of a hill, 50 metres above the ground. What is the potential energy of the roller coaster car ?
A) 25,000 J
B) 2,45,000 J
C) 2,450,000 J
D) 245,000,000 J
Answer:
B) 2,45,000 J

Question 43.
A 50 kg object is lifted 10 metres off the ground. How much work was done?
A) 50 J
B) 500 J
C) 5,000 J
D) 50,000 J
Answer:
C) 5,000 J

Question 44.
Which of the following is an example of kinetic energy ?
A) A stretched spring
B) A ball at the top of a hill
C) A moving car
D) A book on a shelf
Answer:
C) A moving car

Question 45.
A person pushes a box across a floor with a force of 20N. If the box moves 5 metres, how much work was done?
A) 100 J
B) 20 J
C) 4 J
D) 25 J
Answer:
A) 100 J

Question 46.
Which of the following is an example of potential energy ?
A) A falling apple
B) A bouncing ball
C) A stretched rubber band
D) A moving bicycle
Answer:
C) A stretched rubber band

Question 47.
A machine raises a 500 N load through a height of 10 metres in 10 seconds. What is the power of the machine?
A) 500 W
B) 50 W
C) 5,000 W
D) 50,000 W
Answer:
B) 50 W

Question 48.
Which of the following statements about work and energy is TRUE ?
A) Work is a form of energy
B) Energy is a form of work
C) Work and energy are the same thing
D) Work and energy are different but related concepts
Answer:
D) Work and energy are different but related concepts

Question 49.
A 2 kg object is moving with a velocity of 10 m/s. What is its kinetic energy ? ( )
A) 50 J
B) 100 J
C) 200 J
D) 400 J
Answer:
C) 200 J

Question 50.
Which type of energy stored in the given object in the below figure?

A) Kinetic energy
B) Potential energy
C) Thermal energy
D) Force
Answer:
B) Potential energy

Question 51.
Which type of energy stored in the given object in the below figure?

A) Kinetic energy
B) Potential energy
C) Thermal energy
D) Force
Answer:
B) Potential energy

Question 52.
When the speed of a ball is doubled its kinetic energy
A) remains same
B) gets doubled
C) becomes half
D) becomes 4 times
Answer:
D) becomes 4 times

Question 53.
Two bodies of unequal masses are dropped from the top of a building. Which of the following is equal for both bodies at any instant ?
A) Speed
B) Force of gravity
C) Potential energy
D) Kinetic energy
Answer:
B) Force of gravity

Question 54.
A man with a box on his head is climbing up a ladder. The work done by the man on the box is ……………
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Zero
D) Undefined
Answer:
A) Positive

Question 55.
A porter with a suitcase on his head is climbing up steps with uniform speed. The work done by the “weight of the suitcase” on the suitcase is …..
A) Positive
B) Negative
C) Zero
D) Undefined
Answer:
B) Negative

Question 56.
Work is said to be done in the following case
A) Rangalah is pushing a huge rock but he fail to move it
B) Seetha is pulling a toy car
C) Priyanka is working hard for her examinations
D) A porter is waiting on the platform of a railway station with luggage on his head.
Answer:
B) Seetha is pulling a toy car

Question 57.
‘Work’ has
A) Only direction, no magnitude
B) Only magnitude, no direction
C) Both magnitude and direction
D) No magnitude, no direction
Answer:
B) Only magnitude, no direction

Question 58.
Power is defined as
P) rate of doing work
Q) rate of transfer of energy
R) sum of kinetic and potential energy
A) P only
B) Q and R
C) P and Q
D) P, Q and R
Answer:
C) P and Q

Question 59.
Chaitanya performs 300 J of work in 5 minutes. The power delivered by her is
A) 60 W
B) \(\frac{1}{60} W\)
C) 1 W
D) 0 W
Answer:
C) 1 W

9th Class Physics Bit Bank

Class 9 Science Chapter 9 MCQ Gravitation

MCQ on Gravitation Class 9

Select and write the most appripriate option out of the four options for each of the question :

Question 1.
According to Newton’s conclusions, what is the force that exists between the Sun and the planets? ( )
A) Centripetal force
B) Gravitational force
C) Electromagnetic force
D) Nuclear force
Answer:
B) Gravitational force

Question 2.
What provides the centripetal force for the motion of the moon around the earth ?
A) The gravitational force of the Sun
B) The gravitational force of the moon
C) The force of attraction of the earth
D) The force of attraction of the Sun
Answer:
C) The force of attraction of the earth

Question 3.
What is the force of attraction between two objects according to the universal law of gravitation?
A) Directly proportional to the square of the distance between them.
B) Inversely proportional to the product of their masses.
C) Inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.
D) Directly proportional to the product of their masses.
Answer:
D) Directly proportional to the product of their masses.

Question 4.
What is the constant of proportionality in the universal law of gravitation equation?
A) The gravitational force constant
B) The mass constant
C) The distance constant
D) The universal gravitation constant
Answer:
B) The mass constant

Question 5.
According to Newton’s conclusion, what is the force of attraction between objects called?
A) Centripetal force
B) Gravitational force
C) Kinetic force
D) Electromagnetic force
Answer:
B) Gravitational force

Question 6.
What provides the centripetal force for the motion of the moon around the Earth ?
A) The Sun
B) The stars
C) The force of attraction of the Earth
D) The force of attraction of the Moon
Answer:
C) The force of attraction of the Earth

Question 7.
What is the constant of proportionality called in the universal law of gravitation ?
A) Centripetal force
B) Kinetic force
C) Electromagnetic force
D) Universal gravitation constant
Answer:
D) Universal gravitation constant

Question 8.
Who found the value of the universal gravitation constant ? (      )
A) Isaac Newton
B) Albert Einstein
C) Henry Cavendish
D) Galileo Galilei
Answer:
C) Henry Cavendish

Question 9.
What is the S.I. unit of the universal gravitation constant ? (      )
A) Nm
B) N kg
C) N m/s
D) N m²/kg²
Answer:
D) N m²/kg²

Question 10.
What is the relationship between the force of attraction and the distance between two objects?
A) The force of attraction is directly proportional to the distance between two objects.
B) The force of attraction is inversely proportional to the distance between two objects.
C) The force of attraction is not affected by the distance between two objects.
D) The force of attraction is proportional to the product of the masses of two objects.
Answer:
B) The force of attraction is inversely proportional to the distance between two objects.

Question 11.
What is the product of the masses of two objects called in the universal law of gravitation ?
A) The force of attraction
B) The distance between the objects
C) The centripetal force
D) The gravitational force
Answer:
D) The gravitational force

Question 12.
What is the force that causes objects to fall towards the earth ?    (      )
A) Frictional force
B) Gravitational force
C) Magnetic force
D) Electrostatic force
Answer:
B) Gravitational force

Question 13.
What do we call the motion of objects falling towards the earth ?  (     )
A) Forced motion
B) Free motion
C) Free fall
D) Falling motion
Answer:
C) Free fall

Question 14.
What is the acceleration involved in falling objects due to the gravitational force called ?
A) Acceleration due to motion
B) Acceleration due to velocity
C) Acceleration due to gravity
D) Acceleration due to force
Answer:
C) Acceleration due to gravity

Question 15.
What is the unit of acceleration due to gravity?
A) Joule
B) Newton
C) Metre
D) Metre per second squared
Answer:
D) Metre per second squared

Question 16.
What is the formula for calculating the magnitude of gravitational force on an object of mass m?
A) F=m/a
B) F=m a
C) F =mg
D) F=m v
Answer:
C) F =mg

Question 17.
What is the value of the acceleration due to gravity on or near the surface of the earth ?
A) 9.8 m/s²
B) 10 m/s²
C) 8.5 m/s²
D) 7.3 m/s²
Answer:
A) 9.8 m/s²

Question 18.
What is the formula for calculating the acceleration due to gravity for objects far from the earth?
A) \(\mathrm{G} \frac{\mathrm{Mm}}{\mathrm{R}}\)
B) \(G \frac{m}{d^2}\)
C) \(G \frac{R}{m}\)
D) \(G \frac{m}{R^2}\)
Answer:
B) \(G \frac{m}{d^2}\)

Question 19.
What is the mass taken in the formula for calculating the magnitude of gravitational force on an object of mass m ?
A) Mass of the object
B) Mass of the earth
C) Mass of the sun
D) Mass of the moon
Answer:
B) Mass of the earth

Question 20.
What is the universal gravitational constant, G ?
A) 6.7 × 10^-11 Nm²/kg²
B) 6 × 10²⁴ kg
C) 6.4 × 10⁶ m
D) 9.8 m/s²
Answer:
A) 6.7 × 10^-11 Nm²/kg²

Question 21.
What is the mass of the Earth?
A) 6.7 × 10^-11 Nm²/kg²
B) 6 × 10²⁴ kg
C) 6.4×10⁶ m
D) 9.8 m/s²
Answer:
B) 6 × 10²⁴ kg

Question 22.
What is the radius of the Earth ?
A) 6.7 × 10^-11 Nm²/kg²
B) 6 × 10²⁴ kg
C) 6.4 × 10⁶m
D) 9.8 m/s²
Answer:
C) 6.4 × 10⁶m

Question 23.
What is the formula for calculating acceleration due to gravity of the Earth ? ( )
A) G = 6.7 × 10^-11 Nm² /kg²
B) M = 6 × 10²⁴ kg
C) R = 6.4 × 10⁶m
D) g = \(\mathrm{G} \times \frac{\mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{R}^2}\)
Answer:
D) g = \(\mathrm{G} \times \frac{\mathrm{M}}{\mathrm{R}^2}\)

Question 24.
What is the definition of mass ?
A) The amount of matter in an object
B) The force exerted on an object by gravity
C) The product of an object’s density and volume
D) The amount of space an object occupies
Answer:
A) The amount of matter in an object

Question 25.
How is mass measured?
A) In kilograms
B) In newtons
C) In metres per second
D) In joules
Answer:
A) In kilograms

Question 26.
Which of the following is a measure of an object’s inertia?
A) Weight
B) Moss
C) Volume
D) Density
Answer:
B) Moss

Question 27.
What is the relationship between mass and inertia?
A) Inertia decreases as mass increases
B) Inertia increases as mass increases
C) Mass and inertia are not related
D) Inertia is not affected by mass
Answer:
B) Inertia increases as mass increases

Question 28.
What is weight ?
A) The measure of an object’s inertia
B) The measure of an object’s mass
C) The force with which an object is attracted towards the Earth
D) The force with which an object resists a change in motion
Answer:
C) The force with which an object is attracted towards the Earth

Question 29.
What is the S.I. unit of weight ?
A) Newton
B) Kilogram
C) Metre
D) Second
Answer:
A) Newton

Question 30.
What is the relationship between weight and mass at a given place ?
A) Weight is directly proportional to mass
B) Weight is inversely proportional to mass
C) Weight and mass are not related
D) Weight and mass are the same thing
Answer:
A) Weight is directly proportional to mass

Question 31.
What is the force acting perpendicular to the surface of the sand called ?
A) Weight
B) Thrust
C) Pressure
D) Force
Answer:
B) Thrust

Question 32.
When you stand on loose sand, the force of your body is acting on an area equal to
A) The area of your feet
B) The area of your whole body
C) The area of your head
D) The area of your hands
Answer:
A) The area of your feet

Question 33.
What is the effect of thrust on sand while standing compared to lying down ?( )
A) The effect is larger while standing
B) The effect is larger while lying down
C) The effect is the same
D) There is no effect of thrust on sand
Answer:
A) The effect is larger while standing

Question 34.
What is the S.I. unit of pressure?
A) kg/m²
B) N/m²
C) J/m²
D) W/m²
Answer:
B) N/m²

Question 35.
Who is the scientist after whom the S.I. unit of pressure is named ?
A) Albert Einstein
B) Isaac Newton
C) Blaise Pascal
D) Galileo Galilei
Answer:
C) Blaise Pascal

Question 36.
Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between force, area and pressure?
A) The larger the area, the larger the pressure
B) The smaller the area, the larger the pressure
C) The larger the force, the larger the pressure
D) The smaller the force, the larger the pressure
Answer:
B) The smaller the area, the larger the pressure

Question 37.
Why do nails have pointed tips ?
A) To make them look more attractive
B) To make them easier to grip
C) To increase the surface area
D) To increase the pressure at the tip
Answer:
D) To increase the pressure at the tip

Question 38.
Why do knives have sharp edges ?
A) To make them easier to hold
B) To increase their weight
C) To increase their surface area
D) To increase the pressure at the edge
Answer:
D) To increase the pressure at the edge

Question 39.
Why do buildings have wide foundations ?
A) To make them look more impressive.
B) To increase the height of the building.
C) To increase the weight of the building.
D) To distribute the weight of the building over a larger area.
Answer:
D) To distribute the weight of the building over a larger area.

Question 40.
Why does cork float while a nail sinks in water?
A) Cork has a lower density than water, while a nail has a higher density than water.
B) Cork has a higher density than water, while a nail has a lower density than water.
C) Cork and a nail have the same density as water, but cork is less dense than a nail.
D) Cork and a nail have the same density as water, but a nail is more dense than cork.
Answer:
A) Cork has a lower density than water, while a nail has a higher density than water.

Question 41.
What is upthrust ?
A) The weight of an object.
B) The force that acts on an object in a fluid.
C) The mass of an object.
D) The volume of an object.
Answer:
B) The force that acts on an object in a fluid.

Question 42.
Which of the following objects will float in water?
A) An object with a density greater than water.
B) An object with a density less than water.
C) An object with the same density as water.
D) It depends on the shape of the object.
Answer:
B) An object with a density less than water.

Question 43.
What is Archimedes Principle?
A) A principle of buoyancy
B) A principle of gravity
C) A principle of magnetism
D) A principle of electricity
Answer:
A) A principle of buoyancy

Question 44.
What is the buoyant force?
A) The force of gravity on an object
B) The force of the object pushing down on the fluid
C) The force of the fluid pushing up on the object
D) The force of the object pushing up on the fluid
Answer:
C) The force of the fluid pushing up on the object

Question 45.
Why do ships float on water ?
A) Because they are less dense than water
B) Because they are more dense than water
C) Because they are the same density as water
D) Because of the shape of their hulls
Answer:
A) Because they are less dense than water

Question 46.
What is the unit of measurement for density ?
A) Newtons
B) Kilograms per metre squared
C) Pascals
D) Kilograms per cubic metre
Answer:
D) Kilograms per cubic metre

Question 47.
Which of the following statements is false about free fall objects ?
A) Free fall objects accelerate at a constant rate of 9.8 m/s²
B) Free fall objects experience air resistance, which affects their acceleration.
C) Free fall objects have an initial velocity of zero.
D) Free fall objects move in a straight line.
Answer:
B) Free fall objects experience air resistance, which affects their acceleration.

Question 48.
A ball is dropped from a height of 20 metres. How long will it take to hit the ground?
A) 2.04 seconds
B) 4.08 seconds
C) 5 seconds
D) 10 seconds
Answer:
A) 2.04 seconds

Question 49.
An object is thrown upward with a velocity of 20 m/s. How long will it take to reach the maximum height ?
A) 4 seconds
B) 5 seconds
C) 8 seconds
D) It cannot be determined without knowing the height.
Answer:
D) It cannot be determined without knowing the height.

Question 50.
A feather and a hammer are dropped from the same height in a vacuum. Which one will hit the ground first ?
A) The feather
B) The hammer
C) They will hit the ground at the same time.
D) it depends on their masses.
Answer:
C) They will hit the ground at the same time.

Question 51.
A ball is thrown vertically upward with a velocity of 30 m/s. What is the maximum height it will reach?
A) 91.8 metres
B) 183.6 metres
C) 306 metres
D) It cannot be determined without knowing the time.
Answer:
A) 91.8 metres

Question 52.
If an object has a mass of 50 kilograms on Earth, what is its weight on the Moon, where the gravitational acceleration is approximately one-sixth that of Earth ?
A) 50 kilograms
B) 300 kilograms
C) 83.3 kilograms
D) 8.3 kilograms
Answer:
C) 83.3 kilograms

Question 53.
Which of the following units is used to measure weight ?
A) Newtons
B) Kilograms
C) Metres per second
D) Joules
Answer:
A) Newtons

Question 54.
Which of the following statements is true about weight and mass in space ? ( )
A) Weight and mass are both zero in space
B) Mass is zero in space, but weight is not
C) Weight is zero in space, but mass is not
D) Weight and mass are both the same as on Earth in space
Answer:
C) Weight is zero in space, but mass is not

Question 55.
What is the weight of an object with a mass of 10 kg on Earth ? (acceleration due to gravity on Earth is approximately 9.8 m/s²
A) 98 N
B) 10 N
C) 0.98 N
D) 1 N
Answer:
A) 98 N

Question 56.
Which of the following is a correct formula for calculating weight ?
A) weight = mass × acceleration due to gravity
B) weight = force × acceleration due to gravity
C) weight = mass/acceleration due to gravity
D) weight = force/acceleration due to gravity
Answer:
B) weight = force × acceleration due to gravity

Question 57.
Assertion (A) : weight of an object is less on moon than earth
Reason ( R ) : earth is heavier than moon
A) Both A and R are correct; R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A
C) A is correct, R is not correct
D) A is not correct, R is correct
Answer:
B) Both A and R are correct, R is not the correct explanation of A

Question 58.
When a stone and a leaf were dropped from same height in your classroom, then the observation is
A) Both will reach the ground in same time
B) Because of air resistance stone will reach the ground first.
C) Leaf will reach the ground first
D) Both will not reach the ground
Answer:
B) Because of air resistance stone will reach the ground first.

9th Class Physics Bit Bank

Class 9 Science Chapter 8 MCQ Force and Laws of Motion

MCQ on Force and Laws of Motion Class 9

Select and write the most appripriate option out of the four options for each of the question :

Question 1.
What are Newton’s laws of motion?
A) Fundamental laws that govern the motion of objects
B) The laws of gravity
C) Laws that govern the behaviour of fluids
D) Laws that govern the behaviour of electromagnetic waves
Answer:
A) Fundamental laws that govern the motion of objects

Question 2.
Which law of motion is also known as the law of inertia ?
A) First law
B) Second law
C) Third law
D) Fourth law
Answer:
A) First law

Question 3.
What is inertia?
A) The tendency of undisturbed objects to stay at rest or to keep moving with the same velocity
B) The tendency of objects to move towards the center of the Earth
C) The tendency of objects to move away from the center of the Earth
D) The tendency of objects to move towards the Sun
Answer:
A) The tendency of undisturbed objects to stay at rest or to keep moving with the same velocity

Question 4.
What is the property of an object that resists a change in its state of motion ?( )
A) Weight
B) Inertia
C) Velocity
D) Acceleration
Answer:
B) Inertia

Question 5.
What property of an object is measured by its mass ?
A) Weight
B) Volume
C) Density
D) Inertia
Answer:
D) Inertia

Question 6.
Which of the following is correct ?
A) all bodies have the same inertia
B) the inertia of an object depends on its shape
C) the inertia of an object depends on its size and mass
D) the inertia of an object depends on its colour
Answer:
C) the inertia of an object depends on its size and mass

Question 7.
How does the mass of an object relate to its inertia?
A) The more massive an object is, the less inertia it has
B) The less massive an object is, the more inertia it has
C) The mass of an object is not related to its inertia
D) The more massive an object is, the more inertia it has
Answer:
D) The more massive an object is, the more inertia it has

Question 8.
If we kick a football and a stone with the same force, which object will move more easily?
A) The football
B) The stone
C) Both objects will move with the same case
D) None of the above
Answer:
A) The football

Question 9.
How can we measure the inertia of an object?
A) By its weight
B) By its colour
C) By its shape
D) By its mass
Answer:
D) By its mass

Question 10.
According to the first law of motion, what happens when an unbalanced external force acts on an object ?
A) The object’s colour changes
B) The object’s velocity changes
C) The object’s mass changes
D) The object’s energy changes
Answer:
B) The object’s velocity changes

Question 11.
What does the second law of motion state?
A) An object at rest will remain at rest unless acted upon by an unbalanced force.
B) The force of an object is equal to its mass times its acceleration.
C) The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to the applied unbalanced force in the direction of force.
D) For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.
Answer:
C) The rate of change of momentum of an object is proportional to the applied unbalanced force in the direction of force.

Question 12.
What is momentum?
A) The product of an object’s velocity and its mass.
B) The force required to change the velocity of an object.
C) The rate of change of an object’s velocity.
D) The energy an object possesses due to its motion.
Answer:
A) The product of an object’s velocity and its mass.

Question 13.
What is the S.I. unit of momentum?
A) Newton
B) Kilogram
C) Joule
D) Kilogram-metre per second
Answer:
D) Kilogram-metre per second

Question 14.
How does the force required to change the momentum of an object depend on time ?
A) The force required is directly proportional to the time rate at which the momentum is changed.
B) The force required is inversely proportional to the time rate at which the momentum is changed.
C) The force required is independent of the time rate at which the momentum is changed.
D) The force required is proportional to the object’s mass and velocity.
Answer:
A) The force required is directly proportional to the time rate at which the momentum is changed.

Question 15.
Which of the following best describes momentum?
A) The force required to move an object
B) The product of an object’s mass and its velocity
C) The potential energy of an object
D) The work done on an object
Answer:
B) The product of an object’s mass and its velocity

Question 16.
A 1 kg ball is moving at 10 m/s. What is its momentum ?
A) 10 kg m/s
B) 100 kg m /s
C) 1 kg m/s²
D) 10 N
Answer:
A) 10 kg m/s

Question 17.
A 2 kg ball is moving at 4 m/s. What is the ball’s momentum ?
A) 6 kg m/s
B) 8 kg m/s
C) 16 kg m/s
D) 32 kg m/s
Answer:
B) 8 kg m/s

Question 18.
Pavithra : Action reaction pair in Newton’s third law always represents forces acting on two bodies simultaneously.
Teja : Newton’s first and second laws of motion apply to a single body.
A) Both Pavithra and Teja are incorrect.
B) Pavithra is correct, Teja is incorrect.
C) Pavithra is incorrect, Teja is correct.
D) Both Pavithra and Teja are correct.
Answer:
D) Both Pavithra and Teja are correct.

Question 19.
When we drop an egg on the concrete floor it will break because
A) smaller force acts on the egg for shorter time.
B) smaller force acts on the egg for longer time.
C) large force acts on the egg for shorter time.
D) large force acts on the egg for longer time.
Answer:
C) large force acts on the egg for shorter time.

Question 20.
When 2.5 kg weight of hero’s hand hits the villain of 80 kg who is at rest, the villain moves with 12.5 ms^-1 and hits the transformer near by. What will be the speed of hero’s hand compared to the bullet fired from the gon? (Speed of bullet fired from the gun is 370 ms^-1)
A) Less than bullet speed
B) Very very less than bullet speed
C) 0
D) Greater than bullet speed
Answer:
D) Greater than bullet speed

Question 21.
Assertion (A) : Pace bowler Bumrah runs in from a long distance before he bowls.
Reason (R) : To acquire dynamic inertia.
A) Both (A), (R) are correct, (R) is correct explanation of (A).
B) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect.
C) (A) is incorrect, (R) is correct.
D) Both (A), (R) are correct, (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
Answer:
B) (A) is correct, (R) is incorrect.

Question 22.
Take a block of ice and place it on a smooth surface, push the block with some net force. Now increase the net force and push it again. The outcome of the experiment is
A) Smaller the net force larger the acceleration
B) Smaller the net force smaller the acceleration
C) Larger the net force larger the acceleration
D) Larger the net force smaller the acceleration
Answer:
C) Larger the net force larger the acceleration

Question 23.
Make a stack of carrom coins on the carrom board. Give a sharp hit at the bottom of the stack with the striker. The law which represent the above experiment is ( )
A) Newton’s second law of motion
B) Newton’s third law of motion
C) Newton’s fourth law of motion
D) Newton’s first law of motion
Answer:
D) Newton’s first law of motion

Question 24.
Which property of an object determines how much inertia it has ?
A) Acceleration of the object
B) Velocity of the object
C) Mass of the object
D) Shape of the object
Answer:
C) Mass of the object

Question 25.
Take two bricks of different masses and place them on a straight line on the floor. Push both with the same force at the same time with a wooden scale. Which of the following can be observed ?
A) The brick with greater mass moves the same distance as the brick with lesser mass.
B) The brick with greater mass moves more than the brick with lesser mass.
C) The brick with greater mass moves less than the movement of the brick with lesser mass.
D) The brick with greater mass will move and the brick with lesser mass will not move at all.
Answer:
C) The brick with greater mass moves less than the movement of the brick with lesser mass.

Question 26.
When an object exerts a force on the other object, the second object also exerts a force on the first one which is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction. Which of the following is BEST explained by the above?
A) Newton’s first law of motion
B) Newton’s second law of motion
C) Newton’s third law of motion
D) Law of conservation of momentum
Answer:
C) Newton’s third law of motion

Question 27.

This experiment is used to prove
A) Newton’s first law of motion
B) Newton’s second law of motion
C) Newton’s third law of motion
D) Newton’s Gravitational theory
Answer:
C) Newton’s third law of motion

9th Class Physics Bit Bank